Oxford Airframe Systems Part 1

Question 1

The skin of a modern pressurized aircraft:

A. is primary load bearing structure carrying much of the structural loads.
B. is made up of light alloy steel sheets built on the monocoque principle.
C. houses the crew and the payload.
D. provides aerodynamic lift and prevents corrosion by keeping out adverse weather.

Answer 1

A. is primary load bearing structure carrying much of the structural loads.

Question 2

The specification of hydraulic fluids, mineral, vegetable or ester based is:

A. generally distinguishable by colour.
B. cannot be distinguished by colour alone.
C. generally distinguishable by colour only if they are from the same manufacturer.
D. always distinguishable by taste and smell.

Answer 2

B. cannot be distinguished by colour alone.

Question 3

Different diameter actuators supplied with the same pressure at same rate:

a. will lift equal loads.
b. exert the same force.
c. will move at the same speed.
d. exert different forces.

Answer 3

d. exert different forces.

Question 3

A lightening hole in a rib:

A. prevents lightning strikes damaging the fuselage
B. lightens and stiffens the structure.
C. collects and disposes of electrical charges.
D. provides a means of passing cables and controls through a pressure bulkhead.

Answer 3

B. lightens and stiffens the structure.

Question 4

Control surface flutter:

a. occurs at high angles of attack.
b. provides additional lift for take o and landing in the event of engine failure.
c. is a destructive vibration that must be damped out within the flight envelope.
d. is a means of predicting the critical safe life of the wing.

Answer 4

c. is a destructive vibration that must be damped out within the flight envelope.

Question 5

What is the purpose of the wing main spar?

a. To withstand compressive and torsional loads.
b. To withstand bending and torsional loads.
c. To withstand bending and shear loads.
d. To withstand compressive and shear loads.

Answer 5

b. To withstand bending and torsional loads.

Question 6

With a one way check valve (NRV):

a. flow stops when input pressure is greater than output pressure.
b. flow stops when input pressure is less than output pressure.
c .flow starts when input pressure is less than output pressure.
d. low stops when the thermal relief valve o loads the hand pump.

Answer 6

b. flow stops when input pressure is less than output pressure.

Question 7

The seal materials used with hydraulic uids to DEF/STAN 91-48 and SKYDROL 700 specification are respectively:

a. butyl and neoprene.
b. neoprene and natural rubber.
c. neoprene and butyl.
d. natural rubber and neoprene.

Answer 7

c. neoprene and butyl.

Question 8

What is the purpose of wing ribs?

a. To provide local support for the skin.
b. To house the fuel and the landing gear.
c. To withstand the fatigue stresses.
d. To shape the wing and support the skin.

Answer 8

d. To shape the wing and support the skin.

Question 9

The primary purpose of the fuselage is to:

a. keep out adverse weather.
b. provide access to the cockpit.
c. house the crew and payload.
d. support the wings.

Answer 9

c. house the crew and payload.

Question 10

The contents of the hydraulic fluid reservoir are checked. They indicate that the reservoir is at the full level. The system is then pressurized. Will the contents level:

a. remain at the same level.
b. fall to a position marked ‘full accs charged’.
c. rise above the “full” mark.
d. fall below the “full” mark.

Answer 10

d. fall below the “full” mark.

Question 10

The purpose of an accumulator is to:

a. remove air from the system.
b. store fluid under pressure.
c. store compressed gas for tyre in ation.
d. relieve excess pressure.

Answer 10

b. store fluid under pressure.

Question 11

A cantilever wing:

a. is supported at one end only with no external bracing.
b. has both an upper an lower airfoil section.
c. is externally braced with either struts and/or bracing wires.
d. folds at the root section to ease storage in con ned spaces.

Answer 11

a. is supported at one end only with no external bracing.

Question 12

The purpose of a reservoir is:

a. to provide a housing for the main system pumps and so obviate the need for backing pumps.
b. to enable the contents to be checked.
c. to allow for uid displacements, small leaks, thermal expansion and contents monitoring.
d. to provide a housing for the instrument transmi ers.

Answer 12

c. to allow for uid displacements, small leaks, thermal expansion and contents monitoring.

