Oral Study Questions Flashcards
(417 cards)
0
Q
How should a pilot call the forward flight attendant?
A
Press the FWD button.
1
Q
How should a pilot call a mechanic?
A
Press and hold the MECH button. It illuminates a blue light on the EXT PWR PANEL and sounds an external horn.
2
Q
What happens when a pilot presses the EMER pb?
A
- Pink light flashes at all area Call Panels.
- EMERGENCY CALL appears on all attendant indication panels.
- High-low chime (repeated 3 times) sounds throughout the cabin loud speakers.
3
Q
What happens when the F/As initiate an emergency call?
A
- The white EMER ON light and amber CALL lights flash.
- The amber ATT lights flash on the ACPs.
- 3 long buzzers sound in the cockpit.
- System resets when the attendant hangs up the relevant systems.
4
Q
What does the illumination of the SYS ON light mean?
A
The signal has been sent to release the oxygen mask doors.
5
Q
What causes automatic deployment of the masks?
A
Cabin altitude reaching approximately 14,000’.
6
Q
How does the passenger oxygen system work?
A
Chemical oxygen generators for approximately 13 to 15 minutes.
7
Q
What happens when a pilot pushes the CREW SUPPLY pb?
A
Valve opens to supply low pressure oxygen to the pilots.
8
Q
What indication would a pilot have of a crew oxygen cylinder thermal discharge?
A
The green disk on the lower left side of the forward fuselage would be missing
9
Q
Will the crew oxygen mask microphone automatically be deactivated when the mask is stowed?
A
No, you must press the RESET control slide.
10
Q
Why is the GND CTL pb selected to ON during preflight?
A
To record preflight activities in the cockpit
11
Q
If the PB was not selected ON, how would the system work in automatic mode?
A
- ON for 5 minutes after electrical power is supplied to the aircraft.
- At least one engine is operating, stops 5 min after last engine shut down.
12
Q
What allows the cabin PAs to be recorded?
A
ACP 3 PA Volume knob out and in the 12 to 3 o’clock position.
13
Q
Pressing the GPWS SYS pb does what?
A
All Basic GPWS alerts (Modes 1 to 5) are inhibited.
14
Q
What does an amber FAULT light in the SYS pb indicate on the GPWS panel? What effect if any does it have on the TERRAIN mode?
A
- Any failure of GPWS mode 1 through 5.
- No effect.
15
Q
Describe a situation when a pilot might press LDG FLAP 3?
A
- To avoid nuisance warning in case of landing in CONF 3.
- In this case, LDG MEMO displays FLAPS…CONF 3 instead of FLAPS …FULL.
16
Q
Describe a situation when a pilot might press the FLAP MODE pb?
A
- To avoid nuisance warning in case of landing with flaps setting reduced.
- FLAP SYS 1 (2) Fault would cause you to select FLAP MODE off.
17
Q
What effect if any does the TERR mode failed have on basic GPWS?
A
No effect.
18
Q
What is the significance of the red FAULT illuminating on the RAT & EMER GEN light?
A
AC BUS1 and AC BUS 2 are lost and the RAT is not supplying electrical power.
19
Q
When would it normally illuminate?
A
The fault light will illuminate once the RAT is deployed and electrical power is not being supplied (approximately 8 seconds).
20
Q
How can the RAT be deployed?
A
Manually by pushing MAN ON or RAT MAN ON, or automatically by the loss of both AC BUS 1 and AC BUS 2.
21
Q
What does the RAT supply?
A
Blue Hydraulic system and the emergency electrical generator.
22
Q
What buses are powered by the emergency electrical generator?
A
- AC ESS and AC ESS Shed.
- DC ESS and DC ESS Shed.
23
Q
What is the difference between the Automatic RAT deployment and RAT deployed by pressing the RAT MAN ON on the HYD panel?
A
RAT MAN ON supplies Blue Hydraulic PSI only, no electrical generation.
24
After deploying the RAT by pressing the RAT MAN ON pushbutton on the HYD panel and it became necessary to also extract electrical power, how can it be accomplished?
By pressing the MAN ON pushbutton on the EMER ELEC PWR.
25
What would cause the GEN 1 LINE SMOKE light to illuminate?
Smoke detected in the avionics ventilation ducting.
26
If the ECAM directs a pilot to select GEN 1 LINE PB to OFF, what will be accomplished?
- GEN 1 line contactor opens (white OFF light illuminates).
- AC BUS 1 powered by GEN 2 through the Bus Tie Contactor.
- GEN 1 powers one fuel pump directly in each wing tank.
27
Will there be any other indications of avionics smoke?
ECAM warning and amber FAULT lights in the EXTRACT and BLOWER pbs on the VENTILATION panel.
28
What is checked on the EVAC panel during the Preliminary cockpit preparation?
CAPT & PURS switch in CAPT position.
29
How should the pilot command an evacuation?
- Make a PA announcement.
| - Press the EVAC COMMAND pb.
30
What type of flight control system does the A320 family aircraft utilize?
Fly-By-Wire System.
31
How are flight controls controlled and activated?
Electrically Controlled and Hydraulically Activated.
32
How is NORMAL LAW indicated on the PFD?
Green double markers.
33
How is ALTERNATE LAW indicated on the PFD?
Amber Xs (indicating lack of NORMAL LAW protections).
34
How is DIRECT LAW indicated on the PFD?
- AMBER “USE MANUAL PITCH TRIM”.
| - Amber Xs (indicating lack of NORMAL LAW protections).
35
How is MECHANICAL BACKUP indicated on the PFD?
- RED “MAN PITCH TRIM ONLY”.
| - Amber Xs (indicating lack of NORMAL LAW protections).
36
When operating in NORMAL LAW in FLIGHT mode, what does the side stick command for pitch and roll?
- Pitch – G load.
| - Bank – Roll Rate.
37
What is the significance of the Side Stick Priority (Red Arrow) Light?
The other pilot has gained side stick authority.
38
Name the Flight Control Computers.
- ELAC – Elevator Aileron Computer (2).
- SEC – Spoiler Elevator Computer (3).
- FAC – Flight Augmentation Computer (2).
39
What are the some of the ELAC functions? QRM should be referenced.
- Normal elevator.
- Normal aileron.
- Normal pitch and roll.
- Alternate pitch.
- Direct pitch and roll.
- Abnormal attitude.
- Aileron droop.
- Autopilot orders.
40
What are some of the SEC functions? QRM should be referenced.
- Normal roll.
- Speed brakes.
- Alternate pitch.
- Direct pitch.
- Direct roll.
- Abnormal attitude.
41
What does the SEC 3 control?
Spoiler Control – one flight spoiler and one ground spoiler on each wing.
42
What are some of the FAC functions?
- Rudder Trim.
- Rudder travel limit.
- Yaw control.
- Flight Envelope Protection – vertical.
- Windshear Protection.
- Low Energy Warning Protection.
- Alpha Floor Protection.
- PFD speed scale.
43
What should happen to the THS after landing?
Reset to zero.
44
Describe some of protections a pilot will have in Normal Law?
- High Speed.
- High Angle of Attack (AOA/alpha).
- Load Factor Limitation (+2.5g / -1.0g).
- Pitch Attitude (30° up/15° down).
- Bank Angle (67°).
45
Describe High Speed Protection.
If VMO/MMO plus a predetermined factor is exceeded, the system induces a pitch-up input to limit aircraft speed.
46
What would a pilot have to do to override the high speed protection pitch-up?
Turn 2 ADRs off to force the aircraft into Alternate law.
47
What is alpha max?
The maximum angle of attack allowed in Normal Law, indicated by the top of the red strip on the airspeed scale.
48
How does High Angle of Attack Protection operate?
When the angle of attack exceeds alpha prot, pitch trim ceases and angle of attack is now proportional to side stick deflection, not to exceed alpha max even with full aft side stick deflection.
49
What protections does a pilot have in Alternate Law?
- Load Factor.
- High speed stability.
- Low speed stability.
50
What protections does a pilot have in Direct Law?
None.
51
When do you get Flare Mode in Alternate Law? Describe the whole process
You don’t. You go directly from Alternate Law to Direct Law when the gear is selected
down.
52
If in Alternate Law, when will the aircraft revert to Direct Law? What might be a wise thing to do?
If the controls degrade to alternate law for any reason other than recovery from abnormal attitude, Direct Law automatically becomes active with gear extension with autopilots not engaged. In other words, let the autopilots work for you until you must disconnect them.
53
When is there a direct relationship between side stick and flight control surface deflection?
- When in Direct Law.
| - When below 100’.
54
It's common Airbus philosophy that the Airbus can't stall in Normal Law. However, there are conditions in which it can.
- Faulty Radio Altimeter.
- A competent pilot will operate under the philosophy that anything can happen....Preventative systems such as (Alpha Prot, Alpha Max, etc.) could interpret bad data as valid data and subsequently fail to recognize the actual angle of attack or flight path of the aircraft. Therefore, it is hard to point to exact scenarios when the Airbus can stall in normal law. We need to understand anything is possible and we should recognize stall indications and recover regardless of the active control law.
