Oral Questions Flashcards
What are the flight maneuvering load acceleration limits?
Clean Configuration: -1g to +2.5g
Other Configurations: 0g to +2g
What is the Maximum Operational Pressure Altitude?
39,800ft
What is the Maximum Pressure Altitude for Takeoff and Landing?
9,200ft
What is the Minimum Pressure Altitude for Takeoff and Landing?
-2,000ft
What is considered a narrow runway?
Any runway less than 148ft wide.
What is VMO/MMO for the A320 and A321?
350 kt / .82 Mach
Landing gear speeds for extension, retraction, and when extended?
VLO Extension - 250kts
VLO Retraction - 220kts
VLE Extended - 280kts
Are you permitted to use the APU if the LOW OIL LEVEL advisory is displayed on the ECAM? When is a maintenance action required? Is a logbook entry required?
The APU may be started and operated even if the LOW OIL LEVEL ECAM advisory is displayed.
Maintenance action is required within the next 10 hours of APU operation.
NOTE: A logbook entry is not required after receiving this advisory message. Contact MCC to determine the status of required maintenance action.
What is the APU starter duty cycle limits?
After three consecutive APU start attempts, the flight crew must wait 60 min before a new start attempt.
Are you permitted to start the APU during refueling? If a fuel spill occurs and the APU is running, what should you do?
During refuel/defuel procedures, APU starts or shutdown are permitted with the following restrictions:
• If the APU failed to start or following an automatic APU shutdown, do not start the APU.
• If a fuel spill occurs, perform a normal APU shutdown.
What is the max altitude for an APU start using normal electrics?
39,000 feet MSL
What is the max altitude to use the APU to supply electrical power with one pack operating?
22,500 feet MSL
What is the max altitude to use the APU for an engine start?
20,000 feet MSL
What is the max altitude to use the APU to supply electrical power with both packs operating?
15,000 feet MSL
Is the use of APU bleed air for wing anti-ice permitted?
Not permitted.
The use of AP or FD in ____ ___or _____ mode is not permitted inside the FAF or below 1000 ft AGL on a visual approach?
OPEN DES
DES
Autolands are not authorized on runways less than ____ feet wide?
148
Autolands are approved for CONF 3 and CONF FULL. What configuration is recommended for all autolands in order to maximize forward slant range visibility?
CONF FULL
Autolands are prohibited if braking action is reported less than _______?
Medium
What conditions must be satisfied to conduct an autoland approach?
• CAT II/III runway
• CAT II/III aircraft
• CAT II/III trained crew
• Appropriate ground facilities operational
• Wind within limits
• Braking action medium or better
If one or more of the autoland requirements cannot be met, may an approach still be conducted if the weather is below ½ mile or 2400 RVR?
Yes. If one of the autoland requirements cannot be met (e.g. strong crosswind), a non-autoland CAT I approach may be conducted down to our lowest authorized CAT I minimums (i.e., 1800
RVR or as published).
Should you perform an autoland at KCOS in A/C 701-799 (an A321)? KCOS airport elevation is 6187 feet.
Autoland Demonstrated Capability
For airport altitude at or below:
A/C 205-299, 301-399, 601-699: 9,200 feet
A/C 701-799: 5,750 feet
When should you use LOW vs. Medium autobrakes for an autoland? Are autobrakes required for all CAT III approaches?
Runway less than 8,000 feet - MEDIUM
Runway 8,000 feet or longer - LOW or MEDIUM
If autobrakes are available they are required.
What are the autoland wind limitations? Note: These limitations are also located on the CAT II/III briefing card.
A/C 205-299, 301-399, 701-799
Headwind - 30 knots
Crosswind - 15 knots
Tailwind - 10 knots
Wind Cor: Vis + wind correction: 5 to 15 knots
A/C 601-699
Headwind - 15 knots
Crosswind - 10 knots
Tailwind - 10 knots
Wind Cor: Vis + wind correction: 5 to 15 knots
What is the minimum engine oil quantity required prior to each flight?