Question 13

A pressure maintaining or priority valve:

a. enables ground operation of services when the engines are o .
b. is used to ensure available pressure is directed to essential services.
c. is used to control pressure to services requiring less than system pressure.
d. is used to increase pressure in the system.

Answer 13

b. is used to ensure available pressure is directed to essential services.

Question 14

Skydrol hydraulic fluid:

a. is flame resistant but is harmful to skin, eyes and some paints.
b. is highly flammable but not harmful in any other way.
c. is highly flammable and harmful to skin, eyes and some paints.
d. needs no special safety precautions or treatment.

Answer 14

a. is flame resistant but is harmful to skin, eyes and some paints.

Question 15

Aircraft structures consists mainly of:

a. magnesium alloy sheets with aluminum rivets and titanium or steel at points requiring high strength.
b. light alloy steel sheets with copper rivets and titanium or steel materials at points requiring high strength.
c. aluminium sheets and rivets with titanium or steel materials at points requiring high strength.
d. aluminium alloy sheets and rivets with titanium or steel materials at points requiring high strength.

Answer 15

d. aluminium alloy sheets and rivets with titanium or steel materials at points requiring high strength.

Question 16

With air in the hydraulic system you would:

a. bleed the air out of the system.
b. allow the accumulator to automatically adjust itself.
c. ignore it because normal operation would remove it.
d. expect it to operate faster.

Answer 16

a. bleed the air out of the system.

Question 17

Hammering in system:

a. is an indication that a further selection is necessary.
b. is caused by pipe diameter fluctuations.
c. is normal and does not a detect the systems efeciency.
d. is detrimental to the system.

Answer 17

d. is detrimental to the system.

Question 18

The Maximum Zero Fuel Mass (MZFM) of an aircraft is:

a. the maximum permissible landing mass.
b. the maximum permissible take off mass of the aircraft.
c. the maximum permissible mass of an aircraft with zero payload.
d. the maximum permissible mass of an aircraft with no useable fuel.

Answer 18

d. the maximum permissible mass of an aircraft with no useable fuel.

Question 19

The airframe structure must remain substantially intact after experiencing:

a. three times the safety factor.
b. the design ultimate load times a 1.5 safety factor.
c. the design limit load times a 1.5 factor of safety.
d. the design limit load plus the design ultimate load.

Answer 19

c. the design limit load times a 1.5 factor of safety.

Question 20

In an enclosed system pressure is felt:

a. more at the piston head than the rest of the cylinder.
b. the same at both ends between the piston and the cylinder head.
c. more at the cylinder end than the piston head.
d. more when the piston is moving than when it is stationary.

Answer 20

b. the same at both ends between the piston and the cylinder head.

Question 21

A pre charge pressure of 1,000 bar of gas is shown on the accumulator gauge. The system is then pressurized to 1,500 bar, so the accumulator will read:

a. 500 bar.
b. 1,500 bar.
c. 1,000 bar.
d. 2,500 bar.

Answer 21

b. 1,500 bar.

Question 22

Accumulator floating piston:

a. pushes the fluid down when being charged.
b. provides a seal between the gas and fluid.
c. pushes the fluid up when being charged.
d. prevents a hydraulic lock.

Answer 22

b. provides a seal between the gas and fluid.

Question 23

Hydraulic Thermal Relief Valves are fitted: a. in isolated lines only to relieve excess pressure caused by temperature rises. b. to release half the pressure back to return in an overheat situation. c. to release all the pressure back to return in an overheat situation. d. to relieve excess pressure back to the actuator in an overheat situation.

Answer 23

a. in isolated lines only to relieve excess pressure caused by temperature rises.

Question 24

A shuttle valve will allow: a. the pressure pump to o -load when the system pressure is reached. b. two independent pressure sources to operate a system/component. c. the accumulator to be emptied after engine shut down. d. high pressure fluid to return to the reservoir if the Full Flow Relief Valve fails.

Answer 24

b. two independent pressure sources to operate a system/component.

Question 25

A restrictor valve is physically fitted in the a. u/c up line and ap up line. b. u/c down line and ap up line. c. supply line to the u/c retraction actuator. d. u/c down line and ap down line.

Answer 25

a. u/c up line and ap up line.

Question 26

Pascal’s law states that: a. liquid is compressible. b. applied force acts equally in all directions. c. oxygen can be used to charge the accumulators. d. pressure is inversely proportional to load.

