ordnance Flashcards
(105 cards)
1
Q
Ordnance program is required to meet several of the eleven missions?
A
Missions: Search and Rescue Drug Interdiction Migration Interdiction Defense Readiness Ports, Waterways, and Coastal Security Living Marine Resources Marine Environmental Protection Other Law Enforcement (Foreign Fishing Vessel Enforcement
Operations:
Investigations
Unit Security
Transportation of Government Property
2
Q
Defense readiness and law enforcement duties are assigned by Congress and carried out by the following principal advisors.
A
Commandant (CG-721) has overall Program Management authority for the Coast Guard’s ordnance program.
3
Q
Force readiness Command
A
- FORCECOM is responsible for standardization of operations and for conducting evaluations of units under their control and ensures operational readiness to perform assigned missions.
- FORCECOM supervises the administration, planning, and review of military personnel training programs of Coast Guard Training Centers (TRACENs).
4
Q
FORCECOM Weapons Systems Branch (FC-Aws)
A
Recertify all Coast Guard Certified Handling Facilities every 12 months.
5
Q
TRACEN Yorktown (tew-osi)
A
TRACEN Yorktown (tew-osi) is the Technical Authority and primary administrator for the Ordnance Safety Inspection (OSI) program.
6
Q
FORCECOM Armories
A
FORCECOM Armories provide firearms and munitions support for all units within their geographical areas of responsibility.
- Maintain a firearm inventory (District spares) equal to 10% of all operational and training firearms fielded within their AOR.
- Manage all FAIs in their AOR, regardless of assigned unit, as District resources.
- Ensure FAIs are made available to conduct
firearms training and qualifications.
-Conduct annual unit training on the accountability and safeguarding of Coast Guard owned firearms.
7
Q
Shore
Infrastructure
Logistics Center
A
The Shore Infrastructure Logistics Center (SILC) is responsible for field execution of the Coast Guard’s Civil Engineering Program, including planning, design, construction, contracting, environmental,
real property and base facility management and operations.
8
Q
Small Arms
Repair Facility
A
The Small Arms Repair Facility (SARF) in Crane, Indiana is the distribution center for Coast Guard firearms.
- Designated Receiving Agent for all firearms entering into the Coast Guard inventory
- Conducts inspections of firearms and firearms ancillary equipment involved in mishaps.
9
Q
OIC
A
Revoke the authorization to carry a firearm for any person who fails to meet the qualification requirements for a given firearm in accordance with this Manual. Related qualification code changes
must be documented via TMT entry. Ensure TMT entry information is forwarded to the appropriate administrative authority within fourteen (14) calendar days of occurrence.
- Conduct annual unit training on the accountability and safeguarding of Coast Guard owned firearms.
- Notify the host Coast Guard facility when transferring C/D 1.3 munitions when the transfer exceeds 100 pounds Net Explosive Weight (NEW), or when transferring C/D 1.4 munitions that exceeds 300 pounds NEW.
- Review the unit’s site plan once a year.
10
Q
Explosive safety officer
A
ESO is the Certified Handling Facility’s command representative and is directly responsible for the onloading, offloading, or handling of any C/D 1.1 or 1.2 munitions.
11
Q
Safety
Loading Officer
A
SLO is the Certified Handling Facilities’ command representative
and is responsible for the safety of the C/D 1.1 or 1.2 evolution site and
the personnel in or around the site.
12
Q
Weapons Officer?
A
- Units with four or more officers assigned must
designate an officer as the Weapons Officer. The Weapons Officer must be designated in writing by the Commanding Officer (CO). - Weapons Officers must hold their position for at least one year
13
Q
Weapons Petty Officer?
A
- Units with three or fewer officers must
designate an E-6 or above as the WPO unless those duties are assigned to a Gunner’s Mate. - ore units must designate an E-5 or above as the
WPO unless the duties are assigned to a Gunner’s Mate or a Maritime Enforcement Specialist. The WPO must be designated in writing by the Commanding Officer, Officer-in-Charge, or Special Agent in Charge
(CO/OIC/SAC). Except in extreme situations (unexpected transfer, loss of confidence in - WPOs must hold their position for at least one year.