A/C 205-299 & 701-799: 9.5at + .5 per every hour of estimated flight time.
A/C 301-399: Highest of 10.6qt or 9.0qt + .5qt per every hour of estimated flight time.
A/C 601-699:
• OAT above -30ºC - 14qt
• OAT below -30ºC - 16.5qt
What is the minimum oil temp. to start the engines?
-40ºC
What is the minimum fuel for takeoff?
3,300 lbs
Is takeoff with center tank fuel supplying the engines permitted on A/C 205-216, 227-229?
Prohibited.
Is taxi with deflated tires permitted?
Yes, given certain conditions are satisfied. Ref. FOM VOL. II, Section 2.10 for details.
When might you consider inhibiting the ROPS function?
For A/C 394-399 & 601-699
The ROPS function may be inhibited for specific approach procedures which have previously been identified as potentially producing undue ROW alerts.
For A/C 389-393
When a runway is identified as incompatible with ROPS by CBI (crew briefing item) or AIP (airport information page), the ROPS may be inhibited when the aircraft position is less than 15NM from the airfield when:
• For specific approach procedures which have previously been identified as potentially producing undue ROW alerts.
• If a NOTAM displaces the landing threshold (shortened landing distance available).
NOTE: It is NOT required to inhibit ROPS if the runway is not in the TAWS database. ROPS self-inhibits automatically.
How do you inhibit the ROPS function?
For A/C 394-399 & 601-699
ROW/ROP pb-sw set to OFF on SURV panel
For A/C 389-393
TERR pb set to OFF on GPWS panel
What is the difference between AC 201-299, AC 301-399, AC 601-699, and AC 701-799? In other words, which tails numbers correspond with A320s vs A321s and which tail numbers correspond with
CEO vs NEO aircraft?
AC 201-299: A320 CEO Aircraft
AC 301-399: A320 NEO Aircraft (LEAP Engines)
AC 701-799: A321 CEO Aircraft
AC 601-699: A321 NEO Aircraft (Pratt & Whitney Engines)
What does the ON BAT light indicate?
It is illuminated amber if one or more ir(s) is supplied by the aircraft battery. Also illuminates briefly during the beginning of a full alignment
How long will each ADIRU stay on battery power?
ADIRS 2 and 3 will remain on battery power for 5 minutes to hold alignment until a generator can be restored. ADIRU 1 (ADIRU 3 if captain selected ATT HDG CAPT 3) will remain on battery power until generator power is restored or battery #2 fails
What information is provided by the “IR” units (FAT HAAG)?
F – Flight path vector
A – Attitude
T – Track
H – Heading
A – Acceleration
A – Airplane position
G - Ground Speed
What information is provided by the “ADR” units (BOATS)?
B - Barometric altitude
O - Overspeed warnings
A – AOA
T – Temperatures
S - Speed/Mach
What does a steady white ALIGN light indicate (older panel with keypad)?
The respective IR is in the Align mode
What are the indications on the E/WD when an IR is in ALIGN mode?
Before any engine is started (displayed on E/WD):
• IR IN ALIGN X MN memo appears in green when at least one active IRS is being aligned
When one engine is started (displayed on E/WD):
• IR IN ALIGN X MN memo appears in amber during IRS alignment
• IR NOT ALIGNED is displayed as an ECAM Caution Message if the alignment of one IRS is faulty
• IR IN ATT ALIGN appears in green during the IR alignment in Attitude Mode
What does a flashing white align light mean (older panel with keypad)?
There are three reasons that the white align lights will flash:
• There is no current position
• The position is incorrect
• The aircraft moved during alignment
How is the crew alerted to the FMGS having no current position, an incorrect position or if the aircraft has moved during the alignment?
IR IN ALIGN X MN memo pulses in green on the E/WD
How do you fast align an IR?
Select each ADIRS selector OFF and then back to NAV (one at a time) within 5 sec
What does the IR pushbutton do on the newer ADIRS panel?
Inertial data output of the respective IR is disconnected
What does steady illumination of the amber IR FAULT light indicate?