55
How would you get into Abnormal Attitude Law?
By exceeding approximately double the Normal Law limits.
56
What is the purpose of Abnormal Attitude Law?
Allows the aircraft to be recovered from an unusual attitude.
57
After recovery from an unusual attitude, what law are you in?
Abnormal Attitude Law
58
What PFD indications indicate Normal Law?
- Green = for pitch, bank, and overspeed limits.
| - Amber/black (alpha prot) airspeed tape.
59
If the pilot is flying along at 300 knots and they happen to pull full back on the side stick, how high can they pitch up to?
30° up.
60
With an AP ON and A/THR ON, if the pilot selected 100 knots on the speed knob, how slow would the aircraft fly?
VLS.
61
Describe what would happen if the pilot slowly pulled the power to idle?
- As airspeed decays, the THS adjusts the pitch attitude to maintain altitude.
If the angle of attack increases to a threshold value, known as ALPHA PROT, the pitch function of the side stick changes. Stick movement commands a specific AOA instead of a G change.
- Since auto trimming is inoperative, the pilot must hold continuous back pressure in order to fly slower than ALPHA PROT.
62
Describe what would happen if the pilot continued to pull back on the side stick. How slow would the aircraft go?
- Alpha Max.
- With the stick full aft, the elevators will adjust the pitch attitude to maintain, a maximum safe angle of attack (Alpha Max). This maximum angle of attack, induced by the pilot, is slightly less than the stall angle of attack; therefore, the aircraft theoretically can't be stalled in normal law.
63
At some point during this demonstration the Auto thrust automatically applies TOGA power. What is this protection name and how does it work?
- ALPHA FLOOR is a function of auto thrust. It will activate at any airspeed based on angle of attack and automatically apply TOGA thrust regardless of thrust lever position.
- ALPHA FLOOR is available if the auto thrust is functional (it does not need to be active), an engine is running (not both), and the aircraft is in normal law.
- Angle of attack protection does not depend on ALPHA FLOOR to function.
64
Can the pilot over stress the aircraft by pulling back too hard on the side stick in Normal Law?
- No.
- Maneuver protection prevents a pilot from over stressing the aircraft by limiting flight control inputs.
- If G loads become greater than normal, they are displayed in amber on the lower ECAM above the digital clock.
- When the side stick is pushed forward, less than 1G is commanded. A given pitch input always results in the same pitch response regardless of airspeed.
- When the stick is returned to neutral, the new pitch is held constant regardless of airspeed changes.
65
What will happen if the pilot over speeds the aircraft? Are there any protections that are available to the pilot?
- An over speed causes the flight control computers to provide a nose up input to reduce aircraft damage due to excess speed. This protection limits the maximum airspeed by increasing the pitch attitude even if full forward stick is held.
- The speed at which this protection activates is shown on the airspeed indicator as a green "=" sign.
- An over speed warning is generated as VMO is exceeded (Vmo+4). This warning can only be silenced by the EMER CANCEL pb.
- If the stick is released, the speed will return to VMO/MMO. The protection will allow a momentary increase in airspeed to permit any necessary maneuvering but then the speed will again slow to the limit.
- If high-speed protection is active, bank angle is limited to 45°. Bank angle is also limited to 45° if angle of attack protection is active, in either case the limit marks do not move.
- If high-speed protection is active, positive spiral stability occurs at all bank angles, and control pressure is required to hold any bank angle greater than zero.
- It is possible to over speed the aircraft. The computers merely limit the maximum attainable speed.
66
When a pilot rolls into a bank, what is provided by the Flight Control Laws?
- The flight mode roll control is a roll rate demand law. Side stick inputs commands the ailerons, spoilers 2-5, and the rudder to achieve the commanded roll rate with bank angle protection, turn coordination, and Dutch roll damping.
- The roll rate demanded inflight, by the pilot, is proportional to side stick deflection.
- When the side stick is neutral, the ailerons and spoilers are positioned to maintain the roll rate at 0° per second. This results in a constant bank angle.
- The side stick position cannot be used to establish where flight control surfaces are.
- When the side stick is displaced laterally, increasing roll rates are commanded. At full deflection, a roll rate of 15° per second is commanded in normal law. The ailerons and spoilers are positioned as necessary to achieve the commanded roll rate.
- In normal turns (up to 33°) pitch trim is automatic and assists the pilot in maintaining altitude.
- If the pilot would increase the bank to 45 degrees and then let go of the stick the altitude (pitch inputs may still be needed to maintain altitude), the aircraft returns to 33° of bank. This is known as positive spiral stability.
- Positive spiral stability is a characteristic programmed into the flight control computers, which returns the aircraft to a more stable condition (0° if high speed or angle-of-attack protection is active).
- Beyond 33°of bank, positive spiral stability is active and automatic pitch trim is inhibited. To maintain a bank angle greater than 33°, continuous side stick pressure must be used. Also, continuous back pressure will be needed to maintain altitude since automatic pitch trim is inhibited.
67
The pilots find themselves in Alternate Law. Describe the protections.
- Amber Xs and EW/D message. In most cases, a single failure will not cause a flight control degradation (jammed stab causes a degradation).
- Autopilot availability in alternate law depends on the failures that caused the degradation. Generally speaking, if the failures DO NOT affect a primary flight control surface, the autopilot should be available.
- The ECAM states PROT LOST, but maneuver protection is still available.
- Pitch is the same as normal law, roll is direct, and yaw loses turn coordination.
- Attitude, high speed, and angle of attack protections are lost. They are replaced by high speed stability and low speed stability respectively.
- High speed stability activates just prior to the over speed warning at which time nose down trim is inhibited.
- Low speed stability activates just prior to the stall warning at which time nose up trim is inhibited.
- The pilot can override the stabilities and over speed or stall the aircraft.
- Instead of commanding a specific roll rate there is a direct relationship between side stick position and control surface position. As a result, roll sensitivity now changes with aircraft speed and amount of side stick deflection.
- Depending on the failure combination, the maximum roll rate may be as much as twice as it was in normal law.
- Attitude protection is lost and the green "=" signs on the PFD are replaced with amber Xs. There are now no limits on how far a pilot can pitch or roll the aircraft. Positive spiral stability is lost.
- In alternate law, turn coordination is always lost regardless of FAC status. Yaw damping, rudder trim and rudder limiting is available if a FAC is operational.
- Aircraft can roll beyond the amber Xs.
- Bank angle protection is not available in alternate law. Roll commands are carried out directly without modification.
68
The pilots find themselves in Direct Law. Describe the protections.
- There is no landing mode that would provide consistent control during landing for all possible failure combinations. Consequently, the flight controls transition to direct law when the gear is extended.
- Direct law is very unlikely in flight. It usually results from lowering the gear while in alternate law.
- ECAM message generated - PROT LOST is true. There are no protections or stabilities available in direct law.
- USE MAN PITCH TRIM in amber is displayed on FMA because automatic pitch trim is lost.
- Pitch control is direct. Load factor demand is lost. Pitch sensitivity or control is a factor of airspeed and the amount flight control deflection. Roll control is the same as alternate law (direct relationship with no protections).
69
The pilots find themselves in Mechanical Backup. What functions are available?
- Mechanical back up control is provided for the rudder and THS in the event of a complete loss of flight control computers or electrical power.
- Although the aircraft can be flown indefinitely in this condition, it is intended to be only as long as it takes to restore the computers.
- Note the EW/D warning message and MAN PITCH TRIM ONLY indication on the FMA.
- The side sticks are inoperative. Pitch is controlled with the trim wheel via the mechanical connection to the pitch system.
- Roll and yaw is controlled through the rudder pedals and the mechanical connection to the rudder.
- In reality, the failure of only four flight control computers results in mechanical backup. If both ELACs and SEC 1 and 2 fail, all computerized pitch control is lost. In this case, because SEC 3 is still available, the side sticks can control roll using one spoiler on each wing.
70
What is the ADIRS?
Air Data and Inertial Reference System.
71
What are some of the parameters that the Air Data Reference System provides?
Barometric altitude, Airspeed, Over Speed Warnings, Temperature, AOA, MACH.
72
What are some of the parameters the IR provides?
Attitude, FPV, Track, Heading, Acceleration, Angular Rates, GS and Aircraft Position.
73
With an IR 1/ADR 1 FAULT which switching panel switch would you move to display backup data?
ATT HDG to CAPT 3.
74
If the AIR DATA portion of ADIRU 1 has failed, which switching panel would you move to display backup data?
AIR DATA to CAPT 3.
75
Explain the ADIRS Power-up and Initialization.
- Switch OFF to NAV.
- ON BAT light illuminates and then extinguishes.
- White ALIGN light illuminates for the duration of alignment (only on an A-319/ A-321).
- In a 320 the E/WD memo section displays IRS IN ALIGN during alignment and replaces ALIGN lights on the overhead panel.
76
What is the importance of observing the ON BAT light?