- Each individual piece of ordnance equipment and all
ordnance spaces must be inspected at least monthly by the Weapons Officer or the Weapons Petty Officer’s supervisor.
14
Q
two types of ordnance inspection;
A
- (OSI) Ordnance Safety Inspections- OSI is an administrative inspection of the unit’s firearms and munitions and includes the accountability, logs, records, training, use, maintenance, storage, support equipment, and support material for these items
- Ordnance Technical Inspections (OTI)- OTI is an administrative inspection of the unit’s Navy Type Navy Owned ordnance systems and includes the logs, records, training, maintenance, support equipment, and support material for these systems
- TRACEN Yorktown (tew-osi) and SFLC must conduct concurrent OSI/OTI inspections on units with installed NTNO Ordnance Equipment.
15
Q
Frequency
of Ordnance
Inspections
A
- All units with ordnance equipment must be inspected every 24 months with the exception of PATFORSWA units.
- PATFORSWA units must be inspected annually.
- All units with ordnance equipment must conduct an ordnance safety self- assessment 10 to 14 months following the OSI/OTI.
- Weapons Officer/Petty Officers must complete OSI/OTI and self- assessment checklists for WEPO relief.
- Certified Handling Facilities must be inspected annually or upon occurrence of any changes to the pier or surrounding area.
- OSI/OTI baseline inspections must be completed on new units within six months of commissioning.
16
Q
Inspection reports shall be mailed?
A
- OSI reports must be emailed to the servicing armory and D05-DG- TEWOSI@uscg.mil within 15 days of completion.
- Formal OSIs must be entered into the inspection survey tool within 15 days of completion.
- TRACEN Yorktown (tew-osi) and SFLC ESD-EOB must annually submit their respective consolidated OSI and OTI results to Commandant (CG-721) no later than 01 November.
17
Q
Privately Owned Firearms on Coast Guard Ranges
A
The firing of privately owned firearms on Coast Guard owned SAFRs must be approved in writing by Commandant (CG-721).
18
Q
Required logs?
A
Cutters equipped with NTNO Ordnance must maintain the Ordnance Log in E-Log.
19
Q
Firearm
Discharges
A
Firearm discharges are defined as either intentional or unintentional.
- Intentional firearm discharges are when the member intends to discharge the firearm in either in the line of duty, or during training (range, marking cartridge or blank munitions).
- Unintentional firearm discharges are when the member inadvertently discharges a firearm either accidentally or through negligence.
20
Q
Intentional firearm discharges must report to?
A
NCC National command center via COCommand
- Intentional firearm discharges that occur during range training and
qualification must be reported on a Small Arms Range Sheet, Form CG-3029 and captured in TMT.
21
Q
Unintentional Firearm Discharges are divided up into two categories? Board question
A
Accidental- malfunctions
Negligent- disregard policy and procedures
22
Q
Command Responsibilities upon unintentional discharge must have the member?
A
- The member(s) involved in the mishap must have their firearms qualifications immediately suspended and the member(s) will not be authorized access to any Coast Guard owned firearms pending the result of an investigation.
- Within 24 hours report all unintentional firearm discharges, except as noted in Paragraph C.8.a. of this Section, through the units chain of command to the Area or FORCECOM
- Report all unintentional discharges via a CODR, EER, or an EMR per Chapter 2, Section B of this Manual.
23
Q
following must be completed when a Coast Guard owned firearm has been unintentionally discharged:
A
- firearm must be cleared in accordance with the Operator’s Manual, taken out of service, and immediately segregated from all other firearms.
- NOTE: Units will not clean or try to perform a safety function test on a firearm that has been involved in an unintentional discharge.
- firearm must be tagged.
- firearm must be shipped to the unit’s servicing FORCECOM Armory within 3 working days
- Last 12 months of PMS history.
- Any shell casings, recovered projectiles, magazines, broken parts, or any other equipment associated with the discharge.
- NOTE: Units underway must segregate the firearm and turn it into the servicing FORCECOM Armory within 3 working days upon returning to homeport.
- Once received, the servicing FORCECOM Armory must ensure the firearm is clear and ship the firearm, documentation, and associated items to SARF within 5 working days.
24
Q
CG firearm is unintentionally discharged?
