Oral Questions Flashcards

Question

EMER ELEC PWR Panel After deploying the RAT by pressing the RAT MAN ON pushbutton on the HYD panel it becomes necessary to also extract electrical power. How can this be accomplished?

Answer 1

By pressing the MAN ON pushbutton on the EMER ELEC PWR

Answer 2

Blue Hydraulic System pressure and the emergency electrical generator

Answer 3

Smoke detectors (particle detectors) in the avionics ventilation ducting

Answer 4

1. ECAM warning 2. Amber FAULT lights in the EXTRACT and BLOWER pushbuttons on the VENTILATION panel

Answer 5

1. Gen 1 line contactor opens (white OFF light illuminates) 2. AC BUS 1 powered by GEN 2 through the Bus Tie Contactors 3. Gen 1 powers one fuel pump directly in each wing tank

Answer 6

- The alert may only be activated from the cockpit - If one of the cabin CMD pushbuttons is pressed, on the cockpit horn sounds for 3 seconds

Answer 7

1. Make a PA announcement 2. Press the EVAC COMMAND pushbutton

Answer 8

Fly-By-Wire system

Answer 9

Electrically controlled and Hydraulically Activated

Answer 10

Green "=" for pitch, bank, and overspeed limits Amber/black (ALPHA PROT) airspeed tape

Answer 11

Amber Xs (indicating lack of NORMAL LAW protections)

Answer 12

1. Amber "USE MANUAL PITCH TRIM" 2. Amber Xs (indicating lack of NORMAL LAW protections)

Answer 13

1. Red "MAN PITCH TRIM ONLY" 2. Amber Xs (indicating lack of NORMAL LAW protections)

Answer 14

Pitch ..... G load Bank ..... Roll rate

Answer 15

The other pilot has gained side stick authority

Answer 16

ELAC - Elevator Aileron Computer (2) SEC - Spoiler Elevator Computer (3) FAC - Flight Augmentation Computer (2)

Answer 17

Spoiler Control - one flight spoiler and one ground spoiler on each wing * controls **#2 Spoiler** in each wing (used for roll control, speed brakes and ground spoilers)

Answer 18

Reset to zero

Answer 19

1. High Speed 2. High Angle of Attack (AOA) Protection 3. Load Factor Limitation +2.5G / -1.0G (+2.0G / 0.0G with Flaps/Slats) 4. Pitch Attitude Protections (30° UP / 15° DOWN) 5. Bank Angle Protection (67°)

Answer 20

If VMO/MMO plus a predetermined factor is exceeded, the system induces a pitch-up to limit aircraft speed If no sidestick input, the aircraft will slightly overshoot VMO/MMO and **Positive spiral static stability** is introduced at **0º** (instead of 33º in normal law), so that with sidestick released, the aircraft always returns to bank angle of 0º. **Bank angle limit** is reduced from 67º to **40º**

Answer 21

It is not possible to override a protection while still in NORMAL LAW. In this case, the aircraft would need to be forced into ALTERNATE LAW (by turning 2 ADRs off, for example).

Answer 22

The **maximum angle of attack** allowed in NORMAL LAW indicated by the **top of the red stripe** on the airspeed scale.

Answer 23

When the angle of attack exceeds ALPHA PROT: - nose up pitch trim ceases and - angle of attack is now proportional to side stick deflection, not to exceed ALPHA MAX even with full aft side stick deflection

Answer 24

1. Load Factor 2. High-speed stability 3. Low speed stability

Answer 25

There is no flare mode if operating in ALTERNATE LAW. The aircraft proceeds directly from ALTERNATE LAW to DIRECT LAW when the gear is selected down, and flare mode will not be available.

Answer 26

If the controls degrade to ALTERNATE LAW for any reason other than recovery from abnormal attitude, DIRECT LAW automatically becomes active with: 1. gear extension and 2. autopilots not engaged. In this case, full use of autopilot is recommended until they must be disconnected.

Answer 27

1. When in DIRECT LAW 2. On the ground (Ground Mode)

Answer 28

- A good pilot will operate under the philosophy that anything can happen. - Preventative systems such as ALPHA PROT, ALPHA MAX, etc, could interpret bad data as valid data and subsequently fail to recognize the actual AOA or flight path of the airplane - Therefore, hard to pinpoint exact scenarios when Airbus can stall in NORMAL LAW, but we need to understand anything is possible and we should recognize stall indications and recover regardless of the active control law

Answer 29

By exceeding approximately double the NORMAL LAW limits. Purpose is to allow the aircraft to be recovered from an unusual attitude

Answer 30

VLS It is the lowest selectable speed for the autopilot and the autothrust. Even if the selected target speed is below VLS, the A/THR will maintain VLS as a minimum. VLS is indicated by the top of the amber strip on the PFD airspeed scale

Answer 31

1. As airspeed decays, the THS adjusts the pitch attitude to maintain altitude. 2. If the AOA increases to a threshold value, known as ALPA PROT, the pitch function of the side stick changes. Stick movement commands a specific AOA instead of G load change 3. Since nose up pitch trim ceases, the pilot must hold continuous back pressure in order to flow slower than the speed for ALPHA PROT 4. The aircraft would go the speed corresponding to ALPHA MAX 5. With the stick full aft, the elevators will adjust the pitch attitude to maina a maximum safe AOA (ALPHA MAX). This maximum AOA , induced by the pilot, is slightly lower than the stall AOA; therefore the aircraft theoretically cannot be stalled in NORMAL LAW 6. ALPHA FLOOR is a function of AUTOTHRUST. It will activate at any airspeed based on AOA and automatically apply TOGA thrust regardless of thrust lever position. - ALPHA FLOOR is available if: 1. the AUTOTHRUST is functional (it does not need to be active) 2. an engine is running (not both), and 3. the aircraft is in NORMAL LAW - AOA protection does not depend on ALPHA FLOOR to function - On NEO aircraft, ALPHA FLOOR is inhibited above M0.6

Answer 32

- Maneuver protection prevents a pilot from over stressing the aircraft by limiting flight control inputs - If G loads become greater than normal, they are displayed in amber on the lower ECAM above the digital clock (\> 1.4g or less than .7g for \> 2 sec - displays for 5 secs - AOM 1 p.727) - When the side stick is pushed forward, less than 1G is commanded. A given pitch input always results in the same pitch response regardless of airspeed. - When the stick is returned to neutral, the new pitch is held constant regardless of airspeed changes

Answer 33

- An over speed causes the flight control computers to provide a nose up input to reduce aircraft damage due to excess speed. This protection limits the max airspeed by increasing the pitch attitude even if full forward stick is held - The speed at which this protection activates is show on the airspeed indicator as a green "=" sign - An overspeed warning is generated as VMO is exceeded (specifically at VMO +4). This warning can only be silenced by the EMER CANCEL pushbutton - If the stick is released, the speed will return to VMO/MMO. The protection will allow a momentary increase in airspeed up to VMO+16/MMO+0.04 permit any necessary maneuvering but then the speed will again slow to the limit - Positive spiral static stability is introduced to 0 degrees bank angle (instead of 33 deg in normal law) so that with the side stick released the aircraft always returns to bank angle of 0 degrees. The bank angle limit is reduced from 67 deg to 40. - If high-speed protective is active, positive spiral stability occurs at all bank angles, and control pressure is required to hold any bank angle greater than zero. - It is possible to over speed the aircraft. The computers merely limit the max attainable speed.

