Paediatric FC from ppt Flashcards

(774 cards)

1
Q

what are the 4 fields of development

A
  1. gross motor
  2. fine motor and vision
  3. speech, hearing and language
  4. social, emotional and behavioural
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2
Q

what is the difference between age and limit age for developmental milestones

A

median age - when half of a standard population of children reach that level of development

limit age - the age a child is expected to have acquired a particular skill/reached a particular milestone

limit age is usually 2 standard deviations from the mean

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3
Q

what are the median and limit ages for walking

A

median - 12 months

limit - 18 months

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4
Q

how should you adjust developmental milestones for prematurity

A

age correct up to 2 years of age

i.e. a 9 monht old baby who was 2 months early - only expected to be at a developmental stage of a 7 month ond

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5
Q

should vaccinations be adjusted for prematurity

A

no

vaccines must be given according to chronological age

babies born <28 weeks should receive their first set of immunisations in hospital due to apnoea risk

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6
Q

what are the primitive reflexes

A

moro - startle - symmetrical extenstion and flexion of the limbs if you suddenly lower them backwards

grasp - grabbing an object placed in their hand

rooting - turning head towards stimulus placed near mouth

stepping

positive supporting reflex (legs push up against gravity when placed)

atonic neck reflex

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7
Q

when should the primitive reflexes have diminished by

A

4-6 months

if they haven’t - could be a sign of cerebral palsy

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8
Q

when should a baby be able to sit unsupported

A

6 months

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9
Q

when should a child be able to make a mature pincer grip

A

10 months

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10
Q

when should a child be able to draw a line, circle, cross, square and triangle

A

line - 2 years
circle - 3 years
cross - 4 years
square - 4.5 years
triangle - <5 years

*these drawing skills are being able to draw without being shown how it is done, they can copy (after being shown) 6 months earlier

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11
Q

when should a child start to express 2-3 words in addition to mama and dada

A

12 months

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12
Q

when should a child be able to talk in sentences

A

2.5-3 years

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13
Q

at what age should a child start smiling

A

6 weeks

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14
Q

at what age should a child be toilet trained during the day

A

2 years

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15
Q

at what age do children start playing with someone else interactively

A

3 years

before 3 - normal for a child to play by themselves

after 3 you would expect them to start sharing/interacting, so may worry if they struggle to play with others >3 years

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16
Q

when do children have their hearing checked

A

newborn hearing screening

hearing screening when they start school

if parents concerned about hearing

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17
Q

up to what age is it normal to be able to see a squint in a child

A

newborns may appear to squint when looking at near obejcts

by 12 weeks - NO SQUINT should be present at all

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18
Q

when is vision screening performed

A

pre-school children

school entry

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19
Q

what are some causes of developmental delay

A

genetic - chromosomal abnormality, brain malformation
congenital hypothyroidism
teratogenic medications during pregnancy
hypoxic brain injury during birth
history of meningitis
head trauma (accidental or non-accidental)
brain hypoxia due to near drowing, seizures
unknown

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20
Q

what are some genetic causes of severe visual impairment

A

congenital cataracts
albinism
retinal dystrophy
retinoblastoma

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21
Q

define strabismus

A

misalignment of the visual axes

also known as squint

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22
Q

what is the most common cause of squint

A

failure to develop binocular vision due to REFRACTIVE ERRORS of the eyes

(can also be caused by cataracts, retinoblastoma and other intra-occular problems that must be excluded)

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23
Q

what are the 2 divisions of squints

A

non-paralytic (concomintant, common) - usually due to refractive error, often treated by glasses but may need surgery

paralytic (rare) - due to paralysis of the motor nerves. When rapid onset, can be sinister - due to underlying SOL

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24
Q

what tests can be done to detect squint

A

corneal light reflex test - shine pen torch in eyes, reflection of light should appear in same position in both eyes. If not, there may be squint

cover test - cover good eye and the squinting eye will move. Perform close (33cm) and distant (6m) as some squints are only present at one distance