A
- taken out of service
- tagged
- shipped to Forcecom within 3 days
- last 12 months of PMS
- any shell casings
- Once received Forcecom shall send to SARF within 5 workin days
25
Members may be charged with UCMJ violations including, but not limited to:
- Article 92. Failure to obey order or regulation.
- Article 108. Military property of United States – Loss, damage, destruction, or wrongful disposition.
- Article 109. Property other than military property of United States – Waste, spoilage, or destruction.
- Article 134. General article.
negligent use with the cause of death
Article 119. Manslaughter.
26
following timeline must be met for all missing, lost, or stolen items:
- Do a preliminary “quick look” (1 hour maximum) to attempt to locate the item(s).
- not found, report missing, lost, or suspected stolen firearm(s) to CO/OIC/SAC, CGIS, local law enforcement, USCG National Command Center, and Commandant (CG-721) within 2 hours of loss.
- Send MLOS message within 12 hours of discovering the item(s) missing, lost, or stolen.
- Make appropriate entries into unit’s ordnance log within 12 hours.
- CGIS must enter all missing, lost, or stolen firearms into the National Crime Information Center (NCIC) data base within 24 hours.
- Ammunition Transaction Report (ATR) must be submitted within 48 hours for all missing, lost, or stolen munitions.
- Report of Survey for missing, lost, or stolen firearms must be completed in accordance with Reference (v) and e-mailed to HQS- DG-lst-CG-7211@uscg.mil and HQS-PF-fldr-CG-844- Property@uscg.mil within 10 days of loss. The person assigned as the Investigating Officer of the Administrative
27
Qualified Personnel Required (QPRs) are the necessary firearms training requirements that a unit needs in order to meet its assigned missions.
QPRs are used to determine the amount of munitions purchased, to validate the annual TTCOR, and to set the annual NCEA released by Commandant (CG-721) to keep Coast Guard members trained.
28
Munitions must only be used for the following purposes:
- To support Coast Guard operations.
| - To train and qualify Coast Guard personnel.
29
Live Munitions will not be used for?
Live munitions will not be used for loading or unloading drills, PQS, PMS, or during pre-fire briefs.
30
Depleted Uranium (DU
Coast Guard units will not receive, handle, store, or fire Depleted Uranium munitions
31
Two CG members armed with pistols are required in each vehicle transporting munitions when one of the following is met:
- When transporting firearms and munitions together.
- When transporting C/D 1.1, 1.2, 1.5, or 1.6 explosives.
- One way trip is greater than two hours
32
At least one member armed with a pistol is required for a one way trip.
- less than two hours when:
- The gross weight of C/D 1.3 is more than 100 lbs.
- The gross weight of C/D 1.4 is more than 300 lbs.
33
Non-Combat Expenditure Allocation (NCEA)
| Board question
NCEA is the amount of munitions allocated to a unit to meet training, qualification, and non-combat operational needs. NCEA is determined by the amount of Qualified Personnel Requirements (QPRs) assigned, current operations, or student through put at training commands. NCEA is allotted by Fiscal Year (FY) and cannot be carried over from one FY to the next.
34
Commandant (CG-721) establishes the Coast Guard’s strategic stockpile and sets the annual NCEA for the Coast Guard.
- FORCECOM (FC-Aws) allocates the annual NCEA to Districts and select Operational and Training Commands.
- Districts further sub-allocate their annual NCEA to District units.
35
Daily Munitions Accountability
- All munitions must be accounted for daily.
- The results of the daily count must be entered into the Ordnance Log and reported to the CO, OIC, or the Officer of the Day (OOD)
36
Daily accountability of munitions at Shore Units may be waived by the CO/OIC if
- Weather conditions prevent access.
- Ordnance spaces are not accessed, have intrusion detection systems (IDS) installed, and a security force response
-
37
Daily Inspection of Magazines
Ashore and afloat munitions magazine, ready service magazines, and ready service lockers must be inspected daily in accordance with the applicable Navy 3-M PMS card. Results must be recorded in the
Ordnance Log.
38
Daily Magazine Temperature
Afloat munitions magazines, ready service magazines, and ready service lockers containing munitions must be equipped with thermometers and temperature record cards in accordance with
Reference (b). Temperatures must be taken and recorded daily on the temperature record card and in the Ordnance Log.