Answer 34

- In "flight" mode of NORMAL LAW, roll control is a roll rate demand. - Side stick inputs command the 1. ailerons, 2. spoilers 2-5, and the 3. rudder to achieve the commanded roll rate with bank angle protection, turn coordination, and Dutch roll damping - The roll rate demanded by the pilot is proportional to side stick deflection. When the side stick is neutral the ailerons and spoilers are positioned to maintain the roll rate at 0° per second. This results in a constant bank angle. - When the side stick is displaced laterally, increasing roll rates are commanded. At full deflection, a roll rate of 15° per second is commanded in NORMAL LAW. The ailerons and spoilers are positioned as necessary to achieve the commanded roll rate. - The side stick position cannot be used as a reference to determine the actual positions of flight control surfaces - In normal turns (up to 33°) pitch trim is automatic and assists the pilot in maintaining altitude - If the bank is increased beyond 33° and the side stick is released, the aircraft would return to 33° of bank. This is known as positive spiral stability - Positive spiral stability is a characteristic programmed into the flight control computers, which returns the aircraft to a more stable condition (0° if high speed or AOA protection is active) - Beyond 33° of bank, positive spiral stability is active and automatic pitch trim is inhibited. To maintain a bank angle greater than 33°, continuous side stick pressure must be used. Also, continuous back pressure will be needed to maintain altitude since automatic pitch trim is inhibited

Answer 35

- In most cases, a single system component failure will not cause a flight control degradation (jammed stabilizer causes a degradation). Indications: - Amber X's and EW/D message - ECAM states PROT LOST, but maneuver protection is still available Available protections and flight control logic: - Autopilot availability in ALTERNATE LAW depends on the failures that caused the degradation. Generally speaking, if the failures do not affect a primary flight control surface, the autopilot should be available - Pitch is the same as NORMAL LAW - Roll is direct (not roll rate demand) - instead of commanding a specific roll rate, there is a direct relationship between side stick position and control surface position. As a result, roll sensitivity now changes with aircraft speed and amount of side stick deflection. Depending on the failure combination, the maximum roll rate may be as much as twice what it was in NORMAL LAW. - Bank angle protection is not available in ALTERNATE LAW. Roll commands are carried out directly without modification - Yaw loses coordination - Attitude, high speed, and AOA protections are lost. Replaced by high speed stability and low speed stability, respectively. - High speed stability activates just prior to the over speed warning. Nose down trim is inhibited - Low speed stability activates just prior to the stall warning. Nose up trim is inhibited. - The pilot can override the stabilities and over speed or stall the aircraft - Attitude protection is lost and the green "=" signs on the PFD are replaced with amber Xs. There are now no limits on how far a pilot can pitch or roll the aircraft. The aircraft can roll beyond the amber Xs. Positive spiral stability is also lost. - In ALTERNATE LAW, turn coordination is always lost regardless of FAC status. Yaw damping, rudder trim and rudder limiting is available if a FAC is operational.

Answer 36

- When in ALTERNATE LAW, there is no landing mode that would provide consistent control during landing for all possible failure combinations. Consequently, the flight controls transition to DIRECT LAW when the landing gear is extended and autopilot is off. - DIRECT LAW is very unlikely in flight. It usually results from lowering the gear while in ALTERNATE LAW. - Pitch control is direct. Load factor demand is lost. Pitch sensitivity or control is a factor of airspeed and the amount flight control deflection. Roll control is the same as ALTERNATE LAW (direct relationship with no protections). Indications: - An ECAM message is generated and says "PROT LOST". Unlike in ALTERNATE LAW, this is now true. There are no protections and stabilities available in DIRECT LAW. - Message "USE MAN PITCH TRIM" in amber is displayed on the FMA because automatic pitch trim is lost

Answer 37

1. control is provided for the rudder and THS (as long as hydr press avail) 2. complete loss of flight control computers or electrical power, provided that there is hydraulic pressure ———————————————————————————————- - MECHCANICAL BACKUP control is provided for the rudder and THS in the event of a complete loss of flight control computers or electrical power, provided that there is hydraulic pressure. - Although the airplane can be flown indefinitely in this condition, it is intended to be used only as long as it takes to restore the computers. - Note: the EW/D warning message and red "MAN PITCH TRIM ONLY" indication on the FMA. There isn't a specific mechanical backup ECAM message. \*\* The side sticks are inoperative. - Pitch is controlled with the trim wheel via the mechanical connection to the pitch system - Roll and yaw are controlled through the rudder pedals and the mechanical connection to the rudder. - In reality, the failure of only four flight control computers may result in mechanical backup: both ELACs and SEC 1 and 2 fail, all computerized pitch control is lost. In this case, because SEC 3 is still available, the side sticks can control roll using one spoiler on each wing, but pitch control is mechanical

Answer 38

Air Data and Inertial Reference System

Answer 39

1. Airspeed 2. Temperature 3. AOA 4. Mach 5. Barometric altitude 6. Over speed warnings

Answer 40

1. Aircraft position 2. Attitude 3. Acceleration 4. Angular rates 5. Flight Path Vector (FPV) 6. Track 7. Heading 8. Groundspeed

Answer 41

ATT/HDG to Capt 3

Answer 42

AIR DATA to Capt 3

Answer 43

1. Switch from OFF to NAV 2. ON BAT light illuminates and then extinguishes 3. White ALIGN light illuminates for the duration of alignment (only on 319; 502-534) - In 319 535-536, 320s and 321s, the E/WD memo section displays "IRS IN ALIGN" during alignment and replaces the ALIGN lights on the overhead panel.

Answer 44

1. An external horn sounds 2. The ON BAT light comes on 3. An ADIRU & AVNCS light illuminates in amber on the external power panel

Answer 45

IR has failed and cannot be recovered

Answer 46

Navigation function is lost. Attitude and Heading may be recovered in ATT mode.

Answer 47

- The pilot would lose from that one ADR: 1. barometric altitude 2. airspeed 3. Mach 4. AOA 5. temperature 6. over speed warnings - The ECAM would instruct the pilot to select the AIR DATA SWTG to CAPT 3 or F/O 3 as appropriate - At that point the affected pilot's side would return to normal

Answer 48

- There are two ADIRS control panels installed on the fleet. On the older panel with keypad and digital display, the pilot would lose the IR (Inertial Reference) part which supplies: 1. aircraft position 2. attitude 3. accelerations 4. angular rates 5. flight path vector 6. track 7. heading 8. groundspeed along with all the ADR information The ECAM instructs the pilot to select the ATT HDG SWTG to CAPT 3 or F/O 3 as appropriate. At that point the affected pilot's side returns to normal - The newer panel with no keypad and digital display allows the pilot to turn off only the IR, and in this case, only the IR information would be lost and the ADR information would still be available.

