Overview Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Gross (Macroscopic) Anatomy considers what?

A

Features visible with the naked or unaided eye.

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2
Q

The human form shown upright, hands at the side, palms facing forward, and feet together is the _________ position?

A

Anatomical

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3
Q

A person laying face down is in the ________ position?

A

Prone

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4
Q

A person laying face up is in the ______ position?

A

Supine

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5
Q

The frontal plane divides the body into the ________ and ________ portions?

A

Anterior, Posterior

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6
Q

The diaphragm separates the abdominopelvic and _________ cavities.

A

Thoracic

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7
Q

The layer of the pericardium covering the heart is the ________ pericardium.

A

Visceral

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8
Q

The pericardium lies within the _______.

A

Medistinum

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9
Q

________ is the anatomical term meaning, “toward an attached base”.

A

Proximal

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10
Q

________ is an anatomical term meaning “above or at a higher level”.

A

Superior

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11
Q

The term ________ means “the study of internal and external structures and the physical relationships between body parts”.

A

Anatomy

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12
Q

_______ is the study of how living organisms perform their vital functions.

A

Physiology

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13
Q

The ________ level is comprised of the smallest stable units of matter.

A

Molecular

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14
Q

_______ are the smallest living units in the body.

A

Cells

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15
Q

The pleural cavity surrounds what organ?

A

Lung

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16
Q

(T or F) The abdominopelvic cavity can be divided into either 4 or 9 regions?

A

True

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17
Q

(T or F) The axial skeleton includes all limbs and supporting bones and ligaments.

A

False

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18
Q

(T or F) Bone marrow acts as the primary site of red and white blood cell production.

A

True

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19
Q

(T or F) The pituitary gland controls other endocrine glands and regulates growth and fluid balance.

A

True

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20
Q

(T or F) The sagittal plane runs along the body’s long axis, extending anteriorly and posteriorly and dividing the body into L and R portions.

A

True

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21
Q

______ processes require the cell to expend energy to move ions or molecules across the cell membrane, usually in the form of adenosine triphosphate (ATP).

A

Active

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22
Q

A(n) _______ is a subatomic particle with a negative charge.

A

Electron

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23
Q

________ are atoms or molecules with an electric charge. (3)

A

Anions, Cations, Ions

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24
Q

_______ are chemical bonds created by the electrical attraction between anions and cations.

A

Ionic Bonds

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25
Q

______ is stored energy.

A

Potential energy

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26
Q

_____ are the essential elements and molecules obtained from the diet.

A

Nutrients

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27
Q

_______ are compounds that stabilize pH by either removing or replacing hydrogen ions.

A

Buffers

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28
Q

Sodium, potassium, calcium, and magnesium are examples of what?

A

Cations

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29
Q

What reaction breaks molecules into smaller fragments? (AB —> A + B)

A

Decomposition

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30
Q

Inorganic compounds do not contain hydrogen and ______ atoms.

A

Carbon

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31
Q

______ are 3 forms of decomposition reaction.

A

Catabolism, Digestion, Hydrolysis

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32
Q

_______ is the net movement of molecules from an area of relatively high concentration to an area of relatively low concentration.

A

Diffusion

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33
Q

What is the diffusion of water across a cell membrane called?

A

Osmosis

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34
Q

Which solution does not cause the net movement of water into or out of an RBC?

A

Isotonic

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35
Q

Which solution causes the movement of H20 into an RBC, causing it to swell and possibly lyse (burst)?

A

Hypotonic

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36
Q

Which solution causes an RBC to lose H20, causing the cell to shrink and dehydrate?

A

Hypertonic

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37
Q

Glucose is passively transported across the cell membrane by binding to a receptor site on a carrier protein in a process called what?

A

Facilitated Diffusion

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38
Q

LR and NS are examples of what type of IV fluid?

A

Crystalloid

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39
Q

The organelles that manufacture proteins, using information provided by the DNS of the nucleus, are called what?