Answer 26

b. applied force acts equally in all directions.

Question 27

The pressure gauge of an hydraulic system provides information regarding the pressure of: a. the air in the accumulator. b. the air and hydraulic uid in the system. c. the proportional pressure in the system. d. the hydraulic fluid in the system.

Answer 27

d. the hydraulic fluid in the system.

Question 28

In an operating hydraulic actuator the pressure of the fluid will be: a. high initially, falling as the actuator completes its travel. b. greatest near to the actuator due to the load imposed on the jack. c. greatest at the opposite end to the actuator due to the load imposed on the actuator. d. the same at all points.

Answer 28

d. the same at all points.

Question 29

The primary purpose of a hydraulic reservoir is: a. to allow a space into which spare fluid may be stored. b. to indicate system contents. c. to compensate for leaks, displacement and expansion. d. to maintain fluid between a jack and the accumulator.

Answer 29

c. to compensate for leaks, displacement and expansion.

Question 30

Station numbers (Stn) and water lines (WL) are: a. runway markings for guiding the aircraft to the terminal. b. a means of locating airframe structure and components. c. compass alignment markings. d. passenger seat locations.

Answer 30

b. a means of locating airframe structure and components.

Question 31

Regarding a safe life structure: 1 - will only fail after a known number of operations or hours of use. 2 - should not fail until a predicted number of fatigue cycles has been achieved. 3 - has a programmed inspection cycle to detect and rectify faults. 4 - is changed before its predicted life is reached. a. all of the above apply. b. 2, 3 and 4 apply. c. 1 and 3 apply. d. 1 and 2 apply.

Answer 31

b. 2, 3 and 4 apply.

Question 32

A hydraulic lock occurs: a. when the thermal RV operates. b. when flow is stopped and the actuator is not able to move. c. when fluid by passes a system and returns to the tank. d. when fluid and air enters the cylinder and only fluid is allowed to bypass to the reservoir.

Answer 32

b. when flow is stopped and the actuator is not able to move.

Question 33

A variable displacement pump on system startup will be at: a. mid stroke. b. an optimised position depending on uid viscosity. c. maximum stroke. d. minimum stroke.

Answer 33

c. maximum stroke.

Question 34

A restrictor valve: a. controls the rate of build up of pressure in the system. b. controls the rate of movement of a service. c. controls the distance a jack moves. d. is used to restrict the number of services available after loss of system pressure.

Answer 34

b. controls the rate of movement of a service.

Question 35

A relief valve: a. relieves at its designed pressure. b. relieves below system pressure. c. prevents excessive pressure through increased fluid temperature. d. maintains pressure to a priority circuit.

Answer 35

a. relieves at its designed pressure.

Question 36

Skydrol hydraulic fluid can be used to replenish: a. any hydraulic system in an emergency. b. hydraulic systems that have butyl rubber seals only. c. any hydraulic system without restriction. d. hydraulic systems that have neoprane seals only.

Answer 36

b. hydraulic systems that have butyl rubber seals only.

Question 37

Hydraulic pressure in a closed system: a. does not vary with pipe diameter. b. varies in direct proportion to the system demands. c. is greater in pipes of smaller diameters. d. is greater in pipes of larger diameters.

Answer 37

a. does not vary with pipe diameter.

Question 38

In the case of a failure of a cut-out valve: a. the terminal pressure will be controlled by adjusting the pump RPM. b. a full ow relief valve is not required. c. a full ow relief valve is ed down stream of it. d. a full ow relief valve is ed upstream of it.

Answer 38

c. a full ow relief valve is ed down stream of it.

Question 39

An ACOV will: a. extend the life of the accumulator. b. provide an idling circuit when the accumulator is fully charged. c. provide an idling circuit when a selection is made. d. ensure the pump is always on load.

Answer 39

b. provide an idling circuit when the accumulator is fully charged.

Question 40

What is the purpose of stringers? a. To produce stress risers and support the fatigue metres. b. To support the primary control surfaces. c. To absorb the torsional and compressive stresses. d. To prevent buckling and bending by supporting and stiffening the skin

Answer 40

d. To prevent buckling and bending by supporting and stiffening the skin

Question 41

When the hydraulic system pressure is released: a. reservoir fluid contents will rise if reservoir is lower than other components in the system b. reservoir fluid contents will fall if reservoir is the highest point in the system. c. reservoir air pressure will increase. d. reservoir contents are dumped overboard.

