oral hypoglycemic agents Flashcards

(64 cards)

1
Q

what is the MOA for a sulfonylurea?

A

act at pancreatic beta cells to simulate release of insulin

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2
Q

T/F sulfs can cause hypoglycemia

A

TRUE

they have the HIGHEST incidence

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3
Q

Which drug class has high failure rates?

A

sulfonylureas

20% primary failures
10-15% secondary failures

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4
Q

which drug class should you avoid in patients with sulfa allergy?

A

sulfonylureas.

some that are allergic to sulfa ABX are OK though.

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5
Q

which drug has a high risk of hypoglycemia in renal failure patients

A

sulfonylureas.

because there are active and inactive metabolites

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6
Q

which is the safest sulf to use in renal dysfunction?

which is the worst?

A

gylpizide is safest

glyburide & chlorpropamide is worst - one your CC is less than 50, your risk of fluid retention and hypoglycemia increases dramatically

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7
Q

T/F Sulfonylureas may cause fetal hypoglycemia

A

TRUE

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8
Q

T/F Although hypoglycemia with sulfs is less frequent than with insulin, it is often more prolonged and more dangerous

A

TRUE

It can require prolonged infusions of glucose-containing solutions

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9
Q

sulfonylureas should be avoided in patients with liver disease, except ______

A

acetohexamide

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10
Q

____ are contraindicated in patients with hypoglycemia unawareness

A

Sulfonylureas

remember bc they have the greatest risk of hypoglycemia!

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11
Q

what is the shortest acting and least potent sulf?

A

tolbutamide (orinase)

also has the fewest side effects

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12
Q

most of the hypoglycemic action of acetohexamide is due to

A

its principle metabolite

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13
Q

what is the longest acting sulf

A

chlopropamide (diabeinese)

may approach 72h.

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14
Q

what sulf is associated with disulfiram-like reactions

A

chlopropamide (diabeinese)

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15
Q

what sulf is associated with severe hyponatremia? why?

A

chlopropamide (diabeinese)

when you have large glucose molecules floating around in the blood, it changes the osmolarity and in response to that, your body will start pulling water out of cells and into the blood stream - an osmotic type movement of water - body tries to combat the increase in osmolarity , causing a dilatational hyponatremia.

If you can treat the hyperglycemia, the sodium will correct itself.

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16
Q

what drugs are alpha-glucosidase inhibitors?

A

acarbose (precose)
miglitol (glyset)

alphas = acar + mig

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17
Q

whats the MOA of alpha-glucosidase inhibitors? (acar/mig)

A

think: alphas—absorption (inhibit)

decrease intestinal hydrolysis of complex carbs

inhibits the enzyme that breaks down complex carbs. you can’t absorb them, just eliminate them. so less glucose in the blood stream,.

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18
Q

whats the MOA of meglitinides

A

increase insulin secretion from islet cells (like sulfonylureas)

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19
Q

T/F Meglitinides have a faster onset and shorter duration than sulfs

A

TRUE

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20
Q

which drugs are meglitinides

A

RepaGLINIDE (Prandin)
NateGLINIDE (starlix)

meglitINIDES = repGLINIDE and NateGLINIDE

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21
Q

T/F Meglitinides are active whether glucose is present or not

A

FALSE - only active in the presence of glucose.