Answer 49

Full Alignment: 1. If the IR mode selectors are currently off 2. First flight of the day 3. If there is a change of flight crew 4. If GPS is not available and the Flight Crew expects long segments in poor NAVAID coverage Quick alignment: 1. For all other flights, if the deviation of the IRS position from the FMGC is greater than 5nm

Answer 50

1. PPOS not entered within 10 minutes of alignment or within 3 minutes of fast-alignment 2. Large difference in LAT/LONG between shutdown position and entered position 3. Aircraft movement during alignment Note: no align light on A320 - the E/WD memo section displays "IRS IN ALIGN" during alignment and replaces ALIGN lights on the overhead panel. This memo flashes in green for the same reasons as the ALIGN lights flash on the other aircraft

Answer 51

The NOSE and RWY TURN OFF lights extinguish when the landing gear is retracted

Answer 52

Separate bulbs

Answer 53

When the main landing gear is not compressed.

Answer 54

Automatic APU shutdown has occurred

Answer 55

APU is running above 99.5% or 2 seconds after N speed reaching 95%. In practical terms it is ready to accept and support ELEC and/or AIR load.

Answer 56

2 Avails = APU powering the aircraft

Answer 57

Pressing the APU MASTER SW pushbutton

Answer 58

Switching the batteries off before the APU flap is closed may cause smoke in the cabin during the next flight.

Answer 59

1. All lights OFF 2. Amber EMER EXIT LT OFF light illuminates

Answer 60

It allows the EMER EXT LT to charge their batteries

Answer 61

1. Captain's instrument panel 2. Right dome light (provided DOME switch set in DIM or BRT) 3. Standby compass

Answer 62

Automatic - FMGC (LDG ELEV must be in AUTO) Semi-automatic - by LDG ELEV selector button Manual - by selecting the MODE SEL to MAN and then using the MAN V/S CTL toggle switch

Answer 63

Closes all openings below the waterline Note: If you lose both cabin pressure systems 1 +2, you have to manually close the outflow valve

Answer 64

1. When ditching 2. When directed by the deicing checklist 1SP Answer: - closes 5 valves below the waterline 1SP Answer: (right to left on ovrhd panel) 1. EXTRACT valve 2. Inlet (BLOWER) valve 3. RAM AIR valve 4. PACK flow control valves 5. Main outflow valve AOM 1 p.120/22

Answer 65

Two, only one is used at a time and they swap roles after each landing

Answer 66

Switch MODE SEL to MAN for 10 seconds, then back to AUTO

Answer 67

Both automatic pressure controllers are faulty

Answer 68

Two pressure relief valves

Answer 69

The system will self-test for 30 seconds, and then the valves will close until the aircraft is airborne

Answer 70

1. Valve disagreement (comes on momentarily when valve in transit) 2. Low pressure

Answer 71

Valve disagreement (comes on momentarily when valve in transit)

Answer 72

Yes, so it can happen in the automatic mode

Answer 73

Outboard 3 slats

Answer 74

Wing - valves CLOSE Engine - valves OPEN

Answer 75

The more swept the wing, the less time for the moisture to attach

Answer 76

Select the PROBE/WINDOW HEAT on. This must be selected off prior to takeoff in order to regain normal system logic

Answer 77

ENG anti-ice after engine start. Icing conditions may be expected when the OAT (on ground and for takeoff), or the TAT (in flight), is 10°C or below, and there is visible moisture in any form (such as clouds, fog with low visibility, rain, snow, sleet, ice crystals), or when standing water, slush, ice, or snow is present on the taxiways or runway

Answer 78

WING anti ice can be used after the aircraft is in a clean wing and when conditions warrant use

Answer 79

Engine anti ice may be turned OFF in this scenario. Engine anti ice is required when icing conditions exist or are expected except during climb or cruise when the SAT is below -40C.

Answer 80

Engine anti-ice must be ON during the descent in icing conditions even if SAT is below -40C.

Answer 81

Turn on the WING anti-ice. WING anti-ice may either be used to prevent or remove ice accumulation from the wing leading edges. After takeoff, WING anti-ice can be used after the aircraft is in a clean wing configuration. Ice accumulation can be detected by observing the ice indicator located between the two cockpit windshields or by observing the windshield wiper blades.

Answer 82

Yes, but it should only be considered in severe icing because second segment climb performance could be affected if a go-around is performed.

Answer 83

Total air temperature - it is also called Indicated Air Temperature (IAT) or Ram Air Temperature (RAT)

Answer 84

Static Air Temperature - is also called Outside Air Temperature (OAT) or True Air Temperature

Answer 85

TAT indicates when to turn anti-ice ON. SAT indicated when it may be able to be turned OFF

Answer 86

HIGH flow rate, since the flow rate function is automatic

Answer 87

All trim air valves close and PACK 1 controls the cockpit temperature to the selected valve. PACK 2 controls the cabin to the averages selected by the FWD and AFT CABIN temperature selector knobs

Answer 88

Electrically controlled and pneumatically operated

Answer 89

PCS 1. Valve position disagrees with selected 2. Compressor outlet overheat 3. Pack outlet overheat

Answer 90

1. Bleed overpressure 2. Bleed overheat 3. Wing or engine leak on the related side 4. Bleed valve NOT closed during engine start 5. Bleed valve NOT closed with the APU BLEED ON 1 SP Answer: E - Excessive Pneumatic Temp or Pressure W - Wing or Engine Leak D - Disagreement between ENG and APU bleed valves (failure of auto logic)

