Oral Questions Flashcards
(440 cards)
1
Q
What are the flight maneuvering load acceleration limits?
A
Clean Configuration: -1g to +2.5g
Other Configurations: 0g to +2g
2
Q
What is the Maximum Operational Pressure Altitude?
A
39,800ft
3
Q
What is the Maximum Pressure Altitude for Takeoff and Landing?
A
9,200ft
4
Q
What is the Minimum Pressure Altitude for Takeoff and Landing?
A
-2,000ft
5
Q
What is considered a narrow runway?
A
Any runway less than 148ft wide.
6
Q
What is VMO/MMO for the A320 and A321?
A
350 kt / .82 Mach
7
Q
Landing gear speeds for extension, retraction, and when extended?
A
VLO Extension - 250kts
VLO Retraction - 220kts
VLE Extended - 280kts
8
Q
Are you permitted to use the APU if the LOW OIL LEVEL advisory is displayed on the ECAM? When is a maintenance action required? Is a logbook entry required?
A
The APU may be started and operated even if the LOW OIL LEVEL ECAM advisory is displayed.
Maintenance action is required within the next 10 hours of APU operation.
NOTE: A logbook entry is not required after receiving this advisory message. Contact MCC to determine the status of required maintenance action.
9
Q
What is the APU starter duty cycle limits?
A
After three consecutive APU start attempts, the flight crew must wait 60 min before a new start attempt.
10
Q
Are you permitted to start the APU during refueling? If a fuel spill occurs and the APU is running, what should you do?
A
During refuel/defuel procedures, APU starts or shutdown are permitted with the following restrictions:
• If the APU failed to start or following an automatic APU shutdown, do not start the APU.
• If a fuel spill occurs, perform a normal APU shutdown.
11
Q
What is the max altitude for an APU start using normal electrics?
A
39,000 feet MSL
12
Q
What is the max altitude to use the APU to supply electrical power with one pack operating?
A
22,500 feet MSL
13
Q
What is the max altitude to use the APU for an engine start?
A
20,000 feet MSL
14
Q
What is the max altitude to use the APU to supply electrical power with both packs operating?
A
15,000 feet MSL
15
Q
Is the use of APU bleed air for wing anti-ice permitted?
A
Not permitted.
16
Q
The use of AP or FD in ____ ___or _____ mode is not permitted inside the FAF or below 1000 ft AGL on a visual approach?
A
OPEN DES
DES
17
Q
Autolands are not authorized on runways less than ____ feet wide?
A
148
18
Q
Autolands are approved for CONF 3 and CONF FULL. What configuration is recommended for all autolands in order to maximize forward slant range visibility?
A
CONF FULL
19
Q
Autolands are prohibited if braking action is reported less than _______?
A
Medium
20
Q
What conditions must be satisfied to conduct an autoland approach?
A
• CAT II/III runway
• CAT II/III aircraft
• CAT II/III trained crew
• Appropriate ground facilities operational
• Wind within limits
• Braking action medium or better
21
Q
If one or more of the autoland requirements cannot be met, may an approach still be conducted if the weather is below ½ mile or 2400 RVR?
A
Yes. If one of the autoland requirements cannot be met (e.g. strong crosswind), a non-autoland CAT I approach may be conducted down to our lowest authorized CAT I minimums (i.e., 1800
RVR or as published).
22
Q
Should you perform an autoland at KCOS in A/C 701-799 (an A321)? KCOS airport elevation is 6187 feet.
A
Autoland Demonstrated Capability
For airport altitude at or below:
A/C 205-299, 301-399, 601-699: 9,200 feet
A/C 701-799: 5,750 feet
23
Q
When should you use LOW vs. Medium autobrakes for an autoland? Are autobrakes required for all CAT III approaches?
A
Runway less than 8,000 feet - MEDIUM
Runway 8,000 feet or longer - LOW or MEDIUM
If autobrakes are available they are required.
24
Q
What are the autoland wind limitations? Note: These limitations are also located on the CAT II/III briefing card.
A
A/C 205-299, 301-399, 701-799
Headwind - 30 knots
Crosswind - 15 knots
Tailwind - 10 knots
Wind Cor: Vis + wind correction: 5 to 15 knots
A/C 601-699
Headwind - 15 knots
Crosswind - 10 knots
Tailwind - 10 knots
Wind Cor: Vis + wind correction: 5 to 15 knots
25
What is the minimum engine oil quantity required prior to each flight?
A/C 205-299 & 701-799: 9.5at + .5 per every hour of estimated flight time.
A/C 301-399: Highest of 10.6qt or 9.0qt + .5qt per every hour of estimated flight time.
A/C 601-699:
• OAT above -30ºC - 14qt
• OAT below -30ºC - 16.5qt
26
What is the minimum oil temp. to start the engines?
-40ºC
27
What is the minimum fuel for takeoff?
3,300 lbs
28
Is takeoff with center tank fuel supplying the engines permitted on A/C 205-216, 227-229?
Prohibited.
29
Is taxi with deflated tires permitted?
Yes, given certain conditions are satisfied. Ref. FOM VOL. II, Section 2.10 for details.
30
When might you consider inhibiting the ROPS function?
For A/C 394-399 & 601-699
The ROPS function may be inhibited for specific approach procedures which have previously been identified as potentially producing undue ROW alerts.
For A/C 389-393
When a runway is identified as incompatible with ROPS by CBI (crew briefing item) or AIP (airport information page), the ROPS may be inhibited when the aircraft position is less than 15NM from the airfield when:
• For specific approach procedures which have previously been identified as potentially producing undue ROW alerts.
• If a NOTAM displaces the landing threshold (shortened landing distance available).
NOTE: It is NOT required to inhibit ROPS if the runway is not in the TAWS database. ROPS self-inhibits automatically.
31
How do you inhibit the ROPS function?
For A/C 394-399 & 601-699
ROW/ROP pb-sw set to OFF on SURV panel
For A/C 389-393
TERR pb set to OFF on GPWS panel
32
What is the difference between AC 201-299, AC 301-399, AC 601-699, and AC 701-799? In other words, which tails numbers correspond with A320s vs A321s and which tail numbers correspond with
CEO vs NEO aircraft?
AC 201-299: A320 CEO Aircraft
AC 301-399: A320 NEO Aircraft (LEAP Engines)
AC 701-799: A321 CEO Aircraft
AC 601-699: A321 NEO Aircraft (Pratt & Whitney Engines)
33
What does the ON BAT light indicate?
It is illuminated amber if one or more ir(s) is supplied by the aircraft battery. Also illuminates briefly during the beginning of a full alignment
34
How long will each ADIRU stay on battery power?
ADIRS 2 and 3 will remain on battery power for 5 minutes to hold alignment until a generator can be restored. ADIRU 1 (ADIRU 3 if captain selected ATT HDG CAPT 3) will remain on battery power until generator power is restored or battery #2 fails
35
What information is provided by the “IR” units (FAT HAAG)?
F – Flight path vector
A – Attitude
T – Track
H – Heading
A – Acceleration
A – Airplane position
G - Ground Speed
36
What information is provided by the “ADR” units (BOATS)?
B - Barometric altitude
O - Overspeed warnings
A – AOA
T – Temperatures
S - Speed/Mach
37
What does a steady white ALIGN light indicate (older panel with keypad)?
The respective IR is in the Align mode
38
What are the indications on the E/WD when an IR is in ALIGN mode?
Before any engine is started (displayed on E/WD):
• IR IN ALIGN X MN memo appears in green when at least one active IRS is being aligned
When one engine is started (displayed on E/WD):
• IR IN ALIGN X MN memo appears in amber during IRS alignment
• IR NOT ALIGNED is displayed as an ECAM Caution Message if the alignment of one IRS is faulty
• IR IN ATT ALIGN appears in green during the IR alignment in Attitude Mode
39
What does a flashing white align light mean (older panel with keypad)?
There are three reasons that the white align lights will flash:
• There is no current position
• The position is incorrect
• The aircraft moved during alignment
40
How is the crew alerted to the FMGS having no current position, an incorrect position or if the aircraft has moved during the alignment?
IR IN ALIGN X MN memo pulses in green on the E/WD
41
How do you fast align an IR?
Select each ADIRS selector OFF and then back to NAV (one at a time) within 5 sec
42
What does the IR pushbutton do on the newer ADIRS panel?