A

Ribosomes

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40
Q

What are the essential functions of epithelial cells? (3)

A

Control permeability, produce specialized secretions, and provide physical protection

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41
Q

_____ are examples of connective tissue. (3)

A

Blood, Bone, Fat

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42
Q

_______ are responsible for engulfing damaged cells or pathogens that enter the tissue.

A

Macrophages

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43
Q

______ are proteins that destroy invading microorganisms.

A

Antibodies

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44
Q

The watery matrix in blood is called what?

A

Plasma

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45
Q

What type of muscle is also known as striated voluntary muscle because it is controlled by the nervous system and has a striated appearance?

A

Skeletal

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46
Q

_____ is a brown, yellow-brown, or black pigment that accumulates in the epidermal cells.

A

Melanin

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47
Q

Reddish-purple blotches due to leakage of blood from an artery or vein are called what?

A

Ecchymosis

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48
Q

_______ is the medical condition characterized by the eruption of groups of vesicles along the dermatology of a sensory nerve.

A

Herpes Zoster

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49
Q

The integument contains two types of exocrine glands: Sweat and ______

A

Sebaceous

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50
Q

The primary function of merocrine sweat glands is what?

A

To cool the surface of the skin

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51
Q

A blood clot consists mainly of an insoluble network of what?

A

Fibrin

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52
Q

A(n) _________ is an injury where a flap of skin and tissues are torn loose or off.

A

Avulsion

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53
Q

What blood related process is the function of the skeletal system?

A

Production of RBCs in the red marrow

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54
Q

What is the expanded portion at each end of a long bone called?

A

Epiphyses

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55
Q

The outer surface of a bone is covered in a(n)?

A

Periosteum

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56
Q

What vitamin plays an important part in normal calcium metabolism?

A

Vitamin D3

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57
Q

What works with parathyroid hormone (PTH) to elevate calcium levels in the body?

A

Calcitriol

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58
Q

A partial displacement of a bone end from its position within a joint capsule is called what?

A

Subluxation

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59
Q

A ________ fracture has multiple bone fragments at the fracture site.

A

Comminuted

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60
Q

The pelvic girdle is included in what division of the skeleton?

A

Appendicular

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61
Q

The ___________ connects the cranial cavity with the spinal cavity and has the spinal cord passing through it.

A

Foramen magnum

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62
Q

What is suspended below the skull and serves as a base for muscles associated with the larynx, tongue, and pharynx?

A

Hyoid

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63
Q

What is the fibrous connective tissue connecting the bones of the skull at birth called?

A

Fontanels

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64
Q

The _____ and _______ are the projections on the axis (C2) that forms a pivot joint with the atlas (C1) to allow a person to rotate their head side to side.

A

Dens and Odontoid Process

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65
Q

The superior portion of the sternum is called the what?

A

Manubrium

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66
Q

The arm (brachium), contains what single bone?

A

Humerus

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67
Q

The head of the femur connects with what curved surface of the pelvis?

A

Acetabelum

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68
Q

What are 2 functions of the skeletal muscle?

A

To produce movement of the skeleton and maintain body temp

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69
Q

_______ is the “key” that “unlocks” the active site of an actin molecule.

A

Calcium

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70
Q

______ is the neurotransmitter or chemical released by a motor neuron to communicate with other cells.

A

Acetylcholine (ACh)

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71
Q

Arm muscles, after being in a cast, can develop smaller and weaker muscle fibers in a condition called what?

A

Atrophy

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72
Q

The breakdown of glucose to pyruvic acid in the cytoplasm is called what?

A

Glycolysis

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73
Q

The specialized sites that are contacts between cardiac muscle cells are called what?

A

Intercalated discs

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74
Q

The specialized cells that determine the timing of cardiac muscle contractions are called what?

A

Pacemaker cells

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75
Q

Which muscle separates the thoracic and abdominopelvic cavities?