It confirms the ADIRS ability to revert to aircraft battery power.
77
What are some indications of an ADIRU having reverted to battery power on the ground?
- An external horn sounds.
| - An ADIRU and the blue AVNCS light illuminates on the External Power Panel.
78
What is the significance of a steady FAULT light on the IR?
IR has failed and cannot be recovered.
79
What is the significance of a flashing FAULT light on the IR?
Navigation function is lost. Attitude and Heading may be recovered in ATT mode.
80
What could cause the flashing white ALIGN light to illuminate on the ground?
- Position - PPOS not entered within 10 min. of alignment or within 3 minutes of fast-alignment.
- Place - Large difference in LAT/LONG between shutdown position and entered position -1°.
- Push - Aircraft movement during alignment.
- No align light on A320 -The E/WD memo section displays IRS IN ALIGN during alignment and replaces ALIGN lights on the overhead panel. This memo flashes in green for the same reasons as the ALIGN lights flash on the other aircraft.
81
Describe what will happen if an ADR is selected OFF?
- The pilots would lose barometric altitude, airspeed, mach, angle of attack, temperature and over speed warnings from that one ADR.
- The ECAM would instruct the pilot to select the AIR DATA SWTG to CAPT 3 or F/O 3 as appropriate.
- At that point the pilot's affected side would return to normal.
82
What functions are lost when an IR is turned OFF?
- The pilot would lose the IR part (Inertial Reference) which supplies attitude, flight path vector, track, heading, accelerations, angular rates, ground speed, and aircraft position.
- Along with all the ADR information.
- The ECAM would instruct the pilot to select the ATT HDG SWTG to CAPT 3 or F/O 3 as appropriate.
- At that point the pilot's affected side would return to normal.
83
If the RWY TURN OFF, LAND, and NOSE switches are all in the ON position, which lights automatically extinguish after takeoff?
The NOSE and RWY TURN OFF lights extinguish when the landing gear is retracted.
84
What is the difference between position 1 and 2 on the NAV & LOGO Toggle Switch?
Separate bulbs.
85
What position should the STROBE switch be in during preflight?
AUTO.
86
When do the strobes flash in AUTO?
When the computer logic considers the aircraft airborne.
87
What does the illumination APU MASTER SW FAULT indicate?
Automatic APU shutdown has occurred.
88
What is the significance of the APU AVAIL light illumination?
APU is running above 99.5 % or 2 seconds after N speed reaching 95% (in practical terms it is ready to accept and support ELEC and/or AIR load).
89
What condition in the APU system would cause an external horn to sound?
APU fire
90
With the APU green AVAIL light ON and the EXT PWR green AVAIL light on, which system is powering the aircraft?
2 Avails = APU Powering the Aircraft.
91
During the cool down cycle can you still use the APU?
Yes, press the APU MASTER SW pb.
92
When will the EXIT signs automatically illuminate?
- With the EMER EXIT LT switch in ARM, and Normal AC power is lost.
- DC SHED ESS BUS not powered.
- Cabin altitude is excessive (above 11,300‘), NO SMOKING, FASTEN SEAT BELT and EXIT signs illuminated.
93
What lights illuminate when normal aircraft electrical power fails?
- Floor proximity emergency escape path-marking system.
| - Overhead emergency lighting.
94
What lights illuminate when the EMER EXIT LT switch is placed to ON?
- Overhead emergency lighting.
- Floor proximity emergency escape path marking system.
- EXIT lights.
95
What occurs when the EMER EXIT LT switch is placed to OFF?
- All lights OFF.
| - Amber EMER EXIT LT OFF light illuminates.
96
Why do we place the NO SMOKING SIGN to AUTO instead of ON?
- It allows the EMER EXT LT to charge their batteries.
97
What flight deck lighting is available if normal electrical power is lost?
- Captain’s Instrument Panel.
- Right Dome Light (provided DOME switch set in DIM or BRT).
- Standby Compass.
98
How is the landing field elevation entered into the pressurization system in automatic, semi-automatic and manual modes?
- Automatic = FMGC (LDG ELEV must be in AUTO).
- Semi-automatic = by LDG ELEV selector button.
- Manual = By selecting the MODE SEL to MAN and then using the MAN V/S CTL toggle switch.
99
What does selecting the DITCHING push button to ON accomplish?
- Closes the outflow valve.
- Closes the emergency RAM AIR inlet.
- Closes the Avionics Ventilation Inlet and Extract valves.
- Closes pack flow control valves.
- Forward cargo isolation outlet valve "if installed".
- Cargo recirculation fans stop automatically "if installed".
- “Closes all valves below the waterline”.
100
How many controllers are in the pressurization system?
- 2, only one is used at a time and they swap roles after each landing.
101
How can a pilot manually switch controllers?
- Switch MODE SEL to MAN for 10 seconds, then back to AUTO.
102
What does an amber FAULT light in the MODE SEL pb indicate?
- Both automatic pressure controllers are faulty.
103
What protects the airframe from excessive cabin differential pressure?
- 2 pressure relief valves.
104
What is accomplished if the Wing Anti Ice push button is selected ON while the aircraft is on the ground?
- The system will self-test for 30 seconds, then the valves will close until the aircraft is airborne.
105
What does the WING FAULT light illumination on the ANTI ICE panel indicate?
- Valve disagreement (also comes on momentarily when valve in transit).
- Low pressure.
106
What does the ENG 1(2) FAULT light illumination on the ANTI ICE panel indicate?
- Valve disagreement (also comes on momentarily when valve in transit)
107
Describe the PROBE/WINDOW HEAT Logic.
- Probes and Window Heat come on automatically (Probes LOW on ground/HIGH airborne) with at least one engine running or aircraft airborne.
108
What part of the wing is heated?
Outboard 3 slats.
109
In what position do the Wing and Engine Anti-Ice valves fail if electrical power is lost?
- Wing – valves CLOSE.
| - Engine – valves OPEN.
110
What is the significance of high swept wings versus less swept wings in ice accumulation?
- The more swept the wing, the less time for the moisture to attach.
- After flying the airbus for a while, you may notice that you are selecting the wing pb less often as you
might have on a previous straight wing aircraft.
111
A pilot is arriving to the aircraft in DTW early in the morning and notice that cockpit windows are frosted over. What should the pilot do?
- Select the Probe/Window Heat on. Remember you must select it off before takeoff to return the system
to its normal logic.
112
The temperature outside is 2°C with visible moisture. What should the pilot turn on?
ENG Anti-ice after engine start.
113
After takeoff, when should the pilot turn on the wing anti-ice?
Wing anti-ice can be used after the aircraft is in a clean configuration and when conditions warrant.
114
Going through FL240 in visible moisture you notice the TAT is -22°C and the SAT is -45°C, can the Pilot select the ENG Anti-ice off?
Yes. Engine anti-ice is required when icing conditions exist or are expected except during climb or cruise
when the SAT is below -40°C.
115
Starting a decent out of FL350 with visible moisture the TAT is -32°C and SAT is -53°C, should the pilot select the ENG Anti-ice on or off?
ON Engine anti-ice is required when icing conditions exist or are expected except during climb or cruise
when the SAT is below -40°C.
116
Descending through 10,000’ the pilots notice ice accumulation on the cockpit windshields blades. What should the pilots do?
Turn on the Wing Anti-ice. Wing anti-ice may either be used to prevent or remove ice accumulation from
the wing leading edges. After takeoff, wing anti-ice can be used after the aircraft is in a clean wing configuration. Ice accumulation can be detected by the observing the ice indicator located between the two cockpit windshields or by observing windshield wipers blades.
117
Can the Wing Anti-ice be used on the approach and landing?
Yes, but remember second segment climb performance could be affected if a go-around is performed.
118
What is TAT?
Total Air Temperature is also called Indicated Air Temperature (IAT) or Ram Air Temperature (RAT).
119
What is SAT?
Static Air Temperature is also called: Outside Air Temperature (OAT) or True Air Temperature.
120
Do I use TAT or SAT when determining whether to turn Anti-ice systems on?
Remember TAT tells you when to turn Anti-ice on. SAT tells you when you may be able to turn it off.
121
What is the difference of TAT and SAT?
The difference between TAT and SAT is called ram rise (RR) and is caused by compressibility and
friction of the air at high velocities.
122
What you might see on flying a trip out of DTW at different altitudes with regards to TAT and SAT?
- Ground TAT +2 SAT +2
- 10000ft TAT -6 SAT -17
- 18000ft TAT -13 SAT -33
- FL240 TAT -23 SAT -45
- FL350 TAT -28 SAT -54
123
PACK FLOW is selected to LO, NORM or HIGH and only the APU is providing BLEED AIR or one pack is selected OFF, what will the Pack Flow Rate?
HIGH flow rate, since the flow rate function is automatic.
124
If the HOT AIR valve faults, what will happen to the temperature control system?
All trim air valves close and PACK 1 controls the cockpit temperature to the last selected value - PACK 2 controls the cabin to the averages selected by the FWD and AFT CABIN temperature selector knobs.