Answer 41

a. reservoir fluid contents will rise if reservoir is lower than other components in the system

Question 42

A non return valve: a. closes if inlet pressure ceases. b. closes if inlet pressure exceeds outlet pressure. c. opens if inlet pressure equals outlet pressure. d. can only be ed if provided with a by pass selector.

Answer 42

c. opens if inlet pressure equals outlet pressure.

Question 43

The hydraulic fluid is changed, but the wrong fluid is replaced. This would lead to: a. high operating fluid temperature. b. system failure from leaks and blocked lters, high temp and possible corrosion. c. normal operation, it does not ma er which uid is used. d. a rise in the reservoir ll level.

Answer 43

b. system failure from leaks and blocked lters, high temp and possible corrosion.

Question 44

A hand pump is usually fitted: a. retracting the gear after take-off. b. lowering the landing gear in an emergency. c. pressurizing the oleo struts in the air. d. for ground servicing purposes.

Answer 44

d. for ground servicing purposes.

Question 45

A force of 100N is applied to 2 separate jacks, the area of one is 0.02m^2 and the other is 0.04m^2: a. both have the same load. b. both jacks will move at the same speed. c. the smaller jack will exert a pressure of 5,000 Pa and the larger 2,500 Pa. d. the smaller jack will exert a pressure of 2,000Pa and the larger 4,000 Pa.

Answer 45

c. the smaller jack will exert a pressure of 5,000 Pa and the larger 2,500 Pa.

Question 46

Case drain filters are: a. designed to allow hydraulic pump lubricating uid to drain to atmosphere. b. fitted in the reservoir outlet. c. fitted to prevent debris from the reservoir reaching the system. d. to enable pump lubricating fluid to be used to monitor pump condition.

Answer 46

d. to enable pump lubricating fluid to be used to monitor pump condition.

Question 47

Flight deck windows are constructed from: a. strengthened clear vinyl with an electrical conducting coat for de-icing and rubber pressure seals. b. an amalgam of strengthened glass and vinyl with rubber pressure seals. c. strengthened glass with rubber seals. d. strengthened glass with shock absorbing clear vinyl interlayers and rubber pressure seals.

Answer 47

d. strengthened glass with shock absorbing clear vinyl interlayers and rubber pressure seals.

Question 48

With a hyd lock there is: a. no flow, jack is stationary. b. constant flow. c. flow, but no jack movement. d. no flow but jack continues to move under gravitational e ects.

Answer 48

a. no flow, jack is stationary.

Question 49

How can wing bending moments be reduced in flight? a. By using aileron ‘up-float’ and using the fuel in the wings last. b. By having tail-mounted engines and using aileron ‘down- float’. c. By using aileron ‘up-float’ and keeping the centre section fuel tanks full for as long as possible. d. By having wing-mounted engines and using the wing fuel first.

Answer 49

a. By using aileron ‘up-float’ and using the fuel in the wings last.

Question 50

The pressure filter in a hydraulic system: a. can be by passed when maximum flow is required. b. clears the fluid as it leaves the reservoir. c. is fitted down stream of the pump. d. filters the fluid returning to the tank.

Answer 50

c. is fitted down stream of the pump.

Question 51

Hydraulic pressure of 3,000Pa is applied to an actuator, the piston area of which is 0.02m^2 and the same pressure is exerted on actuator whose area is 0.04m'^2: a. both jacks will move at the same speed. b. both have the same force. c. the smaller jack will exert a force of 600N and the larger 1,200N. d. the smaller jack will exert a force of 60N and the larger 120N.

Answer 51

d. the smaller jack will exert a force of 60N and the larger 120N.

Question 52

The purpose of a reservoir is to: a. compensates for temperature changes. b. compensates for fluid loss. c. compensates for small leaks, expansion and jack displacement. d. to minimise pump cavitation.

Answer 52

c. compensates for small leaks, expansion and jack displacement.