A

Diaphragm

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76
Q

All neural tissue outside of the brain and spinal cord make up which nervous system?

A

Peripheral

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77
Q

Information is carried to the CNS by the ______ division, and motor commands are carried by the _______ division.

A

Afferent, Efferent

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78
Q

_______ increases the speed at which the action potential travels along the axon of an oligodendrocyte.

A

Myelin

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79
Q

What is an example of a demyelination disorder?

A

Multiple sclerosis

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80
Q

What is a shift in the membrane potential toward 0mV called?

A

Depolarization

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81
Q

_______ is when a cell membrane cannot respond normally to further stimulation.

A

Refractory period

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82
Q

Synapses that release norepinephrine are called what?

A

Adrenergic

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83
Q

The 3 layers of specialized membranes surrounding the brain and spinal cord are called what?

A

Meninges

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84
Q

Which part of the brain controls conscious thoughts, sensations, memory storage, and complex movements?

A

Cerebrum

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85
Q

The hypothalamus is connected to what gland, which is the primary link between the nervous and endocrine systems?

A

Pituitary

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86
Q

Which region of the brain is responsible for control of autonomic functions such as HR, BP, and digestive activities?

A

Medulla Oblongata

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87
Q

What condition is caused by an I’m a lance in the amount of CSF produced and the rate at which it is absorbed?

A

Hydrocephalus

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88
Q

The _______ division of the autonomic nervous system stimulates tissue metabolism, increases alertness, and prepares the body to deal with emergencies.

A

Sympathetic

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89
Q

What is caused by the stimulation of B1 receptors?

A

Increase in cardiac contractility, increase in HR, and increase in cardiac conduction

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90
Q

The parasympathetic nervous system has nicotinic and _______ receptors.

A

Muscarinic

91
Q

What are the chemical messengers of the endocrine system called?

A

Hormones

92
Q

The ______ acts as an important link between the nervous and endocrine systems.

A

Hypothalamus

93
Q

The hormones released by the _______ control other endocrine glands.

A

Anterior pituitary gland

94
Q

Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and oxytocin are released by which gland?

A

Posterior pituitary gland

95
Q

What is the primary function of the antidiuretic hormone (ADH)?

A

Decrease the amount of H20 lost in urine

96
Q

Which disease occurs when the kidneys cannot respond to ADH or there is inadequate release of ADH into the body, which may be a result of trauma to the hypothalamus?

A

Diabetes insipidus

97
Q

Which corticosteroid affects the electrolyte composition of body fluids?

A

Aldosterone

98
Q

What promotes the conversion of lipids to glucose?

A

Cortisol

99
Q

Epinephrine is secreted by which gland?

A

Adrenal medulla

100
Q

The endocrine cells of which organ produce and secrete glucagon and insulin?

A

Pancreas

101
Q

The alpha cells of the islets of Lengerhans produce and secrete which hormone?

A

Glucagon

102
Q

Which hormone secreted by the kidneys stimulates the production of RBCs?

A

Erythropoietin (EPO)

103
Q

In a(n) _________ effect, one hormone must be present for another hormone to work?

A

Permissive

104
Q

A(n) _______ effect can result in two hormones having a net effect greater than the sum of their individual effects.

A

Synergistic

105
Q

How does blood reduce fluid loss at an injury site?

A

Clotting

106
Q

What are special proteins that attack invading organisms called?

A

Antibodies

107
Q

What is the average pH of whole blood?

A

7.35-7.45

108
Q

What is the most abundant plasma protein and is also responsible for the osmotic pressure of plasma?

A

Albumin

109
Q

Which plasma protein is responsible for antibodies and transport proteins?

A

Globulins

110
Q

What is a drifting blood clot known as?

A

Embolus

111
Q

Which plasma protein is involved in blood coagulation?

