Other topics Flashcards

1
Q

MC infective cause of lymphadenopathy

A

TB

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2
Q

What is the disease in association with thymoma?

A

Myasthenia gravis

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3
Q

Gene for achondroplasia

A

FGFR3

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4
Q

Diagnosis of osteoporosis

A

DEXA scan <-2.5

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5
Q

What is brown tumour?

A

a form of osteitis fibrosa cystica caused by hyperparathyroidism

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6
Q

3 pathological stages of pyogenic osteomyelitis

A

suppuration –> sequestrum –> involucrum

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7
Q

Name for TB spondylitis

A

Pott’s disease

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8
Q

What is Paget’s disease of bone?

A

chronic bone dystrophy –> deformity, pain, fracture, or arthritis

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9
Q

Radiological findings for osteoarthritis (5)

A

(R-LOSS)
Reduced joint space
Loose body
Osteophytes
Subchondral sclerosis
Subchondral cysts

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10
Q

Location of Bouchard nodes and Heberden nodes (what is the disease?)

A

Bouchard: PIPJ
Heberden: DIPJ
(osteoarthritis)

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11
Q

Pannus formation (synovial proliferation)

A

rheumatoid arthritis

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12
Q

baker cyst

A

[popliteal fossa]
rheumatoid arthritis

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13
Q

Which gene are seronegative spondyloarthropathies associated with?

A

HLA-B27 +ve

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14
Q

bamboo spine

A

ankylosing spondylitis

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15
Q

Reiter’s triad

A

[reactive arthritis / Reiter syndrome]
urethritis + reactive arthritis + conjunctivitis

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16
Q

Pencil-in-cup deformity in DPIJ

A

Psoriatic arthritis

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17
Q

Compare the crystals between gout and pseudo-gout

A

Gout: monosodium urate, needle-shaped, -ve birefringent
Pseudo-gout: calcium pyrophosphate, rhomboid-shaped, +ve birefringent

18
Q

All primary bone tumours are male predominant except…

A

Chondroma (M=F)
Giant cell tumour (F>M)

19
Q

Primary bone tumours by onset ages in ascending order

A

Ewing’s sarcoma (10~15)
< Osteosarcoma = Chondroblastoma (10~20)
< Osteoid osteoma = Osteoblastoma (10~30)
< Chondroma = Giant cell tumour (20~50)
< Chondrosarcoma (40~70)

20
Q

Malignant primary bone tumours (3)

A

Osteosarcoma (MC), Chondrosarcoma, Ewing’s sarcoma

21
Q

How to differentiate between osteoid osteoma and osteoblastoma?

A

<2cm: osteoid osteoma
>=2cm: osteoblastoma

22
Q

Codman’s triangle

A

osteosarcoma X-ray feature

23
Q

MC benign bone tumour

A

osteochondroma

24
Q

Chicken-wire calcification

A

chondroblastoma

25
Onion skin / sunburst periosteal reaction on X-ray
Ewing's sarcoma
26
Common sources of bone metastasis a. which two are usually solitary? b. which is sclerotic?
thyroid, breast, lungs, kidney, prostate a. thyroid, kidney b. prostate
27
MC location of head and neck squamous cell carcinoma
lower lips
28
What is the typical example of field cancerization?
head and neck SCC (100x more likely to develop another primary tumour in the region)
29
Virus associated with oropharyngeal SCC (what is the prognosis?)
HPV (better prognosis)
30
Virus associated with nasopharyngeal carcinoma
EBV
31
Classification of nasopharyngeal carcinoma
keratinising squamous non-keratinising squamous (differentiated, undifferentiated) basaloid squamous
32
Risk factors of nasopharyngeal carcinoma
genetics, environment (nitrosamines, smoking, chemical fumes)
33
Pathology of MC type of nasopharyngeal carcinoma
syncytial sheets of undifferentiated, non-keratinising cells dense lymphocytic inflammatory infiltrate EBV-encoded RNA +ve
34
Autoimmune disease associated with nasopharyngeal carcinoma
dermatomyositis
35
Virus for sialadenitis
mumps virus
36
What is Sjogren syndrome?
autoimmune destruction of salivary, lacrimal, and conjuntival glands
37
MC site of salivary gland neoplasm
parotid gland
38
Where is ameloblastoma found?
teeth (origin: odontogenic epithelium) (benign)
39
What is pathological fracture?
Bone fracture caused by a force that is disproportionally less than the extent of fracture because the bone structure is weakened by other underlying disease
40
MC cause of osteonecrosis
corticosteorid