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Orthotic and Prosthetic Board Prep > Ox Exam Practice > Flashcards

Ox Exam Practice Flashcards

1
Q

Patient recovering from Guillian-Barre syndrome experience motor function return in which pattern

A

Proximal to distal

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2
Q

Inadequate strength of gastrocnemius results in which gait deficiencies

A

Excessive DF at midstance

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3
Q

Atlanoaxial instability is common in

A

Rheumatoid arthritis

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4
Q

Function of tibialis anterior

A

DF and inversion

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5
Q

Excessive knee flexion when standing in a locked metal KAFO results when

A

Calf band is too shallow

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6
Q

Poliomyelitis results from an acute viral infection of the

A

Anterior horn cells

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7
Q

When fitting a thermoplastic AFO, which helps diminish a moment at heel strike

A

Decreasing heel height of shoe

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8
Q

Which adjustment to a metal AFO would best accommodate excessive tibial torsion

A

Deflection of sidebars

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9
Q

Quadriplegic Pt with a functioning C7 will lose

A

Finger flexion
C7= Elbow extensors

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10
Q

Hemivertebrae is a ______ spinal deformity

A

Congenital

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11
Q

Pt with KAFO due to dropfoot and painful knee hyperextension states that knee pain has decreased and foot clearance has improved, but she fell twice when descending a ramp. How to modify KAFO

A

Decreasing PF resistance

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12
Q

Mechanical knee joint that is too distal to the anatomical knee

A

Anterior distal pressure on the thigh to increase when the knee is flexed

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13
Q

Primary goal of lower extremity Ox management in children with hypertonia is to

A

Decrease spasticity

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14
Q

Cauda equina comprises the

A

Nerve roots below the level of the spinal cord (L2 and down)

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15
Q

In treatment of kyphotic deformity with CTLSA (Milwaukee), where in relation to the apical vertebra should the kyphosis pads be placed

A

Adjacent and one vertebral body inferior

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16
Q

Which nerve innervates peroneus brevis

A

Superficial peroneal

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17
Q

The ACL attaches to the non articular aspect of the tibia and to the posterior aspect of the

A

Lateral surface of the lateral femoral condyle

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18
Q

Anatomical landmark for locating the mechanical ankle joint axis is the

A

Distal border of the medial malleolus

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19
Q

Dorsiflexion stop performs the primary function of which muscles at midstance

A

Gastrocnemius/soleus

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20
Q

Primary goal in using a CTLSO (Milwaukee) in cases of Scheuermanns disease (juvenile apophysitis) is to

A

Reduce kyphosis

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21
Q

Most appropriate Ox for a Pt with a median and ulnar nerve laceration at the wrist

A

A WHO (long oppones with thumb adduction stop)

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22
Q

Pt has strong extensor spasticity secondary to brain pathology. The best ankle joint configuration for the Pt would be one with a/an

A

Plantar flexion stop
(PF stop = effective for absent PF spasticity or absent DF muscle group)

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23
Q

MMT grade of fair (3/5) is assigned for a range

A

Against gravity

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24
Q

Primary action of the brachioradialis muscle

A

Flex the elbow
Radial n. C5-6

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25
Q

Gastrocnemius and soleus group are innervated by what nerve

A

Tibial nerve
S1, S2

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26
Q

Appropriate Ox for a radial nerve injury at mid-humerus

A

WHFO (dynamic Ox to assist thumb, finger, and wrist extension)
-Radial n. at elbow = loss of wrist and MCP extension

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27
Q

What is MS

A

Demyelinating disorder of the white matter in the CNS

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28
Q

If a Pt is a Medicare beneficiary with no secondary coverage and has met the deductible for the year, the practioner may collect what percentage of Medicare allowable at time of service

A

20%

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29
Q

Flexion of the distal IP joints is accomplished by which muscle

A

Flexor digitorum profundus

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30
Q

Vastus medialis muscle acts as

A

An extensor of the knee
Femoral n. L2-4

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31
Q

Muscles innervated by the obturator n.