A

Fibrinogens

112
Q

_______ binds and transports CO2 and O2

A

Hemoglobin

113
Q

The _______ is the percentage of whole blood volume occupied by cellular elements?

A

Hematocrit

114
Q

Which surface antigen on RBCs determines blood type.

A

A, B, Rh

115
Q

What is thrombocytopenia?

A

Low platelet count

116
Q

What chambers of the heart are associated w/ the pulmonary circuit?

A

RT atrium, RT ventricule

117
Q

Which connective tissue divides the thoracic cavity into 2 pleural cavities and encloses the heart?

A

Mediastinum

118
Q

The muscular wall of the heart is called what?

A

Myocardium

119
Q

What is true of the foramen ovale?

A

Closes at birth, penetrates the interateial septum and connects the atria, allows blood flow from the RT atrium to the LT ventricle

120
Q

The valve between the LT atrium and LT ventricle is known as? (3 names)

A

Mitral, LT atrioventricular, bicuspid valve

121
Q

The RT coronary artery divides into what branches?

A

Marginal and posterior inter-ventricular

122
Q

What is an area of dead tissue caused by an interruption in cardiac blood flow called?

A

Infarct

123
Q

The influx of _______ rapidly depolarizes the cardiac contractile cells.

A

Sodium

124
Q

Pulmonary veins carry blood to what?

A

Heart

125
Q

The normal rate of contraction of the heart is established by ________ cells.

A

Pacemaker

126
Q

_________ form branching networks and are barely the diameter of a single RBC.

A

Cappilaries

127
Q

Which layer of a blood vessel contained smooth muscle tissue?

A

Tunica media

128
Q

The formation of lipid deposits in the tunica media associated w/ damage to the endothelial lining is called what?

A

Atherosclerosis

129
Q

What controls the flow of blood into the capillary?

A

Precapillary sphincter

130
Q

______ connect arterioles and venules, acting as shunts of the capillary beds.

A

Arteriovenous anastomosis

131
Q

_______ is the resistance to flow resulting from interactions among molecules and suspended materials in a liquid.

A

Viscosity

132
Q

______ is the difference between the systolic and diastolic pressures.

A

Pulse pressure

133
Q

What affects tissue perfusion?

A

Cardiac output, BP, peripheral resistance

134
Q

Which portion of the brain has the cardiac and vasomotor centers?

A

Medulla oblongata

135
Q

Receptors sensitive to chemical stimuli are called what?

A

Chemoreceptors

136
Q

The perception of pain coming from parts of the body that are not actually stimulated is called what?

A

Referred pain

137
Q

What receptors monitor changes in pressure l, such as in the carotid artery and aorta?

A

Baroreceptors

138
Q

The chemoreceptors that monitor pH, O2 levels and CO2 levels in the blood are located where?

A

Carotid bodies

139
Q

The clear flux that fills the anterior chamber of the eye and helps give it its shapes is called what?

A

Aqueous humor

140
Q

What photoreceptor provides color vision?

A

Cones

141
Q

_____ is caused by an elevation in the pressure inside the eye from a blockage of the scleral venous sinus.

A

Glaucoma

142
Q

_____ is the body’s ability to resist infection and disease through the activation of specific defenses.

A

Immunity

143
Q

Which type of lymphocyte directly attacks foreign cells or body cells infected by viruses?

A

T-cells

144
Q

Which type of lymphocyte can differentiate into plasma cells, which produce and secrete antibodies?

A

B-cells

145
Q

The largest collection of lymphoid tissue in the body is found where?

A

Spleen

146
Q

_____ is the process of removing foreign particles from the lymph and blood.

A

Phagocytosis

147
Q

A reaction to antigen-antibody coupling in which macrophages and neutrophils are attracted, is referred to as _________.

A

Chemotaxis

148
Q

_______ is the process of NK cells constantly monitoring normal tissues.

A

Immunological surveillance

149
Q

______ are small proteins released by activated tissue cells infected with viruses.

A

Interferons

150
Q

Which chemicals initiate the inflammatory process?