Inertial data output of the respective IR is disconnected
43
What does steady illumination of the amber IR FAULT light indicate?
A fault affects the respective IR
44
What does flashing illumination of the amber IR FAULT light indicate?
Attitude and heading may be recovered in ATT mode (you have lost the navigation portion)
45
What does the amber ADR FAULT light indicate?
A fault is detected in the Air Data Reference portion
46
Does turning the IR Mode Rotary Switch to OFF also turn off the ADR?
Yes
47
Can you turn the ADR OFF and still have the IR?
Yes
48
When is a full ADIRU alignment required? How about a fast alignment?
A complete alignment must be accomplished in the following cases:
• Before the first flight of the day;
• When there is a crew change;
• When GPS is not available and NAVAID coverage is poor on the expected route;
• When GPS is not available and expected flight time exceeds 3 hours;
• All international and Alaska flights;
• Flight in Class 2 airspace.
A fast IRS alignment must be performed if a complete IRS alignment is not necessary and the difference between the IRS position and the FMGC position is at or above 5NM (see MCDU
POSITION MONITOR page).
49
What would be missing on the Captain’s PFD and ND if IR1 failed or was turned OFF?
Attitude and navigation information would be lost. ATT and HDG flags will be displayed on the PFD and MAP NOT AVAIL will be on the ND
50
What action would recover the attitude and navigation information if IR1 failed or was turned off?
Selecting CAPT 3 on the EIS switching panel ATT/HDG selector
51
What would restore the lost altitude and airspeed information if ADR1 failed or was turned off?
Selecting CAPT 3 on the EIS Switching Panel AIR DATA Selector
52
Describe a post flight ADIRU accuracy check?
If the drift for any IR is >5nm, refer to the IRS performance chart located in FOM VOL II, Section 3.20.
53
What does ELAC stand for?
Elevator Aileron Computer
54
How many ELACs are installed?
2
55
What are the functions of the ELAC?
Normal elevator and stabilizer control
Normal aileron control
Normal pitch and roll
Alternate pitch
Direct pitch and roll
Abnormal attitude
Aileron droop
Acquisition of autopilot orders
56
Under Normal Law, what does ELAC 1 control
Primary - Aileron control (roll)
Standby - Elevator / Trimmable Horizontal Stabilizer control (backs up ELAC 2)
57
What does SEC stand for?
Spoiler Elevator Computer
58
How many SECs are installed?
3
59
What functions are performed by the SECs?
Normal roll (by controlling the spoilers)
Speed brakes and ground spoilers (SEC 1 & 3 only)
Alternate pitch (SEC 1 & 2 only)
Direct pitch (SEC 1 & 2)
Direct roll
Abnormal attitude
60
Under Normal Law, what do the 3 SECs control
Primary – Spoiler control (roll)
Standby – Elevator / Stabilizer control (SEC 1 & 2 back up the ELACs)
61
What is the sole purpose of SEC 3 in Normal Law?
Spoiler control (Spoilers 1 & 2 only)
62
What is the definition of FAC?
Flight Augmentation Computer
63
How many FACs are installed?
2
64
What are the functions of the FACs?
Normal roll (turn coordination and yaw damping)
Rudder trim
Rudder travel limit
Alternate yaw
65
Under Normal Law, what do the FACs provide (YAWL)?
Y - Yaw Control – Damping and turn coordination, rudder limiter, rudder trim)
A - Airspeed Protection Computation (Alpha Protection, high / low limits, maneuvering speed,
PFD speed scale)
W - Windshear protection (Reactive and not Predictive)
L - Low Energy Warning Protection (“SPEED, SPEED, SPEED”)
66
Is full rudder deflection available during all flight regimes?
No. Rudder deflection is limited as a function of airspeed
67
How are the flight control surfaces controlled and actuated?
All surfaces are controlled electrically and actuated hydraulically
68
When is automatic pitch trim available?
In flight under Normal Law with bank angle less than 33˚ with or without autopilot engaged
69
How is roll control normally achieved?
1 aileron and 4 spoilers on each wing
70
If both FACs fail, is maximum rudder deflection available?
Yes, after slat extension
71
How would the flight crew command an evacuation?
Make a PA announcement: “This is the Captain, EVACUATE, EVACUATE, EVACUATE”
Press the EVAC COMMAND pushbutton
72
What happens if you press the COMMAND button?
In the flight deck, the EVAC light flashes red on the COMMAND button
In the cabin, the EVAC lights flash at FWD and AFT attendant panels
Evacuation tone sounds in cabin
73
What buses are powered by the emergency generator?
AC ESS and AC ESS SHED
DC ESS and DC ESS SHED
74
What is the function of the RAT & EMER GEN pushbutton?
To provide a backup emergency electric and hydraulic power source
75
When will the RAT automatically extend?
AUTO – RAT will automatically extend if AC BUS 1 & 2 are not powered and airspeed > 100
knots
76
How long does it take the RAT to extend and provide power?
8 seconds (3 seconds for RAT extension, 5 seconds to pressurize the Blue hydraulic system and
power the EMER GEN)
77
What does the red FAULT light on the RAT & EMER GEN pushbutton indicate?
Loss of power to AC Bus 1 + AC Bus 2 and the emergency generator is not supplying power
78
What powers the emergency generator?
Blue hydraulic power from the RAT
79
Is there another way to deploy the RAT?
Yes, RAT MAN ON from the HYD panel
80
What is different about deploying the RAT via the HYD Panel?
Blue HYD pressure only – No Emergency Generator
81
What happens when you push the GEN 1 LINE pushbutton?
GEN 1 Line Contactor opens and the white OFF light illuminates
AC BUS 1 is powered by GEN 2 through the BUS TIE CONTACTOR
GEN 1 continues to power 1 fuel pump in each wing tank
82
When is the GEN1 Line pushbutton used?
During smoke procedures
83
What does the amber SMOKE light in the GEN 1 LINE pushbutton indicate?
Smoke detected in the avionics ventilation ducting
84
Will there be any indications when the SMOKE light illuminates on the GEN1 Line pushbutton?
ECAM warning and amber FAULT lights in the EXTRACT and BLOWER pushbuttons on the VENTILATION panel
85
Pressing the SYS pushbutton does what?
Inhibits all EGPWS warnings except TERR system
86
What does an amber FAULT light in the SYS pushbutton indicate on the GPWS panel?
Any failure of GPWS mode 1 through 5:
Excessive descent rate “Sink Rate”
Excessive terrain closure “Terrain, Terrain”
Altitude loss after takeoff “Don’t Sink”
Unsafe terrain clearance “Too Low Flaps”, “Too Low Gear”
Excessive GS deviation “Glideslope”
87
What does LDG FLAP 3 ON light indicate? In this case what will the landing memo display?
“Too Low Flaps” inhibited for a Flap 3 landing
LDG MEMO displays “Flaps....3” instead of “CONF....FULL”
88
When would you press the FLAP MODE pushbutton?
To avoid nuisance warnings when landing with flaps less than 3
89
If the TERR mode failed does it affect the basic GPWS?
No
90
When is the RCDR normally on in AUTO?
• On the ground, for 5 minutes after electrical power is supplied to the aircraft
• When at least 1 engine is operating
• In Flight
• Stops 5 minutes after the last engine is shut down
91
How do you record the Flight Attendant PAs?
ACP 3 PA VOL knob out and in the 1o’clock position
92
When does the Digital Flight Data Recorder (DFDR) operate?
On the ground, for 5 minutes after electrical power is supplied to the aircraft
When at least 1 engine is operating
Continuously in flight, whether or not the engines are operating
Stops 5 minutes after the last engine is shut down
93
What is the RCDR pushbutton set to during preflight?
On
94
What is the purpose of the DFDR EVENT pushbutton?
Briefly pressing this button sets an event mark on the Flight Data Recorder
95
What does the PASSENGER SYS ON light mean?
The signal to release the oxygen mask doors has been sent
96
When do the masks automatically deploy?
When cabin altitude exceeds 14,000 feet
97
How long does the PAX oxygen last?
Approximately 13 to 22 minutes
98
Where is oxygen stored for the crew?
• In a single high-pressure cylinder
• Two high-pressure cylinders (NEO Aircraft)
99
What happens during the preflight when you push to extinguish the CREW SUPPLY OFF light?
