ORAL Sheet Flashcards
(79 cards)
1
Q
What services does an Aerodrome Control unit provide?
A
- Aerodrome Control Service
- Basic Service
- Alerting Service
2
Q
What does Aerodrome Control issue to aircraft under its control?
A
Information and instructions
3
Q
Who does Aerodrome Control prevent collisions between?
A
- Aircraft flying in the vicinity of the ATZ
- Aircraft taking-off and landing
- Aircraft and vehicles, obstructions, and other aircraft on the manoeuvring area
- Aircraft on the apron
4
Q
What are the two divisions of Aerodrome Control?
A
- Air Control
- Ground Movement Control
5
Q
What are specific responsibilities of an Aerodrome Controller?
A
- Notifying emergency services as per local instructions
- Informing aircraft of depletion of emergency services
- Providing Approach Control Service when delegated
- Supplying pertinent data to Approach Control
- Informing the Aerodrome Operator of deterioration in aerodrome conditions
- Initiating overdue action at aerodromes without Approach Control
6
Q
True or False: Aerodrome Control may issue instructions that reduce separation established by Approach Control.
A
False
7
Q
What does Aerodrome Control coordinate with Approach Control?
A
- Departing IFR flights
- Arriving aircraft making their first call on the tower frequency
8
Q
What does Approach Control coordinate with Aerodrome Control?
A
- Aircraft approaching to land
- Arriving aircraft cleared to visual holding points
- Aircraft routeing through the traffic circuit
9
Q
When is the responsibility for control of a departing aircraft transferred from Aerodrome to Approach?
A
- VMC – prior to leaving the aerodrome vicinity or entering IMC
- IMC – immediately after airborne
10
Q
When may VFR clearance no longer be given in Class D airspace?
A
Ground visibility less than 5km and/or cloud ceiling of less than 1500ft
11
Q
Where can a comprehensive list of LVP procedures be found?
A
CAP 168
12
Q
True or False: Controllers must inform pilots when LVPs are no longer in place.
A
True
13
Q
When is traffic information passed?
A
Whenever necessary for safety or when requested by a pilot
14
Q
What traffic information is provided?
A
- Generic traffic information for VFR pilots
- Specific traffic information for the stage of flight
- Timely instructions to prevent collisions
15
Q
What significant changes must aircraft be made aware of?
A
- Met and runway conditions
- Essential aerodrome information
- Operational status of approach and landing aids
16
Q
What is Essential Aerodrome Information?
A
Information concerning the state of the manoeuvring area that may constitute a hazard
17
Q
What is included in Essential Aerodrome Information?
A
- Construction work on the manoeuvring area
- Rough or broken portions of the manoeuvring area
- Failure of the aerodrome lighting system
- Failure of approach aids
- Aircraft parked near runways
- Water, snow, slush, ice, or frost on surfaces
- Information on anti-icing or de-icing chemicals
- Bird formations on the manoeuvring area
- Local status of arrestor gear installation
18
Q
What should be done to all ground movement if emergency vehicles need to attend a situation?
A
Movement of surface traffic should be halted until it’s determined that emergency vehicles can proceed
19
Q
What defines the protected area of a surface for aircraft take-off and landing?
A
The existence and location of the runway strip, clear area, obstacle free zone, and ILS sensitive areas
20
Q
What information is given when an aircraft requests start-up or taxi clearance?
A
- Runway in use
- Surface wind
- QNH
- Outside air temperature (turbine)
- Significant met conditions
21
Q
True or False: Heavy aircraft may be cleared for immediate take-off.
A
False
22
Q
Can a stop bar remain off if giving a conditional line-up to an aircraft departing from the same holding point as the preceding aircraft?
A
Yes
23
Q
When may multiple line-ups from different holding points be used?
A
- During daylight
- All aircraft visible to the controller
- All aircraft on the same RTF frequency
- Pilots advised of the departure sequence
- Runway characteristics do not obscure visibility
24
Q
What word must feature in the response when a pilot requests the instant wind?
A
Instant
25
What shall revised clearance or post-departure instructions be prefixed with when an aircraft is lined up on the runway?
Hold position
26
When giving the instruction ‘immediate take-off’, what is expected from the pilot?
* Taxi immediately onto the runway and commence take-off without stopping
* If already lined up, take-off without delay
* Advise controller if not possible
27
If take-off clearance has to be cancelled after the take-off run has commenced, what should the pilot do?
