PACU & Complications pt2 (Ex2) Flashcards

(52 cards)

1
Q

What are some ways to assess for residual neuromuscular blockade? (4)

A
  • Grip strength
  • Tongue protrusion
  • Ability to lift legs
  • Able to hold head up for 5 seconds
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2
Q

What medication class are OSA patients sensitive to?

A

Opioids

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3
Q

What is the STOP-BANG assessment? What is it for?

A

Questionnaire for assessing Sleep Apnea

Snore
Tired
Observed apnea
Pressure (BP)
BMI > 35
Age > 50
Neck circumference > 16 in
Gender (male)

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4
Q

What score on the STOP-BANG assessment is indicative of a low risk for OSA?

A

0 - 2 Yes

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5
Q

What score on the STOP-BANG assessment is indicative of a intermediate risk for OSA?

A

3 - 4 Yes

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6
Q

What score on the STOP-BANG assessment is indicative of a high risk for OSA?

A

5 - 8 Yes

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7
Q

Review the STOP BANG Sleep Apnea Questionnaire:

A
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8
Q

What are common causes of arterial hypoxemia in a PACU patient?

A
  • Room air - Need O₂
  • Hypoventilation
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9
Q

What are common treatments for arterial hypoxemia in the PACU patient? (3)

A
  • Apply O₂
  • Opioid/Benzo reversal
  • Stimulate patient
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10
Q

What is Diffusion Hypoxia?

A

Rapid diffusion of N₂O into alveoli at end of anesthetic.

Dilutes alveolar gas and decreases PaO₂ and PaCO₂ → hypoxemia w/ ↓ respiratory drive.

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11
Q

How long can diffusion hypoxia persist after discontinuation of N₂O anesthetic?

A

5-10 min

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12
Q

What are the standard treatment thresholds for hypertension in the PACU?

A

SBP > 180
DBP > 110

may depend on the surgery and surgeon preference

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13
Q

What medications (and doses) are typically used for treatment of systemic HTN in the PACU?

A

Labetalol (5 - 25mg)
Hydralazine (5 - 10mg)
Metoprolol (1 - 5mg)

need to treat underlying cause

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14
Q

Hypotension that is due to decreased preload is __________.

A

Hypovolemic shock (lost volume)

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15
Q

Hypotension that is due to decreased afterload is __________.

A

Distributive shock (large tank)

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16
Q

Hypotension that is due to intrinsic pump failure is __________.

A

Cardiogenic shock (lost pump)

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17
Q

What are four common causes of decreased preload?

A
  • Third spacing
  • Inadequate fluid replacement
  • Neuraxial blockade → SNS tone loss
  • Bleeding
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18
Q

What are four common causes of decreased afterload?

A
  • Sepsis
  • Anaphylaxis/allergic rx
  • Critical illness
  • Iatrogenic sympathectomy

.

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19
Q

What are the two primary types of severe allergic reactions?

A

Anaphylactic & Anaphylactoid (not previous exposed)

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20
Q

What is the drug of choice for hypotension in an allergic reaction?

A

Epinephrine

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21
Q

What are the most common drug classes to cause anaphylactic reactions?

A

NMBD (especially Roc)

22
Q

What potent inflammatory mediators can cause bronchial constriction and increased vascular permeability?

A

Leukotrienes and Prostaglandins

23
Q

__________ drugs are engineered with quaternary ammonium ions.

A

Neuromuscular blocking

24
Q

What patient populations are at high risk for latex allergy?

A
  • Repeated exposures (HCW’s)
  • Spina Bifida patients
25
What are the three latex-mediated reactions?
- Irritant contact dermatitis - Type IV cell-mediated reactions - Type I IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reactions
26
What antibiotic causes a direct histamine release?
Vancomycin (red-mans)
27
What is the most common Abx allergy?
Penicillin
28
What two surgical procedures mentioned in lecture can lead to sudden sepsis?
Procedures involving urinary tract & biliary tract manipulation
29
What are the three most common causes of intrinsic pump failure?
- Myocardial ischemia/infarction - Tamponade - Dysrhythmias
30
What is the risk stratification guideline for non-cardiac surgery?
31
What are factors that decrease myocardial O₂ supply?
32
What are factors that increase myocardial O₂ demand?
33
What are the most common causes of sinus tachycardia? (5)
- SNS stimulation - ↓ volume - Anemia - Shivering - Agitation
34
Risk for atrial dysrhythmias is greatest after what types of surgeries?
Cardiac and Thoracic
35
What are risk factors for atrial dysthrythmias? (4)
- Pre-existing cardiac conditions - Hypervolemia - Electrolyte abnormalities - O₂ desaturation
36
Patients that are hemodynamically unstable due to atrial dysrhythmias require _________. What consideration should be made prior?
* Cardioversion * Need to consider if new onset: may need TEE prior to conversion due to potential for clots if not new onset.
37
What medications tend to work well for atrial fibrillation?
- β blockers - CCBs *most common cardizem*
38
Greater than ____ ms QRS complex is considered wide complex.
120 ms (0.12s)
39
What should be investigated with true ventricular tachycardia?
H's & T's
40
What procedures are associated with bradydysrhythmias? (4)
- Bowel Distention from GI stuff - ↑ ICP (Trendelenburg, etc.) - ↑ Intraocular pressure (eye sx's) - Spinal Anesthesia
41
High spinals reaching the _______ level can block the cardioaccelerator fibers.
T1 - T4
42
What risk factors for Postoperative Cognitive Dysfunction (POCD) were discussed in lecture? (4)
-  > 70 years old - Pre-operative cognitive impairment - ↓ Functional status - EtOH abuse
43
What intra-operative factors are associated with POCD? (4)
- Surgical blood loss (HCT < 30%, PRBC infusions) - HoTN - N₂O administration - GETA
44
What is the #1 cause of delayed awakening?
Residual sedation from anesthetic
45
For delayed awakening secondary to opioids treat with ________ mcg of ______.
20 - 40 mcg of narcan
46
For delayed awakening secondary to benzodiazepines treat with ________ mg of ______.
0.2mg of flumazenil
47
For delayed awakening secondary to scopolamine (anticholinergics) treat with ________ mg of ___________.
0.5 - 2mg IV Physostigmine.
48
What (besides residual sedation) are some common reasons for delayed awakening from anesthesia? (5)
- Hypothermia < 33°C - ↑ ETCO₂ - ↓BG - ↑ICP - Residual NMBD's
49
What are some basic recommendations for discharge from PACU?
50
What is/are the criteria for Determination of Discharge from PACU Score?
51
What are common causes of hypertension intra/postoperatively? (6)
* emergence excitement * shivering * hypercapnia * pain/agitation * bowel distention * urinary retention
52
What are some symptoms of histamine release? (5)
* vasodilation/HoTN * erythema/pruritus * edema * tachycardia * GI constriction