It electrically opens a valve in the avionics bay to supply low-pressure crew oxygen
100
What would you notice on the DOOR ECAM page if you set the CREW SUPPLY to ON?
The OXY would change from amber to green
101
Will the crew oxygen mask microphone automatically be deactivated when the mask is stowed?
No, you must press the RESET/TEST slide switch
102
How do you call a mechanic stationed on the outside of the aircraft?
Momentarily depress the MECH pushbutton. A blue light on the EXT PWR PANEL will illuminate
and an external horn will sound
103
How do you make a normal call to the Attendant Indication Panel (AIP)?
• Press the FWD or AFT call button (This sounds one high/low chime in the cabin)
• Listen and transmit on CAB
• The Flight Attendant can only pick up a cabin phone at the station called
104
What happens when you press the EMER pushbutton?
• Two pink lights flash at all area attendant panels
• EMERGENCY CALL appears on all AIP indication panels
• High-low chime (repeated 3 times) sounds throughout the cabin loudspeakers
105
What happens when the Flight Attendants initiate an emergency call?
The white EMER ON light and amber CALL lights flash
The amber ATT lights flash on the ACPs
3 long buzzers sound in the cockpit (inhibited during critical phases of flight)
System resets when the attendant hangs up the relevant system
106
When will the RAIN RPLNT pushbutton not work?
On the ground with the engines stopped
107
Is it permissible to use rain repellent on a dry windscreen?
Ref: (FOM VOL II, Section 5.45)
No. The flight crew should only use rain repellent in moderate to heavy rain.
108
If RWY TURN OFF is selected to ON and the NOSE is selected to TAXI or T.O., which lights
automatically extinguish after takeoff?
The NOSE and RWY TURN OFF lights extinguish when the landing gear is retracted
109
Are the NAV 1 and 2 positions connected to a single bulb?
No, they are separate bulbs
110
When do the strobes flash in AUTO?
When the main landing gear strut is not compressed
111
What does the green AVAIL light on the APU START pushbutton indicate?
APU N is above 99.5% or 2 secs after N reaches 95%
112
With the APU green AVAIL light ON and the EXT PWR green AVAIL light on, which system is
powering the aircraft?
APU
113
How long should you wait to push the APU START pushbutton after engaging the APU MASTER
switch?
3 sec
114
What does an amber FAULT light in the APU MASTER SW pushbutton indicate?
The Electronic Control Box (ECB) commanded an auto shutdown of the APU
115
What does an amber FAULT light in the APU BLEED pushbutton indicate?
An APU bleed leak
116
What lights illuminate when the EMER EXIT LT switch is placed to ON?
• Proximity emergency escape path marking system
• Overhead emergency lights
• EXIT signs
117
What lights illuminate when normal aircraft electrical power fails and the EMER EXIT LT sw is in ARM?
• Floor proximity emergency escape path marking system
• Overhead emergency lighting
• EXIT signs
118
What occurs when the EMER EXIT LT switch is placed to OFF?
• All lights OFF
• Amber EMER EXIT LT OFF light illuminates
119
What flight deck lighting is available if normal electrical power is lost?
• Captain’s instrument panel (2 places)
• Right dome light (provided DOME switch set in DIM or BRT)
• Standby compass
120
When do you use engine anti-ice?
When OAT (Ground) / TAT (Flight) 10˚ C or below with visible moisture present
Prior to and during descent in icing conditions (including temperatures below –40˚ C SAT)
121
What is the exception to the engine anti-ice rule?
Do not use engine anti-ice during climb and cruise when the temperature is below –40˚ C SAT
122
What does a FAULT light in the ENG ANTI ICE pushbutton indicate?
Switch/anti-ice valve disagreement
123
With ENG ANTI ICE ON what indications will you see?
Blue ENG ANTI ICE light ON
ECAM: ENG ANTI ICE
N1 limit is reduced (amber tick on N1 indicator)
N1 idle is increased
124
With engine anti-ice ON, is your descent affected?
Yes, because idle thrust is increased
125
What happens if you turn on the WING ANTI ICE switch on the ground?
The wing anti-icing valves will open for a 30 second test
126
What part of the wing is heated?
Outboard 3 slats
127
When do the wing anti-ice valves automatically close?
On landing
Bleed leak detected
Loss of electrical power
128
What does the amber FAULT light in the WING ANTI ICE pushbutton indicate?
Switch/anti-ice valve disagreement
Low pressure is detected
129
In what position do the Wing and Engine Anti-Ice valves fail if electrical power is lost?
Wing – valves CLOSE
Engine – valves OPEN
130
On the ground, with the PROBE/WINDOW HEAT pushbutton in AUTO, when are the probe and mast
heaters activated?
LOW with at least one engine running (except the TAT probe – not heated on ground)
NORMAL is automatically set after takeoff
131
What does the PROBE/WINDOW HEAT pushbutton do?
Manually activates the probe, and window heaters
132
Which valves will receive a close command when the DITCHING pushbutton is depressed (ARPO)?
Avionics Inlet and Extract valves
Ram air inlet
Pack Flow Control valves
Outflow valve (only if in AUTO mode)
133
Will the DITCHING pushbutton always close the outflow valve?
Not if the outflow valve is under manual control
134
Can the pilot control the outflow valve?
Yes, select MAN on the MODE SEL and use the MAN V/S CTL switch
135
How many controllers are in the pressurization system?
2, only one is used at a time and they swap roles after each landing
136
How do you manually switch controllers?
Switch MODE SEL to MAN for 10 seconds, then back to AUTO
137
What does an amber FAULT light in the MODE SEL pushbutton indicate?
Both automatic pressure controllers are faulty
138
From what source does the pressurization system obtain landing elevation?
FMGC database
139
When the mode selector is out of the AUTO position, how do you set a landing elevation?
Manually by selecting landing elevation via the LDG ELEV dial
140
What protects the airframe from excessive cabin differential pressure?
2 pressure relief valves (safety valves)
141
How many outflow valve motors are installed?
3, One for each CPC and one for manual control
142
The pneumatic system is monitored and controlled by?
2 Bleed Monitoring Computers (BMC)
143
If one BMC fails, can the other take over?
Yes, they are interconnected. If BMC 1 fails:
APU and ENG 1 leak detection are not monitored
ECAM APU BLEED LEAK warning is lost
144
The PACK FLOW selector has LO, NORM, and HI positions (A320). What does this allow us to do?
Select pack flow rates representing LO 80%, NORM 100%, and HIGH 120% of NORM
145
What flow rate is automatically selected when APU bleed air is in use or during single pack
operation?
Hi
146
When should the PACK FLOW selector not be in the normal position?
IF A/C 201-299, 301-399 (A320):
LO: If the number of passengers is below 115.
NORM: For normal operating conditions.
HI: For abnormally hot and/or humid conditions.
IF A/C 701 - 799 (A321):
ON: For ECON flow if the number of passengers is below 140.
OFF: For normal flow
147
If the engine bleed air in-flight is too low what will occur?
Minimum idle engine speed is automatically increased to provide adequate bleed air pressure
148
What would cause an amber FAULT light to illuminate in the PACK 1 and/or Pack 2 pushbutton (OOD)?
Overheat - Pack outlet
Overheat - Compressor outlet
Disagreement - Switch position disagreement with pack flow control valve
Note: FAULT light will be illuminated when no bleed air is supplied
149
What does the amber FAULT light in the APU BLEED pushbutton indicate?
Bleed leak (APU bleed valve closes)
150
What causes the amber FAULT light on the ENG 1 BLEED and/or ENG 2 BLEED pushbutton (OOLD)?
Overpressure - Downstream of the bleed valve
Overheat
Leak - Low pressure
Disagreement - APU bleed valve open and engine bleed valve not closed or
Engine Start with bleed valve not closed
151
What are the two functions of the engine bleed valves?
To Act as:
Pressure regulation
Shut off valves
152
At what cabin differential pressure does the RAM AIR valve open?
ΔP less than 1 PSI
153
What logic controls the X-Bleed valve when the X-BLEED switch is in AUTO?
When APU bleed valve is OPEN, the X-Bleed valve is open
When APU bleed valve is CLOSED, the X-Bleed valve is closed
X-Bleed also CLOSES for wing, pylon, or APU duct leak (except during engine start)
154
What causes the Pack Flow Control valve to automatically close?