Stop immediately and acknowledge
28
At what height shall an overhead join take place?
2000ft above aerodrome elevation, in VMC
29
When can land after clearances be issued?
* Runway long enough for safe separation
* During daylight
* Preceding aircraft not required to backtrack
* Controller satisfied that landing aircraft can see preceding aircraft
* Pilot of following aircraft warned
30
What may the ATM be used for?
* Determining landing order and spacing
* Assisting in longitudinal separation of departing aircraft
* Confirming initial track of departing aircraft
* Providing information on position of other aircraft
31
If approved by CAA, what else might an ATM be used for?
* Validating SSR codes of departing aircraft
* Monitoring overflying aircraft to avoid conflicts
* Establishing separation between departing aircraft
* Passing traffic information
* Establishing separation during missed approaches
* Taking corrective action when separation is less than prescribed minima
32
What is required for specific ATM uses?
* Controller has undertaken specific training
* Controller is providing an Air Control Service
* Procedures detailed in MATS 2
33
When is runway-in-use selected with light and variable wind?
2000ft wind
34
What is taken into consideration when selecting a runway-in-use?
* Traffic pattern
* Length of runway
* Approach aids available
* Met conditions
* Noise abatement
35
When is noise abatement not the determining factor in runway notification?
* Crosswind component exceeds 15kt
* Tailwind component exceeds 5kt
36
What is the phraseology used when there is a tailwind?
* (Callsign) tailwind (XX) knots, report your intentions
* (Callsign) caution tailwind, report your intentions
37
Who is informed about a runway change?
* Approach Control
* Aircraft under control
* Aerodrome Fire Service
* Contractors affected by the change
* Other agencies according to local instructions
38
What should be done when an operational occurrence causes an obstruction in the runway vicinity?
* Withhold take-off and landing clearance if obstruction is within cleared area
* Advise pilots of reason for withholding clearance if there's doubt
39
Who is responsible for continuing operations if an obstruction is outside the cleared area?
The pilot
40
When must a runway inspection take place?
Following any incident involving tyre failure, structural failure, or engine malfunction
41
Where can you find the requirements for aerodrome lighting?
CAP 168
42
When may runway lighting not be temporarily switched off if RVR reference lights are in use?
* While an aircraft is taking off
* After an aircraft has reported completing a final procedure turn
* After an aircraft has reached 5nm from touchdown
43
When should controllers be alert to the possibility of windshear?
* Presence of frontal/squall/thunderstorm activity
* Low-level inversions causing significant wind differences
* Local terrain or buildings causing windshear
44
What should a controller expect if a pilot executes a missed approach due to windshear?
* Aircraft exceeding missed approach altitude
* Enhanced traffic information to be provided
45
What happens when a pilot reports windshear?
Information shall be relayed to subsequent inbound and outbound aircraft until condition no longer exists
46
How are RWYCC designated?
0-6
47
Which helicopters are exempt from VFR weather restrictions?
* Police
* Helimed
* SAR
* Power lines or Electricity
48
What is a runway incursion?
Any occurrence at an aerodrome involving the incorrect presence of an aircraft, vehicle, or person on a designated surface
49
What are the uses of Surface Movement Radar?
* To monitor movements of aircraft and vehicles on the manoeuvring area
* To provide advice for safe and efficient movement
50
How can identification be achieved on SMR?
* Correlating position of visually observed aircraft/vehicle to SMR
* Correlating identified SMR position from another ATS source
* Correlating SMR position complying with ATC instruction
* Correlating SMR position to reported aircraft/vehicle
* Correlating displayed SMR position to aircraft/vehicle position
51
What are the appropriate periods of display for aerodrome lighting during the day?
Whenever visibility is less than 5km and/or cloud base is less than 700ft
52
What action should be taken upon receipt of a report of a laser attack?
* Acknowledge the report
* Seek information including time, altitude, and position
* Anticipate need for pilot to adopt maneuvers
* Inform the police
* Warn pilots of laser in vicinity
* Record details in ATC watch log and complete MOR
53
What is prevailing visibility?
The visibility value reached or exceeded within at least half the horizon circle or surface of the aerodrome
54
When shall minimum visibility be reported?
Where visibility in any direction is less than prevailing visibility and less than 1500m or less than 50% of prevailing visibility
55
How many surface inspections should take place per day?