125
How are the PACKS controlled and operated?
Electrically controlled and pneumatically operated.
126
What are some potential causes for a PACK FAULT light?
What are some potential causes for a PACK FAULT light?
- Low air pressure.
- Compressor outlet overheat.
- Pack outlet overheat.
127
What are SOME potential causes for ENG BLEED FAULT light?
- Bleed overpressure.
- Bleed overheat.
- Wing or engine leak on the related side.
- Bleed valve NOT closed during engine start.
- Bleed valve NOT closed with the APU BLEED on.
128
What is the logic for the XBLEED Valve switch?
- SHUT = the valve is closed.
- AUTO = open if the APU bleed valve is open – closed if APU bleed valve is closed or there is a wing, pylon or APU leak (except during an engine start).
- OPEN = the valve is open.
129
What does APU BLEED FAULT illumination indicate?
APU bleed leak.
130
What does selecting the RAM AIR push button accomplish?
Ram Air inlet opens if the differential pressure is less than 1 PSI.
131
What is the RAM AIR pb used for?
- Smoke removal in cabin.
| - Ventilation of cabin with a dual pack failure.
132
What is the minimum battery voltage?
25.6.
133
What would a pilot do if BAT voltage is 25.5 or below on originating preflight?
Charge the Batteries with external power by selecting BAT pbs to AUTO.
134
How long would you charge the batteries?
20 min. and recheck the voltage.
135
Explain how to conduct the BAT check?
- Select ELEC on ECAM.
- BAT 1 & 2 OFF then on.
- Check BAT charge current is <60 amps and decreasing within 10 seconds.
What if it fails the test? Call MX.
136
Describe the electrical power system of the aircraft.
- The electrical power system consists of a three-phase 115/200-volt 400-hertz constant frequency AC system and a 28-volt DC system.
- Normally, the system produces alternating current, some of which it then transforms into direct current for certain applications.
- Each of the aircraft's three generators can supply the whole network.
- If all normal AC generation is lost, an emergency generator can supply AC power.
- If all AC generation is lost, the system can transform DC power from the batteries into AC power.
137
If all AC is lost, what happens?
DC power from the batteries is converted into AC.
138
The engine GEN FAULT light is illuminated before engine start. Is this normal?
Yes.
139
What is an IDG and describe how it works.
- Integrated Drive Generator.
| - Takes variable engine output and gives a constant output.
140
How would a pilot disconnect the IDG.
Lift the red guard and push the IDG pb sw. Don’t hold for longer than 3 seconds.
141
Can the IDG be reconnected?
No. MX function.
142
Describe the function of the BUS TIE in AUTO.
- Allows single source of power to run entire electrical system.
- Allows connection of the APU GEN or EXT power to system.
- Inhibits multiple sources connected simultaneously.
143
If GEN 1 fails to supply AC BUS 1, what happens?
AC BUS 2 powers the system through the bus tie.
144
How is the AC ESS bus normally powered?
From AC BUS 1.
146
If AC BUS 1 fails, how is the AC ESS bus powered?
AC BUS 2 automatically feeds the AC ESS BUS.
147
What indication will you get on the ELEC panel that AC BUS 2 is feeding the AC ESS bus?
AC ESS FEED ALTN light on.
148
What does a GALLEY fault light indicate?
At least one generator load is above 100% rated output.
149
Explain the Auto function of the GALLEY pushbutton.
- Sheds main galley if only 1 gen is avail in flight or
| - Sheds main galley if only 1 gen is avail on the ground.
150
How is the BATTERY BUS normally powered?
DC BUS 1 through the DC tie contactor.
151
What Buses are powered by the EMER Generator?
- AC Essential bus.
| - DC Essential bus by the Essential TR.
152
What is the difference of the APU Gen Fault and the ENG fault?
- Both are indicators of a line contactor open. The diff is the fault may also indicate a
Fault detected by the ENG GCU.
153
What does a BAT fault light indicate?
- Battery charging current outside limits.
| - BAT contactor opens.
154
When are the batteries connected to the BATTERY BUS?
- APU start.
- Battery charging.
- AC BUS 1 & 2 not powered and airspeed below 100 knots.
155
Describe the layout of the fuel tanks in the A320.
Center tank, and wing tanks made up of inner, outer and vent tanks.
156
Generally, what is the total fuel capacity?
42,000 lb (41, 285).
157
How come sometimes the fuel totalizer reads 42,200 on ECAM when fueled to MAX capacity?
- The fuel can expand by 2% without venting overboard.
158
Where are the fuel pumps located?
- 2 Center tank pumps and 2 wing tank pumps per wing.
- The APU has its own pump. It supplies fuel for APU startup when fuel feed pressure is low (due to loss of tank pumps or loss of normal AC Electrical supply.
159
Are the pumps in the center tank different from the wing pumps?
No, The wing pumps are fitted with pressure relief sequence valves, which ensure that
when all pumps are running, the center tank pumps will deliver fuel preferentially.
160
Explain the flow of fuel from before engine start to taxi out. (Assume full tanks)
At engine start the fuel is fed from the wing tanks. After both engines are started, the center tank pumps turn on and continue to run for 2 min. If slats are selected within those 2 min center tank pumps will continue to run until the time has elapsed, then they will stop. If at any other time the slats are extended the center pumps would shut off. At T/O the engines feed fuel from the respective wing tanks. When slats are zero, the fuel is fed from the center tank (after center tank runs dry, the pumps continue to run for 5 min).
161
What does a fault light in one of the ENG fuel pumps indicate?
- Low delivery pressure.
162
What does a fault light in the MODE selector indicate?
- Failure of the AUTO mode.
| - Center tank has more than 550 lb and either wing tank has less than 11000 lb.
163
How would a pilot know that fueling is in progress?
- REFUELG message appears on the ECAM.
164
Does this mean that fuel is entering the tanks?
NO. It means the refueling fuel door is open.
165
Describe the IDG cooling and how it relates to the FADEC.
- Some of the fuel supplied to each engine goes from the high-pressure fuel line in that engine, through the
integrated drive generator (IDG) heat exchanger (where it absorbs heat), to the fuel return valve, and
back to the outer tank.
- This operation ensures the IDG cooling when the oil temperature is high or when at low engine power.
- The FADEC controls the fuel return valve. The rate of return is approximately 660 LBS/H during low IDG
temperature and 1100 LBS/H during high IDG temperature.
166
What if this IDG cooling return fuel fills the wing tanks with the center tanks feeding?
- The center tank pumps will cut off until the wing tank quantity is reduced by 1100 lb.
167
What is the approximate fuel capacity of each outer fuel tank (A319/320)?
- 1,560 lb.
168
When do the main tank outer cells drain into the inner tanks (A319/320)?
- When the inner tank quantity reaches 1,650 lb.
169
If only one inner tank reaches 1,650 lb, what happens to the other transfer valve (A319/320)?
- All 4 transfer valves open.
| On
170
Once opened to transfer fuel, how are the fuel transfer valves closed?
- Automatically at the next refueling operation.
171
How are the three HYD systems named?
- Green, Blue and Yellow Systems.
172
How is each system powered?
- Green – Engine Driven.
- Blue – Electrical.
- Yellow – Engine Driven and Electrical.
173
When does the BLUE pump normally operate?
- After the first engine is started.
174
The RAT supplies the BLUE hydraulic system. Does the RAT deploy automatically with loss of BLUE pressure?
- No. It must be deployed manually.
175
What can be done to correct low ACUM PRESS indication?
- On the ground, coordinate with personnel and turn on the Beacon and Yellow ELEC pump.
176
With no HYD system power, how can the forward CARGO door be opened?
- By using a hand pump.
177
What causes the PTU to operate in AUTO?
- Differential pressure of 500 psi between Green and Yellow systems.
- After first engine start until second engine starts.
178
What are some users of the Green system? QRM can be referenced.
- Landing Gear.
- Normal Brakes.
- Slats and Flaps.
- #1 Thrust reverser.
179
What are some users on the Blue system?
- Emergency generator.
| - Slats.
180
What are some users of the Yellow system?
- Flaps.
- NWS.
- Alternate brakes.
181
What do the priority valves do in the HYD systems?
- Removes hydraulic power from the heavy users and protects the flight controls.
182
What would cause a fault light in the ENG 1 pump?
- Pump low pressure.
- Over temp in reservoir.
- Low air pressure in reservoir.
- Low quantity.
183
Where are the engine fire loops installed?
- Pylon nacelle.
- Engine core.
- Fan section.
184
What happens if both fire loops fail simultaneously?
- FIRE warning will be issued (If the failure occurs within 5 seconds).
185
What does amber DISCH light mean?
- Bottle has lost its pressure either by a fault or pilot selection.
186
How many fire bottles are provided for each engine?
- 2.
187
What is accomplished when the engine fire PB is pushed?
- Silences the aural fire warning.
- Arms the squibs.
- Closes the hydraulic fire valve.
- Closes the LP fuel valve.