Upstream pressure below minimum
Pack overheat
Engine start sequence
Engine FIRE pushbutton on the related side pressed
DITCHING pushbutton is selected
155
What does an amber FAULT light in the HOT AIR pushbutton indicate?
Duct overheat - the Hot Air and Trim Air valves close automatically
156
How many Air Conditioning System Controllers are there?
2. Each Air Conditioning System Controller has 2 lanes – (Active/Standby)
157
Describe how the Air Conditioning System Controllers regulate temperature?
Basic temperature regulation: Both packs produce the required outlet temperature determined
by the lowest demanded zone temperature
Optimized temperature regulation: Hot air is added to the individual zones by the trim air
valves to maintain the desired zone temperatures
158
What occurs when an active lane of an Air Conditioning System Controller fails?
The second lane takes over
159
What occurs when both lanes of an Air Conditioning System Controller fails?
The related pack is lost. The hot air pressure regulating valve and associated trim air valve(s) close
160
How does the Air Conditioning System Controller configure its associated pack ram air inlet flap for takeoff and landing to avoid the ingestion of foreign matter?
• Takeoff: Pack Ram Air Inlet Flap closes when takeoff power is set and the main landing gear
struts are compressed.
• Reopens after main landing gear strut extension
• Landing: Pack Ram Air Inlet Flap closes as soon as the main landing gear struts are compressed
and speed ≥ 70 knots.
• Opens 20 seconds after speed < 70 knots
161
If an air cycle machine (ACM) fails, what occurs?
The affected pack will operate as a heat exchanger
162
What effect will the engine start sequence have on the pack flow control valves?
The pack flow control valve will close automatically
163
After engine start with the APU BLEED pushbutton ON, what source is supplying bleed air to the packs?
APU Bleed
164
When does the Lav/Galley Extract Fan operate?
Continuously when electrical power is available
165
When performing the PRELIMINARY FLIGHT DECK PREPARATION, what is the minimum Battery Voltage?
25.5 Volts
166
What do you do if it is below 25.5V?
Select BATT pushbuttons to ON with EXT PWR on aircraft. This starts the charging cycle
(approximately 20min required)
167
When performing the FLIGHT DECK PREPARATION, what are we looking for on the ELEC panel BAT check?
• ECAM ELEC page – select
• BAT 1 & 2 – OFF then ON
• Check BATT current is < 60 amps after 10 seconds and continues to decrease
168
Will the batteries completely drain if you leave the BAT switches in AUTO after AC power is removed on the ground?
No. Battery cut-off logic prevents complete discharge when the aircraft is on the ground and
unpowered – 22VDC
169
How is the BATTERY BUS normally powered?
DC BUS 1 through a DC tie contactor
170
What does the amber FAULT light in the GALLEY pushbutton indicate?
At least 1 generator load is above 100% rated output
171
How does the GALLEY pushbutton work in AUTO?
• Sheds main galley, IFE and in-seat power supply if:
• Only 1 generator (APU or Engine) is available in FLIGHT, or
• Only 1 ENGINE generator is available on the GROUND
172
What does a FAULT on the ENG GEN pushbutton indicate?
The generator line contactor is open because of a fault detected by the Generator Control Unit (GCU) which could include:
Overload
Over/under voltage
Differential fault (short), and/or;
The generator line contactor is open
173
What does the APU GEN FAULT light indicate?
The generator line contactor is open because of a fault detected by the GCU
174
When is the APU GEN FAULT light inhibited?
APU speed too low
Line contactor OPEN after EXT PWR or ENG GEN takes over
175
What is the function of the BUS TIE in the AUTO position?
• Allows the BUS TIE CONTACTORS to open and close automatically to maintain power to both AC BUS 1 & 2
• Allows a single source to power the entire system
• Allows connection of the APU GEN or EXT PWR to the system
• Inhibits multiple sources to connect simultaneously
176
What does an IDG FAULT light indicate?
Oil pressure low (inhibited when N2 < 14%)
Oil outlet temperature overheat
Light is inhibited when IDG is disconnected
177
What precautions must you take when disconnecting an IDG?
Do not disconnect when the engine is not operating or windmilling
Do not hold button longer than 3 seconds
178
How can an IDG be reset?
On the ground by maintenance
179
What is the function of the AC ESS FEED pushbutton in the normal position?
Allows AC BUS 1 to power the AC ESS BUS
180
How is AC ESS FEED transferred from AC BUS 1 to AC BUS 2?
Manually by selecting ALTN on the AC ESS FEED pushbutton or automatically if AC BUS 1 is lost and the switch is in the normal position
181
What does the AC ESS FEED pushbutton white ALTN light indicate?
AC BUS 2 is powering the AC ESS BUS
182
What is the purpose of the static inverter?
To provide AC power to the AC ESS bus from the battery when the EMG GEN is not online when in the Emergency Electrical Configuration
183
What are the 3 times the batteries are connected to the BATTERY BUS?
APU start
Battery charging
AC BUS 1 & 2 not powered and airspeed below 100 knots
184
What is the priority sequence for electrical power (GEARB)?
Generators - Engine
EXT PWR (manually selected)
APU Generator
RAT Emergency Generator
Batteries
185
With the APU green AVAIL light ON and the EXT PWR blue ON light illuminated, which system is powering the aircraft?
EXT PWR
186
What is the significance of the green and red collared circuit breakers on the flight deck?
Green – Monitored by ECAM
Red – Wing tip brake C/B
Black – Not monitored by ECAM
187
What is the normal in-flight fuel management scheme?
Use center tank first, then the wing tanks
188
How many fuel pumps are installed?
2 in each wing tank
1 APU pump to provide fuel to the APU when the left wing/center tank pumps are off
2 in center tank
189
With full fuel, when do the center tank fuel pumps operate (A320)?
For 2 minutes after BOTH engines are started (if slats are retracted, pumps will continue to
operate)
After slat retraction
Continue to run for 5 minutes until the center tank is empty or slats are extended
190
What will cause a FUEL MODE SEL FAULT light?
Failure of the AUTO mode
Center tank contains more than 550 lb and either main tank has less than 11,000 lb
191
When do the main tank outer cells drain into the inner tanks (A320)?
When the inner tank quantity reaches 1,650 lbs
192
If only one inner tank reaches 1,650 lb, what happens to the other transfer valve (A320)?
All 4 transfer valves open
193
Once opened to transfer fuel, how are the fuel transfer valves closed?
Automatically at the next refueling operation
194
How is the IDG cooled?
By fuel from the HP fuel pump drawn in from the fuel manifold and then returned to its respective outer tank. When full the outer tank spills over to the inner tank
195
If the IDG return fuel fills the wing tanks, what occurs?
The center tank pumps turn off until the wing tank quantity reduces by 1,100 lb
196
What does an amber FAULT light in the FUEL PUMP pushbutton indicate?
Low fuel delivery pressure
197
Can fuel be transferred from one tank to another?
Only during ground refueling
198
Why are the outer wing tanks drained last?
Structural wing bending moment relief
199
When does the APU fuel pump run?
When the wing or center tank pumps are off or when the aircraft is on battery power only
200
What does the REFUEL message on the ECAM indicate?
The refueling control panel door is not closed
201
What does an amber boxed ECAM FOB indicate?
Some fuel is unusable
202
Can the aircraft be flown with a loss of all hydraulic systems?
No – you must have at least one
203
What occurs when you press the RAT MAN ON pushbutton?
The RAT extends
204
Does the PTU transfer hydraulic fluid?
No
205
How many hydraulic pumps are in the GREEN system?
1 Engine
1 PTU
206
How many hydraulic pumps are in the BLUE system?
1 Electric
1 RAT
207
How many hydraulic pumps are in the YELLOW system?
1 Engine
1 Electric
1 PTU
1 Hand pump
208
When does the BLUE ELEC PUMP operate?
• After the first engine is started
• In flight
• If the BLUE PUMP OVRD pb on the MAINTENANCE panel has been pressed with no engine running
209
What is normal system hydraulic pressure?
3000 PSI
210
Does the RAT automatically deploy with the loss of BLUE hydraulic pressure?
No, it must be deployed manually by the RAT MAN ON pushbutton
211
If the ACCU PRESS indicator is low and an external walkaround is to be completed, what should you do?
Obtain ground clearance then turn ON the YELLOW ELEC PUMP to pressurize the accumulator
212
What condition will cause the PTU to operate when the pushbutton is in AUTO?