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25
what are the refractive errors seen in childhood
1. hypermetropia 2. myopia 3. amblyopia
26
what are hypermetropia and myopia, and why are they important to correct early
hypermetropia - long sightedness (MC) myopia - short sightedness (uncommon and less likely to elad to permenant visual changes) correct early to avoid amblyopia - irreversible damage to vision
27
what is amblyopia
also known as lazy eye potentially permanent loss of visual acuity in an eye that has not received a clear image usually affects one eye
28
what causes amblyopia
any interferemce with visual development: squint refractive erros ptosis cataract
29
how is amblyopia treated
glasses to correct visual impairment patching of good eye to force lazy eye to work early treatment essential - after 7 years unlikely to improve considerable support to children and parent - children do not like having eye patched
30
name some of the ways in which visual impairment can present in childhood
loss of red reflex (from cataract) white reflex in the pupil (retinoblastoma, cataract, ROP) not smiling responsivley by 6 weeks lack of eye contact with parents random eye movements failure to fix and follow nystagmus squint photophobia
31
how can you treat strabismus
conservative - glasses, orthoptic exercises to improve eye muscle control surgery: strengthen procedure - resection weakening procedure - recession of muscle on side the eye goes towards esotropia (eye pointing inwards) - strengthen lateral rectus by resection, recession of the medial rectus exotropia - opposite botox injections - paralyse muscle that is pulling the eye in a certain direction
32
describe some possible behavioural changes that may present as a result of hearing loss
appears to daydream sits near the TV and turns the volume really loud watches the speaker's face closely for clues misunderstands/slow in responding answers questions incorrectly soft/fuzzy speech doesn't turn immediately when name called aggressive alowly schoolwork/grades start to get worse
33
what are the 2 categories of hearing loss and the underlying pathology behind them
conductive hearing loss - an obstruction in the ear canal preventing sound from getting through (often reversible) sensorineural hearing loss - nerve damage (progressive, never reversible)
34
what are the causes for conductive hearing loss in children
most common - congestion behind the eardrums (with a cold) glue ear ear wax middle ear infection peforated ear drum structural abnormality of the outer ear - certain syndromes
35
what are some risk factors conductive hearing loss
Down's syndrome craniofacial syndromes cleft palate
36
if you performed a test with a vibrating tuning fork in someone with conductive hearing loss, what would you find
better hearing through bone conduction
37
how do you manage conductive hearing loss
most are self-limiting (inner ear infection/cold) ENT referral - insertion of grommets to help drain excess fluid out of the middle ear hearing aids if they have a permanent cause for the hearing loss
38
what are some causes of sensorineural hearing loss
unknown in many cases genetic / syndromal perinatal cause - trauma, infection, hypoxia at birth congenital infections - rubella, CMV meningitis - pneumococcus can cause ossification of the cochlear premature babies - increased risk
39
if you were to perform a vibrating tuning fork test on someone with sensorineural hearing loss, what would you find
hearing is not better through bone on audiology - hearing loss worse in higher frequencies
40
how do you manage sensorineural hearing loss
hearing aids cochlear implants aim = raise the level of hearing so that as much speech is audible as possible
41
which cases are cochlear implants reserved for
profound hearing loss (>90 decibles) high frequency bilateral hearing loss meningitis hearing loss
42
what are some long term effects of hearing loss
developmental delay - particularly in speech and language behavioural problems - too loud or too quiet impact on education impact on friendship and social life impact on emotions/psychosocial impact
43
name some members of the MDT involved in child development services
paediatrician PT OT SALT dietician nurses health visitor psychologist family therapist social worker key worker teachers and school nurses may also be involved
44
what is the role of the MDT service for child development
help liaise between home and school and the childs care needs assess the child's functional ability and need to provide therapy where needed to provide psychosocial support to the family to ensure health needs of the child are met
45
what is down's syndrome
trisomy 21 chromosomal abnormality in which there are three copies of T21, rather than 2 copies leads to specific learning difficulties and dysmorphic features
46
what is the main risk factor for down's syndrome
increasing maternal age
47
what are the 3 causes/mechanisms by which Down's syndrome can arise
1. non-dysjunction - 94% 2. unbalanced Robertsonian translocation - 4% 3. gonadal mosaicism - 1% (milder phenotype)
48
what is non-dysjunction
an error in meiosis 1 pair of chromosomes 21s fail to seperate - one gamete has 2 21s and other has none fertilisation of gamete w/ 2 = zygote with trisomy 21 parents chromosome do not need to be examined related to maternal age 47 chromosomes in karyotype
49
what is translocation and which chromosome is often involved in trisomy 21
extra copy of chromosome 21 joined onto another chromosome - usually C.14 these children will have 46 chromosomes on a karyotype - but 3 copies of 21 material (one portion tacked onto 14) parental chromosomes analysis is needed - one parent is a carrier in 25% of cases translocation carriers have 45 chromosomes on karyotype (one of the 21s is in wrong place)
50
what are some classic appearance features seen in someone with Down's syndrome
flat bridge of nose flat occiput wide space between the eyes small mouth and hence apparently large tongue (pseudo macroglossia) single palmar crease eyes slanting down and inwards
51
what are some medical conditions that people with down's syndrome are more at risk of
complete atrioventricular septal defect - ECHO all T21 babies hypothyroidism duodenal atresia hypotonia later in life - Alzheimer's
52
how is Down's syndrome screened for antenatally
risk score - serum markers and nuchal translucency diagnostic testing if high risk score - amniocentesis or chorionic villus sampling
53
how do you manage a child with down's syndrome
MDT team involvement cardiology endocrinology childhood disability services SALT physio special education needs school liasion between school, healthcare and family imperative
54
what are some clincal features associated with Edward's syndrome (T18)
low birthweight prominent occiput small mouth and chin short sternum flexed, overlapping fingers rocker-bottom feet cardiac and renal malformation microcephaly 90% die in first year
55
what are some clinical features of Patau syndrome (T13)
structural defect of brain (single lobed) scalp defects small eyes (microopthalmia) cleft lip and palate polydactyly cardiac and renal malformations not compatible with life
56
how are Patau's and Edwards syndrome diagnosed
often antenatally - abnormalities detected on USS, risk score comes back high for trisomy prenatal diagnosis - amnio or CVS karyotype genetic analysis confirms diagnosis at birth
57
what is Turner's syndrome
a chromosomal condition in which females only inherit one copy of the X chromosomes, rather than 2 copies should be 46, XX Turner's = 45, X or 45 XO
58
what are some clinical features of Turner's syndrome
female short stature webbed neck infertility/primary amenorrhoea delayed puberty wide spaced nipples
59
what congenital heart defects is associated with Turner's syndrome
coarctation of the aorta
60
how is Turner's syndrome diagnosed
clinical suspicion diagnosis confirmed on karyotypin (45, XO)
61
how is Turner's syndrome managed
growth hormone therapy oestrogen replacement - develop secondary sexual characteristics at time of puberty infertility - IVF
62
what is Klinefelter's
a genetic condition in which males inherit an extra copy of the X chromosome - karyotype = 47, XXY (should be 46, XY)
63
what are some clinical features of Kleinfelter's syndrome
male Tall stature infertility - adult life delayed puberty - lack of pubic hair gynaecomastia in adolescence
64
how do you treat Kleinfelter's syndrome
testosterone replacement - 1 injection/month for life promotes development of sexual characteristics
65
what is fragile X syndrome
an inherited form of learning disability due to a trinucleotide repeat expansion on the X chromosome affects males more thna females as they have protection from their other X chromosome females have a milder phenotype
66
what are the clinical features of Fragile X syndrome
'cocktail personality' - happy, bouncy children macrocephaly large ears learning difficulties/autism joint laxity large testes hypotonia mitral valve prolapse
67
how would a diagnosis of Fragile X syndrome be confirmed
FISH testing (fluorescence in situ hybridisation) - to look at the content of the cells
68
what is DiGeorge syndrome
abnormal branchial arch development leading to problems with the heart, thymus and palate
69
what are the clinical features of DiGeorge syndrome
CATCH 22: cardiac abnormalities thymus hypoplasia (T-cell dysfunction => primary immune def.) cleft palate hypocalcaemia 22 - defect - chromosome 22 material deletion
70
which type of cardiac abnromalities are seen in DiGeorge syndrome
truncus arteriosus tatralogy of fallot interrupted aortic arch coarctation vascular ring around trachea => stridor
71
what investigation should be done in someone with suspected DiGeorge syndrome
T-cell count CXR - any pt with recurrent infections to look for thymus anyone with congenital cardiac disease - test for diGeorge
72
what is Noonan's syndrome
look like the boy version of Turner's short stature webbed neck ptosis hypothyroidism pulmonary stenosis hypogonadism
73
what is Marfan's syndrome
a connective tissue disorder caused by fibrillin deficiency
74
what are some clinical features of Marfan's syndrome
arachnodactyly aortic dilatation => aneurysm => dissection lens dislocation long arms and legs high arched palate lax/hypermobile joints
75
what regular investigation is important in someone with Marfan's syndrome
ECG - check for aortic dilatation - fix to prevent dissection
76
which type of connective tissue abnormality is associated with Ehler-Danlos syndrome
Elastin defect so affects collagen - skin etc
77
what are the signs and symptoms of Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
stretchy skin able to touch thumb to radius side of their arm excessive bruising (weak collagen in blood vessels) tissue fragility brain aneurysms 'cigarette paper scars' - shiny thin scars on the skin poor healing
78
what are the types of mendelian inheritance
auto dom auto rec X-linked Y-linked
79
what is the chance of inheriting an autosomal dom condition from an affected parent
50%
80
give some examples of auto dom conditions
adult polycystic kidney disease familial hypercholesterolaemia Marfan's syndrome Huntington's disease some cancers - BRCA
81
give three reasons why someone may have an auto dom condition but a negative family history
MC = non-paternity new mutation gonadal mosaicism
82
what is the risk of inheriting an autosomal recessive condition from 2 carrier parents
1 in 4 (25%)
83
what is the risk of that a sibling of a child affected with an auto rec condition is a carrier
2 in 3 carrier risk for unaffected siblings (take away possibility of them being affected)
84
what is the population carrier risk for CF
1 in 25
85
what is a big risk factor for auto rec conditions, particularly in people with an Asian origin
consanguinous parents especially in families with many generation of consanguinity - can look like an auto dom pedigree for a rec condition
86
general rule for auto dom vs rec conditions
dom = structural protein defects rec - affects metabolic pathway
87
what transmission pattersn (i.e male to male/male to female) would be seen in an X-linked rec condition
NO male to male transmission (2 consecutive generational males squares shaded on a pedigree, it is not X linked) every affected male will produce a female carrier if mothercarrier: - 50% sons affected - 50% daughters carriers
88
give some examples of X-linked rec conditions
Duchenne's and Becker's haemophilia A some types of albinism Fragile X syndrome
89
what are the types of non-mendelian inheritance
multi-factorial/polygenic inheritance imprinting and uniparental disomy mitochondrial inheritance
90
give an example of a disease which has multifactorial inheritance
combinaton between the pre-disposing genes and the lived environment spina bifida folic acid deficiency linked to SB and you have a higher risk if you had a sibling with it
91
explain what imprinting and uniparental disomy is
for most genes both copies are expressed some genes only are maternal or paternal expressed - IMPRINTING Prader-willi and Angleman's syndrome - cytogenic deletions of same region of C.15q or by uniparental disomy of C.15 (both copies of 15 come from same parent)
92
what is the chromosomal abnormality in Prader-Willi syndrome
Chromosome 15 occurs when failure to inherit the active paternal gene occurs so either inherit 2 copies from mum or an abnormal copy from dad
93
what are the clinical features of Prader-Willi syndrome
hypotonia (even from neonate) learning difficulties obesity (due to hyperphagia) small genitalia
94
what is Angleman's syndrome
Chromosome 15 abnormality failure to inherit active maternal gene 2 copies from dad Or abnormal copy from mum
95
what are some clinical features of Angleman's syndrome
severe learning difficulty ataxia broad based gait characteristic facial appearance epilepsy 'happy puppet' - unprovoked laughing and clapping microcephalyb
96
how is DNA analysis performed
DNA PCR
97
what are the main roles of DNA analysis in genetic counselling
1. confirmation of a clinical diagnosis 2. detect female carriers for X-linked disorders 3. detect carriers in auto rec disorders (siblings of CF patients) 4. pre-symptomatic diagnosis of auto dom disorders (Huntington's disease)
98
woul you test a child from a parent with known Huntington's if the parent asked, to see if child with have disease
Sorry not an option Not performed on healthy children, wait until old enough until informed consent
99
what is the role of a clinical geneticist
1. involved in making diagnoses 2. to explain the diagnosis to the family 3. discuss prognosis 4. discuss options available - genetic testing, screening, prenatal diagnosis 5. refer to appropriate specialists for management
100
what are the main reasons for a referral to genetic counselling
preconception advice for someone with a FHx of a genetic disorder antenatal from paeds - development delayed, dysmorphic features carrier testing for known family history adult onset conditions - advice whether they should have test if parents did post-mortem - unexplained death to look for genetic cause
101
what are the congential infections to be aware of
TORCHS toxoplasmosis other (HIV) Rubella CMV HSV Syphillis
102
what treatment do yu give a pregnant woman with syphillis
IM BenPen
103
what treatment do you give to a pregnant woman with toxoplasmosis
catch from cat poo treatment - spiromycin
104
what are some complications of measles
encephalitis subacute sclerosing pan-encephalitis febrile convulsions giant cell pneumonia diarrhoea appendicitis myocarditis
105
what is Perthe's disease and how does it present
degenertive condition of the hip joint due to avascular necrosis of the femoral head more common in boys features - hip pain (may present as knee pain), limp, shortening of affected leg, pain on int and ext rotation of hip imaging - flattening of the femoral head
106
what is the clinical presentation of Hirshprung's disease
failure to pass meconium symptoms of bowel obstruction - abdo distension, bilious vomiting failure to thrive, low birthweight, size PR exam = stool ejection more common in boys
107
what is the definitive diagnosis for Hirschprung's disease
rectal biopsy
108
what complications can occur to the fetus if the mother is infected with rubella during the pregnancy
congential cataracts congenital heart disease sensorineural deafness
109
how are these complications prevented
MMR vaccine if you see a pregnant lady - check they have MMR vaccine
110
what is the main complication to worry about if a pregnant woman has CMV
90% babies normal at birth 5% may develop sensorineural hearing loss later in life
111
are prenant women screened for CMV
no no vaccine or antiviral therapy for CMV so screening no appropriate
112
how is toxoplasmosis typically caught
eating infected meat contact with infected cat faeces pregnant women not screened
113
what are the consequences of infection with toxoplasmosis during pregnancy
most infants born asymptomatic other: retinopathy cerebral calcification hydrocephalus long term neuro disability
114
what are the risks of chickenpox (varicella zoster) to the fetus during pregnancy
<20 weeks - risk of skin scarring and neuro damage 2 days before or 5 days after delivery - high viral load (fetus unprotected by maternal ABs) - mortality 30%
115
how should a pregnant woman who has been exposed to chickenpox be treated
varicella zoster immunoglobulin acyclovir
116
is maternal syphilis screened for during pregnancy
YES So is HIV and hep B
117
how is maternal syphilis treated during pregnancy and what are the long term complications for the baby
penicillin if fully treated a month or more before delivery - infant does not require treatment and has a good prognosis if any doubt adequate maternal treatment - infant also treated with penicillin
118
how much is an Apgar score out of
10 normal = between 7 and 10
119
what factors are considered when giving an Apgar score
cardio resp colour reflexes tone
120
what is the purpose of teh NIPE examination
detect congential abnormalities not already identified at birth - heart disease, DDH check for potential problems that could arise due to family history provide an opportunity for parents to ask questions about baby
121
what are some common findings on a NIPE exam
congenital heart disease development dysplasia of hip (DDH) Talipes (clubfeet) - positional or true T21 cleft lip and palate urogenital - hypospadias, undescended testes spina bifida
122
what are some common cardiac issues affecting premature babies
structural heart defect patent ductus arteriosus anaemia of prematurity
123
what are some common resp problems affecting premature infants