- Closes the engine fuel return valve after the IDG.
- Deactivates the generator.
- Closes the pack flow control.
- Closes the engine bleed valves.
- Deactivates FADEC.
188
What is accomplished when the ENG FIRE test button is pressed?
- Continuous Repetitive Chime sounds.
- Master warning lights flash.
- ENG FIRE PB illuminates red .
- SQUIB and DISCH lights illuminate.
- ECAM fire warning.
- Fire light on ENG panel.
189
What should occur if the APU is operating and an APU fire is detected?
- On the ground - APU EMER shut down and bottle discharge.
| - In the air – no automatic functions.
190
What considerations do we need to be aware of when doing a Manual Start on the ground or an Auto Start in the Air?
- You will be the one that must stop the start if something goes wrong.
191
What are the primary differences between a manual and a normal automatic start?
- The FADEC provides full monitoring during a manual start and will provide appropriate ECAM cautions and procedures to follow in the event of a start fault.
- Automatic start interruption and auto-crank are not available.
192
With the ENG MODE selector in IGN/START what occurs when you press the ENG MAN START pb?
- The start valve opens.
| - Both pack flow control valves close.
193
Will the start valve automatically close?
- Yes, at 43% N2.
194
When would it be appropriate to do a manual start?
- Degraded bleed performance (hot or high altitude airfield).
- Marginal performance of external air or APU air.
- Tailwind greater than 10 Knots.
- After aborting a start because of:
Engine stall.
Engine EGT over limit.
N1 rotation.
Hung start.
IGN A/B Fault.
195
What are some potential causes for the illumination of the BLOWER FAULT light?
- Low blower pressure.
- Duct overheat.
- Computer power supply failure.
- Smoke warning activated.
196
What are some potential causes for the illumination of the EXTRACT FAULT light?
- Low extract pressure.
- Computer power supply failure.
- Smoke warning activated.
197
What condition in the avionics ventilation system would cause an external horn to sound?
- BLOWER FAULT or EXTRACT FAULT illumination on the ground with both engines stopped.
198
Describe the avionics ventilation system?
- It is a fully automated system that considers the skin temperature and adjusts inlet and outlet flaps to
optimize cooling and airflow.
199
Ventilation OPEN CIRCUIT CONFIGURATION
Both the inlet and the outlet flaps are fully open (ACFT is on ground; skin temperature above a set threshold).
200
Ventilation CLOSED CIRCUIT CONFIGURATION
Both the inlet and outlet flaps are fully closed. The SKIN EXCHANGE INLET BYPASS VALVE is open, allowing air to the cargo under floor, eventually exiting via the outflow valve (ACFT is on the ground or in-flight; skin temperature below a set threshold).
201
Ventilation NORMAL INTERMEDIATE CIRCUIT CONFIGURATION
The inlet flap is fully closed, the outlet small flap is open (ACFT is in-flight; skin temperature is above a set threshold).
202
Ventilation BLOWER or EXTRACT FAULT
Both inlet and outlet flaps fully closed, SKIN EXCHANGE INLET BYPASS VALVE closed.
203
Ventilation SMOKE CONFIGURATION
Once the BLOWER and EXTRACT push buttons have been selected to OVRD, the blower fan will stop, the extract fan will continue to run – the inlet flap closes, the small outlet flap opens, the SKIN EXCHANGE ISOLATION VALVE closes and the SKIN EXCHANGE INLET BYPASS VALVE closes.
204
Following a cargo smoke indication and consequent discharging of the cargo smoke bottle, what would be the expected indication on the CARGO SMOKE panel?
The SMOKE light and associated ECAM warning may remain illuminated due to the HALON
concentration present in the cargo compartment.
205
How many fire-extinguishing bottles are there in the cargo extinguishing system?
```
One that has ducting to both FWD and AFT compartments, but the discharge can only be directed to
one compartment (N607NK has 2 bottles see AOM Vol. 1).
```
206
What is the significance of the illumination of the HOT AIR FAULT light?
Duct overheat is detected.
207
What is the significance of the illumination of the AFT ISOL VALVE FAULT light?
Either the inlet or the outlet valve is not in the selected position.
208
When would the AUDIO SWITCHING be used?
Enables Captain or FO to utilize the overhead Audio Control Panel in case of individual ACP failure.
209
Do the pilots use the Maintenance panel?
Only if a MEL required you to pressurize the blue system on the ground with the engines off.
210
Which button would you push?
The BLUE PUMP OVRD.
211
If a mechanic pressed the APU AUTO EXTING TEST pb what will occur?
The APU will shut down.
212
What is the significance of black and green CBs?
- Green monitored by ECAM.
| - Black not monitored by ECAM.What is the significance of a red collar CB?
213
What is the significance of a red collar CB?
They limit the ability of the Pilot to pull the CBs.
214
What are the main components of the FMGS?
- 2 FMGCs.
- 2 MCDUs.
- 1 FCU.
- 2 FACs.
215
What are the functions of the Flight Management Guidance Computers?
- Flight Guidance.
| - Flight Management.
216
What are the 3 modes of FMGC operation?
- Independent.
- Single
- Dual
217
What are the 2 modes of flight guidance?
- Managed Guidance.
| - Selected Guidance.
218
What is the Managed mode of flight guidance used for?
Long-term lateral, vertical, and speed profiles as determined by the FMGS.
219
What is the Selected mode of flight guidance used for?
Temporary lateral, vertical, and speed commands as selected with the FCU.
220
Does Selected or Managed Guidance have priority?
Selected Guidance.
221
What does ACTIVATE/CONFIRM APPR Phase do for the pilot?
```
- Allows thrust to follow a predetermined schedule:
Clean = o (green dot)
F1= S
F2=F
F3=F/VAPP
F4=VAPP
- If using managed speed Ground Speed Mini is available. If using selected speed Ground Speed Mini is
not available.
```
222
What type of database is periodically updated in the FMGS?
Navigation database.
223
Can the pilot modify data in the navigation database?
The pilot has limited ability to create pilot stored navigational data.
224
How would a pilot determine the validity of the navigation database?
On the Aircraft Status page.
225
What input does each FMGC use for position determination?
A hybrid IRS/GPS position.
226
What is the normal operational mode of the FMGS?
Dual mode, with one FMGC as master and the other FMGC as slave.
227
How does autopilot selection influence master FMGS logic?
- If one autopilot is engaged, the respective FMGC is master.
- If both autopilots are engaged, FMGC 1 will be the master.
- If no autopilot is engaged FMGC 1 is the master.
228
If an amber OFF SIDE FM CONTROL message is displayed on the ND what action should the pilots take?
An FMGC has failed and both NDs must be set to the same mode and range, then see COM
procedures.
229
Can both autopilots be engaged during any phase of flight?
No, only during an ILS approach.
230
What is the difference between the large and small fonts utilized in the MCDU?
- Large – Pilot entries and modifiable data.
| - Small – Default/computed non-modifiable data.
231
When would a Takeoff Shift be entered on the PERF TO page?
When takeoff begins at a runway intersection and NO GPS PRIMARY.
232
If the FLEX TEMP is not entered on the TAKEOFF page of the MCDU, and the thrust levers are positioned in the FLEX detent, what will occur?
- A warning will be generated.
| - Continue to move the thrust levers to the TOGA detent and execute a max thrust takeoff.
233
Where would a pilot enter the Zero Fuel Weight?
INIT B page.
234
What do amber box prompts on the MCDU indicate?
An entry is mandatory.
235
What occurs when managed NAV mode is engaged and the aircraft flies into a flight plan discontinuity?
NAV mode will be lost and the HDG/TRK mode engages.
236
What are some causes for AUTOLAND light?
- Excessive LOC or GS deviation or signal failure.
- Radio Altimeter difference of greater than 15’.
- Both autopilots fail.
237
What should the pilot action be in case the AUTOLAND warning light illuminates below 200 RA?
Immediate Go-around.
238
Explain the side stick operation and the associated glare shield SIDE STICK PRIORITY light.
- Normally only one side stick should be operated at any given time.
- Should there be dual input, an aural “DUAL INPUT” will be annunciated over the speaker and the SIDE
STICK PRIORITY green CAPT and F/O lights will flash - side stick inputs are algebraically summed.
- Any time a pilot monitoring has to assume control, it MUST be verbally annunciated (“I HAVE
CONTROL”) the pilot taking over MUST press and hold the takeover push button.
- If the pilot previously flying does not relinquish control or there is a malfunction present, the side stick
can be rendered inoperative by holding the takeover push button for 40 seconds. An aural alert “PRIORITY LEFT (RIGHT”) will be annunciated over the speaker and the SIDE STICK PRIORITY red arrow light will illuminate in front of the pilot losing authority.
- The pilot having lost side stick authority can regain it by momentarily pressing the takeover push button.
239
What should be selected on the EFIS panel during the Cockpit Preparation?
- ARC or ROSE NAV (more than 70 degree turn after takeoff).
- Minimum range to display the first fix, weather – in all cases 40 NM or less.