A difference of 500 PSI between GREEN and YELLOW hydraulic systems
213
When is the PTU inhibited?
PTU pushbutton OFF
First engine start
Parking brake is SET and only one ENG MASTER switch is ON
NWS in towing position and parking brake RELEASED
Cargo door operation (PTU is also inhibited for 40 seconds after the end of cargo door operation)
214
If the ECAM actions lead you to turn OFF the PTU for a Reservoir Overheat, will the FAULT light go out?
No, not until the overheat subsides
215
If the FAULT light in the PTU pushbutton is ON, are there any other indications on the HYD Panel?
Yes – FAULT light illuminated in the respective ENG PUMP pushbutton
216
Can the YELLOW ELEC PUMP run the PTU?
Yes
217
Name several items that run from only the GREEN system.
Landing gear
Normal brakes
Slats and flaps
Engine 1 reverser
218
Name several items that run from only the YELLOW system.
Nosewheel steering
Alternate brakes
Parking brake
Cargo doors
Engine 2 reverser
219
List several items that are powered by the BLUE system.
Slats
Emergency generator
220
What does an amber FAULT light in the PTU pushbutton indicate (OLL)?
O - Overtemp in reservoir
L - Low air pressure in the reservoir
L - Low quantity in the reservoir
221
What does an amber FAULT light in the ENG PUMP pushbutton indicate (POLL)?
P - Pump pressure low
O - Overtemp in reservoir
L - Low air pressure in the reservoir
L - Low quantity in the reservoir
222
What does a FAULT light in the BLUE or YELLOW ELEC PUMP pushbutton indicate (POLLO)?
P - Pump pressure low
O - Overtemp in reservoir
L - Low air pressure in the reservoir
L - Low quantity in the reservoir
O - Overheat of pump
223
Where are the HYD FIRE SHUTOFF VALVES located?
Between the respective reservoir and ENG pump
224
What is the function of the hydraulic priority valves?
Hydraulic power to the flaps, slats, landing gear, and emergency generator is cut off if pressure drops below a predetermined value (high demand items)
225
What is the purpose of the hand pump?
To provide Yellow hydraulic pressure for cargo door operation
226
Where are the engine fire loops installed?
Pylon nacelle
Engine core
Fan section
227
What happens if both fire loops fail?
If the failure of both loops occurs within 5 seconds of each other, a FIRE warning will be issued
228
What does an amber DISCH light mean?
The fire extinguisher bottle has lost its pressure
229
How many fire extinguishers are provided for each engine?
2
230
List the actions that occur when an ENGINE FIRE pushbutton is pressed.
2 – Silences the aural fire warning and arms the fire extinguisher squibs
1 – Closes the hydraulic fire shut off valve
2 - Closes the low-pressure fuel valve
1 – Deactivates the IDG (FADEC power supply also deactivated)
2 - Closes the pack flow control and engine bleed valves
231
What occurs when you press the TEST pushbutton on the ENGINE FIRE panel?
7 lights:
CRC sounds
MASTER WARN lights flash (2)
ENG FIRE pb illuminates red (1)
SQUIB and DISCH lights illuminate (2)
ECAM FIRE WARNING (1)
FIRE light on the ENG panel illuminates (1)
232
How many fire extinguishers are provided for the APU?
1
233
What occurs when you press the APU FIRE TEST pushbutton?
CRC sounds
5 Lights:
MASTER WARN lights flash (2)
APU FIRE pb illuminates red (1)
SQUIB and DISCH lights illuminate (1)
ECAM FIRE WARNING (1)
234
Does the APU fire extinguisher automatically discharge if a fire is detected on the ground?
Yes. The APU will automatically shut down and the APU fire extinguisher will discharge
235
Does the APU fire extinguisher automatically discharge if a fire is detected in flight?
No
236
What is the AUDIO SWITCHING PANEL used for?
Allows for switching to ACP 3 if ACP 1 or 2 fails
237
What are we checking on the Maintenance Panel during the preliminary flight deck prep flow?
Checking that all lights are extinguished. If not contact maintenance
238
What does the CARGO HEAT HOT AIR amber FAULT light indicate?
Duct overheat
239
How many fire extinguishers are provided for the cargo compartments?
1 bottle, which can be discharged to either compartment
2 bottles, which can be discharged to either compartment. 205 min discharge requirement for
ETOPS (ETOPS certified aircraft)
240
What does the red SMOKE light in the FWD or AFT pushbutton indicate?
Both channels detect smoke, or
One channel faulty and the other detects smoke
241
How many smoke detectors are there?
2 forward cargo
4 aft cargo
242
With a CARGO SMOKE warning what happens to the Isolation Valve and Extract Fan?
Isolation Valve closes
Extract Fan stops
243
What is the purpose of the CABIN FANS?
To re-circulate cabin air to the mixing chamber and then back to the cabin
244
With BLOWER and EXTRACT pushbuttons in AUTO how does the system operate?
Ground – system is normally in the OPEN configuration
Flight – system is normally in the CLOSED configuration
Intermediate – Closed configuration except small internal flap in Extract Valve is open
245
With both BLOWER and EXTRACT pushbuttons in OVRD (smoke configuration) what are the positions of the INLET and EXTRACT valves?
INLET valve CLOSED
EXTRACT valve INTERMEDIATE
246
What is the status of the Blower and Extract fans with the Blower and Extract valves in OVRD?
BLOWER fan OFF
EXTRACT fan ON
247
When is air conditioning introduced into the avionics compartment?
Abnormal operation
SMOKE configuration
248
Is the skin heat exchanger ever bypassed in flight?
Yes, during SMOKE configuration
249
What does an amber FAULT light on the BLOWER pushbutton indicate?
SMOKE warning is activated
Computer power supply failure
Low blower pressure
Duct overheat
250
What does an amber FAULT light on the EXTRACT pushbutton indicate?
SMOKE Warning is activated
Computer power supply failure
Low Extract pressure
251
With 2 FAULT lights on the VENTILATION panel are there any other indications?
Yes – The SMOKE light in the GEN 1 LINE pushbutton
252
What are the primary differences between an automatic and a manual start?
Automatic Start - The FADEC provides full monitoring during start and will provide appropriate
ECAM cautions and procedures to follow in the event of a start fault
Manual Start - Automatic start interruption and auto-crank are not available
253
When would you use a manual start?
After aborting a start because of:
• Engine stall
• Engine EGT overlimit
• Low start air pressure
When expecting a start abort because of:
• Degraded bleed performance due to hot conditions or at high altitude airports
• An engine with a reduced EGT margin in hot conditions or at high altitude airports
• Marginal performance of the external pneumatic power group
254
What does the red arrow in the SIDE STICK PRIORITY light mean?
It illuminates in front of the pilot losing authority
255
How would you regain control if you had just lost sidestick authority?
The last pilot to press the pushbutton on the sidestick will have authority. An aural “Priority Left” or “Priority Right” will sound
256
What do flashing green CAPT and F/O SIDESTICK PRIORITY lights indicate?
Both sidesticks have been moved simultaneously and neither pilot has taken priority
257
What happens when both pilots make an input simultaneously on the sidesticks?
The inputs are algebraically summed up to the normal limits
An aural “Dual Input” will sound
Green CAPT and F/O lights will illuminate
258
What is the function of the Flight Control Unit?
Permits short term interface between the pilot and FMGS
Allows temporary modification of any flight parameter (HDG, SPD, ALT, V/S)
Used to select operational modes of the autopilots, flight directors, and A/THR system
259
What do dashes in the FCU display windows along with the adjacent white dot indicate?
FMGS Managed Guidance is in use
260
How is Selected Guidance engaged?
Pull the appropriate selector knob
261
How do you confirm all autopilot, FD, and A/THR inputs?
Confirm all mode inputs by reference to the Flight Mode Annunciator (FMA)
262
Will the FCU Altitude window ever display dashes?
No. Pilot selected altitude will always be displayed
263
What does each column mean on the PFD?
A/THR | VERTICAL | LATERAL | APPRCH CAPABILITY, DH/MDA | AP, FD, A/THR ENGAGEMENT STATUS
264
How is the crew made aware of mode changes on the FMA?
A white box is temporarily displayed around the new indication (10-15secs)
265
How are armed modes displayed on the FMA?
Blue – armed
Magenta – armed because of a constraint
Green – engaged
266
When is the side stick position indication icon (white cross) displayed?