39
Weekly Visual Inspection of Ready-For-Issue
| Munitions
All ready-for-issue munitions must be inspected for serviceability weekly. The results must be entered into the Ordnance Log.
40
Monthly Munitions Accountability
All munitions must be accounted for by Lot and/or Serial number monthly. Results from the monthly count must be entered into the Ordnance Log and reported via PLR.
41
Disposition of Unserviceable Munitions
Unserviceable C/D 1.3 and 1.4 munitions must be returned to the servicing FORCECOM Armory for disposition.
42
To ensure the safe storage of munitions throughout the Coast Guard, all Coast Guard shore units that store munitions must have an approved?
site plan
43
CO/OIC/SAC must ensure grounding tests are conducted every 24 months. Tests must be conducted by a graduate of
Electrical Explosives Safety for Naval Facilities, AMMO-29 or equivalent. Units can contact their servicing FORCECOM Armory for ground testing assistance.
- Unit Site Plans must be approved by FORCECOM (FC-Aws).
44
Coast Guard Certified Handling Facilities
- Coast Guard Certified Handling Facilities must only conduct munitions movements during daylight hours
- The use of cranes to perform munitions movements on Coast Guard Certified Handling Facilities is strictly prohibited.
- shall have an ESO and SLO safety loading officer designated in writing at an CGCHF.
45
Temporary Transfer of Firearms for Operations
- Temporary transfers will not exceed 90 days.
- instances where firearms are needed past the initial 90 days, a new Requisition and Invoice/Shipping Document, Form DD-1149 will be issued and Commandant (CG-721) will be notified.
46
Loan of CG Firearms to other Government Agencies for Operations
- Firearms may be loaned for periods not to exceed 30 days on a Requisition and Invoice/Shipping Document, Form DD-1149.
- cant loan M240
47
Borrowing Firearms
Coast Guard units are not authorized to borrow firearms from other agencies, (Federal, State, or Local), without prior approval from Commandant (CG-721).
48
Clearing Stations
- A clearing barrel that can contain the .50 caliber Browning Machine Gun (BMG) armor piercing (AP) round
- Lighting to facilitate night time operations.
- Posted clearing procedures
- Underway cutters are permitted to designate an over the side clearing station. Cutters inport must have a clearing station with a clearing barrel the meets the above requirements.
49
Award Upgrading
- Individuals must only be allowed to upgrade a rifle or pistol award once every three years.
- If an individual shoots a lower qualifying score during their career, they must retain the award for the highest level achieved.
50
Permanency of Awards
- Marksman, sharpshooter, and expert awards are permanent. An individual’s award must be upgraded when a higher qualifying score is fired.
-
51
Administrative Requirements for Carrying or Operating Coast Guard Firearms While Engaged in the Enforcement of Laws and Treaties
* Firearm Qualified. The member has been trained in the use and operation of the firearm and is currently qualified on the course(s) prescribed.
* Judgmental Training. The member is currently qualified on the Coast Guard Judgmental Use of Force Evaluation (JUFE).
* Use of Force Training. The member has been thoroughly indoctrinated in the Commandant’s Use of Force Policy in accordance with Reference (s).
* Personnel Qualification Standards. The member is currently PQS qualified for the firearm being carried in accordance with Reference (m).
* Lautenberg Compliance. Member is in compliance with Reference (y).
52
Pistol, rifle and shotgun M240
- Semi annual for quall frequency
- JUFI is semi annual
- firearm pqs is quarterly
- Lautenberg is annual
M240 annual, JUFI is semi, PQS is quarterly
- NOTE: Members are not required to have a security clearance to carry weapons in the performance of their official duties.
53
Requalification Timelines
Course of fire, PQS, and JUFE requalification dates are determined by Quarterly, Semi-Annual, or Annual sliding scale.
- Quarterly Requalification – Members must be requalified by the last day of the third month after qualification. 12 total times to get qual.
54
Sig P229R DAK in .40 caliber:
Magazine inserted (11 rounds in magazine).
One round in the chamber (total of 12 rounds in the firearm).