surfactant deficiency - risk of resp distress syndrome chronic lung disease of prematurity (bronchopullmonary dysplasia) - more prone to pneumonia and viruses - give palivizumab to protect against RSV pneumothorax apnoea, bradycardia and desaturations
124
what are some common GI problems in premature babies
necrotising enterocolitis - underdeveloped gut bacteria = swollen gut and pedematous and risk of perforation (red, shiny, tender abdo in babies) - breast milk protective feeding problems / nutrition - slower establishment of feeding, unable to suck and swallow until 33-34 weeks so will need IV - build feeds up slowly to reduce risk of NEC
125
what are some common metabolic issues in preterm babies
hypoglycaemia - lack of glycogen stores developed hypocalcaemia - kidneys and parathyroid not fully developed electrolyte and fluid imbalance and hypothermia - excess losses through thin skin osteopenia or prematurity
126
what are some neurological problems that preterm babies are at risk of
long term neuro issues apnoea of prematurity - brain stem not fully myelinated until 32-34 weeks so the pontine resp centre is not fully developed intraventricular haemorrhage - diagnose with cranial USS
127
what are the main infections that affect babies
preterm babies in general more prone to infections Group B strep E.coli and other gram neg fungal infections - candida viral infections - herpes from genital tract during delivery
128
what eye problems affect premature infants and what is thought to be the cause of this
retinopathy of prematurity occurs due to hyperoxic insult whilst the blood given vessels are still developing (premies baby giving O2 as they are struggling to breathe and end up damaging their eyesight)
129
what is normally the cause of neonatal infection <48 hours and >72 hours
<48 hours - infection generally from the birth canal >72 hours - source of infection usually from the environment (catheters for nutrition, tracheal tubes, skin breaking procedures - drawing blood) - most common coagulase negative strep (epidemrins)
130
what are some risk factors for early onset infection in neonates
prolonged ROM if mother has fever during labour or develops one shortly after birth if infant is pre-term if mother is GBS+ve or has another genital tract infection
131
whats the main risk factor for developing late onset neonatal infections
being on ICU or NICU - possibility of exposure t patogens and cross contamination
132
what are the clinical features of neonatal sepsis
fever/hypothermia/temp instability poor feeding vomiting apnoea and bradycardia resp distress abdo distension jaundice irritabilit seizures lethargy/drowsiness
133
how does GBS infection tend to present
pneumonia septicaemia occasional meningitis mortality - 10%
134
which women are considered high risk for GBS infection and are therefore screened selectively (not everyone is screened)
pre-term babies prev baby with GBS infection prolonged ROM fever > 38 degree during labour intrapartum ABs given to these high risk ladies if possible
135
where can listeria monocytogenes infection be caught from
unpasturised milk soft cheese undercooked poultry can cause miscarriage, pre-term delivery and fetal infection
136
how to manage conjunctivitis and sticky eyes in newborns
common - clean with water or saline more troublsome discharge - maybe due to staph or strep - neomycin eye ointment gonococcal infection - purulent discharge, 48 hours after birth, gram stain, treat with penicillin or 3rd gen cephalosporin - cleanse frequently chlamydia trachomatis eye infection - purulent, 1-2 weeks of age, identify with immunofluroscent staining, treat with oral erythromycin for 2 weeks
137
how should an infant born HBsAg positive mother be treated
Hep B vaccine shortly after birth to prevent vertical transmission complete vaccine course during infancy and check antibody response
138
what is in the septic screen done for infants presenting with signs of sepsis
1. CXR 2. urine sample 3. LP - CSF sample 4. blood cultures 5. FBC 6. U&E's
139
what should your immediate action be in child presenting with signs of sepsis
perform a septic screen commence treatment without waitng for culture results
140
which antibiotics would you prescribe
IV broad spec gram +ve and -ve cover BETA LACTAM (amoxicillin) for gram +ve aminoglycoside (gentamycin) for gram -ve if cultures negative and child clinically well after 48 hours then ABx can be stopped
141
why is it important to treat jaundice win neonates
to prevent kernicterus this is billirubin induced encephalopathy caused by unconjugated bilirubin being deposited in the brain this happens because babies blood brain barriers are not well developed so allow billirubin to cross the BBB
142
what may cause neonatal jaundice
physiological jaundice infection haemolysis/haemolytic anaemia metabolic disease
143
how common is neonatal jaundice
60% of neonates experience it
144
what are the causes of jaundice starting <24 hours of age
congenital infection haemolytic disorders: - Rhesus incompatibility - ABO compatibility - G6PD deficiency - spherocytosis - pyruvate deficiency
145
what are the causes of jaundice between 24 hours and 2 weeks of age
physiological breast milk jaundice infection - UTI haemolysis - G6PD deficiency, ABO compatibility bruising polycythaemia Crigler-Najjar syndrome
146
what are the causes of jaundice at >2 weeks of age
unconjugated: - physiological or breast milk jaundice - infection (UTI) - hypothyroidism - haemolytic anaemia (G6PD def) - high GI obstruction conjugated - bile duct obstruction (biliary atresia) - neonatal hepatitis
147
what is physiological jaundice
no underlying cause behind mild or moderately jaundiced babies bilirubin rises as infant adapts from fetal life - babies RBC have shorter lifespan (70), compared to adult (120), so increased destruction leads to higher amount of circulating bilirubin hepatic bilirubin metabolism is less efficient in the first few days of life can only be called physiologicla after other causes have been considered and ruled out
148
which type of infection in particular tends to presenta as neonatal jaundice
UTI (investigate - urine sample, blood culture, CXR, FBC)
149
which type of jaundice is most worrying
persisten/prolonged jaundice most jaundice between 2days-3weeks is physiological however, prolonged is more likely to be sinister
150
what would the parents complain of in a jaundiced infant
looks slightly yellow on skin or eyes often only visible when outside in sunlight
151
if prolonged jaundice was caused by biliary atresia or another type of cholestasis, what other associate symptoms would there be
pale stools dark urine probably off feeds and generally unwell in themselves possible itching/scratch marks on their skin
152
what investigations should be done on a child presenting with jaundice
serum bilirubin level transcutaneous billirubin measurement if suspicious biliary atresia - USS liver is gold standard diagnosis
153
what factors need to be taken into consideration when assessing a jaundiced baby
age of onset (prolonged more worrying) severity of jaundice rate of change gestation - pretemr infants more susceptible clinical condition - pyrexia, hypothermia
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how can jaundice be treated
PHOTOTHERAPY - blue-green (450nm wavelength) - converts unconjugated bilirubin into harmless water-soluble pigment by photodegeneration - no long term sequeale - cover infants eyes - side effects - temp, instability, rash, bronze discolouration EXCHANGE TRANSFUSION - if bilirubin levels are too high to be treated with phototherapy
155
what are some risks for neonatal hypoglycaemia
preterm infants - lack of glycogen stores IUGR infants - lack of glycogen stores babies born to diabetic mothers - have hyperinsulinaemia in response to maternal hyperglycaemia large for dates polycythaemia unwell for any reason
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how does neonatal hypoglycaemia present
jitteriness irratibility apnoea lethargy drowsiness seizures
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what precautions need to be taken in babies at risk of neonatal hypoglycaemia
regular blood glucose monitoring at bedside prevent by early and frequent milk feeding if needs treating - IVI dextrose via central venous catheter
158
what is the role of growth chart in paeds
assess whether a childs overall height is abnormal - below 2nd or above 98th centile ass whether a child is failing to grow to their potential - drop below centile line assess whether a child i losing or gaining weight to quickly - could be a sign of pathology
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how is mid-parental height calculated
for boys ((Dad + mum height in cm)/2)+7 for girls ((Dad + mum height in cm)/2)-7
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what is the first sign of puberty in gilrs
breast development (thelarche) usually occurs between 8.5-12.5 years menarche occurs on average 2.5 years after the start of puberty
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what is the first sign of puberty in males
testicular enlargement >4ml in volume (measured using a Prader Orchidometer) usually occurs between 10-14 years of age
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what are the normal ages of onset of puberty for girls and boys
girls - between 8-12 boys - between 9-13
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what is considered early puberty in boys and girls - which are you more worried about
early in girls <8y/o early in boys <9y/o more worried about early puberty in boys - most commonly a brain tumour (pituitary adenoma) in girls, early puberty more common
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what is considered late puberty in boys and girls - which is more worrying
girls >13 y/o boys >14y/o more worrying in gilrs - can be sign of abnormal karyotype such as Turner's or primary ovarian failure
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what is the definition of short stature
height below the 2nd centile
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what are the causes of short stature
familial - parental shortness, fall in mid-parental range height IUGR and extreme prematurity constitutional delay of growth and pubery endocrine - GH deficiency, steroid excess (Cushing's), hypothyroidism syndromes - Turner, Noonan, Downs Chronic illness and failure to thrive psychosocial deprivation skeletal dysplasias - disproportionate limb and back length
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how do you investigate a child with short stature
serial measurements on growth chart calculate mid-parental height bone age scan - wrist X-ray FBC and U&E pituitary function test (GH) dexamethasone suppression test (Cushing's) TFT karyotype coeliac antibodies (endomysial and ant-TTG)
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what is the definiton of tall stature
height above the 98th centile
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what are some causes of Tall stature
familial obesity syndrome - Marfan's hyperthyroidism precocious puberty congenital adrenal hyperplasia excess GH secretion - true gigantism (then after puberty => acromegaly)
170
what are some causes of precocious puberty in females
breast development before 8 y/o usually idiopathic/familial can occasionally be late presenting CAH
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what are some causes of precocious puberty in males
secondary sexual characteristics before 9 y/o uncommon usually brain tumour CAH gonadal tumour
172
how could you investigate precocious puberty
full history + ages parents hit puberty USS of uterus and ovaries boys - MRI brain
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how do you treat precocious puberty
boys - treat cause girls - if they okay, leave them. if not GnRH analogues to stop puberty progression until ready
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what are some causes of delayed puberty in females
absence of pubertal development by 14 years constituional delay (mum and sisters also did) systemic disease - Crohn's, organ failure, CF hypothalamic causes - stress, anorexia, excessive athletic training
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what is the most common cause of delayed puberty in boys
absence of pubertal development by 15 y/o usually familial/constituional - may give testosterone if really bugging them may be due to chronic disease - Crohn's Cf, Coeliac
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how to treat delatyed puberty
identify and treat underlying pathology reassure testosterone for boys oestradiol for girls
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what is the role of anti-mullerian hormone
produced by the sex-determining region of the Y chromosome Role = prevent mullerian duct from persisting and instead encourage development of Wolffian ducts - stops fetus from being females and instead makes them male
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what is congenital adrenal hyperplasia
a condition where there is reduced production of cortisol (+/- aldosterone) most commonly due to 21 hydroxylase deficiency the cortisol and aldosterone pre-cursors are instead converted into testosterone (which in gilrs causes virillisation of the external genitalia) the reduced amount of circulating cortisol triggers a negative feedback response causing more ACTH to be released from the anterior pituitary this then stimulates the adrenal gland to grow - hence hyperplasia
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what mode of inheritanve os CAH
autosomal recessive
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what is a large risk factor for CAH
consanguinous parents
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how does CAH present
femal babies - ambiguous genitalia (clitoral engorgement, fusion of labia) male babies - salt losers - slat-losing adrenal crisis - vomiting, weight loss, floppiness, circulatory collapse non salt-losing male babies - precocious puberty, tall stature, large muscles females may also have preociouc puberty (if they have not already present with ambiguous genitalia)
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what would the biochemical abnormalities be in a salt-losing CAH baby
low plasma sodium high plasma potassium metabolic acidosis hypoglycaemia
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how do you treat a baby in a CAH salt-losing crisis
IV saline IV dextrose IV hydrocortisone
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how is CAH treated
affected females - corrective surgery for external genitalia internal genitalia not corrected until puberty/sexually active as they will need to use vaginal dilators to keeps passage patent medical treatment - lifelong hydrocortisone (glucocorticoid) and in salt-losers lifelong fludrocortisone (mineralcorticoid) NaCl may also need added before weaning sick day adjustment of cortisol
185
what investigations need to be done in babies born with ambiguous genitalia
determine karyotype adrenal and sex hormone levels USS of internal structure and gonads
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difference between glucocorticoid and mineralcorticoid
glucocorticoid = cortisol, control glucose mineralocorticoid = aldosterone, controls salt, which is a mineral
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what are the advantages of breastfeeding
has the optimum macronutrients needed for baby contains maternal ABs to protect against infection free helps mum lose the baby weight 'breast feeding contraception' helps maternal and baby bonding reduced the risk of NEC in preterm infants can help reduce the risk of post-menopausal breast cancers
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what are the disadvantages of breast feeding
mum has to do all feeds unless shes expressed milk unknown intake so hard to quantify baby feeding amount breast milk jaundice transmission of drugs/infections from mum to baby can be painful for mum can be upsetting if baby doesn't want to feed insufficient vitamin D and K in breast milk - introduce solids at 6 months (for vit D) and Vit K - injection at birth
189
define failure to thrive
failure to gain adequate weight or achieve adequate growth at a normal rate for age OR suboptimal weight gain in infants and toddlers can also be weight/growth faltering serial measurements on growth charts is needed for the diagnosis to be made
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how can mild and severe failure to thrive be quantified/classified
mild - fall across 2 centiles lines on growth chart severe = fall across 3
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how can you differentiate a child who is constitutionally small from a child who is failing to thrive
consider overall clinical picture - normal child will have: - no symptoms - happy, alert, responsive, normal milestones - parents also short - may have been extremely premature
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what are some non-organic causes of failure to thrive
MOST CHILDREN failing to thrive will be due to non-organic causes any form of socioeconomic deprivation maternal factors - depression, poor understanding of baby's needs poor housing poverty inadequate social support/lack of extended family neglect/abuse inadequate calorie intake (under-nutrition)
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what are some organic causes of failure to thrive
impaired suck/swallow - inadequate intake - cleft palate, neuro-motor dysfunction, CP cardiac disease - breathlessness during feeding malabsorption - Coeliac, CF, food intolerance, short gut syndrome chronic illness - renal, liver, cardiac disease excessive calorie loss - vomiting, protein enteropathy increased caloried requirement - malignancy, throtoxicosis, CF chromosomal abnormalities - Down's
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how would you manage a child who is failing to thrive
full history - social factor focus Examine - heart murmur, abdo distension, cough bloods - FBC, U&E, CRP/ESRm, Coeliac screen, TFT CXR and swab - CF
195
how do you approach treating failure to thrive
increase parental support paediatric dietician SALT specialist for paediatric problem (CF - resp) social services nursery placement hospital admission organic - identify and treat cause
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what is the most common surgical cause of acute abdo pain
appendicitis uncommon under the age of 3
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what is the most common cause of intestinal obstruction in neonatal period