Question 53

A fail safe structure: 1 - has a programmed inspection cycle to detect and rectify faults. 2 - is changed before its predicted life is reached. 3 - has redundant strength which will tolerate a certain amount of structural damage. 4 - is secondary structure of no structural significance. a. 1 and 2 apply. b. 3 and 4 apply. c. 1 and 3 apply. d. all of the above apply.

Answer 53

c. 1 and 3 apply.

Question 54

A separator in an accumulator: a. isolates the gas from the fluid. b. removes the dissolved gases from the fluid. c. maintains the fluid level in the reservoir. d. reduces the size of the accumulator required.

Answer 54

a. isolates the gas from the fluid.

Question 55

A constant pressure hydraulic pump is governed by: a. engine RPM. b. a swash plate that senses the fluid temperature. c. a control piston. d. an automatic cut out.

Answer 55

c. a control piston.

Question 56

The purpose of a hydraulic fuse is to: a. allow a reduced pressure to the wheel brake system to prevent the wheels locking. b. prevent over-pressurising the reservoir as altitude increases. c. allow the parking brake to remain on overnight if required. d. prevent total loss of system fluid if the brake pipeline is ruptured.

Answer 56

d. prevent total loss of system fluid if the brake pipeline is ruptured.

Question 57

A shuttle valve: a. allows two supply sources to operate one unit. b. allows one source to operate two units. c. acts as a non-return valve. d. is used to replace NRVs.

Answer 57

a. allows two supply sources to operate one unit.

Question 58

In the construction of airframes the primary purpose of frames or formers is to: a. oppose hoop stresses and provide shape and form to the fuselage. b. provide a means of a aching the stringers and skin panels. c. support the wings. d. form the entrance door posts.

Answer 58

a. oppose hoop stresses and provide shape and form to the fuselage.

Question 59

A damage tolerant structure: a. need not be repaired until the aircraft undergoes deep maintenance. b. has degree of structural strength redundancy spread over a large area. c. is light, non load bearing structure, damage to which will not adversely affect the aircraft d. is replaced when it reaches its predicted life.

Answer 59

b. has degree of structural strength redundancy spread over a large area.

Question 60

A main system hydraulic pump: a. does not need a positive fluid supply in order to prevent cavitation. b. can be run dry without causing any damage. c. always needs a positive fluid supply in order to prevent cavitation. d. does not need a positive uid supply if primed before startup.

Answer 60

c. always needs a positive fluid supply in order to prevent cavitation.

Question 61

A torsion box: a. is a structure formed between the wing spars, skin and ribs to resist bending and twisting loads. b. is a structure within the fuselage to withstand compression, bending and twisting loads. c. is a structure within the wing for housing the fuel tanks, ight controls and landing gear. d. is a structure designed to reduce the weight.

Answer 61

a. is a structure formed between the wing spars, skin and ribs to resist bending and twisting loads.

Question 62

Control surface flutter is minimized by: a. changing the wings before they reach their critical life. b. reducing the moment of the critical engine. c. mass balance of the control surface. d. aerodynamic balance of the control cables.

Answer 62

c. mass balance of the control surface

Question 63

Low gas pressure in accumulator causes: a. no effect on system. b. rapid and smooth operation of system. c. rapid jack movements. d. rapid pressure fluctuations while system is operating.

Answer 63

d. rapid pressure fluctuations while system is operating.

Question 64

The following statements relate to hydraulic accumulators. The function of a accumulator is to: 1. Store fluid under pressure 2. Dampen pressure fluctuations 3. Allow for fluid expansion 4. Replace the need for a reservoir 5. Absorb some of the landing loads 6. Allow for thermal expansion 7. Prolong the period between pump cut-in and cut-out 8. Provide the initial pressure when a selection is made and the pump is cut out 9. Provide an emergency reserve of pressure in the event of pump failure Which of the following applies? a. Statements 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 8 and 9 are correct. b. Statements 1, 2, 3, 6, 7, and 9 are correct. c. All of the statements are correct. d. None of the statements are correct.

Answer 64

b. Statements 1, 2, 3, 6, 7, and 9 are correct.