A

Adductor magnus
Piriformis
Gracilis
(Lumbar Plexus = L2-4)

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32
Q

During normal gait, the hip reaches maximum extension at

A

Terminal stance

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33
Q

8 yo boy underwent surgical fusion of a congenital distal tibial pseudarthrosis. 6 weeks post-op, the plaster cast is removed and clinical stability is improved. Which Ox would be BEST to protect the fusion until complete healing take place

A

Thermoplastic PTB with anterior shell

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34
Q

Rate of foot drop during the heel rocker is controlled by

A

Pre-tibial muscles

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35
Q

Which type of force will cause bending of the sidebars

A

Lateral

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36
Q

Most common form of CP

A

Spastic

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37
Q

Pt with soleus Cx is likely to exhibit which gait deviation

A

Genu recurvatum in midstance

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38
Q

In the stance phase of gait, a solid ankle plastic AFO set at neutral with a rigid pull length footplate would

A

Increase the knee extension moment at terminal stance

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39
Q

Muscles that pass posterior to the medial malleolus act to

A

Invert and plantar flex the foot

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40
Q

Solid ankle floor reaction AFO will assist knee extension by

A

Restricting anterior tibial advancement over the foot

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41
Q

Crouch gait describes a pattern of

A

Flexed hip
Flexed knees
DF ankles

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42
Q

What 2 attachments used with static WHFO to help prevent claw hand deformity

A

MCP extension stop and IP extension assist

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43
Q

Wrist driven flexor hinge Ox converts wrist extension to

A

MCP flexion

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44
Q

When fabricating an Ox for Tx of radial nerve palsy, in which position would the wrist be maintained

A

20-40 degrees of extension

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45
Q

Pt wearing a KAFO with a locked knee will have improved knee stability during stance

A

Compromised shock absorption during loading response

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46
Q

Chronic subtalar pronation frequently leads to Hip ______ rotation

A

External

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47
Q

Pt with PTTD, one objective of fitting a UCBL is to the mechanics of the _____ muscles

A

Inverter

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48
Q

Most common congenital abnormality of the spine

A

Spina Bifida

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49
Q

Normal gait, hip reaches maximum flexion during

A

Terminal swing (30 deg)

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50
Q

Poor hip extensors will result in what postural deviation

A

Backward trunk lean

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51
Q

Most appropriate Tx for Pt with rigid forefoot deformity

A

Medial forefoot post

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52
Q

50 yo male presents with flair ankle and a flexible varus deformity, physician request eval for Ox that will provide ML stability. Most appropriate Ox recommendation would be a:

A

Thermoplastic AFO with free DF and a 90 degree PF stop

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53
Q

Muscular dystrophy is defined as

A

Progressive degeneration of the muscle fibers

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54
Q

Pt with MS presents with script for a KAFO to control knee recurvatum. Muscle strength of knee is fair plus (3+/5) with no history of falling due to knee buckling. Most appropriate knee joint

A

Posterior offset

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55
Q

When a posterior rigid frame TLSO is being fit, the superior end of the paraspinal bars terminate 1” (25mm) inferior to the

A

Inferior angle of the scapula

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56
Q

Erbs palsy refers to paralysis from injury to the

A

Upper trunk of the brachial plexus

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57
Q

Adduction and ABduction of the fingers occurs at what joint

A

Metacarpophalangeal

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58
Q

Patient who present with a left thoracic curve with the apex at T3 will have an elevated _____ shoulder

A

Left

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59
Q

Primary purpose of a medial extrinsic heel post is to

A

Control rearfoot eversion in the frontal plane

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60
Q

During normal human locomotion, the GRF of the hip and knee between initial contact and foot flat

A

Hip flexion, knee flexion

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61
Q

Hydrocephalus may accompnay

A

Myelomeningocele

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62
Q

During stance, the hip joint is MOST stable when weight line is

A

Posterior to the hip

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63
Q

Function of the serratus anterior

A

Upward rotation of the scapula
Long thoracic n. C5-7

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64
Q

Articulation between the sternum and the clavicle occur at

A

Manubrium

65
Q

The strength of a muscle is generally proportional to its

A

Cross sectional area

66
Q

A KO for medial compartment syndrome should provide which forces

A

Medial thigh, lateral knee joint, medial calf

67
Q

A musculocutaneous nerve lesion will cause loss of function of which muscle:
Subscapularis, Biceps, Deltoid, Triceps

A

Biceps

68
Q

MS is a ____ motor neuron lesion

A

Lower

69
Q

Unique characteristic of AFO’s that are designed to inhibit spasticity/tone

A

A toe extension pad

70
Q

Pretibial muscle group nerve innervation

A

Deep fibular n (L5, S1)

71
Q

Single-axis, unlocked knee joints are indicated for Pts with

A

Genu varum

72
Q

Result of an irregular birth

A

Klumpke’s palsy

73
Q

Pt with paraplegia, standing balance in bilateral KAFOs is achieved by

A

Fixed ankle DF, locked knee, hip hyperextension

74
Q

Medicare define “accepting assignment” as accepting

A

The medicare Fee Schedule allowable amount as payment

75
Q

Coding verification requests are submitted to the

A

PDAC

76
Q

Sensation is transmitted through which stucture

A

Dorsal branch of the nerve roots

77
Q

Side bending films are used to demonstrate which curves

A

Curve magnitude

78
Q

During normal gait at initial contact, the GRF tends to do what at the ankle and knee