intussusception between 2 months-2 years usually at ileocaecal valve
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what are the causes of acute abdo pain in children
acute appendicitis non-specific and mesenteric adenitis intussusception Meckel's malrotation Medical cause - Lower lobe pneumonia, DKA, hepatitis, pyelonephritis Boys - testicular torsion or strangulated hernia
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what are the symptosm of acute appendicitis
abdo pain - intially central colicky and then localise to RIF anorexia vomiting (normally only a few times)
200
what are the signs of acute appendicitis
flushed face with bad breath low grade fever abdo pain aggravted by movement persistent tenderness with guarding at RIF (McBurney's) Rebound tenderness Rosving's signs - LIF pressure = RIF pain
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what is the clinical presentation of non-specific abdominal pain and mesenteric adenitis
non specific abdo pain = pain resolves in 24-48 hours pain less severe than appendicitis tenderness (and position) variable often accompanied by URTI and cervical lymphadenopathy
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what is the clinical presentation of intussusception
paroxsymal, severe, colicky pain child become pale and draws up legs during pain sausage shaped mass on abdo palpation inconsolable crying passage of RED CURRANT JELLY STOOLS abdo distension shock vomiting
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what is the clinical presentation of Meckel's diverticulum
severe rectal bleeding - neither bright red or true melena can present as intussusception can present as volvulus (bowel obsturction) can present as diverticulitits which mimics appendicitis
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how does malrotation present
usually presents in first 1-3 days of life with intestinal obstruction may present at any age with volvulus causing obsruction and ischaemic bowel clinical features: - bile or blood stained vomit - abdo pain - tenderness - from peritonitis or ischaemic bowel often associated with exopthalmous and congenital diaphragmatic hernia
205
what is the gold standard diagnosis for appendicitis
CT abdo
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how is a deifinitive diagnosis of mesenteric adenitis made
laparotomy or laparoscopy showing normal appendix and large mesenteric lymph nodes
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what is the gold standard diagnosis for intussusception
USS - target sign others - AXR - distended small bowel and no gas distally
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how would you investigate suspected malrotation
urgent upper GI contrast study need to do whenever there is blood or bile stain vomiting
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how do you treat appendicitis
appendicetomy
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how do you treat NSAP and mesenteric adenitis
leave alone in some - appendicetomy may be done is symptoms persist and mesenteric adenitis can be definitley diagnosed
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how do you treat intussusception
aggressive fluid resus reduction via air enema - USS guidance laparotomy if above does not work
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how do you treat Meckel's diverticulum
fluid resus surgical resection
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how do you treat malrotation
urgent surgical correction
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how do you define recurrent abdo pain
recurrent pain, sufficient to interrupt normal activities lasting for at least 3 months
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what are the causes of recurrent abdo pain in paediatrics
GI - IBS, constipation, non-ulcer dyspepsia, abdo migraine, gastritis, PUD, IBD, malrotation, coeliacs gynae - dysmenorrhoea, ovarian cysts, PID, pregnancy liver - hepatitis pancreatitis UTI psychological - bullying, abuse, stress
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what is the clinical presentation of IBS
change of bowel habit sensation of intra-abdo events (bloating) pain - often worse before and relieved by defecation mucousy stools bloating feeling incomplete defecation constipation/diarrhoea/mixed
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how does non-ulcer dyspepsia present
epigastric pain postprandial vomiting belching bloating early satiety heartburn
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what are the symptoms of abdominal migraine
(classic cranial migraines associated with abdo pain along with headaches) pain is: - midline - paroxysmal - associated with facial pallor family history of migraine
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what are some worrying sign/symptoms that may occur alongside recurrent abdo pain that may indicate organic disease
epigastric pain at night - haematemesis - duodenal ulcer diarrhoea, weight loss, growth failure, blood in stools - IBD vomiting - pancreatitis dysuria, secondary enuresis - UTI Vomiting and abdo distension - malrotation
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How should recurrent abdominal pain be investigated?
Guided by clinical features Essential to do urine MC&S as UTI can cause abdo pain Endoscopy if dyspeptic symptoms Colonoscopy if any rectal bleeding or lower abdominal symptoms IBS – diagnosis of exclusion
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How is IBS treated
Can talk to a dietician about possible exclusion diets to see if any particular food aggrevates symptoms Manage stress Antispasmodics (for the pain) – i.e. mebeverine Anti-diarrhoea – loperamide Laxatives if they are suffering constipation
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How is non-ulcer dyspepsia treated?
If H. pylori - needs eradicating with triple therapy
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How is abdominal migraine treated?
Pizotifen – a serotonin receptor antagonist Used as prophylaxis in children with frequent, severe symptoms
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What is the definition of posseting?
Non-forceful return of small amounts of milk Usually accompanied by wind Occurs normally in nearly all babies
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What is regurgitation?
Non-forceful return of milk Larger, more frequent losses than possetting Usually indicates gastro-oesophageal reflux
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what is the definition of vomiting
Forceful ejection of gastric contents
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What are the causes of vomiting in infants?
Reflux (very common) Feeding problems Infection (gastroenteritis, whooping cought, UTI, meningitis) Dietary protein intolerances Intestinal obstruction (pyloric stenosis, atresia, Hirshprung’s, malrotation, intussusception etc.) Inborn errors of metabolism CAH Renal failure
228
What are the causes of vomiting in pre-school children?
Gastroenteritis Other infections (kidneys, septicaemia, meningitis) Appendicitis Intestinal obstruction (intussusception, maloration, volvulus, adhesions) Raised ICP Coeliac disease Renal failure Inborn errors of metabolism Torsion of testis
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What are the causes of vomiting in school age children/adolescents?
Gastroenteritis Other infection – kidneys, septicaemia, meningitis Peptic ulcers Appendicitis Migraine Raised ICP Coeliac DKA Alcohol/drugs Cyclical vomiting syndrome Bulimia Pregnancy Testicular torsion
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What are some diagnostic clues in the vomiting infant?
Bile stained – exclude intestinal obstruction Blood in the vomit – oesophagitis, peptic ulcer, oral/nasal bleeding, malrotation Projectile vomiting in the first few weeks of life – exclude pyloric stenosis Associated symptoms – CNS, GI, UT infections Vomiting after paroxysmal cough – whooping cough (Pertussis) Dehydration or shock – could be an obstruction – 3rd spacing 🡪 shock Abdominal distention – exclude lower intestinal obstruction and strangulated inguinal hernia
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How do you manage a vomiting infant?
VITAL SIGNS ASSESS FOR DEHYDRATION AND SHOCK Rehydrate and support Find and treat underlying cause
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Reflux is common in infants, but can progress to GORD. What features are associated to class it as a disease?
Faltering growth/failure to thrive Oesophagtis +/- stricture Apnoea Aspiratation, wheezing, hoarseness – often comes as referrals from respiratory IDA Seizure like events/opsthotonos (acid causes arching of the back to adjust position)
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What is the gold standard diagnosis for GORD?
pH study
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What other investigations might you do for GORD?
Barium swallow and meal Endoscopy PPI trial
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How to manage a baby with GORD?
Position of their feeds - on their left, hold them upright Thicken feeds - gaviscon Drugs - antacid, H2 blocker (ranitidine), PPI Surgery – fundoplication
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What is the definition of diarrhoea?
Change in the consistency of stools (loose/liquid) And/or increase in the frequency of passing stools Acute – less than 2 weeks
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What are some causes of acute diarrhoea?
Viruses – rotavirus, norovisu, enterovirus, many more Bacteria – C.diff, E.coli, salmonella Parasites – giardia Other infections – otitis media, tonsillitis Food allergies and other diseases
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What is hypernatraemia dehydration?
Complication of diarrhoea Happens because the water loss exceeds the sodium loss Difficult to detect – blood test shows serum sodium > 145 Unusual and serious Irritable with doughy skin Water shifts from intracellular to extracellular Rehydration should be slow
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What are the features of hypernatraemic dehydration?
Jittery movements Increased muscle tone Hyperreflexia Convulsions Drowsiness/coma Doughy skin Irritable
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How do you investigate a child with diarrhoea?
Firstly – ASSESS FOR DEHYDRATION – cap refill, pinch test, sunken eyes, mucous membranes Look for an underlying cause
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How do you manage a child with acute diarrhoea?
Encourage normal diet Assess and treat dehydration – either oral or IV/NG if severe Supportive therapy Treat underlying cause if possible – antibiotics, probiotics
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What is the most common GI related food allergy?
Cow’s milk protein allergy This is NON IgE mediated
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How does cow’s milk protein allergy present?
Loose stool Vomiting Failure to thrive Reflux Mouth ulcers Atopic history (eczema, asthma, hayfever) Bloody stools Constipation Very rarely – anaphylaxis
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How does lactose intolerance present?
Explosive watery stools Abdominal distention Flatulence Audible bowel sounds
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How is cow’s milk protein allergy diagnosed?
Elimination damage
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How is cow’s milk protein allergy treated?
Change feeds – hydrolysed or powdered milk feeds Hope that the child will “grow out of it” eventually
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What are the main causes of malabsorption?
Small intestine disease – coeliac Exocrine pancreatic dysfunction – i.e. in CF (absence of lipase, proteases and amylase lead to defective digestion) Cholestatic liver disease/biliary atresia – malabsorption of fat due to lack of bile salts Short bowel syndrome – resection due to congenital abnormalities/NEC. Nutrient, water and electrolyte malabsorption Loss of terminal ileum function – resection, Crohn’s. absent bile acid and vitamin B12 absorption
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How does malabsorption present?
Abnormal stools – difficult to flush, extremely offensive odour Failure to thrive/poor growth Specific nutrient deficiencies e.g. iron deficiency anaemia, B12 deficiency
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What is the classic coeliac disease history?
Present in the first few years of life after introduction of gluten in cereals Generally irritable Abnormal stools (smelly, diarrhoea, floating) Abdominal distention Buttock wasting Failure to thrive/poor growth
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What investigations do you do for coeliac disease?
Antibodies – endomysial antibodies and tissue transglutaminase antibodies Gold standard diagnosis – intestinal (jejunal) biopsy showing villous atrophy and crypt hyperplasia
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How is coeliac disease treated?
Lifelong gluten free diet
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Define constipation and encopresis
Constipation = painful passage of hard, infrequent stools Encopresis = involuntary soiling
253
What causes constipation in young children?
Child may avoid defecating due to pain (i.e. they have a transient superficial anal fissue) Occasionally follows – forceful potty training, use of uncomfortable toilets (on holiday/at school) or psychological family stress
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How does constipation cause soiling?
Child avoids toileting due to pain Prolonged faecal status = resorption of fluids = increase in size and constistency Can lead to stretching of the rectum (stools withheld for a long time due to not wanting to defecate) This leads to reduced sensation Which can lead to overflow and soiling
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What are some red flags to be aware of in a constipated child?
Delayed passage of meconium – Hirshprung’s, CF Fever, vomiting, bloody diarrhoea Failure to thrive Tight empty rectum and palpable abdo mass – Hirshprung’s Ejection of stools on PR – Hirshprung’s Abnormal neuro examination – abdo exam in children should include SPINAL EXAMINATION due to close proximity of the rectum
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What are the long term complications of constipation?
Acquired megacolon Anal fissues Overflow incontinence (soiling) Behavioural problems
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What are some differential diagnoses for constipation in children?
Hirschsprung’s Anorectal malformations Spina bifida Neuromuscular disease Hypothyroidism Hypercalcaemia Coeliac Food allergy/intolerance CF Sexual abuse Poor diet
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What investigations need to be done for constipation?
Clinical diagnosis Abdo exam – hard stools palpable Further Ix only if organic cause suspected
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How is constipation treated?
Diet, fluids, exercise Toilet training – sit after breakfast/lunch/dinner Star charts – simple reward scheme Medications Softener – lactulose Movicol Stimulant – senna, dulcolax Bulking agent – fybogel
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What are the pathological features of Crohn’s disease?
Affects the mouth to anus Transmural inflammation Discontinuous with skip lesions GRANULOMATOUS Rectal sparing Fissures, fistulae, abscesses and strictures Perianal disease
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What causes Crohn’s disease?
Unknown
262
How does Crohn’s disease present in paediatrics?
FAILURE TO THRIVE – poor growth, delayed puberty Abdominal pain Diarrhoea Rectal bleeding Tiredness/malaise Extra GI symptoms – fever, arthritis, uveitis Can present identical to anorexia nervosa – important to think about this
263
What is the main differential diagnosis for Crohn’s?
Ulcerative colitis
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How is Crohn’s investigated?
Clinical examination Endoscopy Histology – look for granulomas Biochemistry – inflammatory markers
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How is Crohn’s treated in paeds?
Exclusive enteral nutrition – feed them loads of milk for 7-8 weeks and they get better Corticosteroids – prednisolone, budenoside Aminosalicylates – sulfasalazine, mesalazine Antibiotics Immunomodulators – MTX, azathioprine, 6-mecaptopurine Biologics – infliximab, adalimumab Surgery
266
What are the pathological features of UC?
Affects ONLY the colon And ONLY the mucosa No granulomas No skip lesions – the whole colon is affected Ulcers Increased risk of adenocarcinoma in adulthood
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How does ulcerative colitis present in paeds?
Failure to thrive/weight loss Rectal bleeding Diarrhoea Colicky pain Extra GI – mouth ulcers, arthritis, erythema nodosum, spondylitis
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What are some differential diagnoses for UC?
Crohn’s disease Infective causes of colitis e.g. C. Diff
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How is UC diagnosed?
Colonoscopy – friable membranes (bleeding), visible ulcers
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How to treat ulcerative colitis?
Mild attacks – topical steroids when confined to rectum/sigmoid colon, sulfasalazine for more extensive disease Severe disease –systemic steroids 1/3 patients – colectomy (curative)
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What is the first step of asthma management?
Very low dose inhaled corticosteroid Plus salbutamol PRN
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What are the Fraser guidelines?
Used to assess if a patient who has not yet reached age is competent to consent to treatment. Criteria: Understands the professional’s advice Cannot be persuaded to inform their parents Likely to begin or continue sexual intercourse without contraception Physical and mental health will suffer if they don’t get the contraceptive treatment The young person’s best interests require them to receive contraceptive treatment with or without parental consent
273
What is the main risk factor for neonatal respiratory distress syndrome?
Prematurity
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What is the main risk factor for transient tachypnoea of the newborn?
Caesarean section
275
What are the features of a severe asthma attack?