A fault affects the respective IR
What does flashing illumination of the amber IR FAULT light indicate?
Attitude and heading may be recovered in ATT mode (you have lost the navigation portion)
What does the amber ADR FAULT light indicate?
A fault is detected in the Air Data Reference portion
Does turning the IR Mode Rotary Switch to OFF also turn off the ADR?
Yes
Can you turn the ADR OFF and still have the IR?
Yes
When is a full ADIRU alignment required? How about a fast alignment?
A complete alignment must be accomplished in the following cases:
• Before the first flight of the day;
• When there is a crew change;
• When GPS is not available and NAVAID coverage is poor on the expected route;
• When GPS is not available and expected flight time exceeds 3 hours;
• All international and Alaska flights;
• Flight in Class 2 airspace.
A fast IRS alignment must be performed if a complete IRS alignment is not necessary and the difference between the IRS position and the FMGC position is at or above 5NM (see MCDU
POSITION MONITOR page).
What would be missing on the Captain’s PFD and ND if IR1 failed or was turned OFF?
Attitude and navigation information would be lost. ATT and HDG flags will be displayed on the PFD and MAP NOT AVAIL will be on the ND
What action would recover the attitude and navigation information if IR1 failed or was turned off?
Selecting CAPT 3 on the EIS switching panel ATT/HDG selector
What would restore the lost altitude and airspeed information if ADR1 failed or was turned off?
Selecting CAPT 3 on the EIS Switching Panel AIR DATA Selector
Describe a post flight ADIRU accuracy check?
If the drift for any IR is >5nm, refer to the IRS performance chart located in FOM VOL II, Section 3.20.
What does ELAC stand for?
Elevator Aileron Computer
How many ELACs are installed?
2
What are the functions of the ELAC?
Normal elevator and stabilizer control
Normal aileron control
Normal pitch and roll
Alternate pitch
Direct pitch and roll
Abnormal attitude
Aileron droop
Acquisition of autopilot orders
Under Normal Law, what does ELAC 1 control
Primary - Aileron control (roll)
Standby - Elevator / Trimmable Horizontal Stabilizer control (backs up ELAC 2)
What does SEC stand for?
Spoiler Elevator Computer
How many SECs are installed?
3
What functions are performed by the SECs?
Normal roll (by controlling the spoilers)
Speed brakes and ground spoilers (SEC 1 & 3 only)
Alternate pitch (SEC 1 & 2 only)
Direct pitch (SEC 1 & 2)
Direct roll
Abnormal attitude
Under Normal Law, what do the 3 SECs control
Primary – Spoiler control (roll)
Standby – Elevator / Stabilizer control (SEC 1 & 2 back up the ELACs)
What is the sole purpose of SEC 3 in Normal Law?
Spoiler control (Spoilers 1 & 2 only)
What is the definition of FAC?
Flight Augmentation Computer
How many FACs are installed?
2
What are the functions of the FACs?
Normal roll (turn coordination and yaw damping)
Rudder trim
Rudder travel limit
Alternate yaw
Under Normal Law, what do the FACs provide (YAWL)?
Y - Yaw Control – Damping and turn coordination, rudder limiter, rudder trim)
A - Airspeed Protection Computation (Alpha Protection, high / low limits, maneuvering speed,
PFD speed scale)
W - Windshear protection (Reactive and not Predictive)
L - Low Energy Warning Protection (“SPEED, SPEED, SPEED”)
Is full rudder deflection available during all flight regimes?
No. Rudder deflection is limited as a function of airspeed
How are the flight control surfaces controlled and actuated?
All surfaces are controlled electrically and actuated hydraulically
When is automatic pitch trim available?
In flight under Normal Law with bank angle less than 33˚ with or without autopilot engaged
How is roll control normally achieved?
1 aileron and 4 spoilers on each wing
If both FACs fail, is maximum rudder deflection available?
Yes, after slat extension
How would the flight crew command an evacuation?
Make a PA announcement: “This is the Captain, EVACUATE, EVACUATE, EVACUATE”
Press the EVAC COMMAND pushbutton
What happens if you press the COMMAND button?