Answer 91

``` SHUT = the valve is closed AUTO = open if the APU bleed valve is open; closed if APU bleed valve is closed or there is a wing, pylon or APU leak (except during engine start) OPEN = the valve is OPEN ```

Answer 92

APU bleed leak

Answer 93

Ram air inlet opens if the differential pressure is less than 1 PSI

Answer 94

1. Smoke/fumes removal in the cabin 2. Ventilation of cabin with a dual pack failure 1SP Answer: RAM AIR utilized for - unpressurized flight below 10,000ft - when both PACKs inop and - ventilation needed (i.e. smoke removal)

Answer 95

If Bleed Air Monitoring Computer (BMC) fails on NEO airplane, over temperature protection is lost on the affected side. Has no effect on the CEO.

Answer 96

319: when number of passengers \< 138 320: when number of passengers \< 141 321: select ON ECON FLOW when the number of passengers is below 168

Answer 97

Charge the batteries with external power by selecting BAT pushbuttons to AUTO 20 minutes, then recheck the voltage

Answer 98

1. Select ELEC on ECAM 2. Turn BAT 1 & 2 OFF then ON 3. Check BAT charge current is \< 60 amps and decreasing within 10 seconds - If it fails the test, wait until the end of the charging cycle, and repeat the test

Answer 99

- The electrical power system consists of a three-phase 115/200-volt 400-hertz constant frequency AC system and 28-volt DC - Normally, the system produces alternating current, some of which is then transformed into direct current for certain applications - Each of the aircrafts 3 generators can supply the whole network - If all normal AC generation is lost, an emergency generator can supply AC power - If all AC generation is lost, the system can transform DC power from the batteries to AC power

Answer 100

DC power from the batteries converted into AC

Answer 101

FAULT indication

Answer 102

- Integrated Driver Generator - Takes variable engine output and gives a constant output

Answer 103

Lift the red guard and push the IDG pushbutton, being careful not to hold the pushbutton for longer than 3 seconds This cannot be done by the flight crew - it is a maintenance function

Answer 104

- Allows a single source to power AC BUS 1 and 2 - Allows connection of the APU GEN or EXT power to the system - Inhibits multiple sources connected simultaneously

Answer 105

GEN 2 (or APU GEN if available) powers the system through the bus tie

Answer 106

From AC Bus 1

Answer 107

AC Bus 2 automatically feeds the AC ESS bus

Answer 108

AC ESS FEED ALTN light illuminated only if the switch is manually selected

Answer 109

At least one generator load is above 100% output

Answer 110

Sheds main galley if only 1 GEN is available

Answer 111

DC BUS 1 through the DC tie contactor

Answer 112

AC ESS BUS AC ESS SHED DC ESS BUS by the ESS TR DC ESS SHED

Answer 113

- Battery charging current outside limits - BAT contactor open

Answer 114

1. APU start 2. Battery charging 3. AC BUS 1 & 2 not powered and airspeed below 100kts

Answer 115

42,000 lbs (41,285)

Answer 116

The fuel can expand by 2% without venting overboard

Answer 117

There are 7 total fuel pumps: - 2 center tank pumps - 4 wing tank pumps (2 in each wing) - 1 APU fuel pump

Answer 118

1. At engine start, the fuel is fed from the wing tanks 2. After an engine is started, the center tank pumps turn on and continue to run for 2 minutes 3. If slats are selected within those 2 minutes, the center tank pumps will continue to run until the time has elapsed, then they will stop. - If the slats are extended at any other time, the center pumps will shut off 4. At takeoff, the engines feed fuel from their respective wing tanks 5. When slats are retracted to zero, the fuel is fed from the center tank 6. When the center tank runs low, the pumps continue to run for 5 minutes

Answer 119

CTR TK Pumps are identical to the main tank fuel pumps. The CTR TK XFR are jet pumps that transfer center tank fuel to the main L (R) pumps

Answer 120

Low delivery pressure

Answer 121

1. Failure of the AUTO mode 2. Center tank has more than 550lbs and either wing tank has less than 11,000lbs

Answer 122

REFUELG message appears on the ECAM. This does not mean the fuel is entering the tanks, merely that the refueling door is open

Answer 123

- Some of the fuel supplied to each engine goes from the high-pressure fuel line in that engine, through the integrated drive generator (IDG) heat exchanger (where it absorbs heat), to the fuel return valve, and back to either the wing tank or outer tank, depending on the aircraft. - This operation ensures IDG cooling when the oil temperature is high or when at low engine power - The FADEC controls the fuel return depending on the temperature of the IDG - the higher the temperature, the higher the flow.

Answer 124

The center tank pumps will cut off until the wing tank quantity is reduced by 1100lbs in the inner tank.

Answer 125

Approximately 1,500 lbs

Answer 126

When the inner tank quantity reaches approx. 1650lbs All four transfer valves open

Answer 127

Automatically at the next refueling operation as long as there is AC power on the aircraft

Answer 128

The fuel tank layout depends on the specific aircraft Fuel is stored in a center tank and wing tanks: - On the 319s and 320s, the wing tanks are divided into inner tanks, outer tanks, and vent tanks - On 321s, the wing tanks are not divided into inner and outer tanks, but still have vent tanks

Answer 129

GREEN, BLUE and YELLOW Systems

Answer 130

GREEN - engine driven BLUE - electrically driven YELLOW - engine or electrically driven

Answer 131

After the first engine is started

Answer 132

The RAT must be deployed. It does not deploy automatically upon BLUE system loss of pressure, so if needed, it must be manually deployed with the RAT MAN ON pushbutton.

Answer 133

On the ground, coordinate with ground personnel and turn on the beacon and YELLOW ELEC pump

Answer 134

By using a hand pump

Answer 135

Differential pressure of 500 psi between GREEN and YELLOW systems

Answer 136

1. On the ground with ENG MASTER levers split AND either the nose wheel steering disconnected OR the parking brake ON 2. For 40 seconds after cargo door is operated

Answer 137

1. Landing gear 2. ENG 1 thrust reverser 3. Normal brakes 4. Slats and flaps

Answer 138

1. Emergency generator 2. Slats

Answer 139

1. Flaps 2. Alternate brakes 3. Nose wheel steering

Answer 140

Removes hydraulic power from the heavy users and protects the flight controls

Answer 141

1. Pump low pressure 2. Over temp in reservoir 3. Low air pressure in reservoir 4. Low quantity

Answer 142

ECAM will display the reason

Answer 143

1. Pylon nacelle 2. Engine core 3. Fan section

Answer 144

Two - Loop A and B

Answer 145

Pushing to release the ENG FIRE pushbutton

Answer 146

FIRE warning will be issued (if the failure occurs within 5 seconds)

Answer 147

Bottle has lost its pressure either by fault or pilot selection

Answer 148

1. ENG 1 and 2 FIRE pb-sw checked in and guarded 2. AGENT 1 and 2 light checked off 3. ENG 1 and 2 TEST pb press and maintain to check: - Continuous aural chime - ENG FIRE pb lighted read + SQUIB and DISCH lights on - CRC + MASTER WARN light - ENG 1(2) FIRE warning on ECAM ENG SD page displayed - FIRE light (on ENG panel) on

Answer 149

On ground: - APU EMER shut down and bottle discharge In the air: - no automatic functions

Answer 150

The crew must abort the start if something goes wrong

Answer 151

The FADEC provides monitoring during a manual start and will provide appropriate ECAM cautions and procedures to follow in the event of a start fault Automatic start interruption and auto-crank are not available.