Question 65

Def. Stan 91/48 is ---------- and is ------------- based: a. purple, synthetic b. green, mineral c. red , synthetic d. red , mineral

Answer 65

d. red , mineral

Question 66

A force of 1,500 N is applied to a piston of area 0.002m2 and generates a force of-----(1)------Non a piston of area 0.003m2. The pressure generated is -----(2)-----and, if the smaller piston moves 0.025m, the work done is-----(3)------. a. (1) 2,250N, (2) 750,000Pa, (3) 37.5 J b. (1) 56.25J, (2) 750,000Pa, (3) 750,000N c. (1) 225N, (2) 75,000Pa, (3) 562.5 J d. (1)750,000N, (2) 2,250 Pa, (3) 56.25J

Answer 66

a. (1) 2,250N, (2) 750,000Pa, (3) 37.5 J

Question 67

A high pressure hydraulic pump: a. outlet pressure is governed by centrifugal force. b. needs a positive fluid supply. c. does not need a positive fluid supply. d. does not need a cooling fluid flow.

Answer 67

b. needs a positive fluid supply.

Question 68

To prevent cavitation of the pump a hydraulic reservoir may be: a. all of the choices. b. pressurized. c. above the pump. d. bootstrapped.

Answer 68

a. all of the choices.

Question 69

Which of the following statements will produce the shortest landing run: 1. crossing the threshold at the correct height and speed 2. applying full anti-skid braking as quickly as possible after touchdown 3. using maximum pedal pressure but releasing the pressure as the wheels start to skid 4. the use of cadence braking 5. use of minimum braking pressure early in the landing run and maximum pressure towards the end 6. application of reverse thrust as early as possible in the landing run 7. deployment of the lift dumpers/speed brakes as early as possible in the landing run a. 1, 5, 6, 7 b. 1, 3, 6, 7 c. 1, 4, 6, 7 d. 1, 2, 6, 7

Answer 69

d. 1, 2, 6, 7

Question 70

A green fusible plug is designed to deflate the tyre if a temperature of ________ is reached. a. 277 °C b. 177°C c. 155°C d. 199°C

Answer 70

b. 177°C

Question 71

The nose wheel assembly must be centered before retraction because: a. it will remove any slush or debris which may have accumulated on take-off. b. the tyres may be damaged on landing if the nose wheel is not straight. c. there is limited space in the nose wheel bay. d. the aircraft may swerve on the next landing if the nose wheel is not straight.

Answer 71

c. there is limited space in the nose wheel bay.

Question 72

Landing gear ground locking pins are: a. fitted before flight to ensure the landing gear locks are fully cocked. b. removed prior to flight and stowed on the aircraft where they are visible to the crew. c. fitted after flight to maintain a hydraulic lock in the down lock jack. d. removed prior to flight and returned to stores.

Answer 72

b. removed prior to flight and stowed on the aircraft where they are visible to the crew.

Question 73

When inflating a tyre ed to an aircraft, the tyre pressure reading on the gauge should be modified by: a. 4psi. b. 10psi. c. 4%. d. 10%.

Answer 73

c. 4%.

Question 74

Tyre wear when taxying can be reduced: a. taxying at less than 25 knots. b. restricting the use of brakes and using thrust reversers. c. staying on the smoothest parts of the taxiway. d. taxying at less than 40 kph.

Answer 74

d. taxying at less than 40 kph.

Question 75

A likely cause of nose wheel shimmy is: a. a torque link is worn or damaged. b. aircraft is overweight. c. the aircraft is incorrectly loaded. d. the tyre pressures are too high.

Answer 75

a. a torque link is worn or damaged.

Question 76

The amount of wear on a reinforced, ribbed tread tyre is indicated by: a. grey cushion rubber b. concentric wear rings c. the offset wear groove d. marker tie bars

Answer 76

d. marker tie bars

Question 77

The movement of the gear on lowering is normally damped to: a. make the lowering time greater than the raising time. b. prevent the uid becoming aerated. c. prevent the hydraulic fluid becoming overheated. d. counteract the force of gravity which would bring the gear down too fast.

Answer 77

d. counteract the force of gravity which would bring the gear down too fast.

Question 78

With RTO (rejected take-off) selected and armed the brakes will be automatically applied if: a. Vr is not reached after a predetermined distance b. reverse thrust is selected at any time c. V1 is not reached after a predetermined distance d. one o f the thrust levers is returned to idle

Answer 78

b. reverse thrust is selected at any time

Question 79

To prevent scrubbing the tyres while taxying , you should: a. make sharp turns only if you have high speed tyres ed. b. deflate the tyres to a minimum pressure. c. use tyres with fusible plugs. d. turn no sharper than the minimum specified radius.