In the flight deck, the EVAC light flashes red on the COMMAND button
In the cabin, the EVAC lights flash at FWD and AFT attendant panels
Evacuation tone sounds in cabin
What buses are powered by the emergency generator?
AC ESS and AC ESS SHED
DC ESS and DC ESS SHED
What is the function of the RAT & EMER GEN pushbutton?
To provide a backup emergency electric and hydraulic power source
When will the RAT automatically extend?
AUTO – RAT will automatically extend if AC BUS 1 & 2 are not powered and airspeed > 100
knots
How long does it take the RAT to extend and provide power?
8 seconds (3 seconds for RAT extension, 5 seconds to pressurize the Blue hydraulic system and
power the EMER GEN)
What does the red FAULT light on the RAT & EMER GEN pushbutton indicate?
Loss of power to AC Bus 1 + AC Bus 2 and the emergency generator is not supplying power
What powers the emergency generator?
Blue hydraulic power from the RAT
Is there another way to deploy the RAT?
Yes, RAT MAN ON from the HYD panel
What is different about deploying the RAT via the HYD Panel?
Blue HYD pressure only – No Emergency Generator
What happens when you push the GEN 1 LINE pushbutton?
GEN 1 Line Contactor opens and the white OFF light illuminates
AC BUS 1 is powered by GEN 2 through the BUS TIE CONTACTOR
GEN 1 continues to power 1 fuel pump in each wing tank
When is the GEN1 Line pushbutton used?
During smoke procedures
What does the amber SMOKE light in the GEN 1 LINE pushbutton indicate?
Smoke detected in the avionics ventilation ducting
Will there be any indications when the SMOKE light illuminates on the GEN1 Line pushbutton?
ECAM warning and amber FAULT lights in the EXTRACT and BLOWER pushbuttons on the VENTILATION panel
Pressing the SYS pushbutton does what?
Inhibits all EGPWS warnings except TERR system
What does an amber FAULT light in the SYS pushbutton indicate on the GPWS panel?
Any failure of GPWS mode 1 through 5:
Excessive descent rate “Sink Rate”
Excessive terrain closure “Terrain, Terrain”
Altitude loss after takeoff “Don’t Sink”
Unsafe terrain clearance “Too Low Flaps”, “Too Low Gear”
Excessive GS deviation “Glideslope”
What does LDG FLAP 3 ON light indicate? In this case what will the landing memo display?
“Too Low Flaps” inhibited for a Flap 3 landing
LDG MEMO displays “Flaps….3” instead of “CONF….FULL”
When would you press the FLAP MODE pushbutton?
To avoid nuisance warnings when landing with flaps less than 3
If the TERR mode failed does it affect the basic GPWS?
No
When is the RCDR normally on in AUTO?
• On the ground, for 5 minutes after electrical power is supplied to the aircraft
• When at least 1 engine is operating
• In Flight
• Stops 5 minutes after the last engine is shut down
How do you record the Flight Attendant PAs?
ACP 3 PA VOL knob out and in the 1o’clock position
When does the Digital Flight Data Recorder (DFDR) operate?
On the ground, for 5 minutes after electrical power is supplied to the aircraft
When at least 1 engine is operating
Continuously in flight, whether or not the engines are operating
Stops 5 minutes after the last engine is shut down
What is the RCDR pushbutton set to during preflight?
On
What is the purpose of the DFDR EVENT pushbutton?
Briefly pressing this button sets an event mark on the Flight Data Recorder
What does the PASSENGER SYS ON light mean?
The signal to release the oxygen mask doors has been sent
When do the masks automatically deploy?
When cabin altitude exceeds 14,000 feet
How long does the PAX oxygen last?
Approximately 13 to 22 minutes
Where is oxygen stored for the crew?
• In a single high-pressure cylinder
• Two high-pressure cylinders (NEO Aircraft)
What happens during the preflight when you push to extinguish the CREW SUPPLY OFF light?