Answer 152

1. The start valve opens 2. Both pack flow control valves close

Answer 153

The NEO PW1100G engine includes a Fan Drive Gear System (FDGS) which allows the low pressure turbine to operate at higher rotational speeds for peak efficiency while the engine's fan can operate at lower speeds for optimum propulsion efficiency and lower noise levels

Answer 154

1. The ground crew reports a tail pipe fire, Accomplish the COM Abnormal/Emergency Procedures "Engine Tailpipe Fire" procedure 2. In the case of electrical power supply interrupted during the start sequence (indicated by loss of ECAM DUs), COM supplemental procedure Engine Ventilation (Dry Cranking)

Answer 155

1. IAE V2500 - Approximately 30 seconds 2. PW1100G - Approximately 2 minutes

Answer 156

1. Heavy rain on the ground 2. When directed to by the ECAM

Answer 157

1. Low blower pressure 2. Duct overheat 3. Computer power supply failure 4. Smoke warning activated

Answer 158

1. Low extract pressure 2. Computer power supply failure 3. Smoke warning activated

Answer 159

BLOWER FAULT or EXTRACT FAULT on the ground with both engines stopped

Answer 160

- It is a fully automated system that considers the skin temperature and adjusts inlet and outlet flaps to optimize cooling and airflow - During normal operations, the AIR COND INLET VALVE remains closed OPEN CIRCUIT CONFIGURATION - both the inlet and the outlet flaps are fully open (aircraft is on the ground and the skin temperature is above a set threshold) CLOSED CIRCUIT CONFIGURATION - Both the inlet and outlet flaps are fully closed. The SKIN EXCHANGE INLET BYPASS VALVE and SKIN EXCHANGE ISOLATION VALVE is open, allowing air to the cargo under the floor, eventually exiting via the outflow valve (aircraft is on the ground or in-flight and the skin temperature below a set threshold) INTERMEDIATE CIRCUIT CONFIGURATION - The inlet flap is fully closed, the outlet small flap is open (aircraft is in-flight and the skin temperature is above a set threshold) During abnormal operations, the AIR COND INLET VALVE always opens providing fresh ventilation air. BLOWER or EXTRACT FAULT - Both inlet and outlet flaps are fully closed, SKIN EXCHANGE INLET BYPASS VALVE closed. SMOKE CONFIGURATION - Once the BLOWER and EXTRACT pushbuttons have been selected to OVRD, the blower fan will stop, the extract fan will continue to run. The inlet flap closes, the small outlet flap opens, the SKIN EXCHANGE ISOLATION VALVE closes and the SKIN EXCHANGE INLET BYPASS VALVE closes.

Answer 161

The SMOKE light and associated ECAM warning may remain illuminated due to the halon concentration present in the cargo compartment.

Answer 162

Only one that has ducting to both FWD and AFT compartments, but the discharge can only be directed to one compartment.

Answer 163

Enables Captain or First Officer to utilize the overhead Audio Control Panel in case of individual ACP failure.

Answer 164

1. If an MEL requires its use. 2. If the engine oil quantity indication does not appear on the ENG SD page. set the ENG 1 and 2 FADEC GND PWR pbs on the overhead maintenance panel to ON.

Answer 165

Only if an MEL required pressurization of the BLUE system on the ground with the engines OFF. The BLUE PUMP OVRD pushbutton

Answer 166

The APU would shut down.

Answer 167

* Green – monitored by ECAM * Black – not monitored by ECAM

Answer 168

The flight crew should not pull or manipulate these collared circuit breakers.

Answer 169

1. Managed guidance - long-term lateral, vertical, and speed profiles as determined by the FMGS. 2. Selected guidance - temporary lateral, vertical, and speed commands as selected with the FCU. • Selected guidance has priority

Answer 170

• Long-term lateral, vertical, and speed profiles as determined by the FMGS.

Answer 171

• Temporary lateral, vertical, and speed commands as selected with the FCU.

Answer 172

• Selected guidance

Answer 173

* Allows autothrust and speed target to follow a predetermined schedule, based on flap selection: * F0 = green dot * F1=Sspeed * F2=Fspeed * F3 = F speed or VAPP (depending on landing flap selection) * Full = VAPP * If using managed speed, GSMINI is available. If using selected speed, GSMINI is not available. What happens if the pilots forget to ACTIVATE/ CONFIRM the APPR phase while in the descent phase? Once you select manage speed the airplane will add power to obtain 250 kts below 10,000 ft.

Answer 174

The crew has limited ability to create pilot stored navigational data.

Answer 175

On the A/C STATUS page.

Answer 176

A hybrid IRS/GPS position.

Answer 177

Dual mode, with one FMGS as master and the other FMGS as slave AOM 1, p.161 Each FMGS performs it's own computations and exchanges data through a crosstalk bus If 1 AP engaged, related FMGC is master If 2 APs engaged, FMGC 1 is master If no AP/FD engaged, FMGC 1 controls A/THR

Answer 178

* If one autopilot is engaged, the respective FMGS is master * If both autopilots are engaged, FMGS 1 will be the master * If no autopilot is engaged FMGS 1 is the master

Answer 179

An FMGS has failed and both NDs must be set to the same mode and range. The full procedure can be found in the COM.

Answer 180

The AP2 would takeover, and AP1 would disengage. It is only possible to engage both autopilots in the approach phase after selection of the APPR pushbutton while conducting a ILS approach.

Answer 181

* Large – Pilot entries and modifiable data * Small – Default or computed, non-modifiable data

Answer 182

* A ECAM CAUTION will be generated * Thrust levers should be moved into the TOGA detent and continue the takeoff.

Answer 183

1. Excessive LOC or GS deviation or signal failure 2. Radio altimeter difference of greater than 15 feet 3. Both autopilots fail

Answer 184

* Normally only one side stick should be operated at any given time. * Should there be dual inputs, an aural “DUAL INPUT” will be annunciated over the speaker and the SIDE STICK PRIORITY green CAPT and F/O lights will flash. Side stick inputs are algebraically summed. * Any time a pilot monitoring has to assume control, it MUST be verbally annunciated (“I HAVE CONTROL”). An aural alert “PRIORITY LEFT (RIGHT)” will be annunciated over the speaker and the SIDE STICK PRIORITY red arrow light will illuminate in front of the pilot losing authority * If the pilot previously flying does not relinquish control (or if there is a malfunction present) the light in front of the pilot with priority lights up it will go out when the other pilot returns the stick to the neutral position, the side stick can be rendered inoperative by holding the takeover push button for 40 seconds. * The pilot having lost side stick authority can regain it by momentarily pressing the takeover pushbutton * Red Arrow light is illuminated on the pilot losing authority * The Green CAPT / FO lights flash when both pilots move the side stick simultaneously.

Answer 185

A/THR | VERTICAL | LATERAL | APPCH CAPABILITY, DH/MDA | AP, FD, A/THR ENGAGEMENT STATUS

Answer 186

A white box is temporarily displayed around the new indication.

Answer 187

* Blue – armed * Magenta – armed because of a constraint * Green – engaged

Answer 188

* The Pilot should move the thrust levers into the TOGA detent. * When AP/FD is in approach vertical mode and aircraft is below 1000 ft RA, this message is displayed if all thrust levers are moved to or above the MCT detent, but below the TOGA detent.

Answer 189

* Displayed when the first engine is started * Disappears at liftoff

Answer 190

Pitch attitude of +30°

Answer 191

1. ILS frequency and course 2. ILS identifier (once in range and identified) 3. LOC and GS scales