Hammer in forward position resting on the safety intercept notch.
Firearm is holstered and secured.
55
M16/M4/MK18 Rifle (series):
Bolt fully forward and locked on an empty chamber.
Magazine inserted (maximum of 30 rounds).
Selector lever on safe.
56
M870 Police (Law Enforcement/Security/Bear Protection*):
Fore-end (action) fully forward and locked on an empty chamber.
Four rounds of A011 (*or 12BR for bear protection) in the magazine
tube.
Safety in the Safe position
57
M240 (Half Load):
• Bolt forward in battery on an empty chamber.
• First round of ammunition belt in feed tray groove against the cartridge stop.
• Machine gun cover closed.
• Safety in the fire position.
WARNING: Due to the possibility of an unintentional discharge, the M240 WILL NOT be carried in the Full Load condition. The M240 can quickly be readied to firing by pulling the charging handle to the rear from the Half Load condition.
58
M240 (Full Load):
* Bolt locked to the rear.
* First round of ammunition belt in feed tray groove against the cartridge stop.
* Machine gun cover closed.
* Safety in the safe position
59
Depot
| Maintenance
The Small Arms Repair Facility (SARF) in Crane, IN is the only depot level maintenance facility for Coast Guard firearms. Depot maintenance is the repair of material requiring major overhaul or complete rebuilding of parts, subassemblies, assemblies, or end-items. SARF is the only facility authorized to use special tools not addressed by PMS or the OP/Tech manuals.
60
All issued M240 barrels (barrels not being held at SARF or FORCECOM Armories as spares
must be marked with the last four digits of a specific receiver. There are two acceptable methods to
mark a M240 barrel:
- Preferred: Stamp a metal dog tag with the last four digits of the receiver’s serial number and lock wire the metal tag to the barrel behind the front sight post. Stamp will be no larger than ¼ inch.
61
Loading and Unloading Requirements
Two Person Integrity (TPI) is required during all loading and unloading evolutions for the M240 and M2HB machine guns when not engaged in
gunnery exercises on an approved range.
62
There are four different types of Range Instructors in the Coast Guard:
* Firearms Instructors (FAI).
* Precision Marksman Instructors (PMI).
* Advanced Marksmanship Instructors (AMI).
* Close Quarters Combat Instructors (CQCI).
63
The following is a list of personal qualities that must be exhibited for consideration to become, or continue as, a Range Instructor:
```
leadership
unimpeachable character
sound judgement and maturity
conduct and demeanor
ability to impart knowledge
Credibility
```
64
The member must meet one of the following for eligibility:
Chief Warrant Officer (WEPS) or (MLES
Gunner’s Mate E-4 to E-8.
Maritime Enforcement Specialist E-4 to E-8
All other ratings E-5 to E-6.
Coast Guard Government Schedule (GS) employees
65
Precision Marksman Instructors (PMI) provide range training to Coast Guard members on basic and advance Aviation Use of Force
SMTC is the only accession point for Coast Guard PMIs.
66
PMI School Eligibility
The member must meet one of the following for eligibility:
• Gunner’s Mate E-4 to E-8.
• Maritime Enforcement Specialist E-4 to E-8.
• All other ratings E-5 to E-7.
• Coast Guard Government Schedule (GS) employees.
67
Advanced Marksmanship Instructors (AMI) provide flat range Advanced Combat Marksmanship Skills (ACMS) training to Deployable Specialized Forces (DSF)
AMI School Prerequisites
| - Must be an E-5 or above or a Coast Guard Government Schedule (GS) employee.
68
Pre-Fire Briefs
- All personnel attending range training, involved in marking cartridge or blank munitions training, or acting as a member of a gun crew (crew- served and installed weapon system) must attend a pre-fire brief within 24 hours of the training or exercise.
- Live-Fire training must be documented on the Small Arms Range Sheet, Form CG-3029
- Points must be deducted for all early or late rounds. Members that consistently fire early or late rounds (three or more during the same range training day) must be removed from the firing line and evaluated by
the command
69
Firearm training and qualification levels are as follows:
Level I. Used to document firearms training on basic courses of fire.
Level II Used to document firearms training on courses of fire which require annual inspection
which require an annual qualification.
