orbit Flashcards

1
Q
what makes the 
roof
lateral wall
floor
medial wall 
of the orbit
A

● Roof: Frontal bone and lesser wing of the sphenoid.
● Lateral wall: Zygomatic bone and greater wing of the sphenoid.
● Floor: Zygomatic, maxillary and palatine bones.
● Medial wall: Maxillary, lacrimal, sphenoid and ethmoid bones. The lamina
papyracea is a paper-thin plate which covers the ethmoidal cells and forms a part of the medial wall. It can act as a route of entry for infection from the ethmoid sinus.

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2
Q

name the 3 orbital openings

A

optic foramen

superior orbital fissure

inferior orbital fissure

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3
Q

what goes thru the optic foramen and where is it based

A

Located within the lesser wing of the sphenoid.

It transmits the optic nerve and ophthalmic artery into the middle cranial fossa.

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4
Q

SOF comprise

A

LFTS

  • Lacrimal nerve
  • Frontal nerve
  • Trochlear nerve
  • Superior branch of ophthalmic vein

Contains the superior ophthalmic vein, the lacrimal nerve (CNV1), the frontal nerve (CNV1) and the CNIV.
– Note: The frontal nerve branches into the supraorbital and supratrochlear nerves. The supraorbital nerve leaves the orbit via the supraorbital notch

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5
Q

what does the inferior part of SOF comprise

A

Contains CNIII, the nasociliary nerve (CNV1) and CNVI.

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6
Q

what does IOF comprise and locations

A
  • Branches of pterygopalatine ganglion
  • Inferior ophthalmic vein
  • Zygomatic nerve
  • Maxillary nerve

Located between the maxilla and the greater wing of the sphenoid bone. It contains the infraorbital nerve (CNV2), the zygomatic
nerve (CNV2) and the inferior ophthalmic vein.
– Note: The infraorbital nerve exits the orbit via the infraorbital
foramen.

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7
Q

where is annulus zinn located and comprises

A
“Several Orbital Nerves In One Annulus”
• Superior division of Oculomotor nerve
• Nasociliary nerve
• Inferior division of Oculomotor nerve
• Abducens nerve
  • surrounding the optic canal and the inferior part of the SOF is the common tendinous ring

fibrous tissue marking the origin of the four recti muscles

CNII, CNIII, CNVI and the nasociliary nerve.

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8
Q

retrobulbar anaesthetic block affects which nerves

A

inside the common tendinous ring/annulus of zinn

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9
Q

what is the orbital septum and location

A

It is a membranous sheet that forms the fibrous part of the eyelids.

The orbital septum is located anterior to the orbit and extends from the orbit rims to the eyelid.

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10
Q

what is thyroid eye disease and its cause and peak incidence

A

most common cause of unilateral and bilateral axial proptosis in adults.

idiopathic autoimmune disorder

30-50 years

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11
Q

what are the phases of TED

A

active inflammatory phase (months-years) in which the eyes are red and painful,

inactive fibrotic phase that involves extraocular muscles (EOM) and connective tissues.

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12
Q

RFs of thyroid eye disease

A

● Smoking
● Females
● HLA-DR3 and HLA-B8

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13
Q

pathophysiology of thyroid eye disease

A

● Sympathetic overstimulation of the Müller muscle due to high levels of thyroid hormones causing eyelid retraction.

● Fibroblastic deposition of glycosaminoglycans into the EOM producing oedema and eventual fibrosis of EOM. This leads to:
Impaired movement of EOM (restrictive myopathy).
Exophthalmos which exposes the cornea causing dryness, irritation and exposure keratitis.
Lid retraction due to fibrosis of levator palpebrae.
Increased pressure on the optic nerve causing optic neuropathy. Impaired venous drainage leading to conjunctival and periorbital oedema and conjunctival injection.

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14
Q

clinical features of thyroid eye disease

A

● Unilateral/bilateral axial proptosis, redness, chemosis and ocular irritation.
● Lid retraction (Dalrymple sign).
● Lid lag on downgaze (Von Graefe sign).
● ‘Staring’ appearance (Kocher sign).
● Restrictive myopathy: EOM is usually affected in the following order: inferior rectus (IR), medial rectus (MR), superior rectus (SR), levator palpebrae, lateral rectus (LR).
● Choroidal folds (rare).