It electrically opens a valve in the avionics bay to supply low-pressure crew oxygen
What would you notice on the DOOR ECAM page if you set the CREW SUPPLY to ON?
The OXY would change from amber to green
Will the crew oxygen mask microphone automatically be deactivated when the mask is stowed?
No, you must press the RESET/TEST slide switch
How do you call a mechanic stationed on the outside of the aircraft?
Momentarily depress the MECH pushbutton. A blue light on the EXT PWR PANEL will illuminate
and an external horn will sound
How do you make a normal call to the Attendant Indication Panel (AIP)?
• Press the FWD or AFT call button (This sounds one high/low chime in the cabin)
• Listen and transmit on CAB
• The Flight Attendant can only pick up a cabin phone at the station called
What happens when you press the EMER pushbutton?
• Two pink lights flash at all area attendant panels
• EMERGENCY CALL appears on all AIP indication panels
• High-low chime (repeated 3 times) sounds throughout the cabin loudspeakers
What happens when the Flight Attendants initiate an emergency call?
The white EMER ON light and amber CALL lights flash
The amber ATT lights flash on the ACPs
3 long buzzers sound in the cockpit (inhibited during critical phases of flight)
System resets when the attendant hangs up the relevant system
When will the RAIN RPLNT pushbutton not work?
On the ground with the engines stopped
Is it permissible to use rain repellent on a dry windscreen?
Ref: (FOM VOL II, Section 5.45)
No. The flight crew should only use rain repellent in moderate to heavy rain.
If RWY TURN OFF is selected to ON and the NOSE is selected to TAXI or T.O., which lights
automatically extinguish after takeoff?
The NOSE and RWY TURN OFF lights extinguish when the landing gear is retracted
Are the NAV 1 and 2 positions connected to a single bulb?
No, they are separate bulbs
When do the strobes flash in AUTO?
When the main landing gear strut is not compressed
What does the green AVAIL light on the APU START pushbutton indicate?
APU N is above 99.5% or 2 secs after N reaches 95%
With the APU green AVAIL light ON and the EXT PWR green AVAIL light on, which system is
powering the aircraft?
APU
How long should you wait to push the APU START pushbutton after engaging the APU MASTER
switch?
3 sec
What does an amber FAULT light in the APU MASTER SW pushbutton indicate?
The Electronic Control Box (ECB) commanded an auto shutdown of the APU
What does an amber FAULT light in the APU BLEED pushbutton indicate?
An APU bleed leak
What lights illuminate when the EMER EXIT LT switch is placed to ON?
• Proximity emergency escape path marking system
• Overhead emergency lights
• EXIT signs
What lights illuminate when normal aircraft electrical power fails and the EMER EXIT LT sw is in ARM?
• Floor proximity emergency escape path marking system
• Overhead emergency lighting
• EXIT signs
What occurs when the EMER EXIT LT switch is placed to OFF?
• All lights OFF
• Amber EMER EXIT LT OFF light illuminates
What flight deck lighting is available if normal electrical power is lost?
• Captain’s instrument panel (2 places)
• Right dome light (provided DOME switch set in DIM or BRT)
• Standby compass
When do you use engine anti-ice?
When OAT (Ground) / TAT (Flight) 10˚ C or below with visible moisture present
Prior to and during descent in icing conditions (including temperatures below –40˚ C SAT)
What is the exception to the engine anti-ice rule?
Do not use engine anti-ice during climb and cruise when the temperature is below –40˚ C SAT
What does a FAULT light in the ENG ANTI ICE pushbutton indicate?
Switch/anti-ice valve disagreement
With ENG ANTI ICE ON what indications will you see?
Blue ENG ANTI ICE light ON
ECAM: ENG ANTI ICE
N1 limit is reduced (amber tick on N1 indicator)
N1 idle is increased
With engine anti-ice ON, is your descent affected?
Yes, because idle thrust is increased
What happens if you turn on the WING ANTI ICE switch on the ground?
The wing anti-icing valves will open for a 30 second test
What part of the wing is heated?