SpO2 < 92% PEF 33-50% Too breathless to talk or feed Heart rate - >125 (>5 years), >140 (1-5 years) Resp. rate > 30/min (> 5 years), > 40 (1-5 years) Use of accessory neck muscles
276
What are the criteria for a life threatening asthma attack?
SpO2 < 92% PEF < 33% Silent chest Poor respiratory effort Agitation Altered consciousness Cyanosis
277
What causes measles?
Infection with the measles virus Droplet infection is the method of transmission Highly contagious
278
What is the main risk factor for contracting measles?
Avoidance of the MMR vaccination
279
What are the symptoms of measles?`
PRODROMAL SYMPTOMS - CCCK: Cough Coryza (runny nose/cold like symptoms) Conjunctivitis Koplick spots (white spots on the buccal mucosa – pathognomonic) RASH – maculopapular, spreads downwards from behind the ears to the whole of the body Fever Marked malaise
280
What are some complications of measles?
Respiratory – pneumonia, otitis media, tracheitis Neurological – febrile convulsions, encephalitis Diarrhoea Hepatitis Corneal ulceratoin Appendicits Myocarditis
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How is measles diagnosed?
Clinical diagnosis Can confirm with serological testing of blood or saliva
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How is measles treated?
VIRAL ILLNESS so supportive treatment only (symptomatic, fluids If needed, isolate if in hospital) Antivirals in immune compromised School exclusion for 5 days from onset of rash Best treatment – preventative vaccine
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What are the risk factors for developing mumps?
Unvaccinated children
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What are the clinical features of mumps?
Fever Malaise Parotitis (swollen parotid gland) May complain of pain eating and drinking May complain of earache Hearing loss can occur – usually unilateral and transient
285
What are some complications of mumps?
Viral meningitis and encephalitis Orchitis – reduced sperm count in males Oophoritis Mastitis Arthritis
286
How is measles diagnosed and managed?
Clinical diagnosis Management – symptomatic (viral illness) School exclusion for 7 days from onset of parotitis
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What time of year do you expect to see rubella virus?
Winter and spring months (could be a hint in questions)
288
Describe the rash seen in Rubella
Maculopapular rash starting on the face and spreading across the entire body NOT itchy in children (but is in adults)
289
Rubella is a diagnosis made clinically. In which situation would you need to perform serological testing to confirm your diagnosis?
When there is a risk of exposure to non-immune pregnant lady Congenital Rubella – cataracts and sensorineural deafness
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How is rubella treated?
No effective anti-viral treatment Usually resolves in 3-5 days Prevention lies in immunisation
291
How are the human herpes viruses transmitted?
Through mucous membranes of skin Kissing Genital contact Vertical transmission at birth
292
How do herpes simplex viruses present?
Gingiostomatitis – sores on the lips, gums, tongue and hard palate – can lead to ulceration and bleeding, common reason why child may refuse to eat or drink Cold sores Herpetic whitlows – in thumb suckers Conjunctivitis and inflammation of the eyelids CNS infection – aseptic meningitis (self-resolving), encephalitis
293
How is herpes simplex diagnosed and treated?
Clinical diagnosis Acyclovir Give during pregnancy especially to stop transmission to baby
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Which infecting organism causes chickenpox and what other infection may it cause?
Varicella zoster virus (human herpes virus 3) May also cause shingles virus later in life – reactivation and then a rash appears in a dermatomal distribution
295
How is chickenpox spread?
Droplet infection via the respiratory route Highly infectious – contagious from 2 days before the rash appears and until it disappears
296
Describe the rash seen in chickenpox?
Vesicular rash Very itchy Starts on the head and trunk and progresses to the peripheries
297
What is the typical prodrome of chickenpox?
High fever – 38-39*C Usually stops when the rash appears
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What are some complications of chickenpox in the immunocompromised?
Haemorrhagic lesions Pneumonitis Progressive and widespread infection DIC
299
How is chickenpox managed?
Camomile lotion to stop the itching Keep away from high risk individuals – i.e. don’t put them anywhere near a clinical area in which there are immune suppressed patients
300
How do you protect immune compromised individuals who have been exposed to chickenpox?
Human varicella zoster immunoglobulin (HVZIG) (bone marrow transplant patients, congenital or aquired immune deficiency, steroids, neonates)
301
What are the clinical features of glandular fever and which organism causes it?
Fever Malaise and extreme lethargy Tonsillopharyngitis Prominent cervical lymphadenopathy Petechiae on soft palate Splenomegaly Hepatomegaly Maculopapular rash Jaundice Caused by Epstein Barr virus
302
What investigations can be done for EBV?
Positive monospot test Seroconversion – IgG to Epstein-Barr virus antigens Treatment = symptomatic
303
What childhood rash is caused by HHV6?
Roseola infantum Generalised macular rash which appears after the prodromal fever wanes Common cause of febrile convulsions
304
What is the presentation of “slapped cheek syndrome” and which infecting organism causes it?
Most common during spring Fever, malaise, headache, myalgia – prodromal Characteristic cheek rash – looks like they have been slapped on the cheeks Progresses to maculopapular rash on the trunk and limbs Caused by parvovirus b19
305
What is the pathology of parvovirus B19 and which group of children is this dangerous for?
Infects the red cell precursors in the bone marrow Can lead to aplastic crisis in children with chronic haemolytic anaemias (sickle cell, thalassaemia) and immunocompromised children
306
What infection is caused by coxsackie virus?
Hand, foot and mouth disease
307
What are the symptoms of hand, foot and mouth disease?
Painful vesicular lesions on the hands and feet Painful ulcers in the mouth and on the tongue Systemic features are mild Subsides in a few days
308
Which ways can staph aureus cause disease?
Direct effect – abscess, cellulitis, oesteomyeltitis, impetigo, septic arthritis, septicaemia Toxin-mediated (indirect) – TSS, food poisoning Toxin-mediated (direct) – scalded skin syndrome
309
Which infecting organism causes scarlet fever?
Strep. Pyogenes (group A beta haemolytic strep) Same bacteria that causes strep throat
310
What does impetigo look like, what causes it and how is it treated?
Honey coloured crusted lesions, often on the face Staph aureus or group A strep (pyogenes) Treatment – fucidic acid (topical treatment) or erythromycin
311
Which bacterium causes boils?
Staph aureus
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How are pneumococcal infections spread?
Droplet infection Strep. Pneumoniae can be carried asymptomatically in the nasopharynx of health children – only spread and cause disease when they cough or sneeze
313
What diseases are caused by strep. Pneumoniae?
Pharyngitis Otitis meida Conjunctivitis Invasive disease – pneumonia, sepsis, meningitis
314
Which bacterium is responsible for toxic shock syndrome and how does it present?
Toxin producing staph and strep High fever Diffuse macular rash Hypotension Shock Other symptoms – muscle pain, vomiting, headache, altered consciousness, desquamation of the hands and feet
315
How is toxic shock syndrome managed?
ICU to manage shock Surgical debridement of infected areas IVIG – neutralises circulating toxin
316
What are the symptoms, cause and treatment of scalded skin syndrome?
Fever malaise Purulent, crusting, localised infection (around eyes, nose and mouth) Widespread erythema and tenderness of the skin Cause – staphyloccocus aureus toxin Treatment – IV fluclox, monitor fluid balance, analgesia
317
What are the symptoms, cause and treatment of necrotising fasciitis?
Large visible necrotic areas of skin – affecting all the layers of the skin and fascia Usually staph or group A strep (pyogenes) Treatment – IV abx PLUS surgical debridement
318
Which age group and racial group are susceptible to Kawasaki’s disease?
6 months to 5 years More common in japanese and Afro-Caribbean infants
319
What causes Kawasaki’s disease?
Unknown Thought to be related to bacterial toxins
320
What are the diagnostic criteria for Kawasaki’s disease?
Fever for > 5 days Plus 4/5 of the following: Cervical lymphadenopathy Bilateral conjunctival injection Changes to the hands and feet – peeling of the skin on the hands and feet/palmar and plantar erythema A rash Changes the mouth or throat – dry, cracked lips/red swollen tongue
321
What is the most serious complication of Kawasaki disease and therefore the most important investigation?
Coronary artery aneursysms Need to perform a echocardiogram (the diagnosis is otherwise clinical so no other investigations need to be performed)
322
How is Kawasaki’s disease treated?
IVIG Aspirin
323
Kawasaki’s is one of the only indications for aspirin in children. Why is it normally contraindicated in children?
Due to the risk of Reye’s syndrome (causes swelling of the liver and brain)
324
What is the most common cause of septic shock in children?
Meningococcal infection (Neisseria meningitidis) Which may or may not be accompanied by meningitis !!
325
What is the most common cause of septicaemia in neonates?
Group B streptoccous Or gram negative organisms acquired from the birth canal
326
What are some risk factors for septicaemia?
Sickle cell disease Immunodeficiency
327
What are the symptoms of septicaemia?
Fever Poor feeding Miserable/irritable Lethargy/drowsiness History of focal infection – meningitis, osteomyelitis, gastroenteritis, cellulitis
328
What are the signs of septicaemia?
Fever Purpuric non-blanching rash (meningococcal septicaemia specifically) Irritability Signs of shock Cold peripheries Reduced cap refil Pale Hypotension Tachycardia Oliguria
329
What investigations would you do in a child you in which are worried about sepsis?
SEPTIC SCREEN: FBC, U&E Blood cultures Urine sample – MC&S CSF sample Chest XR Acute phase reactant e.g. CRP
330
How do you treat septicaemia?
Aggressive fluid resuscitation Potential transfer to intensive care Start broad spectrum antibiotics before cultures come back
331
What are the non-infective causes of meningitis?
Sterile meningitis can be caused by: Malignancy Autoimmune diseases
332
What are the bacterial causes of meningitis?
Neonates - GBS, E.coli, listeria monocytogenes 1 months – 6 years – meningococcus, pneumonoccus, haemophilus influenzae >6 years – meningococcus and pneumococcus Rarely - TB
333
What are the viral causes of meningitis?
Enteroviruses EBV Adenoviruses Mumps
334
What are the symptoms of meningitis?
Fever Headache Photophobia Lethargy Poor feeding/vomiting Irritability Hypotonia (the baby or child will be floppy) Drowsiness Loss of consciousness Seizures
335
What are the signs of meningitis?
Fever Purpuric non-blanching rash (if meningococcal sepsis) Neck stiffness Positive Brudzinki’s sign – flexion of the neck causes flexion of the knees Positive Kernig’s sign – back pain on extension of the knee Bulging fontanelle Opisthotonos
336
What investigations would you do if you suspected meningitis?
FBC and white cell Blood glucose and gas CRP U&E LFTs Cutures - blood, throat swab Lumbar puncture (unless contraindicated) Consider CT/MRI brain
337
What are the contraindications for LP?
Signs of raised ICP Focal neurological signs Bleeding problems Local infection at site of LP Cardiorespiratory instability If it will unduly delay the starting of antibiotics
338
What are some complications of meningitis?
Hearing loss Long term neurological impairment Hydrocephalus Cerebral abscess Encephalitis
339
What CSF changes would you expect to see in bacterial meningitis?
Cloudy colour Raised polymorphs (neutrophils, eosionophils, basophils) Raised protein Decreased glucose
340
What CSF changes would you expect to see in viral meningitis?
Clear colour CSF Raised lymphocytes Normal protein Normal glucose
341
How is meningitis treated?
Immediate IV antibiotic treatment – cefotaxime or ceftriaxone Supportive therapy (IV fluids, pain relief)
342
Which strains of meningitis are vaccinated against?
Meningitis B – 8 weeks, 16 weeks, 1 year Meningitis C – 1 year ACWY – offered to teenagers/first year university students
343
Which antibiotic should be given as meningitis prophylaxis for close/household contacts?
Rifampicin
344
What is encephalitis?
Inflammation of the brain parenchyma Can be difficult to differentiate from meningitis clinically at first
345
What are the most common causes of encephalitis in the UK?
Enteroviruses Respiratory viruses Herpes viruses
346
What is the clinical presentation for encephalitis?
Fever Headache Photophobia Neck stiffness (same clinical presentation as meningitis) Can also feature behavioural change
347
How do you investigate encephalitis?
FBC U&E Lumbar puncture Blood cultures
348
How do you treat encephalitis?
Antibiotic cover in the event it could be bacterial meningitis Acyclovir - to cover HSV possibility
349
How do you investigate and treat tuberculosis?
Mantoux test Quadruple therapy – RIPE Rifampicin Isoniazid Pyrazinamide Ethambutol 6 months of R + I, 2 months of P + E (6, 6, 2, 2)
350
What is the main reason for children having HIV?
Vertical transmission from an HIV infected mother
351
How does HIV present in children?
Symptoms of immunosuppression: Recurrent bacterial infections Candidiasis Opportunistic infections e.g. Pneumocystis jiroveci Severe failure to thrive Malignancy Any usual collections of infections should make you think of immune deficiency
352
How is HIV tested for in children?
HIV DNA CPR blood test
353
How do you reduce vertical transmission of HIV?
Avoid breast feeding Use of antenatal, perinatal and post-nastal antiretroviral to suppress viral replication Avoidance of labour and contact with the birth canal – planned C-section
354
How do vaccines work?
Induce T and B cell (antibody) immunity for organisms/toxins Induce immunological memory – so if you come into contact with the organism again, you can fight it due to the presence of memory immunity Herd immunity - important as well as individual protection as it protects those who haven’t been immunised
355
What is the difference between active and passive immunity?
Active immunity – give them part of the pathogen Passive immunity – give them antibodies to the pathogen instead
356
Which vaccines are live attenuated?
MMR BCG Nasal flu Rotavirus Chickenpox
357
Which vaccines are routinely given?
Tetanus Diphtheria Whooping cough Polio Measles Mumps Rubella Hib (Haemophilus influenza B) Men C Prevnar 13 (pneumococcal – strep pneumoniae) Rotavirus Meningitis B
358
Which vaccines can be given additionally?
Pneumococcus Meningococcus ACWY Varicella TB Hepatitis Influenza HPV
359
Which vaccines are given at 2 months?
Tetanus Diptheria Pertussis Polio HiB Prev 13 Men B
360
Which vaccines are given at 3 months?
Tetanus Diptheria Pertussis Polio Hib Men C
361
Which vaccines are given at 4 months?
Tetanus Diptheria Pertussis Polio Hib Prevnar 13 (pneumococcal) Men B (same as at 2 months – boosters of all of these)
362
Which vaccines are given at 1 year?
Hib Prev 13 Men B Men C MMR
363
Which vaccines are given at 3-4 years?
Tetanus Dip Pertussis Polio Flu
364
Which vaccines are given at 13 years?
Tetanus booster Men ACWY HPV (girls only) Flu (some)
365
What is the definition of an allergy?
A hypersensitive reaction initiated by specific immunoglobulins Can be IgE mediated – i.e. peanut allergy Or non-IgE mediated – i.e. coeliac disease
366
What is the definition of hypersensitivity?
Objectively reproduceable symptoms or signs following a defined stimulus (e.g. food, drug, venom) at a dose tolerated by a normal person
367
What is the definition of atopy?
A personal/familial tendency to produce IgE in response to ordinary exposures to allergens (results in ashtma, hayfever, conjunctivitis or eczema)
368
Define anaphylaxis
A severe, life threatening hypersensitivity reaction
369
How is anaphylaxis treated?
Stat does of adrenaline (i.e. giving through an epi pen)
370
How does allergic rhinitis present?
Coryza Conjunctivitis Postnasal drip causing cough
371
How is allergic rhinitis treated?
Antihistamines (used singly or in combination) Steroid nasal sprays Cromoglicate eye drops Leukotriene inhibitors Oral steroids Specific immunotherapy
372
What are some causes of primary immune deficiency?
Severe combined immunodeficiecny X-Linked agammaglobulinaemia (assoc. w pneumocystis jiroveci) Defects of bacterial phagocyte function Defects in leucocyte function Minor immunoglobulin abnormalities Opsonisation defects
373
What are some causes of secondary immune deficiency?
Malignancy HIV Bone marrow transplant Steroid/immune supressant drugs
374
Which type of infecting organisms would raise your suspicion about immune deficiency?
Candida PCP (pneumocystis jiroveci) Aspergillus These are all fungal infections
375
How do you investigate immune deficiency?
Full blood count White cell count Lymphocytes Blood film Neutrophils complement Immunoglobulins
376
How are immune deficiencies treated?
Antibiotic prophylaxis to prevent infection – e.g. co-trimoxazole to prevent PCP Appropriate ABx to treat infections Immunoglobulin replacement therapy for defects in antibody function or production Bone marrow transplant for severe immune deficiency Hope for the future – gene therapy (due to the genetic component of these illnesses)
377
How many respiratory infections does an average pre-school child have each year?
6-8 Mostly self limiting – ear, nose, throat (URT) Some are more dangerous – bronchiolitis, pneumonia (LRT)
378
What is the most common way a child will present with an URTI?
Nasal discharge and blockage Fever Painful throat Earache Cough may also be present and troublesome
379
What are the clinical features of the common cold (coryza) and the most common causative organisms?
Features – clear or mucopurulent nasal discharge, nasal blockage Commonest pathogens are VIRAL – rhinoviruses (hundreds of subtypes), coronaviruses, RSV
380
How is the common cold treated?
Education to parents that colds are self-limiting and have no specific curative treatment (to reduce anxiety and reduce un-necessary visits to the doctor) Paracetamol or ibuprofen – for fever and pain NO BENEFIT OF ANTIBIOTICS as it’s a viral infection and secondary bacterial infections are very uncommon