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15
Q

Ix for thyroid eye disease

A

● Thyroid function tests.
● Imaging
CT or MRI are indicated if orbital decompression is planned, to help confirm an equivocal diagnosis or if there is asymmetry on exophthalmometry. Shows thickening of EOM bellies (most commonly IR and MR) with characteristic tendon sparing.
● Visual field testing is indicated, especially if optic neuropathy is suspected.

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16
Q

classification of TED and the name

A

European Group on Graves’ Orbitopathy (EUGOGO)

into severe sight-threatening (optic neuropathy)

moderate-severe (exophthalmos ≥3 mm, lid retraction ≥2 mm and/or diplopia) and mild disease.

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17
Q

General measures of TED

A

● Smoking cessation.

● Achieve euthyroid status.

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18
Q

Mx for mild disease TED

A

● Watchful waiting.
● Ocular lubricants during day and overnight to avoid dryness and ulceration
● Topical ciclosporin to reduce ocular irritation.
● Overnight lid taping for mild exposure keratopathy.
● Selenium supplements can improve the course of TED

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19
Q

Mx for moderate severe disease TED

A

● IV methylprednisolone ± oral prednisolone: Bisphosphonates should be considered in patients receiving steroid therapy due to risk of osteoporosis. It is important to check liver function in patients receiving high doses of IV steroids.
● Orbital radiotherapy: Can be used in combination with steroids or when steroids are contraindicated in patients with active TED complaining of diplopia or restricted eye movements. Orbital irradiation can increase risk of retinopathy in diabetic and hypertensive patients.

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20
Q

surgical measures for mod-sev disease for TED

A

Surgery is indicated after inflammatory phase subsides (i.e. in the inactive phase), in cases of optic neuropathy, significant proptosis, persistent diplopia or severe lid retraction.

The following order is recommended if surgery is indicated:
– Orbital decompression
– Strabismus surgery
– Eyelid surgery

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21
Q

complications and associations of TED

A

● Dysthyroid optic neuropathy: Causes severe sight-threatening TED, suspect if there are changes in colour vision or VA with presence of optic disc swelling and relative afferent pupillary defect (RAPD). Treatment is with IV steroids and orbital decompression (if unresponsive to IV steroids).
● Exposure keratopathy: Manage with lubricants, surgery (e.g. tarsorrhaphy) or botulinum toxin injections.
● Superior limbic keratoconjunctivitis: A common association with TED.

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22
Q

what is obrital cellulitis

A

Infection of the soft tissues of the eye socket behind the orbital septum

within the orbit but not affecting the globe

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23
Q

aetiology of orbital cellulitis

A

Spread of infection from paranasal sinuses most commonly ethmoidal sinus

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24
Q

common organisms in orbital

A
  • Streptococcus pneumoniae
  • Staphylococcus aureus
  • Haemophilus influenzae
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25
Q

features of orbital cellulitis

A

• Children are most commonly affected
• Acute onset of swelling of orbital tissue, chemosis - limited eye movement
- proptosis
• Fever, tenderness and restricted eye movement
• RAPD, decreased colour vision, dVA and diplopia may occur

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26
Q

Ix for orbital cellulitis

A

CT scan

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27
Q

Mx for orbital cellulitis

A

Admit for IV antibiotics (e.g. ceftriaxone + flucloxacillin + metronidazole)

if orbit needs to be drained then refer to ENT

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28
Q

complications of orbital cellulitis

A
- Orbital abscess - Cavernous sinus
thrombosis 
- Brain abscess and
meningitis 
- Optic neuropathy
- central retinal artery occlusion
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29
Q

what is preseptal cellulitis

A

Infection isolated anterior to the orbital septum

superficial tissue injury

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30
Q

aetiology of preseptal cellulitis

A

Direct inoculation from eyelid trauma

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31
Q

common organisms of preseptal cellulitis

A

Staphylococcus aureus

Streptococcus pyogenes

Streptococcus pneumoniae

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32
Q

features of preseptal cellulitis

A
  • painful swollen lid
  • maybe unable to open eye
    • Patient presents with eyelid oedema and erythema
  • low- grade fever
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33
Q

Ix for preseptal cellulitis

A

CT scan if doubtful diagnosis

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34
Q

Mx for preseptal cellulitis

A

Oral antibiotics (e.g. co-amoxiclav)

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35
Q

complications of preseptal cellulitis

A

Can progress to orbital cellulitis

36
Q

RFs for orbital cellulitis

A

previous URTI/sinus infection (ethmoidal)

lack of Hib vaccination

mena age hospitilisation 7-12 years

37
Q

what features distinguish between preseptal cellulitis from orbital cellulitis

A

• Important distinctions from orbital cellulitis include normal eye movement, normal VA and colour saturation, absence of proptosis and absent of RAPD

38
Q

what is orbital mucormycosis

A

fungal infection

more gradual onset and in immunocompromised patients or patients with diabetic ketoacidosis.