Displayed when the first engine is started
Disappears at liftoff
267
What would the large red arrowheads indicate?
Pitch attitude of >30˚
268
What is the meaning of USE MANUAL PITCH TRIM?
You are in Direct Law
269
What is the meaning of MAN PITCH TRIM ONLY?
You are in Mechanical Backup
270
What are the pitch and roll angle limits indicated by the green = signs?
Pitch: +30˚ up/-15˚ down
Roll: +/- 67˚
271
How can you determine you are in Alternate Law?
Amber X’s replace the green = marks at the pitch and bank limits
Only VLS and VSW is displayed on the airspeed scale
272
When would the sideslip index change from yellow to blue?
In case of an engine failure during takeoff/go-around, it is now a blue beta target
273
What does the yellow speed trend line on the airspeed display indicate?
The speed the aircraft will reach in 10 seconds if acceleration/deceleration remains constant
274
What is the difference between the magenta and blue target airspeeds?
Magenta – Managed speed computed by the FMGC
Blue – Selected speed on the FCU
275
What is Vls and how is it displayed?
Represents lowest selectable speed providing an appropriate margin to the stall speed
Defined by the top of the amber strip along the airspeed scale
In approach mode is equivalent to Vref
276
What speed does Vmax represent and how is it displayed?
It is the lowest of Vmo/Mmo, Vle, or Vfe
Defined by the bottom of a red and black strip along the speed scale
277
What is Green Dot speed?
Engine out operating speed in clean configuration
Appears when the aircraft is in the clean configuration
Corresponds to the best lift-to-drag ratio
278
What is Ground Speed Mini?
Based on a calculated groundspeed at the runway
Protects against actual groundspeed dropping below this calculated groundspeed
279
What does it mean when you see the magenta target airspeed triangle above VAPP on approach?
Ground Speed Mini has increased speed due to a higher headwind component at your present
location than what was calculated at the runway
280
Is this protection available in selected speed?
No – Managed speed only
281
What would be indicated if the altitude window changed from yellow to amber?
The aircraft has deviated from the FCU selected altitude or flight level by 250 feet
282
When is altitude alerting automatically inhibited in flight?
When slats are extended with the landing gear selected down
On approach after glide slope capture
When the landing gear is locked down
283
What does it mean when the altitude digits change from green to amber?
The aircraft has descended below the MDA/DH entered into the FMGC
284
When is Radio Height displayed on the PFD?
Below 2,500 feet AGL
285
Information from ILS receiver 1 is displayed where?
Captain’s PFD
F/O’s ND
286
What would a flashing amber ILS indicate on the bottom of the PFD?
Flashes amber when APPR mode is armed and the LS display is not selected
287
Top of Descent and Continue Descent arrows are displayed in blue or white. What is the difference?
Top of Descent – Always white (never armed)
Continue Descent – Blue indicates armed, white indicates NOT armed
288
What color does each altitude constraint circle represent?
White – constraint is not taken into account
Magenta – constraint is predicted to be satisfied
Amber – constraint is predicted to be missed
289
If mode range data fails what should you expect to see on the ND?
ROSE NAV mode at 80 nm range
290
What are the 3 levels of ECAM Failure Mode Notifications?
Level 1 - ALERT – Associated with amber E/WD message, no aural signal, and requires crew monitoring
Level 2 - CAUTION – Associated with the amber MASTER CAUT light, single chime, and require crew awareness
Level 3 - WARNING – Associated with the red MASTER WARN light, CRC, and require immediate action
291
If simultaneous failures occur, how will they be presented to the crew?
A level 3 Warning has priority over a level 2 Caution which has priority over a level 1 Alert
292
What types of failures are presented to the crew?
Independent – Failure affecting an isolated system/item without degrading other systems/items
Primary – Failure of a system/item that affects the use of other systems/items
Secondary – Loss of a system/item resulting from a primary failure
293
What indication does the E/WD provide for secondary failures?
Secondary failures are displayed on the lower right portion of the E/WD and are preceded by an *
294
What does the appearance of a green arrow indicate at the bottom of the E/WD screen indicate?
Information has overflowed off the screen and the pilot must scroll down using the CLR pushbutton on the ECAM panel
295
What does the display of T.O. INHIBIT or LDG INHIBIT indicate?
Most warnings and cautions are inhibited to avoid unnecessary distractions during critical phases of flight
296
Q: When does the Takeoff Memo appear?
2 minutes after the second engine is started or when the T.O. CONFIG TEST pushbutton is pressed with one engine running
Takeoff Memo is removed when takeoff power is applied
297
When does the Landing Memo appear?
Below 2,000 feet RA
Memo disappears after touchdown (80 knots)
Displays at 800 feet if you never climbed above 2000 feet RA
298
In general, when are the system pages automatically displayed on the SD?
Relative to the current phase of flight, or
When a system malfunction is detected
299
When is a STATUS page displayed?
After a failure is displayed on the SD and all failure items have been cleared
STATUS will reappear when the slats are extended
300
What is the function of the two Landing Gear Control and Interface Units (LGCIU)?
Provide sequencing, operation, monitoring, and indications for the landing gear
Provide aircraft “In Flight” or “On the Ground” signals to other aircraft systems
301
When does the red arrow in the LND panel illuminate?
Below 750 feet RA, when the aircraft is in the landing configuration and the landing gear is not locked down
302
What happens if your airspeed is 280 knots and you place the Landing Gear lever to DOWN?
Nothing - A safety valve shuts off hydraulic power to the landing gear system when airspeed is above 260 knots
303
What do the red UNLK lights indicate?
The landing gear is not locked in the selected position
304
What controls and manages all braking functions?
Normal Brakes: Braking Steering Control Unit (BSCU)
Alternate Brakes: Alternate Braking Control Unit (ABCU)
305
What happens when you switch the A/SKID & N/W STRG to OFF?
• Nosewheel steering deactivated
• Brake pressure is supplied by the Yellow hydraulic system
• Anti-skid is deactivated
• BSCU and ABCU are depowered
• A 1,000 psi pressure limiting valve helps prevent wheel lock up
306
Which hydraulic systems provide pressure to the brakes?
Normal brakes – Green
Alternate brakes – Yellow backed up by a hydraulic accumulator
307
What are the four modes of braking?
Normal braking
Alternate braking with antiskid
Alternate braking without antiskid (max brake pressure 1000 psi)
Parking brake
308
When do the Autobrakes activate on landing if armed?
When the ground spoilers deploy
309
What is the difference between LOW and MED AUTO BRK?
LOW – progressive pressure applied to brakes 4 seconds after ground spoilers deploy to decelerate at 5.6 FPS
MED - progressive pressure applied to brakes 2 seconds after ground spoilers deploy to decelerate at 9.8 FPS
310
What does the AUTO BRK green DECEL light indicate?
Actual rate of deceleration is within 80% of the selected rate
311
What is the Takeoff setting for Auto Brakes?
MAX
312
What will cause the MAX AUTO BRK to activate on a RTO?
Airspeed above 72 knots, and
Thrust Levers at IDLE, and
Ground spoiler extension
313
If you lose Green hydraulic pressure will you have Auto Brakes?
No, not with the Alternate Brake system
314
Is Anti-skid available with Alternate Brakes?
Yes, if certain conditions are met
315
With spoilers not armed will the spoilers deploy for an RTO?
Yes – when at least one engine is in reverse
316
How many brake applications are available with accumulator pressure?
Approximately 7 full applications of brake pedals or parking brake or any combination thereof
317
What does the BRAKES & ACCU PRESS triple indicator indicate?
Yellow hydraulic pressure delivered to the left and right brakes
Yellow system brake accumulator pressure
318
What computers feed data to the six display units?
3 Display Management Computers (DMC)
319
What does each of the DMCs normally supply?
DMC 1 – Captain PFD, ND, upper ECAM DU, lower DU
DMC 2 – F/O PFD, ND
DMC 3 – Backup
320
How can you tell if a DMC has failed?
“INVALID DATA” will be displayed in the respective EFIS/ECAM display units
321
What happens when the upper ECAM display fails?
The E/WD automatically replaces the SD on the lower ECAM display
322
If both the E/WD and SD display units fail, how can you display E/WD information?
Select the ECAM/ND switch to CAPT or F/O to transfer the E/WD to either ND
323
With the E/WD displayed on the lower screen, how else can you view SD information?