- Other selectors as appropriate.
240
If a HDG is pre-selected (not pulled) to the FCU HDG window prior to takeoff, what lateral mode will be active after liftoff?
RWY TRACK.
241
If MANAGED LATERAL DOT is displayed next to the FCU HDG window prior to takeoff, what lateral mode will be active after liftoff?
NAV.
242
What does each column mean on the PFD?
- A/THR | VERTICAL | LATERAL | APPROACH CAPABILITY, DH/MDA | AP, FD, A/THR
ENGAGEMENT STATUS
243
How is the pilot made aware of mode changes on the FMA?
A white box is temporarily displayed around the new indication.
244
How are armed modes displayed on the FMA?
- Blue – armed.
- Magenta – armed because of a constraint.
- Green – engaged.
245
When is the side stick position indication icon (white cross) displayed?
Displayed when the first engine is started disappears at liftoff.
246
What would the large red arrowheads indicate on the PFD?
Pitch attitude of +30.
247
After you input the destination and ILS information into the MCDU, what do you check for?
- After the ILS pb is pressed, green light.
- ILS frequency and course on PFD.
- ILS identifier once identified.
- LOC and GS scales displayed on PFD.
248
When would the sideslip index change from yellow to blue?
- In case of an engine failure during takeoff/go-around, it is now a blue beta target.
249
What does the yellow speed trend line on the airspeed display indicate?
- The speed the aircraft will reach in 10 seconds if acceleration/deceleration remains constant.
250
What is the difference between the magenta and blue target airspeeds?
- Magenta – Managed speed computed by the FMGC.
| - Blue – Selected speed on the FCU.
251
What is VLS and how is it displayed?
- Represents lowest selectable speed providing an appropriate margin to the stall speed.
- Defined by the top of the amber strip along the airspeed scale.
- In approach mode is equivalent to VREF.
252
What speed does VMAX represent and how is it displayed?
- It is the lowest of VMO/VMMO, VLE or VFE.
| - Defined by the bottom of a red and black strip along the speed scale.
253
What is Green Dot speed?
- Engine out operating speed in clean configuration.
- Appears when the aircraft is in the clean configuration.
- Corresponds to the best lift-to-drag ratio.
254
What is Ground Speed Mini?
- Based on a calculated groundspeed at the runway.
| - Protects against actual groundspeed dropping below this calculated groundspeed.
255
What does it mean if the magenta target airspeed triangle is above VAPP on the approach?
- Ground Speed Mini has increased speed due to a higher headwind component at the present location.
256
What are the 3 key factors in the ground speed mini Calculations?
- TWR WIND: It is the MAG WIND entered in the PERF approach page (no gusts).
- TWR Headwind Component: It is the component of the MAG WIND projected on the runway axis
(landing runway entered in the flight plan). So if you side step to the same direction runway no problem. But if you change to a different heading runway the calculation will be wrong.
- Current Headwind Component: The actual wind measured by ADIRS is projected on the aircraft axis
to define the current Headwind Component. The Current Headwind Component is used to compute the variable speed target during final (IAS target).
257
What will be indicated if the altitude window changed from yellow to amber?
- The aircraft has deviated from the FCU selected altitude or flight level.
258
When is altitude alerting automatically inhibited in flight?
- When slats are extended with the landing gear down.
| - On approach after glide slope capture.
259
What does it mean when the altitude digits change from green to amber?
- The aircraft has descended below the MDA/DH entered into the FMGC.
260
When is Radio Height displayed on the PFD?
Below 2,500
261
Information from ILS receiver 1 is displayed where?
- Captain’s PFD.
| - First Officer’s ND.
262
What would a flashing amber ILS indicate on the bottom of the PFD?
Flashes amber when APPR mode is armed and the ILS PB is not selected.
263
What displays or modes are available on the ND?
- Rose ILS.
- Rose VOR.
- Rose NAV.
- ARC.
- PLAN.
264
What colors are used to represent the various displayed flight plans?
- Active – continuous green line.
- Secondary – continuous white line.
- Temporary – dashed yellow line.
- Alternate – dashed blue line.
- Missed approach – continuous blue line.
265
Top of Descent and Continue Descent arrows are displayed in blue or white. What is the difference?
- Top of Descent – Always white (never armed).
| - Continue Descent – Blue indicates armed, white indicates NOT armed.
266
What color does each altitude constraint circle represent?
- White – constraint is not taken into account.
- Magenta – constraint is predicted to be satisfied.
- Amber – constraint is predicted to be missed.
267
If FCU fails what should you expect to see on the ND?
- ROSE NAV and 80 nm range.
268
Where is VOR data displayed?
- Both NDs and the DDRMI, if installed.
269
What are the 3 levels of ECAM Malfunction Notifications?
- Level 1 - WARNINGS – Associated with the red MASTER WARN light, CRC, and requires immediate
pilot action.
- Level 2 - CAUTIONS – Associated with the amber MASTER CAUT light, single chime, and requires
pilot awareness.
- Level 3 - ALERTS – Associated with amber E/WD message, no aural signal, and requires pilot
monitoring.
270
If simultaneous failures occur, how will they be presented to the pilot?
- A level 3 WARNING has priority over a level 2 CAUTION, which has priority over a level 1 ALERT.
271
What types of failures are presented to the pilot?
- Independent – Failure affecting an isolated system/item without degrading other
systems/items.
- Primary – Failure of a system/item that affects the use of other systems/items.
- Secondary – Loss of a system/item resulting from a primary failure.
272
Which part of the E/WD “Upper Display” would the pilot find indication of Primary failures?
- On the lower left portion of the screen
273
What indication does the E/WD “Upper Display” provide for secondary failures?
- Secondary failures are displayed on the lower right portion of the E/WD and are preceded by a *.
274
What does the appearance of a green arrow indicate at the bottom of the E/WD screen?
- Information has overflowed off the screen and the pilot must scroll down using the CLR pb on the
ECAM panel.
275
What does the display of T.O. INHIBIT or LDG INHIBIT indicate?
- Most warnings and cautions are inhibited to avoid unnecessary distractions during critical phases of
flight.
276
What types of warnings are NOT inhibited during takeoff?
- ENGINE FIRE
- APU FIRE
- ENG FAIL (ENG SHUT DOWN)
- ENG OIL LO PR
- L+R ELEV FAULT
- A/P OFF
- CONFIG
- FWC 1+2 FAULT
277
What are the Takeoff Configuration Warnings/Cautions?
- SLATS/FLAPS NOT IN T.O. RANGE
- PITCH TRIM NOT IN T.O. RANGE, RUDDER TRIM more than 3.5
- SPEED BRAKES NOT RETRACTED
- SIDE STICK FAULT
- HOT BRAKES
- DOOR NOT CLOSED
- PARK BRAKE ON
- FLEX TEMP NOT SET (unless thrust levers in TOGA detent)
278
When does the Takeoff Memo appear?
- 2 minutes after the 2nd engine is started or when the T.O. CONFIG TEST pb is pressed with one
engine running.
- Memo is removed when takeoff power is applied.
279
When does the Landing Memo appear?
- Below 2,000 RA with gear down or 800 RA with gear up.
- Below 2,000 RA regardless of gear position (aircraft with new FWC).
- Memo disappears after touchdown (80 knots).
280
In general, when are the system pages automatically displayed on the SD?
- Relative to the current phase of flight, or
| - When a system malfunction is detected.
281
When is a STATUS page displayed?
- After a failure is displayed on the SD and all failure items have been cleared.
- Display will reappear when the slats are extended.
282
What does the boxed STS indicate when displayed on the SD?
- The STATUS page holds messages other than CANCELLED CAUTIONS.
- Flashes after engine shutdown to alert maintenance of any other applicable messages.
283
What is the function of the 2 Landing Gear Control and Interface Units (LGCIUs)?
- Provide sequencing, operation, monitoring, and indications for the landing gear.
- Provide aircraft “In Flight” or “On the Ground” signals to other aircraft systems.
284
What hydraulic system powers the landing gear and doors.
Green.
285
Is normal hydraulic power available to the gear after Emergency Landing Gear Gravity Extension?
No (by-passed).
286
When does the red arrow in the LND panel illuminate?
Below 750 RA, when the aircraft is in the landing configuration and the landing gear is not locked
down.
287
What happens if your airspeed is 280 knots and you place the Landing Gear lever to DOWN?
- Nothing. A safety valve shuts off hydraulic power to the landing gear system when airspeed is above
260 knots.
288
What do the red UNLK lights indicate?
- The landing gear is not locked in the selected position.
289
What controls the LDG GEAR lights?
- LGCIU 1.
290
If LGCIU 1 fails will the lights still work?
- Yes, as long as it is still powered.
291
What controls and manages all braking functions?
- The Brake and Steering Control Unit (BSCU).
292
What happens when you switch the A/SKID & N/W STRG to OFF?
- Lose Nosewheel steering.
- Braking is powered by the Yellow system.
- Anti-skid is deactivated.