A

Ankle PF and Knee extension

79
Q

Which muscle groups controls forward movement of the tibia

A

Posterior calf

80
Q

It is important to create adequate relief proximal to the 1st metatarsal head due to Cx of which muscle during the heel off phase of gait

A

Flexor hallucis longus

81
Q

Maximum DF occurs during which phase of gait

A

Terminal stance

82
Q

During which phase of gait are the hip extensors most active

A

Loading response

83
Q

Inflammation of the outer covering of the brain and spinal cord

A

Meningitis

84
Q

What is the superior margin of the paraspinal bars on a Taylor TLSO

A

Spine of the scapula

85
Q

Which type of scoliosis is most likely the result of a LLD

A

Nonstructural scoliosis
-Caused by reversible changes to posture and function. Can be straightened voluntarily or when non-WB

86
Q

Ox to best restore upper extremity function for a Pt with a SPI above the C6 nerve root

A

Wrist Driven WHO
-C6 = innervates extensor carpi radialis longus/brevis

87
Q

Most appropriate Ox for a median nerve injury at the wrist

A

WHO with thumb post

88
Q

Primary function of the brachioradialis

A

Elbow flexion

89
Q

Axillary nerve innervates

A

Deltoid and Teres minor

90
Q

Upper motor neuron disease

A

Originate in the cerebral cortex and travel down to the brain stem or spinal cord

91
Q

Lower motor neuron disease

A

Begins in spinal cord and goes on to innervate muscles/glands throughout the body
-Muscle atrophy, muscle twitching, decrease reflexes, decrease tone, neg. Babinsky sign, and flaccid paralysis

92
Q

Upper motor neuron disease/injury examples

A

Multiple Sclerosis, Cerebral Palsy, Cerebrovascular Accident

93
Q

Aponeurosis is

A

Flat broad tendon

94
Q

Spondylolisthesis

A

Anterior displacement of the L5 vertebra in relation to the sacrum

95
Q

Hand Ox controls

A

Palmar arch and thumb position

96
Q

Flaccid paralysis is most often seen in

A

Lower motor neuron injuries

97
Q

Which muscle inserts on the navicular and medial cuneiform

A

Posterior tibialis

98
Q

Space between an axon and a dendrite is called the

A

Synapse

99
Q

Gelatinous center of a spinal disc

A

Nucleus pulposus

100
Q

Muscle serves to abduct the phalanges away from the 3rd digit

A

Dorsal interossei

101
Q

Poliomyelitis is what type of pathology

A

Lower motor neuron

102
Q

Pt with a complete C6 SPI powers a wrist-driven flexor hinge tenodesis Ox by using the

A

Extensor digitorum communis and extensor carpi ulnaris

103
Q

Ligament that prevents hyperextension of the hip joint

A

Iliofemoral ligament
*The ischiofemoral ligament prevents excess extension

104
Q

Position of the thoracic facets most eaily allows for which movements

A

Rotation and lateral flexion

105
Q

Most appropriate Ox Tx for a Pt with a T12 compression Fx

A

Anterior control hyperextension Ox

106
Q

What gait deviation would you primarily expect to see with a tibial nerve lesion

A

Uncontrolled tibial advancement in stance phase
(Tibial nerve innervates gastroc, soleus, plantaris, politeus, Tib post, flexor digitorum, and flexor halllucis longus)

107
Q

Landmarks of the scapula

A

Glenoid cavity, coracoid process, and acromion process

108
Q

Young child with a T12 myelomeningocele is looking for device that will help Pt ambulate in the home and classroom and will allow hands free standing. What device do you evaluate for

A

Parapodium

109
Q

Compensatory motion would most likely be seen in an individual with quads weakness

A

Forward trunk lean

110
Q

Pt with hyperkyphosis is placed in a Milwaukee CTLSO for treatment. Where should the corrective pressures be placed

A

Anterior throat ring
Posterior thoracic pad

111
Q

Pt comes into the office exhibiting lasting redness on the navicular and medial malleolus after wearing her new AFO. What adjustments could correct this problem

A

Add a firm pad to increase pressure under the sustentaculum tali

112
Q

Prime elbow flexor

A

Brachialis

113
Q

Hydrocephalus often accompanies

A

Spina bifida

114
Q

Lumbricals function to

A

Flex the MCP joints and extend the PIP joints

115
Q

The muscle length-tension relationship describes

A

The concept that strength of a muscle changes depending on the affect joint’s position through its arc of motion