Answer 192

In case of an engine failure during takeoff/go-around, it becomes a blue beta target.

Answer 193

The speed the aircraft will reach in 10 seconds if acceleration/deceleration remains constant.

Answer 194

* Magenta – Managed speed computed by the FMGC * Blue – Selected speed on the FCU

Answer 195

* Represents lowest selectable speed providing an appropriate margin to the stall speed * Defined by the top of the amber strip along the airspeed scale * In approach mode, it is equivalent to VREF

Answer 196

* It is the lowest of VMO/VMMO, VLE or VFE * Defined by the bottom of a red and black strip along the speed scale

Answer 197

* Engine out operating speed in clean configuration * Appears when the aircraft is in the clean configuration * Corresponds to the best lift-to-drag ratio

Answer 198

* Calculated groundspeed at the runway * Protects against actual groundspeed dropping below this calculated groundspeed

Answer 199

• GSMINI has increased speed due to a higher headwind component at the present location.

Answer 200

1. TWR wind = the MAG WIND entered in the PERF approach page (no gusts) 2. TWR headwind component = the component of the MAG WIND projected on the runway axis (landing runway entered in the flight plan). 3. Current Headwind Component = the actual wind measured by ADIRS is projected on the aircraft axis to define the current headwind component. The current headwind component is used to compute the variable speed target during final (IAS target).

Answer 201

The aircraft has descended below the MDA/DH entered into the FMGC.

Answer 202

Below 2,500 feet

Answer 203

1. Captain’s PFD 2. First Officer’s ND

Answer 204

Flashes amber when APPR mode is armed and the ILS pb is not selected.

Answer 205

* Non NEO Aircraft = No visual indication * NEO Aircraft = STALL warning indication on PFD

Answer 206

1. Active – continuous green line 2. Secondary – continuous white line 3. Temporary – dashed yellow line 4. Alternate – dashed blue line 5. Missed approach – continuous blue line 6. Flight Plan Capture – continuous green with intercept path computed 7. Data base EOSID – continuous yellow line

Answer 207

* Top of Descent – Always white (never armed) * Continue Descent – Blue indicates armed, white indicates NOT armed

Answer 208

* White – constraint is not taken into account * Magenta – constraint is predicted to be satisfied * Amber – constraint is predicted to be missed

Answer 209

* After a failure is displayed on the SD and all failure items have been cleared * Display will reappear when the slats are extended

Answer 210

* Level 3: WARNINGS – Associated with the red MASTER WARN light, CRC, red E/WD message, and require immediate action * Level 2: CAUTIONS – Associated with the amber MASTER CAUTION light, single chime, amber E/WD message, and require crew awareness * Level 1: CAUTIONS – Associated with amber E/WD message, no aural signal, and requires crew monitoring

Answer 211

A Level 3 WARNING has priority over a Level 2 CAUTION, which has priority over a Level 1 CAUTION.

Answer 212

• Information has overflowed off the screen and the pilot must scroll down using the CLR pushbutton on the ECAM panel.

Answer 213

Most warnings and cautions are inhibited to avoid unnecessary distractions during critical phases of flight.

Answer 214

* ENGINE FIRE * APU FIRE * ENG FAIL * ENG OIL LO PR * L+R ELEV FAULT * A/P OFF * CONFIG * FWC 1+2 FAULT

Answer 215

No. As long as the flap handle is in 1, 2, or 3, no warning will be generated.

Answer 216

Appears: 1. Two minutes after the 2nd engine is started or 2. when the T.O. CONFIG TEST pushbutton is pressed with one engine running Disappears: • Memo is removed when takeoff power is applied

Answer 217

Appears: • below 2,000 feet RA • After a go-around, if the aircraft does not climb above 2,200 feet RA, the landing memo appears only below 800 ft RA during the subsequent approach Disappears: • after touchdown (80 knots)

Answer 218

* The STATUS page holds messages other than CANCELLED CAUTIONS * Flashes after engine shutdown to alert maintenance of any other applicable messages

Answer 219

1. Provide sequencing, operation, monitoring, and indications for the landing gear. 2. Provide aircraft “In Flight” or “On the Ground” signals to other aircraft systems

Answer 220

Below 750 feet RA, when the aircraft is in the landing configuration and the landing gear is not locked down.

Answer 221

Nothing. A safety valve shuts off hydraulic power to the landing gear system when airspeed is above 260 knots.

Answer 222

The landing gear is not locked in the selected position.

Answer 223

Yes, as long as it is still powered.

Answer 224

The Brake and Steering Control Unit (BSCU)

Answer 225

1. Loss of nose wheel steering 2. Braking is powered by the YELLOW system 3. Anti-skid is deactivated 4. ABCU takes over

Answer 226

* Normal brakes – GREEN * Alternate brakes – YELLOW backed up by a hydraulic accumulator

Answer 227

When the ground spoilers deploy.

Answer 228

* LOW – progressive pressure applied to brakes 4 seconds after ground spoilers deploy in order to decelerate the aircraft at a rate of 5.6 ft./s2 * MED – progressive pressure applied to brakes 2 seconds after ground spoilers deploy in order to decelerate the aircraft at a rate of 9.8 ft./s2

Answer 229

Actual rate of deceleration is within 80% of the selected rate.

Answer 230

1. Airspeed above 72 knots, and 2. Thrust levers at IDLE, and 3. Ground spoiler extension

Answer 231

The Auto Brake function is lost, because the aircraft is now relying on the alternate brake system.

Answer 232

At least 1 channel of the BSCU

Answer 233

They would still deploy, even if they were not armed

Answer 234

Approximately 7 full applications

Answer 235

* YELLOW hydraulic pressure delivered to the left and right brakes * YELLOW system brake accumulator pressure

Answer 236

Three Display Management Computers (DMC)

Answer 237

If DMC 1 fails (or DMC3 if “CAPT 3” was selected), DMC 2 automatically drives the ECAM. AOM 1 p.700

Answer 238

“INVALID DATA” will be displayed in the respective EFIS/ECAM display unit.

Answer 239

The E/WD automatically replaces the SD on the lower DU display.

Answer 240

By selecting the ECAM/ND XFR switch to CAPT or F/O

Answer 241

The E/WD display would automatically transfer to the “lower” display.

Answer 242

Press and hold the appropriate system button on the ECAM CONTROL panel. The information selected will be available for 30 seconds.

Answer 243

* Displays ALL the system pages successively in 1-second intervals when held down * Release the pushbutton to maintain display of the selected page

Answer 244

1. Allows the flight crew to review any warning or caution messages: - that the CLR pushbutton or - flight phase inhibition may have suppressed 2. If held longer than 3 seconds, the E/WD will show any caution messages suppressed by the EMER CANC pushbutton

Answer 245

“NORMAL” for 5 seconds

Answer 246

* The system simulates the application of takeoff power and checks certain systems for proper configuration * A warning is displayed if a system is not configured properly * “TO CONFIG NORMAL” is displayed in the TO MEMO section if the configuration is correct

Answer 247

1. Cancels the audio for warning messages (without removing any ECAM message) 2. Cancels the present caution for the rest of the flight 3. Calls up the STATUS page, which displays “CANCELLED CAUTION” and the TITLE of the failure • Inhibited message can be recalled by holding RCL for more than three seconds

Answer 248

Used to cancel spurious MASTER CAUTIONS