Answer 79

d. turn no sharper than the minimum specified radius.

Question 80

An aircraft has a tyre pressure of 225 psi, its minimum aquaplaning speed will be: a. 135 knots. b. 145 knots. c. 145 mph. d. 135 mph.

Answer 80

a. 135 knots.

Question 81

At an aircraft taxying speed of 10mph the antiskid braking system is: a. operative only on the nosewheel brakes. b. operative only on the main wheel brakes. c. operative. d. inoperative.

Answer 81

d. inoperative.

Question 82

The tyre pressures are checked after a long taxi to the ramp following landing. The pressures will have: a. risen by 15% from their rated value. b. risen by 10% of their original weight-on-wheels value. c. remained constant. d. fallen by 15% from their rated value.

Answer 82

b. risen by 10% of their original weight-on-wheels value.

Question 83

The anti-skid system would be used: a. for both take off and landing runs. b. on landing runs only. c. for take off on icy runways. d. on take o runs only.

Answer 83

a. for both take off and landing runs.

Question 84

The ply rating of a tyre: a. always indicates the number of cords or plies in the tyre carcass. b. is the index of the tyre strength. c. never indicates the number of cords or plies in the tyre carcass. d. indicates whether or not an inner tube should be fitted.

Answer 84

b. is the index of the tyre strength.

Question 85

In the event of an approach to land being made with the throttle levers retarded towards idle and the flaps down and the gear up, the warning given to the pilot will be a;- a. hom b. continuous bell c. stick shaker d. buzzer

Answer 85

a. horn

Question 86

The most likely cause of brake unit dragging is: a. dirt between the rotor and stator assemblies. b. the brake pressure being too high. c. incorrect operation of the adjuster assemblies. d. grease on the rotor assembly.

Answer 86

c. incorrect operation of the adjuster assemblies.

Question 87

When the landing gear is selected UP the sequence of lights is: a. green, red, out b. red, green, out. c. red, out, green d. out, red, green

Answer 87

a. green, red, out

Question 88

The pressure needed to operate the wheel brakes on a large aircraft comes from: a. the pilots brake pedals. b. the aircraft main hydraulic system. c. a self contained power pack. d. the hydraulic reservoir.

Answer 88

b. the aircraft main hydraulic system.

Question 89

The most likely cause of brake fade is a. the pilot reducing the brake pressure. b. the brake pads overheating. c. oil or grease on the brake drums. d. worn stators.

Answer 89

b. the brake pads overheating.

Question 90

Creep (Slippage): a. is not a problem with tubeless tyres b. alignment can rip out the inflation valve on tubed tyres, and de ate the tyre c. can be prevented by painting lines on the wheel and tyre d. refers to the movement of the aircraft against the brakes

Answer 90

b. alignment can rip out the inflation valve on tubed tyres, and de ate the tyre

Question 91

A hydraulic gear extension/retraction mechanism consists of sequence valves, uplocks and: a. an anti-skid braking system. b. a shock absorber. c. downlocks. d. torque links.

Answer 91

c. downlocks.

Question 92

Oil is used in an oleo strut to: a. limit the speed of compression of the strut. b. limit the speed of extension and compression of the strut. c. lubricate the piston within the cylinder. d. support the weight of the aircraft.

Answer 92

b. limit the speed of extension and compression of the strut.

Question 93

Lowering the gear using the free fall system will result in the main landing gear doors a. remaining open b. closing mechanically c. closing hydraulically d. being jettisoned

Answer 93

a. remaining open

Question 94

Inadvertent retraction of the landing gear on the ground is: a. always a danger after the ground locks have been removed. b. not possible because the system is not powerful enough. c. prevented by the ground/air logic system. d. the responsibility of the first officer when he is on the aircraft.

Answer 94

c. prevented by the ground/air logic system.

Question 95

A nose wheel steering control system: a. prevents the nose gear from lowering if the nosewheels are not centralized. b. allows the nosewheel to caster freely at all times. c. prevents the nosewheel from castering at all times. d. allows the nosewheel to caster within preset limits about the neutral position.