Press and hold the appropriate system button on the ECAM Control Panel that you wish to view
324
What does the ALL pushbutton do?
Displays ALL the system pages successively in 1-second intervals when held down
Release the pushbutton to maintain display of the selected page
325
What does pressing the RCL pushbutton?
Allows you to recall any warning or caution messages that the activation of the CLR pushbutton or flight phase inhibition may have suppressed
If held longer than 3 seconds, the E/WD will show any caution messages suppressed by the EMER CANC pushbutton
326
If you press the STS pushbutton and the system has no STATUS messages what will be displayed?
“NORMAL” for 3 seconds
327
If power fails to the ECAM CONTROL panel which buttons are still functional?
EMER CANC
ALL
CLR
STS
RCL
328
What does the EMER CANC do?
Cancels the current Level 1 or 2 warning for the remainder of the flight
Cancels the current Level 3 warning for that occurrence
329
What do you look for on the PRELIMINARY FLIGHT DECK PREPARATION quantity check? (This question is from VOL III)
DOOR – Oxygen Pressure: verify that the pressure is sufficient for scheduled flight, refer to Section 2.10 Oxygen.
HYD – Hydraulic Quantity: ensure hydraulic quantity indexes in normal filling range (A fluid level above the normal fill range extending up to an equivalent of half the normal range is acceptable).
ENG – Oil Qnty:
If CEO Aircraft:
Oil Quantity is at or above 9.5 qt + .5 qts per hour of estimated flight time.
If NEO Aircraft:
Oil Quantity is at or above 9.0 qt + .5 qts per hour of estimated time and not below 10.6qt. For
NEO aircraft, if the engines have been shut down for more than 60 minutes, decrease the
required quantities from above by 3 qt to account for oil thermal expansion.
330
What occurs when the T.O. CONFIG pushbutton is pressed?
The system simulates the application of T.O. power and checks certain systems for proper configuration
A warning is displayed if and system is not configured properly “TO CONFIG NORMAL” is displayed in the TO MEMO section if the configuration is correct
331
How is the THS normally operated in flight?
The flight control computers control trim functions automatically
332
If NO hydraulic power is available can the THS be positioned?
No - the THS requires hydraulic power from the Green or Yellow systems
333
If a complete flight control computer failure occurs can the THS be positioned?
Yes, mechanical trimming is possible by manually positioning the Pitch Trim Wheel
334
Can you move the PITCH trim wheel if all systems are working normally?
Manual inputs have priority over computer inputs. The autopilot will disconnect
335
What happens to the THS when the aircraft enters into Ground Mode?
The trim automatically resets to zero (inside the green band)
336
What controls the engines in all operating regimes?
FADECs (Full Authority Digital Engine Controls)
337
What functions does the FADEC control?
Fuel metering
Engine limits based on thrust lever angle
Start sequencing
Provides engine indications and thrust limit displays on the E/WD
338
What redundancy does the FADEC have?
Dual channel redundancy – one channel is active while the other is standby
339
What is the power source for the FADEC?
The system has its own alternator making it independent of the aircraft electrical system when N2 is above a set value
If this alternator fails the FADEC automatically switches to aircraft electrical power
340
When will the FADEC abort a start?
Hot start
Stalled start
No ignition
341
If the FADEC detects a fault during automatic start, is any crew intervention required?
No. The FADEC will discontinue the start, clear the engine, and attempt a restart (if warranted) automatically
342
When does the FADEC command a higher engine idle speed?
Bleed demands
Approach Configuration
High engine or IDG temperatures
343
How many igniters fire on manual or in-flight starts?
Both A and B
344
When does continuous ignition automatically operate?
Engine flameout detection
Failure of the Engine Interface Unit (EIU)
345
What is the active range of the A/THR?
Just above IDLE to the CL detent (2 engines)
Just above IDLE to the MCT detent (1 engine)
346
What determines the maximum thrust the A/THR system will be able to command?
The position detent of the thrust lever
347
What are 3 ways to disconnect the A/THR?
Instinctive Disconnect buttons
Thrust Levers to IDLE
A/THR pushbutton
348
How do you disconnect the A/THR for the remainder of the flight?
Press and hold the Instinctive Disconnect Pushbutton for 15 seconds
349
What would you lose if you held down the Instinctive Disconnect Pushbutton for more than 15 seconds?
Alpha Floor Protection
350
How do you regain normal A/THR when in TOGA LK or THR LK?
Move Thrust Levers to the TOGA detent
Press the Instinctive Disconnect button
Return Thrust Levers to CL detent
Push the A/THR pushbutton to engage A/THR
351
When is Alpha Floor Protection active?
From lift-off through 100 feet RA on approach
352
When would Thrust Lock occur?
Thrust levers in CL detent and A/THR pushbutton on the FCU is pushed, or A/THR disconnects due to a failure
353
What controls the engine LP fuel valves?
Engine MASTER switch
ENGINE FIRE pushbutton
354
What does a fault light on the ENG panel indicate?
Auto start abort
Switch disagreement between HP valve and its commanded position
355
How many transponders are installed?
2
356
Does illumination of the ATC FAIL light indicate loss of all transponder capability?
No – only the selected transponder has failed
357
With only Green hydraulic system pressure available, will both the flaps and slats operate?
Yes, at ½ speed
358
What system prevents flap or slat asymmetry?
Wing Tip Brakes (WTB)
359
What causes the WTBs to activate (ROAM)?
• Runaway (Move handle to 1, all go to 3)
• Overspeed (Flap jack screw breaks)
• Asymmetry (Both on one side move farther)
• Movement (Never touch handle, ALL just move)
360
If the WTB activates due to a flap asymmetry can the slats still operate?
Yes, only flap operation is inhibited
361
How may Slat/Flap Control Computers (SFCC) are installed?
2
362
What would occur if one SFCC failed?
The slats and flaps would continue to operate, but at half speed
363
What flap/slat configurations correspond to position 1 on the FLAPS lever and how do they differ?
CONF 1+F is used for takeoff and provides both slats (position 1) + flaps
CONF 1 is used in-flight and is slats only
364
When will the Automatic Retraction System (ARS) operate?
During acceleration in CONF 1+F the FLAPS (not slats) will automatically retract to 0 at 210 knots
365
What is Alpha Lock?
This function inhibits retracting slats from 1 to 0 at a high angle of attack or low airspeed
366
When the FLAP legend appears in cyan on the upper ECAM display what is indicated?
Flaps/slats in transit
367
What happens to the ailerons when the flaps are extended?
The ailerons droop 5˚
368
Is there any landing configuration when speed brake extension is inhibited?
Flaps FULL
369
When do the Ground Spoilers automatically extend?
Partial – When reverse thrust is selected on at least one engine with the other at idle and one main landing gear strut is compressed
Full – At touchdown of both main gear , or in case of RTO with airspeed above 72 knots, when
BOTH thrust levers at IDLE (if ground spoilers armed) or when reverse thrust is selected on at least one engine with the other thrust lever at IDLE (if the ground spoilers are not armed)
370
At touchdown with reverse selected and only one landing gear strut compressed, will the ground spoilers extend?
Partially – Full extension is limited until both main gear struts are compressed
371
When will the ground spoilers automatically retract?
When at least one thrust lever is advanced above IDLE
372
When is speedbrake extension inhibited (SAFET)?
SEC 1 and 3 have failed
AOA protection is active
Flaps FULL
Elevator (L or R) fault (only spoilers 3 and 4 are inhibited)
Thrust levers above the MCT position
373
In flight, what happens if a spoiler fault is detected or electrical power is lost?
The spoiler automatically retracts
374
What is the difference between the A321 and A320 regarding speed brake usage with the AP on?
With the A321 you get full spoiler deflection and with the A320 you only get partial spoiler deflection
375
What capabilities does the RADAR system have?
Weather avoidance
Turbulence detection
Terrain mapping
Predictive windshear detection
376
What would prevent the weather display on the ND?
Mode selector in PLAN
TERR selected ON
377
When is WX/TURB mode available?
At ranges of 40 nm or less
378
Does predictive windshear detection work when the RADAR system is switched OFF?
Yes, if the windshear switch is in AUTO
379
What is the scanned area of the predictive windshear detection feature?
Up to 5 nm ahead of the aircraft when the aircraft is below 1,800 feet AGL
380
When are predictive windshear alerts inhibited?