381
What are the common causes of pharyngitis (sore throat)?
Usually viral – adenoviruses, enteroviruses, rhinoviruses In older children - group A beta haemolytic strep (pyogenes) is very common Leave alone if viral Fluclox if suspect strep throat
382
What are the most common causes of tonsillitis?
Tonsillitis = inflammation of the pharyngeal tonsils Commonest organisms = group A beta-haemolytic strep and EBV Viruses are the most common cause, however it’s clinically impossible to distinguish between bacterial and viral
383
What are the symptoms more commonly associated with bacterial tonsilitis?
Headache Apathy Abdominal pain Tonsillar exudate Cervical lymphadenopathy
384
How is bacterial tonsillitis treated?
Penicillin Erythromycin if allergic Many cases treated with Abx even when only 1/3 estimated to be bacterial Amoxicillin avoided as can cause rash if due to EBV
385
What are the indications for tonsillectomy?
>7 infections of recurrent acute tonsillitis in a year Obstructive sleep apnoea/sleep disordered breathing (this is now the main reason for tonsillectomy) A peri-tonsillar abscess (quinsy)
386
What are the indications for adeno-tonsillectomy?
Otitis media with effusion with hearing loss Obstructive sleep apnoea
387
How does acute otitis media present and which age-group of children are most commonly affected by it?
Presentation: Irritable/miserable child pulling at their ear (ear pain) Fever Most common at 6-12 months of age Most children will experience it at least once
388
What will the tympanic membrane look like on examination in a child with otitis media?
Bright red Bulging appearance Loss of normal light reflection
389
Which pathogens are typically responsible for otitis media?
RSV Rhinovirus Pneumococcus (strep pneumoniae) H. influenzae Moraxella catarrhalis Strep. Pyogenes (group A beta haemolytic)
390
How is acute otitis media treated?
Ibuprofen and paracetamol for pain 80% resolve spontaneously Amoxicillin
391
What are some complications of otitis media?
Extracranial – mastoiditis, tympanic membrane perforation, glue ear Intracranial – meningitis, abscess, venous sinus thrombosis
392
What is otitis media with effusion?
Aka glue ear Recurrent OM infections leading to reducing hearing The most common cause of conductive hearing loss in children
393
What would the tympanic membrane look like in a child with glue ear?
TM appears dull and retracted Often with a visible fluid level
394
How can hearing loss due to glue ear be treated?
Most cases resolve spontaneously But can be treated with the insertion of grommets (ventilation tubes) – drains the excess fluid away from the tympanic membrane
395
How is sinusitis treated?
Infection of the paranasal sinuses Usually viral so symptomatic treatment If bacterial – antibiotics and analgesia
396
What is the most common cause of obstructive sleep apnoea in children?
Upper airway obstruction secondary to adeno-tonsillar hypertrophy
397
How does sleep disordered breathing in childhood present?
Loud snoring Apnoea for 30-45 seconds Disturbed sleep Some children may be obese, underweight, hyperactive in the day or excessively sleepy during the day
398
How would sleep disordered breathing be investigated?
Overnight sleep studies Showing intermittent hypoxia and hypercapnia
399
How is sleep disordered breathing treated?
Adeno-tonsillectomy
400
What is the definition of croup?
Inflammation of the larynx and trachea in children Associated with infection Causes breathing difficulties
401
What is the most common cause of croup?
Parainfluenza viruses
402
Which age group is affected by croup and which time of year is it seen mostly?
6 months – 6 years Most common in autumn
403
What are the clinical features of croup?
Initially – fever and coryza Barking cough – “seal like” Harsh stridor Hoarseness Symptoms often start and are worse at night
404
How is croup managed? (first line and other)
FIRST LINE = ORAL DEXAMETHASONE single dose Nebulised epinephrine for severe croup Oral prednisolone Nebulised steroids If < 12 months – low threshold for hospital admission
405
What causes acute epiglottitis?
Haemophilus influenza B (bacterial infection) Life threatening emergency
406
Why has the incidence of acute epiglottitis gone down?
Due to the introduction of HiB vaccine
407
How does acute epiglottitis present?
Very acute onset High fever in an unwell, toxic looking child Extremely painful throat – cannot speak or swallow – drooling saliva down the chin SOFT stridor Increasing respiratory difficulty Child sits immobile, upright with an OPEN MOUTH to optimise airway No/minimal cough
408
How is acute epiglottitis managed?
URGENT hospital admission DO NOT EXAMINE THE THROAT Senior anaesthetist Paediatrician ENT surgeon Intubate/emergency tracheostomy if needed Once airway is secured – blood cultures Start cefuroxime Abx for 3-5 days Rifampicin prophylaxis offered to household contacts
409
What type of infection is whooping cough and what is it caused by?
Whooping cough is caused by Bordetella Pertussis (bacterial) It’s a highly infectious form of bronchitis (inflammation of the bronchi)
410
How does whooping cough present?
Coryza for 1 week (catarrhal phase) Then paroxysmal spasmodic cough Followed by classic inspiratory whoop (paroxysmal phase) Spasms of cough often worse at night May vomit after the coughing episodes No breathing difficulty as no gas exchange happens at the bronchi. Whereas bronchiolitis will have severe breathing difficulty
411
What investigations would you do for whooping cough?
Nasal swab to detect Bordetella pertussis Marked lymphocytosis on blood film
412
How do you treat whooping cough?
Admit to hospital if suffering cyanotic attacks Erythromycin – treatment for patient and prophylaxis for families Offer vaccine to prevent getting infection again Pregnant women should be vaccinated
413
What is bronchiolitis and which age group does it affect?
Inflammation and infection of the bronchioles Most common respiratory infection of infancy OCCURS IN INFANTS UP TO 1 YEAR OLD RARE AFTER 1 YEAR
414
What causes bronchiolitis?
Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
415
What are some risk factors for getting bronchiolitis?
Premature babies Infants with congenital heart disease Infants with CF Infants with any type of immune deficiency
416
How does bronchiolitis present?
Coryzal symptoms Dry cough BREATHLESS Wheeze Feeding difficulty – associated with dyspnoea
417
What signs would you see on examination of a baby with bronchiolitis?
Tachypnoea Subcostal and intercostal recessions Hyperinflation of the chest Fine end-inspiratory crackles High-pitched wheezes Tachycardia Low O2 SATS Cyanosis/pallor
418
What investigations might you do in a child presenting with bronchiolitis?
RSV can be identified on nasopharyngeal secretions using immunofluorescence CXR – hyperinflation of the lungs due to small airways obstruction Blood gas (in severe cases) – lowered arterial oxygen and raised CO2
419
How is bronchiolitis managed?
SUPPORTIVE TREATMENT ONLY due to viral infection Humidified oxygen Fluids if needed – IV, NG Mechanical ventilation in 2% of infants admitted
420
What preventative treatment can be given for bronchiolitis, who receives it, and how often?
Palivizumab – a monoclonal antibody vaccine to RSV Given to high risk individuals – preterm, CF, congenital heart/lung disease IM injection once a month
421
What is the definition of pneumonia?
Pneumonia = infection and inflammation of the lung parenchyma Can be viral or bacterial
422
What are the most common causes of pneumonia in the newborn?
Group B streptococcus Gram negative enterococci These are caught from the mother’s genital tract
423
What are the common causes of pneumonia in infants and young children?
Bacterial – strep pnuemoniae, H. Influenzae, bordetella pertussis, chlamidya, staph aureus Viral – RSV mainly. Also rhino and other respiratory viruses
424
What are the causes of pneumonia in children over 5 years?
Strep pneumoniae Chlamidya pneumoniae Klebsiella pneumoniae Myoplasma pneumoniae Mycobacterium TB - should be considered at all ages
425
What are the most common causes of pneumonia in the immune compromised?
Pneumocystis jiroveci TB
426
What are the pathological stages of pneumonia?
Congestion Red hepatisation Grey hepatisation Resolution
427
What are the symptoms of pneumonia?
Usually preceded by URTI Fever >38.5* Difficulty breathing Cough – productive Lethargy Poor feeding Unwell Chest, neck or abdominal pain Grunting
428
What are the signs of pneumonia?
Tachypnoea Nasal flaring Chest in drawing Chest hyperinflation and wheeze – viral or mycoplasma infection End-inspiratory crackles over the affected area Possible decreased oxygen saturations
429
What investigations assist a diagnosis of pneumonia?
Chest X-Ray – dense white area if lobar pneumonia caused by strep pneumoniae Nasopharyngeal aspirate FBC, WCC etc.
430
Most cases of pneumonia are managed at home. What would be the indications for hospital admission?
O2 sats < 93% Severe tachypnoea and difficulty breathing Grunting Apnoea Not feeding Family unable to provide appropriate care
431
How is pneumonia treated?
Supportive – analgesia, O2, fluids Antibiotics - Newborns = broad spec, Older infants = oral amoxicillin or erythromycin
432
What is the definition of wheeze?
An expiratory, polyphonic breathing sound Created by air being forced through a narrow air passage
433
What are the 3 phenotypes of childhood asthma?
Transient early wheezing Non-atopic wheezing in the pre-school child (viral episodic wheeze) IgE-mediated wheezing (atopic ashtma)
434
What are some causes of wheeze in childhood?
Transient early wheezing Viral episodic wheeze Asthma Chronic aspiration of feeds CF Inhaled foreign body
435
Which types of cells are involved in atopic asthma?
Eosinophils Lymphocytes Mast cells Neutrophils
436
What is the presentation of a transient early wheezer?
Virus associated Decreased lung function from birth – small airway calibre Risk factors – maternal smoking, prematurity. NO relation to FH of asthma More common in males Usually “grow out of it” by age of 5
437
What is the presentation of a non-atopic wheezer?
Normal lung function in early life Then become episodic viral wheezers in first 10 years of life Symptoms improve during adolescence No interval symptoms – ONLY GET WHEEZY WHEN THEY HAVE A VIRUS No atopy No benefit from regular ICS Most common cause = rhinovirus (common cold)
438
How are viral episodic wheezers treated?
PRN salbutamol inhaler
439
How does atopic asthma present?
Normal lung function at birth Recurrent wheeze develops with allergic sensitisation (increased IgE in blood, positive skin prick test to common allergens) PERSISTENT symptoms – but may be worse during an infection Risk factors – family history, eczema Symptoms: Cough Wheeze Breathlessness Tight chest Diurnal variation of symptoms
440
How is asthma diagnosed?
Clinical diagnosis – consider disease pattern (i.e. symptoms only when they have a cold = episodic viral wheezer, symptoms all the time = asthma) Skin prick test for common allergens Peak flow diary Bronchodilator responsiveness – PEF will increase by 1—15% after inhaling a bronchodilator
441
What is the first line treatment for atopic asthma?
British thoracic society says that everyone with a new diagnosis of asthma should be given: A SABA (short acting B2 agonist such as salbutamol) AND a low-dose inhaled corticosteroid (such as beclametasone)
442
What is the 2nd line treatment for asthma?
In children under 5 – add a leukotrine receptor antagonist (e.g. montelukast) In children 5 or over – add a LABA (long acting beta 2 agonist – such as salmeterol)
443
How is an acute asthma attack managed?
Oxygen Nebulised or inhaled beta 2 agonist IV steroid (prednisolone or hydrocortisone) Atrovent nebuliser IV salbutamol bolus Magnesium sulphate/aminophylline/salbutamol infusion Follow this stepwise management
444
What is the best way to increase the bioavailability of inhaled corticosteroids?
Using a spacer
445
What are some possible long-term risks of using ICS?
Adrenal suppression Growth suppression Osteoporosis Diabetes Cataracts Important to ensure your patient is on the minimum possible dose to minimise the side effects
446
Why may a patient failure to respond to treatment?
ABCDE of failure to respond: A – Adherence (most common reason is they aren’t taking it properly) B – Bad disease (dose not adequate for severity of disease) C – Choice of drug/device (certain people respond differently to different treatments) D – Diagnosis may be incorrect E – Environment (there’s an obvious environmental trigger making the symptoms worse – e.g. asking about pets and parental smoking in children with asthma)
447
What is the most common cause of recurrent cough in childhood?
Asthma
448
What are some other causes of recurrent cough in childhood?
Recurrent colds Allergic rhinitis (post-nasal drip can cause a cough) Infections – pertussis, RSV, TB Reflux – aspiration can cause cough Cigarette smoking (active or passive) Suppurative lung disease (CF, bronchiectasis, ciliary dyskinesia) TB – MUST be excluded in all children with recurrent cough Habit cough
449
What are the main causes for chronic lung infection in childhood?
CF Primary ciliary dyskinesia Chronic aspiration Immunodeficiency TB
450
Which gene is involved in the pathogenesis of cystic fibrosis?
Cystic fibrosis transmembrane regulator gene (CFTR) On chromosome 7 Inherited by autosomal recessive inheritence Mutation = Delta F 508 mutation
451
How is cystic fibrosis usually picked up?
Diagnosed through the new born screening blood spot programme
452
What are the clinical features of CF in a baby?
Meconium ileus in newborn period Prolonged neonatal jaundice Recurrent chest infections Most commonly = Failure to thrive and Malabsorption, steatorrhoea (foul smelling and mucusy)
453
What are the clinical features of CF in a young child?
Chronic cough Bronchiectasis Rectal prolapse Nasal polyp Sinusitis
454
What are the clinical features of CF in an older child/adolescent?
Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA) Diabetes mellitus (often not insulin-depedent) Cirrhosis and portal hypertension Distal intestinal obstruction (DIOS – equivalent to meconium ileus) Pneumothorax or recurrent haemoptysis Sterility in males Increasing psychological problems
455
Which respiratory infections are patients with CF particularly susceptible to?
Staph aureus Haemophilus influenzae Pseudomonas aeruginosa
456
What signs would be found on a chest examination in someone with CF?
Hyperinflation of the chest due to air trapping Coarse inspiratory crepitations And/or expiratory wheeze Finger clubbing with established disease
457
What is the biggest cause of death in CF patients?
95% of patients with CF will die of respiratory failure
458
Why do patients with CF experience malabsorption?
Pancreatic exocrine insufficiency – insufficient amounts of lipase, amylase and proteases produced by the pancreas Therefore they cannot digest and absorb food adequately 🡪 failure to thrive, steatorrhoea LOW faecal elastase demonstrates pancreatic insufficiency
459
What is the diagnostic gold standard for CF?
Sweat test Excessive Na and Cl in the sweat Normal range = 1—30 mmolL CF = 60-125 mmol/L
460
Who is involved in the MDT approach to care of cystic fibrosis?
Child and parents Paediatrician GP and primary care team Respiratory paediatrician Physiotherapist Specialist nurses Genetic counsellor for the family (i.e. brothers and sisters) Dietician Teachers
461
How are the respiratory aspects of CF managed?
Chest physio 2x daily Physical exercise encouraged Continuous prophylactic oral antibiotics – usually flucloxacillin Rescue antibiotics when needed Nebulised DNase – decreases sputum viscosity to increase clearance Oxygen and CPAP may be needed long term Lung transplant
462
How is CF managed from a nutritional point of view?
HIGH CALORIE INTAKE DIET ESSENTIAL – 150% of normal Oral enteric coated pancreatic replacement therapy with all meals and snacks Overnight feeding over gastrostomy Fat-soluble vitamin supplements (A, D, E, K)
463
In the foetal heart in utero, which side is higher in pressure?
The right side has the higher pressure Blood shunts through from the RA to the LA through the foramen ovale Most blood by this mechanism bypasses the lungs
464
Why does the foramen ovale close after birth?
First breath causes pulmonary blood flow to increase This causes a decrease in RA pressure and increase in Lap Causing the flap to close
465
What are the causes of cyanotic heart
5 Ts: Tetralogy of Fallot Transposition of the great vessels Tricuspid Atresia Truncus Arteriosus Total Anomalous Pulmonary venous connection (don’t really know what this is but I’ve put it in for completion) Complete AVSD is also cyanotic
466
How do you differentiate whether the cause of cyanosis is cardiac or respiratory in origin?
Hyperoxic test (give them oxygen) If they get better 🡪 respiratory If they don’t 🡪 cardiac
467
Which is the most common cause of cyanotic congenital heart disease?
Tetralogy of Fallot
468
What are the 4 features of TOF?
Large VSD Overriding aorta Pulmonary stenosis Right ventricular hypertrophy
469
What would the appearance on CXR be of Tetralogy of Fallot?
Boot shaped heart
470
What is the cause of cyanosis in TOF?
Pulmonary hypertension Leading to an increase in RV pressure The RV blood can then flow through the VSD – causing a R🡪L shunt
471
How is ToF usually diagnosed?
Antenatally Or ID of murmur in first 2 months of life Some may present with severe cyanosis in the first few days of life
472
What is the ”classical description” of a child presenting with Tetralogy of Fallot?
Severe cyanosis Hyper-cyanotic spells (rapid increase in cyanosis, inconsolable crying, breathlessness and pallor) Squatting on exercise
473
What type of murmur is head in Tetralogy of Fallot?
Ejection systolic murmur At the left sternal edge (pulmonary region)
474
What other signs may you see on examination of someone with Tetralogy of Fallot?
Clubbing CONGENITAL HEART DISEASE IS A MAJOR CAUSE OF CLUBBING
475
How is Tetralogy of Fallot treated?
Prostaglandins infusion to keep duct open until surgery Corrective surgery at 6-9 months of age
476
What is Transposition of the great vessels?
Aorta is connected to the RV Pulmonary artery is connected to the LV – meaning that deoxygenated blood gets pumped around the body = blue baby This is a DUCT DEPENDANT LESION
477
How does transposition present?
May be diagnosed antenatally Cyanosis may be present at birth Or present on day 1-2 of life when the duct closes Will be less severe if there’s an ASD or VSD allowing mixing NO MURMUR