A

Histamine and Heprin

151
Q

The ______ acts as the body’s “thermostat”.

A

Hypothalamus

152
Q

Which proteins reset the hypothalamus and cause a rise in body temperature?

A

Pyrogens

153
Q

What are small organs that are found along the lymphatic vessels?

A

Lymph nodes

154
Q

______ immunity appears after exposure to an antigen as a consequence of the immune response.

A

Naturally acquired active

155
Q

When antibodies produced by a mother protect her baby against infections, it is called ______ immunity.

A

Naturally acquired passive

156
Q

What cellular process requires O2?

A

Aerobic

157
Q

The RT lung is divided into how many lobes?

A

3

158
Q

The division of the trachea into the RT and LT primary bronchi occurs where?

A

The Carina

159
Q

What is the presence of air in the pleural sac and breaks the fluid bond between the pleurae?

A

Pneumothorax

160
Q

What is treated by a pleural decompression (Needle-D)?

A

Tension Pneumothorax

161
Q

_______ is the process that involves gas exchange and gas transport.

A

Respiration

162
Q

What is the physical movement of air into and out of the lungs?

A

Ventilation

163
Q

What are 3 types of COPD?

A

Chronic bronchitis, emphysema, asthma

164
Q

______ levels are responsible for regulating respiratory activity under normal conditions.

A

CO2

165
Q

_____ is the chemical breakdown of food into small organic fragments.

A

Digestion

166
Q

What are waves of muscular contractions that move along the length of the digestive tract called?

A

Peristalsis

167
Q

Which nerve controls the stomach and initiates the production of gastric juice?

A

Vagus (CN X)

168
Q

What condition is caused by abdominal organs sliding into the thoracic cavity the the esophageal hiatus?

A

Hiatal Hernia

169
Q

The ______ is the second segment of the small intestine and does the bulk of chemical digestion and nutrient absorption.

A

Jejunum

170
Q

What portion of the small intestine is attached the the pylorus of the stomach?

A

Duodenum

171
Q

The cystic duct leaves the liver and leads to where?

A

Gallbladder

172
Q

What are 3 general functions of the liver?

A

Bile production, metabolic regulation, and hematological regulation

173
Q

What is the most common cause of cirrhosis of the liver?

A

Chronic alcohol use

174
Q

The human liver is composed of how many lobes?

A

4

175
Q

What is a common cause of chronic viral hepatitis in the US?

A

Hep C

176
Q

Carbohydrate digestion begins in which part of the digestive tract?

A

Mouth

177
Q

What do the parietal cells secrete?

A

Hydrochloric Acid

178
Q

What is the renal tubule responsible for?

A

Reabsorbing useful organic molecules, reabsorbing H2O, secreting waste missed by the filtration process

179
Q

Filtration membranes allow the passage of what?

A

H2O, Ions, glucose

180
Q

In the proximal convoluted tubule, H2O moves out of the tubular fluid by what process?

A

Osmosis

181
Q

The ascending loop of Henle actively transports what?

A

All needed ions

182
Q

The hormone erythropoietin (EPO) and the enzyme are in are secreted in response to what?

A

Hypotension

183
Q

What is the metabolic waste product due to the breakdown of amino acids?

A

Urea

184
Q

Which hormone, when at lower levels, decreases H2O permeability in the distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct?

A

Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH)

185
Q

The renin-angiotensin-aldosterone (RAAS) mechanism is the body’s main mechanism for what?

A

Increasing BP

186
Q

What are the major hormones involved in regulating kidney function?

A

Aldosterone, Angeotensen II, and ADH

187
Q

Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) is released by ______ when blood volume and BP are too high and opposes the actions of the RAAS.

A

Atrial cardiac muscle cells

188
Q

Kidney stones consisting of _____ are common?