Answer 249

The THS is jammed.

Answer 250

The trim automatically resets to zero.

Answer 251

FADECs (Full Authority Digital Engine Controls)

Answer 252

* The system has its own alternator making it independent of the aircraft electrical system when N2 is above 10% * If this alternator fails, the FADEC automatically switches to aircraft electrical power

Answer 253

There is no crew intervention necessary. The FADEC will discontinue the start, dry crank to clear the fuel from the engine, and attempt a restart (if warranted) automatically.

Answer 254

Automatic ground start: • One igniter with the other serving as a backup • The FADEC automatically alternates the igniters (A or B) at each start In-flight: • Two, both A and B

Answer 255

* By setting the thrust levers in the TOGA or FLEX gate (with a FLEX temperature inserted in the MCDU) * At least one FD must be ON for A/THR to arm during takeoff

Answer 256

* Just above IDLE to the CL detent (2 engines) * Just above IDLE to the MCT detent (1 engine)

Answer 257

The thrust lever angle

Answer 258

1. A/THR pushbutton 2. Instinctive disconnect pushbuttons 3. Thrust levers to IDLE Set the thrust lever angle to the existing EPR and push the instinctive disconnect pushbuttons

Answer 259

Press and hold the instinctive disconnect pushbutton for 15 seconds. The A/THR cannot be re-engaged once this is done. ALPHA FLOOR is also lost if this is done.

Answer 260

* Thrust – TOGA * FMA – “A.FLOOR”

Answer 261

Upon reaching a lower angle of attack. The FMA changes to “TOGA LK”

Answer 262

1. Push the instinctive disconnect pushbuttons and 2. move the THRUST LEVERS to the CL detent, if not already in the climb detent • Afterwards re-engage the autothrust

Answer 263

When the aircraft reaches a high AOA

Answer 264

1. Thrust levers in CL detent (or the MCT detent with one engine out) and A/THR pushbutton on the FCU is pushed, or 2. A/THR disconnects due to a failure The thrust is locked at its level prior to disconnection. Moving the thrust levers out of CL or MCT suppresses the thrust lock and gives the Flight Crew manual control with the thrust levers.

Answer 265

By advancing the thrust levers to TOGA or FLX

Answer 266

Rwy with a localizer: MAN FLX, SRS, RWY, A/THR (blue) Rwy without a localizer: MAN TOGA, SRS, A/THR (blue)

Answer 267

SRS, RWY • Continuing the takeoff is a safe option, but the thrust levers must be moved to the climb detent at thrust reduction altitude and the crew must manually engage A/THR.

Answer 268

Match the blue thrust lever angle indicators to the present thrust setting on the EWD and push the instinctive disconnect pushbuttons or move THRUST LEVERS to IDLE

Answer 269

Move it out of the climb detent

Answer 270

1. Engine MASTER switch 2. ENGINE FIRE pushbutton

Answer 271

HAT HP FSOV is abnormal Abort of auto eng start seq Thrust control malfunction 1. The position of the HP fuel shut off valve is abnormal, or 2. Automatic start sequence of the associated engine aborts, or 3. There is a malfunction of the thrust control.

Answer 272

NEO Aircraft: 1. Engine flameout detection 2. Failure of the EIU 3. In-flight unscheduled sub idle or surge 4. Master switch cycled from ON to OFF then back to ON position Non-NEO Aircraft: 1-4. All of the above 5. Engine anti ice ON 6. Approach idle 7. MAX/FLEX power selected

Answer 273

* IAE V2500/PW1100G Shutdown - 2hrs = 3 Mins * IAE V2500/PW1100G Shutdown + 2hrs = 5 Mins

Answer 274

• IAE V2500: 0 Mins Rev Idle 3 Mins Greater than reverse idle PW1100G (NEO): Minimum of 3 Mins, 5 Mins recommended

Answer 275

* Steady indication = Automatic dry cranking is about to begin and the timer indicates the time left before dry crank begins. * Pulsing indication = Automatic dry cranking is in progress

Answer 276

Non-NEO IAE V2500: Accelerate to Minimum of 50% N1 at intervals not more than 15 minutes apart NEO PW1100G: Accelerate to Minimum of 60% N1 at intervals not more than 30 minutes apart (AOM 2 p.697, 2.320.5)

Answer 277

Non-NEO IAE V2500 = Run the engine for 5 minutes, if leak disappears, the flight can continue without Maintenance action NEO PW1100G = Abort the engine start sequence, Maintenance action is Required

Answer 278

Non-NEO: When Flaps extended Neo: Flaps 3 OR Flaps Full OR Gear Down Non-NEO Minimum Approach Idle Speed occurs when: • Aircraft is in flight and the flaps are extended (flap lever not at 0 position) NEO Minimum Approach Idle Speed occurs when: • Aircraft is in flight and the flaps are at CONF 3 or FULL or when the landing gear is down.

Answer 279

The flaps and slats will still operate, but at half speed

Answer 280

Wing Tip Brakes (WTB)

Answer 281

The slats can still operate normally - only flap operation is inhibited.

Answer 282

* CONF 1+F is used for takeoff and provides both slats (position 1) + flaps * CONF 1 is used in-flight and is slats only

Answer 283

During acceleration in CONF 1+F, the flaps (not slats) will automatically retract to 0 at 210 knots.

Answer 284

This function inhibits retracting slats from 1 to 0 at a high angle of attack and low airspeed.

Answer 285

The ailerons droop

Answer 286

* If the ground spoilers are armed and the speed exceeds 72 knots, the ground spoilers will automatically extend as soon as both thrust levers are set to idle. * If the ground spoilers are not armed and the speed exceeds 72 knots, the ground spoilers will automatically extend as soon as reverse is selected on one engine (the other thrust lever remains at idle). * Therefore, selecting at least idle reverse will always provide ground spoiler deployment.

Answer 287

Full extension: The ground spoilers will automatically extend when the following conditions are met: • Speed brake lever not in the retracted position or ground spoilers armed and: 1. Both main landing gears on ground, 2. Both thrust levers at or below idle position, or Reverse selected on at least one engine (and the other thrust lever below MCT position). • Speed brake lever in the retracted position but ground spoilers not armed and: 1. Both main landing gears on ground, 2. Reverse selected on at least one engine (and the other thrust lever below MCT position). The ailerons are fully-extended, provided one aileron servocontrol is available on each side, when: 1. The ground spoilers are fully extended 2. Flaps are not in clean CONF 3. Pitch attitude is lower than 2.5 ° 4. Flying manually 5. In normal law only. Partial extension: In order to accelerate the full spoiler extension, the Phased Lift Dumping (PLD) function allows the ground spoilers to deploy with a reduced deflection when the following conditions are met: • Speed brake lever not in the retracted position or ground spoilers armed and: 1. One main landing gear on ground, 2. Both thrust levers at or below idle position. • Speed brake lever in the retracted position, but ground spoilers not armed and: 1. One main landing gear on ground, 2. Reverse selected on at least one engine (and the other thrust lever below MCT position). In order to reduce the bounce severity at landing in the case of an inappropriate thrust lever handling during flare, ground spoilers are also partially deployed when the following conditions are met: 1. Ground spoilers armed, 2. Both main landing gears on ground, 3. Both thrust levers at or below the Climb position. Retraction: The ground spoilers retract: 1. After landing, 2. After a rejected takeoff, when the ground spoilers are disarmed. 3. During a touch and go, when at least one thrust lever is advanced above 20°.

Answer 288

During a touch and go/balk landing and at least one thrust lever is advance above 20%