Answer 95

d. allows the nosewheel to caster within preset limits about the neutral position.

Question 96

The formula which gives the minimum speed (Vp) at which aquaplaning may occur is: a. Vp = 9 X √P where P is kg/cm2 and Vp is in knots. b. Vp = 9 X √P where P is psi and Vp is in mph. c. Vp = 9 X √P where P is psi and Vp is in knots. d. Vp = 34 X √P where P is kg/cm2 and Vp is in mph.

Answer 96

c. Vp = 9 X √P where P is psi and Vp is in knots.

Question 97

The best extinguishant to use on a wheel or brake fire is: a. freon. b. water. c. CO2. d. dry powder.

Answer 97

d. dry powder.

Question 98

Creep (slippage): a. never occurs on new tyres. b. may cause excess wear. c. can damage the braking system. d. can be measured by painting marks on the tyre and wheel rim.

Answer 98

d. can be measured by painting marks on the tyre and wheel rim.

Question 99

The advantages of a cable control are: 1 - light, very good strength to weight ratio 2 - easy to route through the aircraft 3 - less prone to impact damage 4 - takes up less volume 5 - less bolted joints a. 1, 2 and 5 only b. all the above c. 3 and 5 only d. 1, 2 and 4 only

Answer 99

b. all the above

Question 100

To yaw the aircraft to the right: a. the right rudder pedal is pushed forward and the rudder moves to the right b. the left rudder pedal is pushed forward and the rudder moves to the left c. the right rudder pedal is pushed forward and the rudder moves to the left

Answer 100

a. the right rudder pedal is pushed forward and the rudder moves to the right

Question 101

The purpose of the primary stops in a control system is a. to set the control surface neutral position b. to limit control movement to one direction only c. to enable the secondary stops to be correctly spaced d. to set the range of movement of the control surface

Answer 101

d. to set the range of movement of the control surface

Question 102

The purpose of pulley wheels in cable control systems is: a. to change the direction of the control cable b. to ensure smooth operation of the system c. to prevent the cable from slackening d. to ensure the cable tensions are equal throughout the system

Answer 102

a. to change the direction of the control cable

Question 103

The purpose of the secondary stops in a control system is: a. to limit control surface range in the event of primary stop failure b. to remove the excess backlash in the controls c. to reduce the control loads on the primary stops d. to limit the secondary control system from excessive movement

Answer 103

a. to limit control surface range in the event of primary stop failure

Question 104

In a cable control system cables are tensioned to: 1 - remove backlash from the control linkage 2 - provide tension on the turnbuckles 3 - provide positive action in both directions 4 - ensure the full range is achieved 5 - compensate for temperature variations a. 1, 3 and 5 only b. all the above c. 4 only d. 3 only

Answer 104

a. 1, 3 and 5 only

Question 105

In a manual flying control system the control inputs to the primary control surfaces: 1 - are reversible 2 - are irreversible 3 - are instinctive for the movement required 4 - are opposite for the movement required 5 - are limited in range by fl ight deck obstructions a. 2 and 4 only b. 1, 3 and 5 only c. 1 and 4 only d. 1 and 3 only

Answer 105

d. 1 and 3 only

Question 106

In a cable control system the cables are mounted in pairs to: 1 - remove backlash from the control linkage 2 - provide tension on the turnbuckles 3 - provide positive action in both directions 4 - ensure the full range is achieved 5 - compensate for temperature variations a. 4 only b. 3 only c. 1, 3 and 5 only d. all the above

Answer 106

b. 3 only

Question 107

To roll the aircraft to the right: a. the aileron control is moved to the right, the right aileron goes up and the left one down b. the aileron control is moved to the left and the right aileron moves up and the left down c. the rudder control is moved to the right, the right aileron moves up and the le down d. the aileron control is moved to the right and the right elevator goes up and the left one down

Answer 107

a. the aileron control is moved to the right, the right aileron goes up and the left one down

Question 108

The purpose of the fairleads in a cable control system is to: a. to keep the cable straight and clear of structure b. to guide the cables on to the pulley wheels c. alter the angle of de ection of the cables d. to attach the cables to chain drives

Answer 108

a. to keep the cable straight and clear of structure