Outboard 3 slats
When do the wing anti-ice valves automatically close?
On landing
Bleed leak detected
Loss of electrical power
What does the amber FAULT light in the WING ANTI ICE pushbutton indicate?
Switch/anti-ice valve disagreement
Low pressure is detected
In what position do the Wing and Engine Anti-Ice valves fail if electrical power is lost?
Wing – valves CLOSE
Engine – valves OPEN
On the ground, with the PROBE/WINDOW HEAT pushbutton in AUTO, when are the probe and mast
heaters activated?
LOW with at least one engine running (except the TAT probe – not heated on ground)
NORMAL is automatically set after takeoff
What does the PROBE/WINDOW HEAT pushbutton do?
Manually activates the probe, and window heaters
Which valves will receive a close command when the DITCHING pushbutton is depressed (ARPO)?
Avionics Inlet and Extract valves
Ram air inlet
Pack Flow Control valves
Outflow valve (only if in AUTO mode)
Will the DITCHING pushbutton always close the outflow valve?
Not if the outflow valve is under manual control
Can the pilot control the outflow valve?
Yes, select MAN on the MODE SEL and use the MAN V/S CTL switch
How many controllers are in the pressurization system?
2, only one is used at a time and they swap roles after each landing
How do you manually switch controllers?
Switch MODE SEL to MAN for 10 seconds, then back to AUTO
What does an amber FAULT light in the MODE SEL pushbutton indicate?
Both automatic pressure controllers are faulty
From what source does the pressurization system obtain landing elevation?
FMGC database
When the mode selector is out of the AUTO position, how do you set a landing elevation?
Manually by selecting landing elevation via the LDG ELEV dial
What protects the airframe from excessive cabin differential pressure?
2 pressure relief valves (safety valves)
How many outflow valve motors are installed?
3, One for each CPC and one for manual control
The pneumatic system is monitored and controlled by?
2 Bleed Monitoring Computers (BMC)
If one BMC fails, can the other take over?
Yes, they are interconnected. If BMC 1 fails:
APU and ENG 1 leak detection are not monitored
ECAM APU BLEED LEAK warning is lost
The PACK FLOW selector has LO, NORM, and HI positions (A320). What does this allow us to do?
Select pack flow rates representing LO 80%, NORM 100%, and HIGH 120% of NORM
What flow rate is automatically selected when APU bleed air is in use or during single pack
operation?
Hi
When should the PACK FLOW selector not be in the normal position?
IF A/C 201-299, 301-399 (A320):
LO: If the number of passengers is below 115.
NORM: For normal operating conditions.
HI: For abnormally hot and/or humid conditions.
IF A/C 701 - 799 (A321):
ON: For ECON flow if the number of passengers is below 140.
OFF: For normal flow
If the engine bleed air in-flight is too low what will occur?
Minimum idle engine speed is automatically increased to provide adequate bleed air pressure
What would cause an amber FAULT light to illuminate in the PACK 1 and/or Pack 2 pushbutton (OOD)?
Overheat - Pack outlet
Overheat - Compressor outlet
Disagreement - Switch position disagreement with pack flow control valve
Note: FAULT light will be illuminated when no bleed air is supplied
What does the amber FAULT light in the APU BLEED pushbutton indicate?
Bleed leak (APU bleed valve closes)
What causes the amber FAULT light on the ENG 1 BLEED and/or ENG 2 BLEED pushbutton (OOLD)?
Overpressure - Downstream of the bleed valve
Overheat
Leak - Low pressure
Disagreement - APU bleed valve open and engine bleed valve not closed or
Engine Start with bleed valve not closed
What are the two functions of the engine bleed valves?
To Act as:
Pressure regulation
Shut off valves
At what cabin differential pressure does the RAM AIR valve open?
ΔP less than 1 PSI
What logic controls the X-Bleed valve when the X-BLEED switch is in AUTO?
When APU bleed valve is OPEN, the X-Bleed valve is open
When APU bleed valve is CLOSED, the X-Bleed valve is closed
X-Bleed also CLOSES for wing, pylon, or APU duct leak (except during engine start)
What causes the Pack Flow Control valve to automatically close?