this decreases the risk of prolonged hypoglycemic episodes

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22
Q

meglitinies cause you to ___ weight

A

gain

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23
Q

the #1 med for new onset type!! diabetes that requires medication =

A

metformin

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24
Q

what class is metformin

A

bigauanides

bc metformin is the big dog

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25
T/F Metformin has a high risk of hypoglycemia
FALSE - it decreases BG concentrations with only a very low risk of hypoglycemia - almost neutral when it comes to hypoglycemic events
26
what is the MOA of metformin? 3 points
- decreases hepatic glucose production (reduces gluconeogenesis) - reduces glucose absorption from the intestine - increases insulin sensitivity
27
why can someone who's on metformin get off of their sulfonylurea?
because metformin reduces glucose absorption from the SI so you don't need the sulf to increase beta islet insulin release
28
which drug produces satisfactory results in 50% of the sulf failures
metformin
29
whats the BB warning with metformin?
lactic acidosis n/v, inc RR, HR, abd pain, shock
30
how long before surgery should metformin be d/c'd?
48h
31
whats the best way to prevent lactic acidosis
hydration
32
hold metformin ___h prior to and after IV contrast because of
48, nephrotoxicity
33
whats the package insert for metformin say
that withholding food/fluids during surgery may increase the risk for volume depletion, hOt, renal impairment.. so temporarily d/c metformin while patients have restricted food and fluid intake.
34
metformin is contraindicated if GFR is
30
35
do not initiate or re-evaulate patents with GFR
45
36
metformin is contradicted in patents aged >__
80
37
metformin has high rates of ____ upset
GI
38
new recommendations for metformin are based on ___ NOT ___ and ____
GFR.. | not gender and cr
39
T/F metformin is contraindicated in CHF and hepatic impairment
TRUE
40
which drugs are thiazolidinediones
rosiglitaZONE and pioglitaZONE Thia is in the ZONE
41
which drug class is esp effective in the obese
TZD's
42
whats the MOA of TZD's
decrease hepatic glucose output and decrease insulin resistance so TZD's stop the liver and stop resistance
43
which drug class cause hepatotoxicity
TZD's think: they work in the liver decreasing hepatic glucose output
44
which drug class has a bizarre risk of bone fx
TZD's
45
TZDs cause weight ___
gain
46
T/F: higher rates of CV deaths and MI's in patients that take TZD's
TRUE - avandia (ros) aVan = cV death
47
TZD's have Three Terrible side effects like:
hepatotoxic, peripheral edema, CHF exacerbations
48
DPP-4 inhibitor drugs =
gliptins sitagliptin (Januvia) Saxagliptin (onglyza) linagliptin (tradjenta) alogliptin
49
DPP4 MOA
- increases pancreatic insulin secretion - limits glucagon secretion - slows gastric emptying - promotes satiety glucagon-like peptide.. when you eat, it is released.. tells you youre full and not to eat anymore and also kick starts a couple of processes to prep for glucose load.. pancreas/liver. so DPP4 is dipeptidyl peptidase and that reduces the breakdown of GLP1. so it lasts longer and continues to stimulate satiety so it is working at different places where your glucagon like peptide normally works, to inc the amt of it.. to then limit glucagon sectretion, increase insulin secretion, slow gastric emptying , making you feel full revise this card.....
50
which drugs basically cause a forced gastroparesis
DDP4 inhibitors - the gliptins
51
DPP4 inhibitors have 4 really bad side effects that were discovered post-marketing =
pancreatitis, angioedema, Stevens johnsons, anaphylaxis `
52
which drugs have infection risk
DDP4 inhibitors - the gliptins risk of URI + UTI's
53
which 2 drug classes fall under incretin mimetics
GLP-1 analogs & amylin analogs
54
how do GLP1 analogs work
prolong gastric emptying, reduce post-prandial glucagon secretion think: DPP4 inhibitors work like this too bc they reduce the breakdown of GLP1
55
which drugs are GLP1 analogs?
the TIDES exanatide (byetta, bydureon) liraglutide (victoza) albiglutide (tandem) dulaglutida (trulicity)
56
avoid which GLP1 analog in renal failure
exanatide (byetta) BYEpass Byetta in RF
57
avoid which GLP1 analog in thyroid carcinoma
liraglutide (victoza) vicotza is NOT a victory in thyroid cancer
58
how do amylin analogs work?
they increase insulin secretion, slow gastric emptying, increase beta cell growth, central appetite suppression
59
which drug is an amylin analog
pramlinide (symlin) slimy like the gila monster
60
whats the BB warning with Amylin
hypoglycemia (esp type1)
61
which drugs are SLGT2 inhibitors
the gliflozin's canagliflozin (invokana) dapagliflozin (farxiga) empagliflozin (jardiance) gliFLOZIN's get the glucose FLO goin
62
how do SLGT2 inhibitors work
increase urinary glucose excretion. make you pee it out. within the kidneys there is a sodium and glucose transporter and by inhibiting this, we are now holding on to less glucose, we are peeing more out. think STG = sodium glucose transporter
63
SLGT2 inhibitors are contraindicated with
crcl <30 ESRD HD
64
since SLGT2's increase urinary glucose excretion, what side effects are you thinking of
s/e r/t fluid shifts so hOtn UTI (d/t extra glucose in urinary tract) toe amputations (bc of the dehydration/fluid shifts/PVD)