478
How does transposition appear on CXR?
Looks like an “egg on its side” Echocardiogram confirms diagnosis by demonstrating abnormal arterial connections
479
How is transposition of the great arteries treated acutely?
Prostaglandin infusion to keep the ductus arteriosus open
480
What surgical options are there for transposition of the great vessels?
Balloon atrial septostomy – creates a hole between the 2 atria to allow mixing Arterial switch procedure – the aorta and PA are transected above the valves and switched over. Done ELECTIVELY later in life, not as an emergency straight after birth
481
What is the biggest risk factor for a complete AVSD?
Down’s syndrome All Down’s babies need an echo at birth
482
How does a complete AVSD present?
Either diagnosed antenatally Routine echo in a Down’s baby Cyanosis at birth Heart failure 2-3 weeks of life
483
How is a complete AVSD treated?
Medical treatment for heart failure Surgical repair at 3-6 months
484
How does tricuspid atresia present and how is it treated?
Neonatal cyanosis Treatment – shunting between the subclavian and pulmonary artery
485
What are the causes of non cyanotic congenital heart disease and how do these present?
Left to right shunts (VSD, ASD, PDA) These babies will either be breathless Or asymptomatic and be detected by heart murmur on examination
486
What are the features of a physiological (innocent) murmur?
The 4 S’s: 1. Soft blowing murmur 2. ASymptomatic 3. Left Sternal edge 4. Systolic murmur only
487
If you heard a LOUD pansystolic murmur, what is the most likely diagnosis?
SMALL VSD Large VSD is a much quieter murmur
488
How do large VSDs present?
Breathlessness Heart failure symptoms Failure to thrive
489
What murmur would you heart in aortic stenosis and pulmonary stenosis?
AS – ejection systolic murmur at upper RIGHT sternal edge PS – ejection systolic at LEFT sternal age
490
How does coarctation present?
Circulatory collapse at 2 days old Absent femoral pulses (association with Turner’s syndrome)
491
What would you suspect if you heard a continuous murmur?
PDA
492
Where about is a PDA murmur heard loudest?
Continuous murmur beneath the left clavicle
493
Who is most at risk for a PDA?
Premature babies
494
Which maternal medication in pregnancy is associated with congenital heart defects?
Warfarin
495
What is the most common cardiomyopathy seen in childhood?
Dilated cardiomyopathy
496
What are the causes of dilated cardiomyopathy?
Inherited Secondary to metabolic disease From a direct viral infection of the myocardium (myocarditis)
497
How is dilated cardiomyopathy managed?
Symptomatic treatment – diuretics, ACEi, beta blockers (treat the symptoms of heart failure) Myocarditis usually resolves spontaneously Some children may need a heart transplant
498
What are the causes of heart failure in paediatrics?
Left to R shunts left untreated (volume overload) Coarctation AS, TR, MR Dilated cardiomyopathy Anything that affects all 3 layers – peri, myo and endocarditis, effusions
499
What are the signs and symptoms of left heart failure in children?
SOB and exercise intolerance Palpiations Chest pain Feeding problems (due to breathlessness) Poor/excessive weight gain As a rule in paeds – increase in HR + RR + creps = left heart failure Most common cause = large VSD
500
What are the signs of RHF in paeds?
Peripheral oedema Liver enlargement (more sensitive than JVP) Causes – tricuspid regurg, pulmonary stenosis, large VSD etc. (anything that may cause fluid overload backwards through the IVC
501
What is the main difference between upper and lower urinary tract infections?
Upper tract infection – involves the kidneys (pyelonephritis) and is associated with fever and systemic involvement Lower tract infection – involves the bladder (cystitis) and is less likely to be associated with a fever or the fever will only be low grade
502
What is the significance of UTI in childhood?
May indicate an underlying structural pathology of the kidneys Recurrent kidney infections can cause renal scarring – predisposing to hypertension and chronic renal failure later in life
503
What is the most common infecting organism in paediatric UTI?
Escherischia Coli Usually via contamination from the bowel
504
What other infecting organisms also cause UTI in children?
Proteus – more common in boys, predisposes to formation of phosphate stones in the urine Pseudomonas – may indicate the presence of structural abnormality in the tract
505
What are some host risk factors for contracting UTI?
Incomplete bladder emptying Vesico-ureteric reflux Structural abnormality e.g. horseshoe kidney, ureteric strictures Inadequate toilet hygiene
506
What are the long-term sequaelae of UTI in childhood?
Post infectious scarring leading to: Hypertension Impaired GFR/chronic renal failure Pregnancy complications
507
How does UTI present in a baby?
Fever lethargy Irritability Vomiting and diarrhoea Poor feeding/failure to thrive Prolonged neonatal jaundice Septicaemia Febrile convulsions (> 6 months)
508
How does UTI present in children?
Dysuria (painful urination) Loin pain or abdominal pain Increased frequency of urination Fever (with or without rigors) Lethargy Anorexia Febrile convulsions Recurrent enuresis (wetting themselves) Haematuria
509
How do you investigate UTI in children?
URINE SAMPLE: Babies – nappy pads, clean catch, in and out catheter, suprapubic aspiration from the bladder using ultrasound guidance Children – midstream urine sample. Should be tested straight away and if not then they must be refrigerated Ultrasound scan Functional scanning – DMSA to look for scarring Micturating cystourethrogram (MCUG) – looks for reflux
510
How do you acutely treat a paediatric UTI?
Antibiotics – usually 3 day course of trimethoprim or 5 days of co-amoxiclav Fluids – keep hydrated to support the kidneys Analgesia (calpol etc.) Adjust antibiotics based on sensitivites once urine sample is returned
511
What steps should be taken to prevent UTI in paediatrics?
Education about perineal hygiene (wipe front to back) Regular voiding High fluid intake to produce high urine output Ensure complete bladder emptying (try a second time after a minute or 2) Prevent and treat constipation Antibiotic prophylaxis in those under 2 with severe reflux (trimethoprim)
512
How should children with renal scarring or reflux be followed up?
Surgery is an option for reflux Long term low dose antibiotic prophylaxis Circumcision Annual BP checks Regular assessment of kidney function and growth
513
What are some causes of proteinuria in children?
Transient proteinuria – fever, exercise Orthostatic (postural) Nephrotic syndrome Hypertension Tubular proteinuria Increased glomerular perfusion pressure
514
What are the features associated with nephrotic syndrome?
Heavy proteinuria Hypoalbuminaemia Oedema Hyperlipidaemia
515
What are the 3 different categories of nephrotic syndrome?
Congenital Steroid sensitive Steroid resistant
516
Which people have a higher risk of steroid sensitive and congenital nephrotic syndrome?
Congenital – Finnish people Steroid sensitive – boys, Asians, atopic children
517
What is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in children?
Minimal change disease/minimal change glomerulonephritis
518
What are some other causes of nephrotic syndrome?
HSP and other vasculitides SLE Infections (e.g. malaria) Allergens (e.g. bee sting)
519
What is the classical presentation of nephrotic syndrome?
Frothy urine – caused by significant proteinuria Oedema – pitting and gravitational Periorbital oedema (particular on waking) 🡪 earliest sign Scrotal, vulval, leg and ankle oedema Ascites Breathlessness due to pleural effusions and abdominal distention
520
What is the pathological process of congenital nephrotic syndrome?
Present in first 3 months of life Rare, very serious ESRF and need for dialysis (if survival past first 6-12 months) High mortality
521
What are the features indicative of steroid sensitive nephrotic syndrome?
Age 1-10 years Often precipitated by respiratory infections No macroscopic haematuria Normal BP Normal complement levels Normal renal function No features to suggest nephritis Responds to steroids Normally shows “minimal change” on histology
522
What is the classic pattern of disease in steroid sensitive nephrotic syndrome?
Recurrent relapses throughout childhood 5% of cases continue into adult life Treat with steroids If continues through whole life - may need steroid sparing agent such as methotrexate
523
What are the features suggestive of steroid resistant nephrotic syndrome?
Older children Haematuria Low complement levels (the complement levels build up in the kidneys, may precede SLE) Associtaed with hepatitis B
524
What is the prognosis of steroid resistant nephrotic syndrome?
30% respond to ESRF in 5 years 20% respond to cytotoxic medications Most spontaneously remit in 5 years
525
What investigations must be done for nephrotic syndrome?
Urine dipstick – looking for protein in particular FBC and ESR U&E, creatinine, albumin Complement levels – C3 and C4 Antistreptolysin O titre and throat swab Urine MC&S Urine sodium concentration Hepatitis B antigen
526
How do you treat steroid sensitive nephrotic syndrome?
Standard course of oral prednisolone for first episode Treat with steroids again for subsequent episodes Consider MTX if recurs all the time Restrict sodium and water intake and use diuretics until oedema settles Pen V Measles and chickenpox immunity
527
How do you treat steroid resistant nephrotic syndrome?
Manage oedema – diuretics, salt and fluid restriction, ACEis Could try a cytotoxic medication such as methotrexate
528
What is the difference between glomerular haematuria and lower urinary tract haematuria?
Glomerular haematuria – brown urine, deformed red cells, presence of casts, often accompanied by proteinuria Lower urinary tract – red urine, occurs at the beginning or end of urinary stream, not accompanied by proteinuria
529
What is the most common cause for haematuria in children?
Urinary tract infection NB haematuria will be alongside all the other symptoms associated with UTI (loin pain, dysuria, increased frequency)
530
What are the non-glomerular causes of haematuria?
Infection Trauma Stones (esp. if there’s a family history) Sickle cell disease Bleeding disorders Renal vein thrombosis Malignancy – Wilm’s tumour
531
What are the glomerular causes of haematuria in paeds?
Acute glomerulonephritis Chronic glomerulonephritis IgA nephropathy (Berger’s disease) Familial nephritis Post strep glomerulonephritis Vasculitis – HSP (triad of rash, abdominal pain, arthritis) Goodpasture’s syndrome – anti-GBM disease – very rare, will also cause haemoptysis
532
What investigations do you do in a patient with haematuria?
Urine dipstick Urine MC&S Urine protein and calcium USS – kidneys and urinary tract FBC, U&E, platelets, clotting screen Creatinine and albumin Throat swab and anti-streptolysin O titre ESR & complement levels
533
What are the indications for renal biopsy in a patient with haematuria?
Recurrent macroscopic haematuria Suspicion of familial nephritis Abnormal renal function Abnormal complement levels Proteinuria
534
What is nephritic syndrome?
Aka acute nephritis, glomerular nephritis Haematuria (often macroscopic) Proteinuria – varying degree Impaired GFR – rising creatinine Salt and water retention – hypertension, oedema
535
What causes nephritic syndrome?
Usually follows a strep throat or skin infection (post streptococcal glomerulonephritis) Vasculitis – HSP, SLE, Wegner’s, PNA IgA nephropathy (Berger’s disease) Goodpasture’s syndrome Familial nephritis (Alport’s syndrome, X-linked)
536
Which type of streptococcus is generally responsible for nephritis?
Group A beta haemolytic strep (strep pyogenes)
537
How do you investigate an episode of suspected post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis?
FBC U&E – increased urea and creatinine, hyperkalaemic acidosis C3 and C4 – may be low Anti-streptolysin O titre – raised Throat/skin swabs Urinalysis – haematuria, raised protein on dipstick, RBCs
538
How do you manage acute nephritis?
Fluid and electrolyte balance Treat hypertension – diuretics Correction of other imbalances – potassium, acidosis Penicillin – treatment of streptococcal infection if needed The nephritis usually setles by itself, may need steroids Monitor urine output and creatinine
539
What is cryptorchidism?
Undescended testes The testes has been arrested along its normal pathway of descent
540
What is a risk factor for undescended testes?
Prematurity
541
What are the 3 different classifications of undescended testes?
Retractile Palpable Impalpable
542
What is a retractile undescended testicle?
Can be manipulated into the bottom of the scrotum But as soon as you let go it retracts into the inguinal region – pulled up by the cremaster muscle Usually present later as hard to notice on neonatal check Eventually the testes should permanently reside in the scrotum But does require follow-up to check
543
What is a palpable undescended testicle?
Can be palpated in the groin But cannot be manipulated into the scrotum Occasionally testes can be ectopic (outside the normal line of descent) so may be felt in the perineum or femoral triangle
544
What is an impalpable undescended testicle?
No testis can be felt on detailed examination The testis may be intra-abdominal, in the inguinal canal or completely absent
545
What investigations would you do for suspected undescended testis?
Genital examination – in a warm room, warm hands, relaxed child. Try and “milk” the testes into the scrotum Ultrasound scan Hormonal investigations Karyotype Laparoscopy – investigation of choice to look for an impalpable testicle (see whether it’s completely absent or just abdominal)
546
What is the treatment for cryptorchidism?
Orchidopexy – surgical placement of the testis in the scrotum If testicles absent altogther – start on testosterone replacement therapy around the age of 10 (start of puberty) and consider testicular prosthesis for cosmetic purposes
547
Why is it important to treat cryptorchidism?
Fertility – is at risk if the testes are not within the scrotum Malignancy – greater risk in undescended testes Cosmetic and psychological reasons
548
What is the clinical presentation of testicular torsion?
Tender, red, painful testicle Abdominal pain Vomiting
549
Which age groups are affected by testicular torsion?
Neonatal and puberty are the peak ages for incidence But can happen at any age So have a low threshold for investigation
550
How do you investigate and treat testicular torsion?
Doppler ultrasound scan – demonstrates decreased blood flow (as torsion of the spermatic cord results in testicular ischaemia) Surgical intervention – emergency – needs operating to un-tort within 6 hours If the testicle is dead – orchidectomy
551
When should malignancy be considered in paediatrics?
In any child whose condition does not resolve or respond to treatment in the normal way Do not be afraid to challenge the original diagnosis If in doubt – retake a full history
552
What is the most common cause of lymphadenopathy in children?
Very common – affects up to 50% of children Most commonly due to a self-limiting benign cause (i.e. cough/cold)
553
What are some other causes of lymphadenopathy in children?
HIV Autoimmune conditions Glycogen storage disorder Malignancy
554
What are the indications for biopsy of an enlarged lymph node?
Enlarging node without clear infective cause Persistent Unusual site e.g. supraclavicular – typically indicated mediastinal mass If there’s associated signs and symptoms that are worrying (i.e. anaemia, bruising) Fever, weight loss, enlarged liver/spleen If abnormal CXR or respiratory symptoms
555
Which is the most common childhood malignancy?
Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) Followed by brain tumours
556
Which cell type is affected by leukaemia?
Precursors to B and T cells So affects the blood and bone marrow
557
What is the prognosis of ALL and what are some indicators of good prognosis?
About 80% cure rate Good prognostic indicators: Age 2-10 Female WCC < 50 No CNS disease
558
What are some risk factors for ALL?
Down’s syndrome Immune compromisation – HIV, organ transplant and therefore on immunosuppressants
559
What causes the symptoms of ALL?
Bone marrow infiltration Organ infiltration With leukaemic blast cells
560
What are the presenting symptoms of ALL?
SYMPTOMS OF PANCYTOPENIA: Infections (due to neutropenia) Lethargy and pallor (due to anaemia) Abnormal bruising, petechiae, nose bleeds (due to pancytopenia) ALWAYS ask about the other symptoms if they present with any of these Malaise Anorexia Hepatosplenomegaly Lymphadenopathy (lumps and bumps) Bone pain (due to bone marrow infiltration)
561
Which symptoms occur more commonly in ALL relapse?
CNS infiltration – headaches, vomiting, nerve palsies Testicular enlargement
562
What is the typical speed of onset of ALL symptoms?
Insidious onset over around 4 weeks May have had a non-specific prodrome for several months
563
What is the gold standard diagnosis for ALL?
Bone marrow aspirate
564
What other investigations should be done for ALL?
BLOOD COUNT showing: Low Hb (anaemia) Thrombocytopenia Evidence of circulating blast cells WCC may be up or down Neutropenia LP CXR
565
What are the stages of chemotherapy treatment for ALL?
Induction Consolidation and CNS treatment Intensification Maintenance (2 years for girls, 3 years for boys – as boys have a higher incidence of recurrence, particularly in the testes)
566
Which chemotherapy medications are used in ALL?
Vincristine Plus a steroid such as dexamethasone
567
What is another option for treatment of ALL other than chemotherapy?
Haemopoetic stem cell transplant This can be given in high risk patients in the first episode of disease Or for those who relapse
568
What are some late effects of ALL & its treatment that could affect children into their adult life?
Psychological impact of childhood cancer – always mental health screen them Family and social impact Fertility – offer freeze eggs/sperm before treatment Growth impact CNS development Cardiac and renal toxicity Delayed puberty Risk of recurrence is a large worry
569
Which characteristic cell type would you see on a film in Hodgkin’s lymphoma?
Reed-Sternberg cells
570
How does non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma present in childhood?
T-cell malignancies – mediastinal mass plus bone marrow infiltration (anaemia, bruising, infections) B-cell malignancies – localised lymphadenopathy in head, neck or abdomen Adominal disease – pain, mass, intussusception/obstruction
571
How does Hodgkin’s lymphoma present?