293
Which hydraulic systems provide pressure to the brakes?
- Normal brakes – Green.
| - Alternate brakes – Yellow backed up by a hydraulic accumulator.
294
When do the Autobrakes activate on landing if armed?
- When the ground spoilers deploy.
295
What is the difference between LOW and MED AUTO BRK?
- LOW – progressive pressure applied to brakes 4 seconds after ground spoilers deploy in order to
decelerate the aircraft at 5.6 FPS.
- MED - progressive pressure applied to brakes 2 seconds after ground spoilers deploy in order to
decelerate the aircraft at 9.8 FPS.
296
What does the AUTO BRK green DECEL light indicate?
Actual rate of deceleration is within 80% of the selected rate.
297
What is the Takeoff setting for Auto Brakes?
MAX.
298
What will cause the MAX AUTO BRK to activate on a RTO?
- Airspeed above 72 knots, and
- Thrust Levers at IDLE, and
- Ground spoiler extension.
299
If you lose Green hydraulic pressure will you have Auto Brakes?
- No, not with the Alternate Brake system.
300
Is Anti-skid available with Alternate Brakes?
- Yes, if at least 1 CH on BSCU.
301
With spoilers not armed will the spoilers deploy for an RTO?
- Yes – when at least one engine is in reverse.
302
How many brake applications are available with accumulator pressure?
- Approximately 7 full applications.
303
What is the maximum brake temperature for takeoff?
- 300 C and BRK FANS OFF.
304
What does the BRAKES & ACCU PRESS triple indicator indicate?
- Yellow hydraulic pressure delivered to the left and right brakes.
- Yellow system brake accumulator pressure.
305
How do you perform the brake check during initial taxi?
- Press the brake pedals to ensure the aircraft slows, and check the brake pressure one the triple
indicator is zero, indicating the Green hydraulic system has taken over.
306
What computers feed data to the six display units?
- 3 Display Management Computers (DMCs).
307
What do each of the DMCs normally supply?
- DMC 1 – Captain PFD, ND, upper ECAM DU.
- DMC 2 – F/O PFD, ND, lower ECAM DU.
- DMC 3 – Backup.
308
How can you tell if a DMC has failed?
- A diagonal line will be displayed in the respective display unit.
309
What happens when the upper ECAM display fails?
- The E/WD automatically replaces the SD on the lower ECAM display.
310
If both the E/WD and SD display units fail, how can you display E/WD information?
- Select the ECAM/ND switch to CAPT or F/O to transfer the E/WD to the respective ND.
- Press the desired system/status pb on the ECAM CONTROL panel to temporarily display the
system/status page on the respective ND.
311
If the UPPER DISPLAY knob is switched to OFF what will occur?
- The E/WD display would automatically transfer to the lower display.
312
With the E/WD displayed on the lower screen, how else can you view SD information?
- Press and hold the appropriate system button on the ECAM CONTROL panel you wish to view.
313
How long will this information be available?
- 30 seconds.
314
What does the ALL pb do?
- Displays ALL the system pages successively in 1-second intervals when held down.
- Release the pb to maintain display of the selected page.
315
What does pressing the RCL pb?
- Allows you to recall any warning or caution messages that the activation of the CLR pb or flight phase inhibition may have suppressed.
- If held longer than 3 sec, the E/WD will show any caution messages suppressed by the EMER CANC pb.
316
If you press the STS pb and the system has no STATUS messages what will be displayed?
- “NORMAL” for 5 seconds.
317
What occurs during the Before Takeoff Checklist when the T.O. CONFIG pb is pressed?
- The system simulates the application of T.O. power and checks certain systems for proper configuration.
- A warning is displayed if a system is not configured properly.
- “TO CONFIG NORMAL” is displayed in the TO MEMO section if the configuration is correct.
318
Describe the FO Preliminary Cockpit Preparation preflight actions on ECAM CONTROL PANEL
- Recall check warnings.
- DOORS – OXY quantity.
- HYD – quantity.
- ENG – oil quantity.
319
Should the ECAM CONTROL PANEL fail, what functions are available as hard-wired buttons?
- CLR, RCL, STS, EMER CANC and ALL.
320
What does the EMER CANC accomplish?
- Cancels the audio for warning messages (without removing any ECAM message).
- Cancels the present caution for the rest of the flight – calls up the STATUS page, which displays “CANCELLED CAUTION” and the TITLE of the failure.
- Inhibited message can be recalled by holding RCL for more than three seconds.
321
What is the purpose of having the EMER CANC pushbutton?
Used to cancel spurious MASTER CAUTIONS.
322
If Radio Management Panel 1 (RMP 1) fails, how can VHF 1 still be used?
By using RMP 2 or 3.
323
How is the THS normally operated in flight?
The flight control computers control trim functions automatically.
324
If NO hydraulic power is available can the THS be positioned?
No. The THS requires hydraulic power from the Green or Yellow systems.
325
If a complete flight control computer failure occurs can the THS be positioned?
Yes, mechanical trimming is possible by manually positioning the Pitch Trim Wheel.
326
Can the Pilot move the PITCH trim wheel if all systems are working normally?
Manual inputs have priority over computer inputs. The autopilot will disconnect.
327
What happens to the THS after landing?
The trim automatically resets to zero.
328
What controls the engines in all operating regimes?
FADECs (Full Authority Digital Engine Controls).
329
What functions does the FADEC control?
- Fuel metering.
- Engine limits based on thrust lever angle.
- Start sequencing.
- Provides engine indications and thrust limit displays on the E/WD.
330
What redundancy does the FADEC have?
Dual channel redundancy – one channel is active while the other is standby.Dual channel redundancy – one channel is active while the other is standby.
331
What is the power source for the FADEC?
- The system has its own alternator making it independent of the aircraft electrical system when N2 is above 10%.
- If this alternator fails the FADEC automatically switches to aircraft electrical power.
332
When will the FADEC abort an Auto start?
- Hot start.
- Stalled start.
- No ignition.
333
If the FADEC detects a fault during automatic start, is any pilot intervention required?
No. The FADEC will discontinue the start, clear the engine, and attempt a restart (if warranted) automatically.
334
When does the FADEC command a higher engine idle speed?
- Bleed demands.
- Approach Configuration.
- High engine or IDG temperatures.
335
How many igniters fire during a Normal automatic ground start sequence?
- One igniter with the other serving as a backup.
| - The FADEC automatically alternates the igniters (A and B) at each start.
336
How many igniters fire on Manual or In-flight starts?
Both A and B.
337
When does continuous ignition automatically operate?
- Engine Anti-ice ON.
- Approach Idle.
- Engine flameout detection.
- MAX/FLEX Power selected.
- Failure of the EIU.
- In Flight Unscheduled Sub Idle or Surge.
- Master lever cycled from on to off then back on position.
338
What are the 5 detent positions of the thrust levers?
- TOGA
- FLX MCT
- CL
- IDLE
- MAX REV
339
On the ground, how do you arm the A/THR?
- By setting the thrust levers in the TOGA or FLEX detent (with a FLEX temperature inserted in the MCDU).
- At least one FD must be ON for A/THR to arm during takeoff.
340
What is the active range of the A/THR?
- Just above IDLE to the CL detent (2 engines).
| - Just above IDLE to the MCT detent (1 engine).
341
What is the normal operational position of the thrust levers when A/THR is active?
The CL detent.
342
What determines the maximum thrust the A/THR system will be able to command?
The position detent of the thrust lever.
343
What are 3 ways to disconnect the A/THR?
- A/THR pb.
- Instinctive Disconnect buttons.
- Thrust Levers to IDLE.
344
What is the preferred method of disconnecting A/THR?
Set the TLA to the existing EPR and push the IDPs.How do you disconnect the A/THR for the remainder of the flight?
345
How do you disconnect the A/THR for the remainder of the flight?
- Press and hold the Instinctive Disconnect button for 15 seconds.
346
Will you be able to restore A/THR?
- No.
347
What else will you lose?
- Alpha Floor Protection.
348
What happens to thrust and what annunciates on the FMA when you reach Alpha Floor?
- Thrust – TOGA
| - FMA – A.FLOOR
349
When does the aircraft leave the Alpha Floor protection and what does it change to?
- By lowering the angle of attack in which the FMA will display TOGA LK.
350
How do you regain normal A/THR?
- Press the Instinctive Disconnect button.
- Return Thrust Levers to CL detent.
- Push the A/THR pb to engage A/THR.
351
When is Alpha Floor Protection active?
- From lift-off through 100 RA on approach.
352
When would Thrust Lock occur?
- Thrust levers in CL detent and A/THR pb on the FCU is pushed, or
- A/THR disconnects due to a failure.
353
How is A/THR normally armed?
- By advancing the thrust levers to TOGA or FLX.
354
What would the FMA indications be during a takeoff roll with FLX thrust and a proper FLX temperature set on a RWY with a localizer?
- MAN FLX, SRS, RWY, A/THR (blue).
355
What would the FMA indications be during a takeoff roll with TOGA thrust on a RWY with a localizer?