Level III. Used to document firearms training on JUFE and courses of fire which require semi-annual qualification.
Level IV. Used to document firearms training on CTEs and PQS
70
NOTE: A member qualified at Level III (semi-annual qualification) can fulfill a Level II (annual qualification) with the same firearm for up to one year from the date of Level III qualification.
If the member attempts requalification prior to the one year mark and fails to qualify, than he/she will not be issued a weapon at either qualification Level.
71
NOTE: If a qualified shooter attends range training prior to the nd of their qualification date and fails to qualify during a scored course of fire, that shooter must be UNQUALIFIED. Shooter must qualify on course of fire before being authorized to carry weapon.
•
Members who continually fail to meet the minimum score for qualification. Individuals that have been administered the same course of fire 12 times (practice and qualification attempts) within
the same fiscal year without qualifying will not be allowed further attempts until the next fiscal year. Firearm Instructors must inform the CO/OIC/SAC on the individual’s performance at the range and the number of practice and qualification attempts taken during the fiscal year.
72
When reasonably feasible, Coast Guard units must use Department of Defense (DoD) controlled water ranges for LA51 testing and training.
Situated so that all potential casings will be deposited in at least 20 feet of water.
- When an authorized unit desires to test or train shoreward of 3 NM or in navigable waters they will consult and obtain a response from their
respective Sector or District Response Officer or Servicing Environmental Representative to
73
Shore units are required to maintain the following logs?
- small arms
- privately owned weapons log
- Mag log
74
How many duties does the WEPO have?
5 duties:
- small arms log
- inventory records and logs
- ordnance maintenance logs
- private
- Ordnance
75
Monthly inventories shall be done as close to the first of the month as possible?
- shall not be less than 23 or more than 35 calendar days.
- Must be done by a minimum of two people
- Inventory shall be compared to the R-865
76
Light automatic weapons up to and including .50 cal are classified at CAT II security risk?
- Ammo for .50 Cal are classified as CAT III
| - Shoulder line throwing gun is CAT IV
77
All CG service small arms and ammo are declared " ? "for the purpose of classification in security measures. They must be available for issue on a 24-hour basis.
“Reaction Force Weapons”
78
CAT III & IV arms shall be stored in one of the following:
* An approved armory
* A Class 5 GSA-approved weapons container.
* All containers of less than 500 lbs shall be secured to the premises, unless an intrusion alarm is installed.
* Secured by bolts or heavy metal straps
* Welded
* Imbedded in concrete
79
Arms racks shall have:
* 24 hour watch
* Be equivalent to standard Mosler brand models, and locked with a high intensity key lock
* Protected by an Intrusion Detection System
* Must be inspected Quarterly
80
Master Keys for Ordnance are?
not aloud
81
Prohibited Maintenance includes?
- Modifications
- Cannabilization
- Maintenance to match weapons
82
O level?
D level?
Intermediate?
o level is unit
d level is Sarf only
Intermediate replacement of pats, subassemblies
83
Body armor shall be level 3A (Board question)
- Full front, side, and back protection between the base of the neck and belt line
- Neutral or positive buoyancy
- Level IIIa or greater protection
- Certified by the National Institute of Justice
84
The LE belt shall be made of either
black ballistic nylon or black leather.
85
Pepper spray characteristics?
- No more than 10% and no less than 5% oleoresin capsicum concentrate.
- Not exceed 500000 Scoville Heat Units
- Can’t exceed 18% capsacinoids.
- 3 ounces in weight
- Water based, nonflammable, non-toxic, and produces a straight stream.
86
Baton Shall: (board question
- Have a steel shaft that is silver in color and corrosion resistant, with no knurling or sharp edges
- Have a foam, or similar, nonslip grip
- Be rigid when deployed, and no less than - - 15 inches and no longer than 22 inches when expanded
- Spring loaded or trigger-style batons are prohibited.
- Cannot be attached to body armor, must be located on your side
87
There are only two badges in the CG?
- CGIS
| - CG security police badge
88
Body armor is certified through what?
NIJ. National institute of Justice
89
What classification are ordnance logs?
F O U O
90
Characteristics of Mk 127?