116
Q

Adductos of the scapula include

A

Middle trapezius, rhomboids, latissimus dorsi

117
Q

Prehension patterns

A

Hook, cylindrical, tip, palmar, spherical, lateral

118
Q

Term that best pertains to the palm of the hand and the sole of the foot

A

Volar

119
Q

Sartorius action

A

Hip flexion and external rotation; knee flexion

120
Q

Pt is experiencing pressure at the proximal posterior of the AFO that the Pt wears to control mild genu recurvatum. Best choice to eliminate this pressure

A

Heat and flare the proximal trimline

121
Q

Best way to test to differential between a grade 3 and a grade 4 psoas major strength

A

Patient lies supine with knee extended; examiner resists hip flexion

122
Q

How to ascend/descend stairs with unilateral weakness

A

Ascend leading with sound side; descend leading with the affected side

123
Q

Gluteus maximus innervation/action

A

Inferior gluteal nerve
Internal rotator of the hip

124
Q

Positive Trendelenburg sign

A

The sound side pelvis drops upon WB on the affected side

125
Q

Pt comes into your office stating low back pain caused by hyperlordosis. What advise might you give your patient to reduce symptoms

A

Avoid wearing shoes with a heel higher than 3/8”

126
Q

What is a sensory nerve

A

Saphenous

127
Q

Maximum PF occurs at which phase of gait

A

Pre swing

128
Q

Pt wearing a metal and leather KAFO with double adjustable ankles experiences excessive knee flexion during standing. How to reduce this

A

Deepen the calf band

129
Q

Primary hip flexor

A

Iliopsoas

130
Q

al stability of the pelvis in stance phase is accomplished through the action of which muscle

A

Gluteus medius

131
Q

Which muscle would not be affected by a proximal lesion of the musculocutaneous nerve:
-Brachioradialis, Biceps brachii, Coracobrachialis, Brachialis

A

Brachioradialis

132
Q

Humerus landmarks

A

Trochlea, capitulum, radial groove

133
Q

Posterior channel best simulates what muscle in the double action ankle joint

A

Tibialis anterior

134
Q

Columns of the spine you expect to see damaged in a burst Fx

A

Middle and anterior

135
Q

Pt presenting with hyperextrension of the 4th and 5th metacarpal phalangeal joints and flexion of the interphalangeal joints likely has a wrist level lesion of which nerve

A

Ulnar

136
Q

What vertebral level does the cauda euina begin

A

L2

137
Q

mage to which structures leads to sensation deficits

A

Dorsal branch of the nerve roots

138
Q

During ambulation, the body’s center of mass reaches its highest point at

A

Midstance

139
Q

When the limb moves from midstance to terminal stance what muscle group Cx and in what manner

A

Plantarflexors: eccentric

140
Q

Torque is calculated by

A

Multiplying lever arm length by force applied

141
Q

What position is the hip typically in during heel strike

A

30 deg flexion

142
Q

Pt states her AFO causes her knee to buckle each time she walks down the hill by her house. How will you adjust her AFO to reduce this

A

Reduce the PF resistance

143
Q

Active PF of the ankle is strongest when

A

Knee is extended

144
Q

Iliopsoas insets on the

A

Lesser trochanter

145
Q

2 origins of the biceps brachii

A

Supraglenoid tubercle and coracoid process

146
Q

Opposition of the thumb occurs at which joint

A

Carpometacarpal joint

147
Q

Medial edge of an adult KAFO should terminate proximally

A

3.8cm (1.5”) distal to the perineum

148
Q

Standard clearance for knee joints on a KAFO

A

3mm laterally, 6mm medially

149
Q

lower extremity is most stabile in stance when the weight line falls

A

Posterior to the hip and anterior to the knee

150
Q

What percent of the gait cycle is spent in double limb support

A

20%

151
Q

Pt comes in with a right thoracic scoliosis, what are you most likely to incorporate into the orthosis

A

Right thoracic pad and left axillary extension

152
Q

Normal ROM for pronation and supination of the forearm

A

Pronation 80 deg, Supination 80 deg

153
Q

DF stop performs the function of which muscles

A

Gastrocnemius/Soleus

154
Q

Which components of an upper extremity Ox would best aid in prevention of a claw hand deformity

A

MCP extension stop and IP extension assist

155
Q

Pt with quadriplegia resulting from a lesion at C7 neurosegmental level is most likely to benefit from which Ox

A

Static HO

156
Q

Non-WB length beyond toes in DM shoes

A

1/2”

157
Q

Benefit of fitting a SOMI CTO

A

It can be fit with the Pt in a supine position

158
Q

Proper placement of the proximal edge of the calf band on a conventional AFO

A

20mm below fibular neck

Orthotic and Prosthetic Board Prep (9 decks)

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