39
Q

pathogen involved in mucormycosis

A

mucoraceae

40
Q

Sx of orbital mucormycosis

Mx

A

orbital swelling and signs of orbital cellulitis. Characteristically, necrotic black eschars over the nasal turbinates or palate can form.

IV antifungals
surgical debridement

41
Q

what is rhabdomyosarcoma

A

most common primary orbital malignancy in children.

onset age mean 8 years

42
Q

most common affected areas for rhabdomyosarcoma

A

genitourinary system and the head and neck (including orbit).

43
Q

histopathology of rhabdomyosarcoma

A

This tumour has the ability to differentiate into striated muscle from undifferentiated mesenchymal cells. Embryonal is the most common subtype and is characterized by elongated spindle-shaped cells (‘strap cells’)

44
Q

clinical features of rhabdomyosarcoma

A

● Rapidly progressive unilateral proptosis.
● Most common location in the orbit is superonasal.
● Diplopia may occur.

45
Q

Ix for rhabdomyosarcoma

A

● MRI or CT: Shows a circumscribed mass ± bone erosion.

● Biopsy.

46
Q

what is a neuroblastoma

A

most common extracranial solid tumour in children and is derived from the neural crest cell of the sympathetic nervous system

47
Q

neuroblastoma commonly occurs where

A

adrenal medulla secreting catecholamines but can also involve the
head, neck, chest abdomen or spine. It usually metastasises to the orbit.

48
Q

histology of neuroblastoma

A

Homer-Wright rosettes.

49
Q

clinical features of neuroblastoma

A

Child with unilateral/bilateral proptosis and periorbital

ecchymosis (racoon eyes). Differential for basal skull fracture.

50
Q

associations of neuroblastoma

A

Opsomyoclonus, a rare neurological syndrome characterized by conjugate jerky eye movements (dancing eyes) and cerebellar ataxia (dancing
feet).

51
Q

what is lymphangioma

A

Rare vascular hamartomatous tumours which may form blood-filled ‘chocolate’ cysts. They present in childhood and depend on whether the lesion is anterior or posterior.

52
Q

what is anterior lymphangioma

A

Soft bluish mass superonasally on eyelid or conjunctiva which are exacerbated by Valsalva manoeuvre.

53
Q

what is posterior lymphangioma

A

Insidious growth may lead to proptosis. Presentation can be with painful proptosis due to spontaneous haemorrhage.

54
Q

what types of tumors can arise from the optic nerve

A

glial tissue - optic nerve glioma

meninges - optic nerve meningioma

55
Q

what is carotid-cavernous fistula (CCF)

A

Development of an AV connection between cavernous sinus (venous) and the carotids ( arterial)

direct or indirect

56
Q

what is optic nerve glioma

A

Slow-growing benign tumour which typically affects children

57
Q

associations of optic nerve glioma

A

neurofibromatosis 1

58
Q

clinical features of optic nerve glioma

A

Gradual painless
monocular proptosis
visual loss and RAPD

Optic nerve head can be
initially swollen but then becomes atrophic

59
Q

Ix for optic nerve glioma

A

CT: Fusiform enlargement of the optic nerve

60
Q

what is optic nerve sheath meningioma

A

Slow-growing benign tumour which typically affects middle-aged females

61
Q

associations of optic nerve sheath meningioma

A

Neurofibromatosis 2

62
Q

clinical features of optic nerve sheath meningioma

A

Pathogenomic triad of

  1. progressive
  2. painless
  3. unilateral visual loss + optic atrophy + optociliary shunt vessels

proptosis may also occur

63
Q

Ix for optic nerve sheath meningioma and what would u see

A

CT: Thickening of the optic nerve sheath (‘tram-track’ sign) and osteoblastic changes

64
Q

what is direct CCF

A

A high-flow arteriovenous fistula or communication between the cavernous sinus and internal carotid artery directly