- 650 to 700ft
- 125,000
- 36 seconds @ 10 to 15 feet per second
- White flare
91
Characteristics of Mk 124?
- orange day smoke
- red flare night with two ridges
- 20 seconds
-
92
Characteristics of Mk 79?
- 250 to 650 ft @ 4.5 seconds
- 12k candle power
- red star flare
93
CG-1 distress signal characteristics?
- 50 flashes per min
- 100k candle power
- 9 hrs of continuous use
- 18 hrs intermittently
- 5 mile range
94
Color of Tip round meaning?
```
Black- armor piercing
red/ w aluminum - armor piercing incendiary
green- ball
blue- incendiary
brown/maroon - tracer
Orange - tracer
violet or white - blank
```
95
What is guiding manual for ordnance mishaps?
- safety and occupational health manual 5100.47
96
Federal Drug Identification Numbers (FDIN)? Board question
Federal Drug Identification Numbers (FDINs) are used to track seizures and are critical to successful administration of the FDSS. They are ten-digit numbers, comprised of four digits that signify the current fiscal year, followed by a six-digit number denoting the specific case (e.g., 2015012345).
- Issued by EPIC(el paso information center)
97
EPIC check ? board question
El paso information center- used by the CG to gather criminal information on personal.
98
what is the Lacey act? Board question
- The Lacey Act prohibits unlawful transportation of certain fish or wildlife.
- Any fish taken or retained in violation of the Lacey Act, and any other evidence related to the violation are subject to seizure. Seizure of the vessel is only authorized subsequent to a felony conviction.
99
How many grams is considered intent to distribute?
1 gram is felony
100
What laws in the Contiguous zone?
adjacent to the territorial sea and extending 24 NM from the baseline, in which a coastal State may exercise the control necessary to prevent and punish infringements of its fiscal, immigration, sanitary, and customs laws.
101
Can you issue the seizing of media and recording devices? board question
- Seizing media may implicate First, Fourth, and Fifth Amendment issues, as well as statutory concerns.
- Unless a COTP order or 18 U.S.C. 795 specifically prohibits imagery collection, mere possession or use of a camera or other recording device in a limited access area is not necessarily a violation of law.
102
Denial of Entry? board question
A COTP may, subject to recognized principles of international law, deny entry into the navigable waters of the United States or to any port or place under the jurisdiction of the United States to any vessel that does not comply with a properly issued COTP Order.
103
Authorization levels for firearm
• Level I. Used to document firearms training on basic courses of fire.
• Level II. Used to document firearms training on courses of fire which require an annual qualification.
• Level III. Used to document firearms training on JUFE and courses of fire which require semi-annual qualification.
• Level IV. Used to document firearms training on CTEs and PQS.
All firearm training must be documented on a Small Arms Range Sheet, Form CG-3029.
104
The following sets the firearms training and qualification policy:
• All members must have a current applicable PQS qualification for the firearm they will be firing at the range.
• All members must be in compliance with Reference (y).
• Members firing FTE-P phase 3 must have completed FTE-P phases 1-2 within the previous 14 days.
• Members must complete FTE-P phase 4 within 30 days of the completion of FTE-P phase 3.
• Members firing the CRC must have qualified on the CRC or BRMC within the previous 12 months.
• Members firing the PSSC must have a current Level III qualification on the PRSC.
• Members firing the WDC must have a current Level III qualification on the PRSC.
The following sets the firearms training and qualification policy:
• All members must have a current applicable PQS qualification for the firearm they will be firing at the range.
• All members must be in compliance with Reference (y).
• Members firing FTE-P phase 3 must have completed FTE-P phases 1-2 within the previous 14 days.
• Members must complete FTE-P phase 4 within 30 days of the completion of FTE-P phase 3.
• Members firing the CRC must have qualified on the CRC or BRMC within the previous 12 months.
• Members firing the PSSC must have a current Level III qualification on the PRSC.
• Members firing the WDC must have a current Level III qualification on the PRSC.
105
CO/OIC/SAC to allow them to carry and/or use a firearm. This determination is unrelated to qualification on the JUFE
. FAIs must advise CO/OIC/SAC of any observed behavior or comments made by an individual indicating a low level of judgment or maturity.