Answer 289

1. Angle of Attack protection is active 2. Thrust levers above the MCT position 3. ALPHA FLOOR is active

Answer 290

The spoilers automatically retract.

Answer 291

* A319/A320 – Flaps FULL * A321 – Flaps 3 and FULL

Answer 292

If the PWS switch is in AUTO, reactive windshear detection is still available, even though the RADAR system is off.

Answer 293

* On takeoff above 100 knots and up to 50 feet. * During landing below 50 feet

Answer 294

From any one of the three Radio Management Panels (RMPs)

Answer 295

VHF COM 1, HF 1

Answer 296

* When both MCDUs fail * An immediate landing into an airport not in the database.

Answer 297

By using RMP 2 or 3

Answer 298

All other braking modes and anti-skid are deactivated.

Answer 299

With the YELLOW ELEC PUMP.

Answer 300

Electrically

Answer 301

* ECAM PARKING BRK memo * Triple indicator brake pressure

Answer 302

Release the PARKING BRAKE handle to restore normal braking with the pedals.

Answer 303

Using the RUD TRIM

Answer 304

To quickly reset the rudder trim to 0. This will not operate with the autopilot engaged.

Answer 305

Nothing. There is no feedback from these systems on the rudder pedals.

Answer 306

Rotate the handle clockwise three times until reaching the mechanical stop.

Answer 307

Pressing the button removes control of nose wheel steering from the rudder pedals until released.

Answer 308

1. Nose wheel steering is lost 2. Anti-skid is deactivated 3. YELLOW hydraulic system would supply the brakes

Answer 309

The residual cabin pressure light is inhibited with more than one engine running

Answer 310

Yes, by using the hand pump, located on the hydraulic maintenance panel

Answer 311

1. Engine bleed system 2. APU low compressor 3. HP ground connection

Answer 312

Bleed Monitoring Computer

Answer 313

The CPDLC application enables an exchange of specific ATC messages between the flight crew and air traffic controller

Answer 314

Clearing the ACARS cache (by swapping databases) as directed by AOM Vol. 2 may reduce the occurrence of bad Takeoff data uplinks

Answer 315

1 Step Prep answer: The AOA where the FCCs intervene to prevent a stall How? "ASAP" AOA commanded by the sidestick Spoilers auto stow AP disengages Pitch trim (nose up) inhibited

Answer 316

1 Step Prep answer: The max AOA the ELACs will allow

Answer 317

1 Step Prep answer: A predictive function of the auto-thrust system to prevent a low speed condition Available when: 1. FACs are operative, and 2. Auto-thrust is available (does not have to be ON or ARMED)

Answer 318

1 Step Prep answer: YAWL Yaw (turn coordination, yaw damper, rudder trim, rudder travel limiter) Airspeed Envelope - Alpha Protections, displays on airspeed tape given to you by FACs Windshear - predictive and reactive Low energy warning - available 100-2000ft RA with FLAPS 2, 3, FULL - if speed gets low will hear continuous aural "SPEED"

Answer 319

1 Step Prep answer: - \*some\* examples include - Dual failure of: 1. hydraulics 2. ADIRS 3. FCCs

Answer 320

Fuel feed pressure is low, due to: - loss of tank pumps or - loss of normal AC electrical power

Answer 321

Complete loss of: - flight control computers, or - electrical power Hydraulic pressure must be available

Answer 322

Although the aircraft can be flow indefinitely in this condition, it is intended to be used only as long it takes to **restore the computers**

Answer 323

**_Pitch_** - with ***pitch trim wheel*** via mechanical connection to the pitch system **_Roll and Yaw_** - controlled through ***rudder pedals*** and the mechanical connection to the rudder

Answer 324

**Both ELACs and SEC 1 and 2** - all computerized pitch control is lost. In this case, because SEC3 is still available, the ***side sticks can control roll*** using one spoiler on each wing, but pitch control is mechanical

Answer 325

* Roll is direct (not roll rate demand) * Bank angle protection lost * Yaw loses turn coordination * Pitch is the same as NORMAL LAW

Answer 326

* Low Speed Stability (replaces normal AOA protections) * About 5-10kts above stall warning speed, gentle progressive nose down signal introduced and pitch up trim inhibited * can be overriden by pilot * "STALL STALL" aural warning and red PFD msg * High Speed Stability * Above VMO/MMO, nose up demand introduced and pitch down trim inhibited * can be overriden by pilot * Aural overspeed at VMO+4/MMO+.006 remains

Answer 327

**Ground spoilers**: 1-5 **Roll contro**l: 2-5 **Speed Brakes**: 2-4

Answer 328

**30º** nose up, **15º** nose down

Answer 329

Commands specific **AOA** instead of G Load change

Answer 330

* if ***Autothrust is functional*** (does not need to be active) * at least ***one engine*** is running * aircraft in ***NORMAL LAW***

Answer 331

Above M 0.6

Answer 332

The ***new pitch is held*** regardless of airspeed changes

Answer 333

**G LOAD** displays in amber on lower ECAM when value is above **1.4g** or below **0.7g** for more than **2 sec**

Answer 334

1. Shown on the airspeed indicator as a **green "="** 2. When **VMO exceeded** (specifically VMO+4) and can only be cancelled by pressing ***EMER CANCEL*** pb 3. _Sidestick neutral_: ***return to VMO/MMO***, _sidestick held forward_: ***momentary increase up to VMO+16/MMO+.04*** permitted for any necessary maneuvering, but then speed will again slow to limit 4. Max bank angle reduced from 67º to **40º**. PSSS ccurs at all bank angles to **return bank to 0º**.

Answer 335

15º/sec PSSS is active at bank angles \> 33º

Answer 336

NORMAL LAW: \> 33º of bank. If bank increase beyond 33º and side stick released, aircraft will return to 33º of bank. High speed or high AOA prot active: Activates is bank increased beyond 0º

Answer 337

Depends on the failure that caused the degradation. Generally, if failures do not affect a primary flight control surface, the autopilot should be available.

Answer 338

* Pitch - same as NORMAL LAW * Roll - direct (not roll rate demand) * Yaw - lose turn coordination * If a FAC is operational, Yaw Damping, rudder trim and rudder limiting is available

Answer 339

Attitude - no limits to how far pilot can pitch aircraft High speed - replaced with high speed stability Alpha protections - replaced with low speed stability

Answer 340

Battery is not holding a good charge, might not last 30 minutes in emergency configuration

Answer 341

1. BLOWER or EXTRACT fault with both engines stopped 2. Pilot presses MECH pb on CALLS panel 3. ADIR reverts to battery power on the ground 4. APU fire

Answer 342

ELAC 2 If both ELAC 1 and 2 fail, we would be in ALTERNATE LAW

Answer 343

A. Caused by smoke detectors in the avionics ventilation ducting B. Would also expect to see: 1. 1. ECAM msg 2. 2. BLOWER and EXTRACT FAULT lights C. Declare an emergency and land ASAP D. When you press the GEN 1 LINE button: * Gen line contactor opens * Gen still powers 1 fuel pump in each wing * Gen 2 now supplies AC BUS 1 E. Galley sheds F. Enter emergency electrical configuration: 1. Hit MAN ON to deploy RAT 2. Wait the 8 seconds 3. Turn off GEN 2 G. Because the emergency generator takes 8 seconds to provide power H. Yes, when landing is assured (3 min from landing or 2000 AF) turn on GEN 2 and turn off GEN 1 line. This restores a lot of lost systems

Answer 344

Turns on: 1. CVR 2. FDR 3. QAR (like FDR but more accessible for MX) If not turned on, will shut down 5 minutes after electrical power supplied to aircraft and turns on again after engine start. Turns off 5 minutes after engine shutdown. Doesn't turn off if jack plugged into CVR panel

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