65
Q

aetiology of direct CCF

A

Usually due to trauma (can be spontaneous)

66
Q

features of direct CCG

A
• Acute onset following head injury
• Triad
• Pulsatile proptosis with
associated bruit
• Conjunctival chemosis
• Whooshing sound in head
• Ophthalmoplegia (due to cranial nerve damage)
• Raised IOP
• Papilloedema
• Visual loss
67
Q

Ix for CCF and what will u see

A

• CT/MRI: Dilatation of the
superior ophthalmic vein

• Definitive diagnosis: MRA,
CRA or angiography

68
Q

Mx for direct CCF

A

Transarterial repair of the artery

embolization

69
Q

complications of CCF

A
  • Immediate visual loss due to optic nerve damage at the onset of head injury
  • Delayed visual loss can be due to open-angle glaucoma (most common cause of visual loss)
70
Q

what is indirect CCF

A

A low-flow arteriovenous fistula or communication between meningeal branches of the internal/external carotids and the cavernous sinus

71
Q

aetiology of indirect CCF

A

Usually spontaneous and most commonly in hypertensive elderly women

72
Q

features of indirect CCG

A

• Gradual onset of redness and irritation of the eyes
• Raised IOP
• Moderate venous
dilatation with later tortuosity of retinal vasculature
• Corkscrew epibulbar vessels
• Mild proptosis

73
Q

Ix for indirect ccf

A

• CT/MRI: Dilatation of the
superior ophthalmic vein

• Definitive diagnosis: MRA,
CRA or angiography

74
Q

Mx for indirect CCF

A
  • Spontaneous resolution in about half of the cases

* Monitor IOP and VA

75
Q

what is cavernous haemangioma

A

most common benign hamartoma of the orbit in adults. It is a low- flow arteriovenous malformation.

76
Q

where is cavernous haemangioma found and who is it common in

A

muscle cone lateral to the optic nerve

common in middle aged females

77
Q

features of cavernous haemangioma

A

● Slowly progressive axial proptosis. Most notable during pregnancy.
● Induced hypermetropia due to globe indentation.
● Optic nerve compression may occur, leading to decreased VA (dVA).
● Extraocular muscle restriction leading to diplopia.

78
Q

Ix for haemangioma

A

● USS shows a well-defined intraconal lesion with increased reflectivity.
● CT or MRI can show a well-circumscribed lesion, typically intraconally.

79
Q

Mx for cavernous haemangioma

A

surgical excision if vision is affected

80
Q

what is capillary haemangioma

A

A type of hamartoma; the most common benign orbital tumour of infancy. These are high-flow endothelial neoplasms which undergo rapid growth due to vascular endothelial growth factor soon after birth.
● May be superficial (‘strawberry naevi’) or deep (posterior to orbital septum).
● More common in boys.
● Rapid growth in early infancy (2 months–1 year) with spontaneous
regression by 7 years of age.

81
Q

clinical features of caoillary haemangioma

A

● Bright red unilateral lesion on upper eyelid which blanch with pressure or enlarge when the child cries (Valsalva).
● Ptosis due to its location in the upper lid.
● Deep lesions, however, are dark blue/purple in colour and can cause axial
proptosis.

82
Q

Mx for capillary haemangioma

A

● Observation: Most resolve spontaneously.
● If risk of amblyopia, cosmetic reasons or anisometropic astigmatism
Propranolol
Corticosteroid injections or systemic steroids Surgical excision

83
Q

what is cavernous sinus thrombosis

A

clot formation within the sinus and is mainly due to a spreading infection from the paranasal sinuses, ear or pre- existing orbital cellulitis.

84
Q

clinical features of cavernous sinus thrombosis

A

● Rapid-onset headache, nausea, vomiting, chemosis and dVA.
● Unilateral or bilateral proptosis.
● Diplopia due to CNIII, CNIV or CNVI compression. CNVI is first to be
affected, as it lies freely within the cavernous sinus, causing a lateral gaze palsy.

85
Q

Ix for cavernous sinus thrombosis

A

● MRI and MRI venography to confirm diagnosis.

86
Q

Mx for cavernous sinus thrombosis

A

● Intravenous antibiotics, steroids and/or low-molecular-weight heparin.
● Surgical drainage.

87
Q

complications of cavernous sinus thrombosis

A

● Meningitis
● Septic emboli
● CNS deficits