At least one
56
What is the phraseology for windshear?
(Callsign), a landing (A/C Type) at (time of report) reported windshear at 300ft with loss of 10kts and strong left drift
57
What is the definition of a DRY runway?
The surface is not affected by water, slush, snow, or ice
58
What is the definition of a DAMP runway?
The surface shows a change of colour due to moisture
59
What is the definition of a WET runway?
The surface is soaked but no significant patches
60
What is the definition of WATER PATCHES?
Significant patches of standing water reported when more than 25% of the area is covered by water more than 3mm deep
61
What is the definition of FLOODED?
Extensive patches of standing water reported when more than 50% of the area is covered by water more than 3mm deep
62
How is braking action reported?
* Good
* Good-Medium
* Medium
* Medium-Poor
* Poor
63
What are the departure separations from the runway?
* 1 Minute – tracks diverging by 45 degrees or more immediately after take-off
* 2 Minutes – Preceding aircraft has filed a TAS 40kts or more faster
* 5 Minutes – Preceding aircraft is 20kts or more faster
* 10 Minutes
64
What are the two methods of assessing RVR?
* Instrumented RVR
* Human Observer Method
65
What are Wake Turbulence separations following a Super arrival?
* Heavy – 6 miles
* LM/UM – 7 miles
* Small – 7 miles
* Light – 8 miles
66
What are the different flight priorities?
* A: Emergencies
* B: SAR, post-accident flights, police
* C: Royal flights/heads of state
* D: Heads of government or senior ministers
* E: Calibration flights
* NORMAL: Normal flight plan flights
* Z: Training
67
What are the VMC Minima for Class D by day?
* Above FL100: 1500m horizontal, 1000ft vertically, visibility 8km
* Below FL100 and above 3000ft AMSL or 1000ft terrain: 1500m horizontal, 1000ft vertically, visibility 5km
* At and below 3000ft AMSL or 1000ft terrain: 1500m horizontal, 1000ft vertical, visibility 5km
68
What is the validity period of CAS(T)?
15 minutes before ETD to 30 minutes after ETA
## Footnote
ETD stands for Estimated Time of Departure and ETA stands for Estimated Time of Arrival.
69
When are surface inspections carried out? List at least three scenarios.
* Daylight/before flying commences
* Cessation of WIP
* Following an accident
## Footnote
WIP stands for Work In Progress.
70
What is a Visual Approach?
An IFR flight flying with visual reference to the surface
71
When may a Visual Approach be allowed? List the conditions.
* Reported cloud ceiling is at or above the level of the beginning of the initial approach segment
* Pilot reports visibility will permit a visual approach and landing
## Footnote
IFR stands for Instrument Flight Rules.
72
What are the Special VFR Minima in Class D airspace?
* Cloud ceiling not below 600ft
* Remain COCSIS
* IAS of 140kts or less
* Visibility of 1500m fixed wing and 800m helicopters
## Footnote
COCSIS stands for Clear Of Clouds, Surface In Sight. IAS stands for Indicated Airspeed.
73
What are the RWYCC codes for runway conditions? What does a code of 6 indicate?
6 = Dry
## Footnote
RWYCC stands for Runway Condition Code.
74
What are the RWYCC codes from 0 to 6?
* 6 = Dry
* 5 = Wet up to 3mm
* 4 = -15 degrees compacted snow
* 3 = Slippery wet
* 2 = Standing water more than 3mm
* 1 = Ice
* 0 = Wet Ice
75
What are the main reasons for a diversion? List at least three.
* Weather is below Aircraft Operator minima
* Obstructions on the landing area
* Failure of airborne equipment
## Footnote
Aircraft Operator minima refer to the minimum weather conditions set by the operator for safe landing.
76
What are the VMC Minima for Class D airspace at and below 3000ft AMSL?
* 1500m horizontal
* 1000ft vertical
* Visibility 5km
77
What are the VMC Minima for Class D airspace at Above FL100?
* 1500m horizontal
* 1000ft vertical
* Visibility 8km
78
What are the VMC Minima for Class D airspace below FL100 and above 3000ft AMSL?
* 1500m horizontal
* 1000ft vertical
* Visibility 5km
79
What is the maximum IAS for aircraft flying in specific conditions?
140kts or less
## Footnote
COCSIS applies, with helicopters having a visibility requirement of 1.5km.