- MAN TOGA, SRS, RWY, A/THR (blue).
356
What would the FMA indications be during a takeoff roll if the Auto Thrust didn't arm? Should you abort the takeoff?
- SRS, RWY
- No, continue. Remember, you will have to pull the Thrust Levers to the climb detent at thrust reduction altitude and re-engage Auto Thrust.
357
How should AUTOTHRUST be turned off?
- Match the blue TLA indicators to the present thrust setting and push the IDP’s or move THRUST LEVERS to IDLE.
358
What should the pilot do to get out of TOGA LOCK?
- Push the IDPs and move the THRUST LEVERS to the Climb detent.
359
What should the pilot do to get out of THRUST LOCK?
- Match the TLA with ENG Output.
360
What is the AUTO THRUST active zone for 2-engine operations?
- From slightly above IDLE to CLB.
361
What is the AUTO THRUST active zone for single-engine operations?
- From slightly above IDLE to MCT.
362
When selecting flap lever to 1 after the flaps have been at CONF 2 or higher, what setting will the flaps/slats go to?
- CONFIGURATION 1 + F.
| - Maximum speed 215 knots with automatic retraction of flaps when passing 210 knots.
363
What is the normal flap setting for a go-around?
- Retract one step.
364
What controls the engine LP fuel valves?
- Engine MASTER switch.
| - ENGINE FIRE pb.
365
What does a fault light on the ENG panel indicate?
- Auto Start Abort.
| - Switch disagreement between HP valve and its commanded position.
366
What is the rated thrust of each engine?
- A319 – V2524-A5 = 23,500 lb.
- A320 – V2527-A5 = 27,000 Ib.
- A321 – V2533-A5 = 32,500 lb.
367
How many transponders are installed?
2.
368
Does illumination of the ATC FAIL light indicate loss of all transponder capability?
No – only the selected transponder has failed.
369
With only Green hydraulic system pressure available, will both the flaps and slats operate?
Yes, at ½ speed.
370
What system prevents Flap or Slat asymmetry?
- Wing Tip Brakes (WTB).
371
What causes the WTBs to activate (ROAM)?
- Runaway.
- Overspeed (flaps).
- Asymmetry.
- Movement (un-commanded).
372
If the WTB activates due to a flap asymmetry can the slats still operate?
- Yes, only flap operation is inhibited.
373
How may Slat/Flap Control Computers (SFCC) are installed?
- 2.
374
What would occur if one SFCC failed?
- The slats and flaps would continue to operate, but at half speed.
375
What flap/slat configurations correspond to position 1 on the FLAPS lever and how do they differ?
- CONF 1+F is used for takeoff and provides both slats (position 1) + flaps.
- CONF 1 is used in-flight and is slats only.
376
When will the Automatic Retraction System (ARS) operate?
- During acceleration in CONF 1+F, the FLAPS (not slats) will automatically retract to 0 at 210 knots.
377
What is Alpha Lock?
- This function inhibits retracting flaps/slats from 1 to 0 at a high angle of attack and low airspeed.
378
When the FLAP legend appears in cyan on the upper ECAM display what is indicated?
- Flaps/slats in transit.
379
What happens to the ailerons when the flaps are extended?
- The ailerons droop.
380
Is there any landing configuration when speed brake extension is inhibited?
- A319/320 – Flaps FULL.
| - A321 – Flaps 3 and FULL.
381
Discuss the Ground Spoilers logic on a rejected takeoff.
- If the ground spoilers are armed and the speed exceeds 72 knots, the ground spoilers will automatically extend as soon as both thrust levers are set to idle.
- If the ground spoilers are not armed and the speed exceeds 72 knots, the ground spoilers will automatically extend as soon as reverse is selected on one engine (the other thrust lever remains at idle).
* ** Remember that select at least idle reverse will always provide ground spoiler deployment. ***
382
Discuss the Ground Spoiler logic on landing.
- Full extension is limited until both main gears are on the ground. If the ground spoilers are armed and all thrust levers are at idle, the ground spoilers will automatically extend as soon as both main landing gears have touched down.
- If the ground spoilers are not armed and both main landing gears have touched down, the ground spoilers will automatically extend as soon as reverse is selected on one engine (the other thrust lever remains at idle).
Note: The spoiler roll function is inhibited when spoilers are used for the ground spoiler function.
- Partial Extension:
The ground spoilers partially extend (10°) when reverse is selected on at least one engine (other engine at idle), and one main landing gear strut is compressed. This partial extension, by decreasing the lift, eases the compression of the second main landing gear strut, and consequently leads to full ground spoiler extension.
*** Remember that select at least idle reverse will always provide ground spoiler deployment. ***
383
When will the ground spoilers automatically retract?
- Thrust levers at idle and speed brake lever is down.
| - When at least one thrust lever is advanced above IDLE.
384
When is speed brake extension inhibited?
- SEC 1 and 3 have failed.
- L or R elevator has failed.
- AOA protection is active.
- Flaps in configuration FULL (A319/320).
- Flaps in configuration 3 or FULL (A321).
- Thrust levers above the MCT position.
- Alpha Floor is active.
385
In flight, what happens if a spoiler fault is detected or electrical power is lost?
- The spoiler automatically retracts.
386
What capabilities does the RADAR system have?
- Weather avoidance.
- Turbulence detection.
- Terrain mapping.
- Predictive windshear detection.
387
What would prevent the weather display on the ND?
- Mode selector in PLAN.
| - TERR selected ON.
388
When is WX/TURB mode available?
- At ranges of 40 nm or less.
389
Does predictive windshear detection work when the RADAR system is switched OFF?
- Yes, if the Windshear switch is in AUTO.
390
What is the scanned area of the predictive windshear detection feature?
- Up to 5 nm ahead of the aircraft when the aircraft is below 1,500’ AGL.
391
When are predictive windshear alerts inhibited?
- When on the ground above 100 knots until reaching 50’ AGL.
| - When landing below 50’ AGL.
392
How many RADAR systems are installed?
- 1.
393
How are the communications radios controlled?
- From any one of the 3 RMPs.
394
Which RMP is powered in the Emergency Electrical Configuration?
- RMP 1.
395
Which communication radios are powered in the Emergency Electrical Configuration?
- VHF COM 1, HF 1.
396
What would cause the SEL indicator to illuminate on both RMPs?
- When a communication radio normally associated with one RMP is tuned by another RMP.
397
If the NAV key is selected on either RMP, can the FMGC still auto tune navaids?
- No - RMP now controls the VOR/ILS receivers.
- NAV key on RMP 3 has no effect.
- Normal radio communication is still available.
398
With the INT/RAD switch on the ACP in the INT position and the side stick transmit switch keyed, what will you transmit on?
- The radio selected by its transmission key on the ACP.
399
What methods would the pilot utilize to make a PA announcement?
- Pressing the PA switch on the ACP and using the boom, hand, or mask microphone, or
- The flight deck handset dedicated to the PA system only.
400
What effect does setting the Parking Brake have on other braking modes?
- All other braking modes and anti-skid are deactivated.
401
When brake accumulator pressure is low, how is it re-charged?
- With the Yellow system electric pump.
402
By what means is the parking brake activated when you turn ON the Parking Brake switch?
- Electrically.
403
How do you verify the Parking Brake is set?
- ECAM PARKING BRK memo.
| - Triple indicator brake pressure.
404
If during an engine start with the parking brake ON, the aircraft starts to move due to a parking brake failure, what must you quickly do?
- Release the PARKING BRAKE handle to restore Normal braking with the pedals.
405
What is the thrust limitation with the PARKING BRAKE ON?
- Do not exceed EPR 1.15.
406
When hand flying the aircraft can we trim the rudder?
- Yes, by using the RUDDER TRIM rotary switch.
407
What happens if you turn the Rudder Trim with the autopilot engaged?
- Nothing.
408
What is the RUD TRIM button used for?
- To reset the rudder trim to 0.
409
Does the rudder RESET button work with the autopilot engaged?
- No.
410
Is there any feedback in the rudder pedals from the yaw damping or turn coordination functions?
- No.
411
What 3 things occur when you turn the Manual Gear Extension Handle?
- Removes Green hydraulic pressure.
- Opens gear doors.
- Unlocks the uplocks.
412
How many turns does it take to lower the gear manually?
- 3.
413
What hydraulic system supplies nose wheel steering?
- Yellow.
414
The steering hand wheels can steer the nose wheel up to how much in each direction?
- +/- 75°.
415
When using the rudder pedals for steering, when does the steering angle begin to reduce?
- Starts reduction at 40 knots and progressively reduces to zero degrees at 130 knots.
416
What does the rudder PEDAL DISC button on the steering hand wheel do?
- Pressing the button removes control of nose wheel steering from the rudder pedals until released.
417
What would occur if the A/SKID & N/W STRG switch were selected to OFF?
- Nose wheel steering is lost.
- Anti-skid is deactivated.
- Yellow hydraulic system would supply the brakes.