When on the ground above 100 knots until reaching 50 feet AGL
When landing below 50 feet AGL
381
How many RADAR systems are installed?
1
382
How are the communications radios controlled?
From any one of the 3 RMPs
383
Which RMP is powered in the Emergency Electrical Configuration?
RMP 1
384
Which communication radio is powered in the Emergency Electrical Configuration?
VHF-1
385
What would cause the SEL indicator to illuminate on both RMPs?
When a communication radio normally associated with one RMP is tuned by another RMP
386
If the NAV key is selected on either RMP, can the FMGC still auto tune navaids?
No - RMP now controls the VOR/ILS receivers
NAV key on RMP 3 has no effect
Normal radio communication is still available
387
What methods would the crew utilize to make a PA announcement?
Pressing the PA switch on the ACP and using the boom, hand, or mask microphone, or
The flight deck handset dedicated to the PA system only
388
What does the illumination of the CALL light on the VHF transmission keys indicate?
The SELCAL system detects a call
389
What are the main components of the FMGS?
2 FMGCs
2 MCDUs
1 FCU (two independent channels)
2 FACs
390
What are the functions of the Flight Management Guidance Computers?
Flight Guidance
Flight Management
391
What are the 3 modes of FMGC operation?
Independent (MCDU scratchpad displays – INDEPENDENT OPERATION)
Single (ND displays - SELECT OFFSIDE RNG/MODE)
Dual (Normal)
392
What are the 2 modes of flight guidance?
Managed Guidance
Selected Guidance
393
What is the Managed mode of flight guidance used for?
Long-term Lateral, vertical , and speed profiles as determined by the FMGS
394
What is the Selected mode of flight guidance used for?
Temporary lateral, vertical and speed commands as selected with the FCU
395
Does Selected or Managed Guidance have priority?
Selected Guidance always has priority
396
How do you determine the validity of the navigation database?
On the Aircraft Status page via the MCDU
397
What input does each FMGC use for position determination?
A hybrid (“mix”) IRS/GPS position
398
How does autopilot selection influence master FMGS logic?
If one autopilot is engaged, the respective FMGS is master
If both autopilots are engaged, FMGS 1 will be the master
399
If an amber SELECT OFFSIDE RNG/MODE message is displayed on the ND what action should the crew take?
An FMGS has failed and both NDs must be set to the same mode and range (single mode)
400
Can both autopilots be engaged during any phase of flight?
No, only during an ILS approach
401
What is the difference between the large and small fonts utilized in the MCDU?
Large – Pilot entries and modifiable data
Small – Default/computed non-modifiable data
402
When would a Takeoff Shift be entered on the PERF TO page?
When takeoff begins at a runway intersection and GPS is not primary
403
Where do you enter the Zero Fuel Weight?
INIT B page (not accessible after engine start)
404
What do amber box prompts on the MCDU indicate?
An entry is mandatory
405
What occurs when managed NAV mode is engaged and the aircraft flies into a flight plan
discontinuity?
NAV mode will be lost and the HDG/TRK mode engages
406
When brake accumulator pressure is low, how is it recharged?
With the Yellow hydraulic system electric pump
407
How do you verify the Parking Brake is set?
ECAM PARKING BRK memo
Triple indicator brake pressure
408
If the parking brake is activated and no yellow hydraulic or accumulator pressure is available, do you still have available braking?
Yes, via the brake pedals, but you must have green hydraulic pressure
409
How we do charge the yellow system accumulators?
Pressing the yellow hydraulic electrical pump pushbutton
410
What happens if you turn the Rudder Trim with the autopilot engaged?
Nothing
411
Does the rudder RESET button work with the autopilot engaged?
No
412
What 3 things occur when you turn the Gravity Gear Extension hand-crank?
Removes Green hydraulic pressure
Opens gear doors
Releases the uplocks
413
How many turns of the Gravity Gear Extension handcrank does it take to lower the gear manually?
3 clock-wise turns
414
What hydraulic system supplies nose wheel steering?
Yellow
415
The steering hand wheels can steer the nose wheel up to how much in each direction?
+/- 75º
416
When using the rudder pedals for steering, when does the steering angle begin to reduce?
Starts reduction at 40 knots and progressively reduces to zero degrees at 130 knots
417
What protection/s do you have in Normal Law?
Load Factor Limitation (Clean = +2.5 / -1.0; Dirty = +2.0 / 0)
Pitch Attitude (30˚ UP/15˚ DN)
Bank Angle (67˚)
High Speed
High Angle of Attack (AOA alpha protection)
418
How does the High Speed Protection operate?
If Vmo/Mmo plus a predetermined factor is exceeded, the system induces a pitch-up input to limit aircraft speed
419
Can the pilot override the auto pitch-up associated with High Speed Protection in Normal Law?
No
420
What is Alpha Max?
The maximum angle of attack allowed in Normal Law, indicated by the top of the red strip on the airspeed scale
421
Q: How does High Angle of Attack Protection operate?
When the angle of attack exceeds Alpha Protection, pitch trim ceases and angle of attack is now proportional to sidestick deflection, not to exceed Alpha Max even with full aft sidestick deflection
422
What protection do you have in Alternate Law?
Load Factor
High speed stability (Nose up command) but can be overridden
Low speed stability (Nose down command) but can be overridden
423
Can you override the high stability in Alternate Law?
Yes
424
What protections do you have in Direct Law?
None
425
If you are in Pitch Alternate Law, what law would Roll be?
Direct Law
426
When is there a direct relationship between sidestick and flight control surface deflection?
When in Normal Law, Ground Mode
When in Direct Law
When below 50 feet in Flare Mode (pitch only)
427
How would you get into Abnormal Attitude Law?
By exceeding approximately double the Normal Law limits
428
What is the purpose of Abnormal Attitude Law?
Allows the aircraft to be recovered from an unusual attitude
429
Does the aircraft remain in abnormal attitude law once it returns within the normal flight envelope.
No. When the aircraft returns within the normal flight envelope, the abnormal attitude law disengages.
430
Will Abnormal Law revert to Direct Law on landing gear extension?
No
431
What PFD indications indicate Normal Law?
Green = for pitch, bank, and overspeed limits
Amber/black (alpha protection) airspeed tape
432
What is indicated if the PFD pitch and bank limits are amber X’s?
You are not in Normal Law
433
What would cause you to revert to another law?
Multiple failures of redundant systems
434
What law are you in when you perform the flight control check on the ground?
Normal Law, Ground Mode
435
Can the aircraft be flown with a loss of all flight control computers?
Yes, in Mechanical Backup
436
How is the airplane controlled in Mechanical Backup?
Pitch – Trim wheel (horizontal stabilizer)
Yaw – Rudder pedals (rudder)
Speed – Thrust levers
437
What is ROPS/ROW/ROP?
ROPS: Runway Overrun Prevention System
ROPS is made up of two sub-functions, ROW and ROP. The ROW function generates alerts which incite the flight crew to perform a Go-Around whereas the ROP function generates alerts which incite the flight crew to apply available deceleration means.
ROW: Runway Overrun Warning
ROW FUNCTION: The ROW function provides enhanced flight crew awareness about the approach stabilization and the capacity to land on available landing distance.
ROP: Runway Overrun Protection
ROP FUNCTION: The ROP function provides enhanced flight crew awareness about the deceleration and capacity to stop before the end of the runway.
438
In aircraft equipped with ROPS, when might you get a ROW amber “RWY TOO SHORT” vs. a Red “RWY TOO SHORT” message on the PFD?
Below 400 ft, if the computation for landing distance is more than the LDA:
• The amber “RWY TOO SHORT” message is displayed on both PFDs. This message flashes for 9s and then remains steady. This message is not associated to an aural alert.
Below 200 ft, if the computation for landing distance is more than the LDA:
• The red “RWY TOO SHORT” message is displayed on both PFDs. This message flashes for 9s and then remains steady. In addition, the following repetitive aural alert triggers: “RUNWAY TOO SHORT”.
439
When does the ROP trigger visual and aural alerts?
On ground, the ROP function computes the braking distance for the current aircraft and runway conditions. If current braking performance is not sufficient to stop on LDA, it triggers visual and aural alerts.
440
What happens if an overrun situation is detected?
As soon as an overrun situation is detected “MAX BRAKING” and “MAX REVERSE” messages are displayed on both PFDs. They flash for 9 s and then remain steady.