A

Calcium salts

189
Q

The ______ and kidneys play key roles in maintaining the acid-base balance of body fluids.

A

Lungs

190
Q

If extracellular fluids (ECF) become hypertonic, when compared to the intracellular fluid (ICF), water will move in which direction?

A

From the cells to the ECF

191
Q

In response to circulating aldosterone, the kidneys _______ sodium ions.

A

Reabsorb

192
Q

Severe acidosis can cause what effects on the body?

A

CNS deterioration, peripheral vasodilation, weak cardiac contractions

193
Q

______ occurs when alveolar ventilation is increased, resulting in excessive elimination of CO2.

A

Respiratory Alkalosis

194
Q

The ______ buffer system depends on the ability of amino acids to respond to changes in pH by accepting or releasing hydrogen ions.

A

Protein

195
Q

Cells break down organic molecules to obtain energy usually in the form of what?

A

ATP

196
Q

The synthesis of new organic molecules that involves the formation of new chemical bonds is called what?

A

Anabolism

197
Q

What does the liver store in case of depleted nutrients in the blood stream?

A

Glycogen and Triglycerides

198
Q

After the catabolism of glucose, a typical cell has gained ________ molecules?

A

36 ATP

199
Q

In glycolysis, glucose is broken down into what acid?

A

Pyruvic

200
Q

What is a lack of O2 that inhibits or stops the Krebs Cycle called?

A

Hypoxia

201
Q

_______ is the synthesis of flu y from protein or lipid precursor molecules/non-carbohydrate molecules.

A

Gluconeogenasis

202
Q

Glucose enters the cells via facilitated diffusion, which is largely enhanced by what?

A

Insulin

203
Q

What is a result of metabolism of certain organic bases in nucleic acids?

A

Utica Acid

204
Q

What type of diabetic patient requires insulin?

A

Type I

205
Q

_____ is the result of conductive heat loss due to the air that overlies the surface of an object.

A

Convection

206
Q

Where are the heat-loss/heat-gain centers located? (Thermostat of the brain)

A

Hypothalamus

207
Q

What occurs during glycolysis?

A

1 molecule of glucose is converted into 2 molecules of pyruvic acid

208
Q

The CO2 of cellular respiration is formed during what?

A

The TCA (Krebs Cycle)

209
Q

Parasympathetic innervation of the penile arteries that release _____ at their synaptic knobs causes the smooth muscle in the arterial walls to relax, resulting in erection.

A

Nitric Oxide

210
Q

Sickle cell disease, spinal anesthesia, and drugs can cause a prolonged, usually painful, penile erection called what?

A

Priapism

211
Q

During fertilization, the embryo implants into which layer of the uterus?

A

Endometrium

212
Q

After which day of development is the fetus considered “full term”?

A

266

213
Q

The _______ is marked by the detachment of the functional layer of the endometrium.

A

Menstrul phase

214
Q

What is the most common cause of bleeding during the 3rd trimester?

A

Placenta previa

215
Q

A zygote contains _______ chromosomes.

A

46

216
Q

In an ectopic pregnancy, where is the fertilized egg implanted?

A

Anywhere other than the uterus

217
Q

What is the chemical that causes malformation of a fetus?

A

Teratogen

218
Q

Rising oxytocin level stimulate what?

A

Force and frequency of uterine contractions

219
Q

What stage of labor begins with the onset of labor, as the cervix dilates and the fetus begins to slide down the cervical canal?

A

Dilation

220
Q

By which week of pregnancy may the external reproductive organs be distinguished as either male or female?

A

12th

221
Q

Fetuses born before _____ weeks have a poor chance of survival.

A

27

222
Q

At what stage of labor is the “afterbirth” expelled?

A

Placental

223
Q

The mammary gland cells produce _____, which is ingested by the breastfed newborn during the first 2-3 days of life.

A

Colostrum

224
Q

What is not a risk factor for preeclampsia?

A

Hypercalcemia