Upstream pressure below minimum
Pack overheat
Engine start sequence
Engine FIRE pushbutton on the related side pressed
DITCHING pushbutton is selected
What does an amber FAULT light in the HOT AIR pushbutton indicate?
Duct overheat - the Hot Air and Trim Air valves close automatically
How many Air Conditioning System Controllers are there?
- Each Air Conditioning System Controller has 2 lanes – (Active/Standby)
Describe how the Air Conditioning System Controllers regulate temperature?
Basic temperature regulation: Both packs produce the required outlet temperature determined
by the lowest demanded zone temperature
Optimized temperature regulation: Hot air is added to the individual zones by the trim air
valves to maintain the desired zone temperatures
What occurs when an active lane of an Air Conditioning System Controller fails?
The second lane takes over
What occurs when both lanes of an Air Conditioning System Controller fails?
The related pack is lost. The hot air pressure regulating valve and associated trim air valve(s) close
How does the Air Conditioning System Controller configure its associated pack ram air inlet flap for takeoff and landing to avoid the ingestion of foreign matter?
• Takeoff: Pack Ram Air Inlet Flap closes when takeoff power is set and the main landing gear
struts are compressed.
• Reopens after main landing gear strut extension
• Landing: Pack Ram Air Inlet Flap closes as soon as the main landing gear struts are compressed
and speed ≥ 70 knots.
• Opens 20 seconds after speed < 70 knots
If an air cycle machine (ACM) fails, what occurs?
The affected pack will operate as a heat exchanger
What effect will the engine start sequence have on the pack flow control valves?
The pack flow control valve will close automatically
After engine start with the APU BLEED pushbutton ON, what source is supplying bleed air to the packs?
APU Bleed
When does the Lav/Galley Extract Fan operate?
Continuously when electrical power is available
When performing the PRELIMINARY FLIGHT DECK PREPARATION, what is the minimum Battery Voltage?
25.5 Volts
What do you do if it is below 25.5V?
Select BATT pushbuttons to ON with EXT PWR on aircraft. This starts the charging cycle
(approximately 20min required)
When performing the FLIGHT DECK PREPARATION, what are we looking for on the ELEC panel BAT check?
• ECAM ELEC page – select
• BAT 1 & 2 – OFF then ON
• Check BATT current is < 60 amps after 10 seconds and continues to decrease
Will the batteries completely drain if you leave the BAT switches in AUTO after AC power is removed on the ground?
No. Battery cut-off logic prevents complete discharge when the aircraft is on the ground and
unpowered – 22VDC
How is the BATTERY BUS normally powered?
DC BUS 1 through a DC tie contactor
What does the amber FAULT light in the GALLEY pushbutton indicate?
At least 1 generator load is above 100% rated output
How does the GALLEY pushbutton work in AUTO?
• Sheds main galley, IFE and in-seat power supply if:
• Only 1 generator (APU or Engine) is available in FLIGHT, or
• Only 1 ENGINE generator is available on the GROUND
What does a FAULT on the ENG GEN pushbutton indicate?
The generator line contactor is open because of a fault detected by the Generator Control Unit (GCU) which could include:
Overload
Over/under voltage
Differential fault (short), and/or;
The generator line contactor is open
What does the APU GEN FAULT light indicate?
The generator line contactor is open because of a fault detected by the GCU
When is the APU GEN FAULT light inhibited?
APU speed too low
Line contactor OPEN after EXT PWR or ENG GEN takes over
What is the function of the BUS TIE in the AUTO position?
• Allows the BUS TIE CONTACTORS to open and close automatically to maintain power to both AC BUS 1 & 2
• Allows a single source to power the entire system
• Allows connection of the APU GEN or EXT PWR to the system
• Inhibits multiple sources to connect simultaneously
What does an IDG FAULT light indicate?
Oil pressure low (inhibited when N2 < 14%)
Oil outlet temperature overheat
Light is inhibited when IDG is disconnected