Painless lymphadenopathy – most commonly in the neck LARGER AND FIRMER lymph nodes than in benign lymphadenopathy Often has a long history Systemic ‘B’ symptoms: Sweating Pruritus Weight loss Fever
572
How are the lymphomas investigated?
NHL – stage with CT/MRI, bone marrow aspirate, CSF sample Hodgkin’s – diagnostic lymph node biopsy, intra-adominal disease assessed radiologically
573
How are the lymphomas treated and what is their prognosis in children?
NHL - multi-agent chemotherapy Hodgkin’s – chemo +/- radiotherapy About 80% cure rate
574
What is the pathological/aetiological difference between brain tumours in adults and children?
In adults - brain tumours are normally secondary from another cancer elsewhere In children – brain tumours are almost always primary
575
What types of primary brain tumour are seen in paediatrics?
Astrocytoma – 40% (this includes glioblastoma multiforme) Medulloblastoma - 20% Ependymoma – 8% Brain stem glioma – 6% Craniopharyngioma – 4%
576
How do brain tumours present in children?
Broadly – signs of Raised ICP and focal neurological signs of wherever the tumour is located
577
What are the symptoms of brain tumour in children?
Headache (early morning, worse when lying down) – raised ICP Vomiting (especially when waking in the mornings) Papilloedema Squint secondary to 6th nerve palsy Nystagmus Ataxia Seizures/epilepsy Personality/behavioural change Headaches + personality change 🡪 consider raised ICP
578
Headaches are an extremely common symptom in children. Which features are an indication to scan?
If there’s eye signs – papilloedema, decreased acuity, visual loss If other neurological signs develop (nystagmus etc.) If recurrent and early morning If associated with vomiting If there’s short stature/decelerated growth If there’s symptoms of diabetes insipidus or other endocrine disorders If < 3 years If the child has NF1
579
Which method of imagining would give the best view of a brain tumour? And which other investigation should you avoid in a child with signs of raised ICP?
MRI scans are the best way to look at tumours Do not perform LP if signs of raised ICP
580
How are brain tumours in children treated?
Surgery is the best option if the tumour is operable Radiotherapy – stereotactic gamma knife is worth a try Chemotherpay
581
Brain tumours have a poor prognosis, however some do survive. What are the long term complications of brain tumours and their treatment?
Outcome depends on where the tumour was and how well the surgery cleared it/how much healthy brain tissue was removed alongside the tumour Survivors may face – neurological disability, growth problems, endocrine problems, and neuropsychological problems
582
What is a neuroblastoma?
Tumours of neural crest tissue In the ADRENAL MEDULLA AND SYMPATHETIC NERVOUS SYSTEM NOT BRAIN TUMOURS Can be benign (ganglioneuroma) or malignant (neuroblastoma)
583
Which age group are most commonly affected by neuroblastomas?
Most common < 5 years
584
How do neuroblastomas present?
Abdominal mass – if the tumour is in the adrenals (most common site) Mass anywhere along sympathetic chain 🡪 may lead to spinal cord compression Miserable child with big abdomen 🡪 think neuroblastoma
585
What investigations would you do for a neuroblastoma?
MRI/CT Urinary catecholamines - raised Biopsy Bone marrow sampling MIBG – metaiodobenzynl guanidine
586
How is neuroblastoma treated?
Surgery – for localised disease Chemo – advanced disease (symptoms of advanced disease = bone pain, pancytopenia, weight loss, malaise)
587
What is the most common renal cancer in childhood?
Wilm’s tumour 80% present < 5 years Rare > 10 years Originates from embryonal renal tissue
588
What is the main cause/risk factor of Wilm’s tumour?
FAMILY HISTORY Wilm’s tumour susceptibility gene
589
How does Wilm’s tumour present?
Large abdominal mass Otherwise well child PAINLESS haematuria Sometimes hypertension, poor appetite, poor weight gain 5% have bilateral disease at diagnosis
590
How is Wilm’s tumour investigated?
USS/CT/MRI Staging to assess for mets – usually in the lungs
591
How is Wilm’s tumour treated?
Chemotherapy for 6 months to shrink tumour(s) Nephrectomy – full if only one kidney, partial if both kidneys affected Radiotherapy 80% cure
592
What is the most common type of soft-tissue tumour in children?
Rhabdomyosarcoma Usually in the head/neck
593
What are the 2 types of bone tumour seen in paeds and who is more at risk, boys or girls?
Osteogenic sarcoma Ewing’s sarcoma Both are more common in males
594
How do bone tumours present?
Persistent localised bone pain Mass Limbs most common site Well child at diagnosis
595
How are bone tumours investigated?
X-Ray – mass, destruction, periosteal new bone formation CT scan to determine extent of diesease
596
How are bone tumours treated?
Neoadjuvant chemotherapy Surgery – try and remove the tumour but preserve the limb, amputation avoided where possible Ewing’s – radiotherapy manages local disease
597
What is retinoblastoma and what causes it?
Malignant tumour of the retinal cells of the eye Can affect one or both eyes All bilateral tumours = hereditary 15% of unilateral cases = heriditary Autosomal dominant inheritance (incomplete penetrance) Retinoblastoma susceptibility gene on chromosome 13
598
What is the most common presentation of retinoblastoma?
Abnormal red reflex seen in flash photography WHITE PUPILLARY REFLEX replaces the normal red one Screened for in NIPE Can also present with decreased visual acuity and nystagmus
599
How would you investigate retinoblastoma?
Full ocular examination – fundoscopy Biopsy Genetic testing Genetic counselling
600
How is retinoblastoma treated?
Aim of treatment = get rid of cancer, preserve as much vision as possible May need to remove the eye (enucleation) in advanced cases Chemotherapy Local laser treatment Most are cured but visually impaired Large risk of secondary malignancy (especially sarcoma)
601
Liver tumours are rare in paediatrics. But how would it present?
Abdominal distention/mass Sometimes jaundice Primary liver tumours in neonates = haemangioma
602
How would you investigate suspected liver malignancy?
USS/CT/MRI Serum alfafetoprotein
603
How do germ cell tumours present and how are the investigated?
Lump – sacrococcygeal region or gonads Investigate - serum AFP and serum BCG Treatment – chemo, good outcome
604
What is Langerhan’s cell histiocytosis?
Abnormal prolieration of histiocytes (stationary phagocytic cells in connective tissue) Not truly malignant Can be aggressive and responds to chemotherapy
605
How does Langerhan’s cell histiocytosis present?
Spectrum of disease from localised bone lesions = systemic /vague presentation Bone lesions – pain, swelling, fractures (often in skull) Diabetes insipidus – due to skull disease Rash Soft tissue involvement (gums, ears, spleen, LNs, bone marrow) Recurrent discharging ear
606
How is LCH investigated?
XR – characteristic lytic lesions with well defined border (often in skull) Full skeletal survey to identify multiple lesions
607
How is LCH treated?
Bone lesions – biopsy Diabetes insipidus – long-term treatment with desmopressin usually required Systemic - chemotherapy, variable prognosis
608
What is the most common cause of anaemia in childhood?
Iron deficiency
609
What is the role of HbF?
Has a higher affinity for oxygen than adult Hb so the foetus can survive the lower oxygen concentrations in the womb Switches gradually to HbA By 6 months, most of the HbF is HbA
610
Why are premature infants susceptible to anaemia?
Not fully developed = insufficient EPO production Protein content of breastmilk not sufficiency for haemopoesis in premature infants Signs and symptoms - apnoea, poor weight gain, pallor, decreased activity, tachycardia
611
What are the 3 mechanisms for anaemia?
Reduced/impaired red cell production (iron deficiency, red cell aplasia) Increased red cell destruction – haemolysis Blood loss – relatively uncommon in children
612
How does anaemia present in paeds?
Young infants – slow feeding/may seem breathless Children – tire easily Pale conjunctiva, tongue or palmar creases Irritability Tachycardia Pica – eating non-food materials Iron deficiency – behavioural problems/reduced intellectual function Malabsorption picture Hepatomegaly, splenomegaly, jaundice – if haemolysis
613
What investigations are needed for an anaemic child?
Full blood count Haematinics Reticulocyte count (high circulating reticulocytes indicated haemolysis) Bone marrow investigation
614
If a baby presents at < 24 hours with jaundice, what test would you like to do?
Jaundice at < 24 hours is often due to haemolysis Do a Coomb’s test (ABO incompatibility/Rh incompatibility)
615
How is iron deficiency anaemia treated?
Dietary advice (red meat, brocolli, kale) Oral iron supplement
616
How is sickle cell anaemia treated?
Antibiotic prophylaxis – twice daily penicillin against pneumococcus Treatment of acute crises – analgesia, hydration, oxygen Exchange transfusion – acute chest, stroke, priapism Treatment of chronic problems – hydroxyurea, hydroxycarbamide (these increase the level of feotal haemoglobin which replaces the sickle haemoglobin) Really dangerous if they get Parvovirus B19 (slapped cheek) – causes aplastic crisis. Need good hydration and oxygen
617
How is thalassaemia treated?
Thalassaemia = they are missing part of the haemoglobin molecule Treatment - regular blood transfusions, frequency depends on severity of the disease Iron chelation to prevent iron overload (which can lead to liver failure, cardiomyopathy, heart failure, pancreatic dysfunction) Bone marrow transplant as a last resort
618
What is aplastic anaemia?
Bone marrow failure – the bone marrow is not producing any blood cells Characterised by reduction or absence in all 3 main lineages in the bone marrow – leading to peripheral pancytopenia (Platelets come from megakaryocytes)
619
What are the causes of aplastic anaemia?
Idiopathic Viruses – hepatitis Drugs – chemotherapy, sulphonamides (antibiotics) Toxins - benzene, glue Fanconi anaemia – autosomal recessive, short stature, abnormal radii and thumbs, micropthalmia, skin lesions, renal malformations Schwachman-Diamond syndrome – autosomal recessive, bone marrow failure, pancreatic exocrine failure, skeletal abnormalities
620
How does aplastic anaemia present and what are the main differential diagnoses?
Anaemia Infection Bruising and bleeding Symptoms of pancytopenia so DDX = blood cancers such as leukaemia and lymphoma
621
How is aplastic anaemia investigated?
Full blood count Bone marrow studies
622
How is aplastic anaemia treated?
Address underlying cause Supportive treatment (fluids, antibiotics) – wait for them to return to full health i.e. if it’s due to chemo etc. Bone marrow transplant if severe
623
What are some causes of acquired bleeding disorders?
Vitamin K deficiency Liver disease – cannot produce clotting factors or store vit A, D, E and K effectively Thrombocytopenia – idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura following viral infections in young children
624
What are some inherited causes for bleeding disorder?
Haemophilia A (factor 8 deficiency) and B (factor 9 deficiency) – X linked recessive, more common in boys, usually presents with recurrent spontaneous bleeds into joints and muscles around 1 year of age Von-Willebrand’s disease – autosomal dominant, presents with mucosal bleeding (e.g. epistaxis, menorrhagia) or excessive bleeding after surgery
625
Which other condition puts girls at risk of having X-Linked disorders such as haemophilia?
Turner’s syndrome 45, XO They don’t have the protection from the extra X chromosome
626
What is the difference in typical presentations of haemophilia and VWD?
Haemophilia – tends to cause big bleeds into joints VWD – mucosal bleeding (epistaxis, gum bleeds, menorrhagia)
627
How does thrombocytopenia present?
Petechiae/purpura Easy bruising
628
What is the triad of symptoms for HSP?
Purpura Arthritis Abdominal pain
629
What investigations need to be done in a patient with suspected bleeding disorder?
FBC and blood film Prothrombin time – measures factors 2, 5, 7, 10 Activated partial prothrombin time Thrombin time Quantitative fibrinogen assay D-Dimers Biochemical screen including renal and liver function
630
Which are the vitamin K dependant clotting factors?
10 9 7 2 (1972)
631
How do you manage acquired clotting disorder?
Vitamin K injection – given to all neonates, supplements given in children Diagnose and treat any liver disease Platelet infusion if thrombocytopenia
632
How are haemophilia A and B treated?
Recombinant factor 8 for A Recombinant factor 9 for B
633
How is VWD treated?
Mild – desmopressin Severe – plasma derived factor 8 concentrate
634
What are the inherited causes of thrombosis in children?
“Thrombophilias”: Protein C deficiency Protein S deficiency Anti-thrombin deficiency Factor V Leiden deficiency
635
What are some acquired causes of thrombosis in children?
Catheter related – i.e. during an investigation DIC Hypernatraemia Polycythaemia (due to congenial heart disease or placental insufficiency in utero) Malignancy SLE
636
How does thrombosis in children manifest?
Inherited conditions – present with venous thrombosis in 2nd or 3rd decade Thrombosis of cerebral vessels = stroke ”purpura fulminans” – widespread haemorrhage and purpura into the skin in the neonatal period
637
What are the indications for screening for inherited thrombophilia in children?
Any child with venous thrombosis Ischaemic skin lesions Neonatal purpura fulminans Positive family history of purpura fulminans Known family history of clotting disorder
638
How are clotting disorders treated?
Warfarin NOACs
639
What are the 3 core behaviours associated with ADHD?
Inattention Impulsivity Hyperactivity NB – these symptoms occur in every child occasionally, but when they are persistent and impact on daily function, more investigations are needed
640
What are some risk factors for ADHD?
Boys 4x more likely than girls Prematurity Low socio-economic status Other psychiatric disorders – Asperger’s, Tic, ODD CNS insults – perinatal infections, meningitis, fetal alcohol syndrome
641
What are the symptoms of inattention in ADHD?
Easily distracted Does not appear to listen when spoken to Forgetful in daily activities Loses important items Finds it difficult to follow instructions/complete tasks Makes careless mistakes
642
What are the symptoms of hyperactivity in ADHD?
”can’t sit still” Runs or climbs excessively Appears to be constantly “on the go” and “driven by a motor” Talks excessively Cannot perform leisurely activities quietly
643
What are the symptoms of impulsivity in ADHD?
Blurts answers before questions are completed Has difficult awaiting turn Interrupts or intrudes on others Teenagers get into big trouble for impulsive behaviour 🡪 more likely to have car accidents/get pregnant
644
How is ADHD assessed?
Clinical diagnosis - take a history Assessment in school and at home (need to exhibit the behaviour in more than 1 domain) Information from teachers, school reports, family members, previous doctors reports and notes
645
How is ADHD treated?
Education ADHD parenting program Support from school Medications – methylphenidate (a CNS stimulant)
646
What are the cardinal symptoms of Autism spectrum disorder?
Impaired social interaction Speech and language disorder Imposition of routines, with ritualistic and repetitive behaviour
647
How might autism spectrum disorder present?
Lack of desire to communicate at all Repeats speech – echolalia Won’t hold eye contact Poor body language Unable to understand sarcasm Doesn’t play imaginatively Has obsessions and rituals Regression in development – i.e. they started to talk and then stopped Does not like change
648
How is autism spectrum disorder managed?
MDT approach – liaise with school, nurses, GP, educational classes for parents Using things like picture-based timetables they can tick off when they do something to get them through the day Visual clues avoid anxiety Manage associated co-morbidities
649
What are the diagnostic criteria for anorexia nervosa?
Body weight < 15% expected for age and height Self-induced weight loss – avoiding food, vomiting, laxatives, excessive exercise Body image distortion HPG axis disorder – delayed puberty, loss of sexual interest and potency
650
What are some risk factors for anorexia nervosa?
Female gender High achiever Friendship issues Stressful life events to trigger the process Middle class Complex family dynamic Bereavement Domestic/ sexual abuse Being overweight as a child
651
What are some physical effects on the body of anorexia nervosa?
Cognitive effects Muscle wasting – eventually affects the heart leading to CCF, can’t squat down and stand up without touching anything Osteoporosis Extra hair growing Constipation Can’t maintain body temperature Teeth – dental erosions due to vomiting
652
What screening tool would you use to assess risk in someone you think may have anorexia?
SCOFF questionnaire: 1. S – do you ever make yourself sick? 2. C – do you feel like you lose control when you eat? 3. O – have you lost more than One stone in a 3 month period? 4. F – do you believe yourself to be fat? 5. F – does food dominate your life?
653
How is anorexia managed?
MARSIPAN tool Externalising the anorexia is a first line step of treatment – name the anorexia, dissociate it from the young person and try and address it as a separate entity Aim for slow and steady weight gain in the community Family approach and individual therapy MDT approach – GP, CAHMS counselling, dietician Medications – SSRIs, antipsychotics (if they have body dismorphic disorder) and vitamin replacements as required
654
How is anorexia managed?
MARSIPAN tool Externalising the anorexia is a first line step of treatment – name the anorexia, dissociate it from the young person and try and address it as a separate entity Aim for slow and steady weight gain in the community Family approach and individual therapy MDT approach – GP, CAHMS counselling, dietician Medications – SSRIs, antipsychotics (if they have body dismorphic disorder) and vitamin replacements as required
655
What is the importance of slow and steady weight gain and food intake in anorexia?
Risk of RE-FEEDING SYNDROME When the body is starved for a long time giving glucose can be dangerous The body starts taking up glucose and excreting potassium and sodium Causes re-feeding hepatitis
656
What is the prognosis of anorexia nervosa?
1/3 recover 1/3 relapse and remit 1/3 chronic lifelong illness
657
What is the correct name for a mole? Name a syndrome in which you’d expect to see more moles
Moles = naevi Turner’s syndrome
658
What is an important differential for scalded skin syndrome?
Stephen Johnson syndrome Disorder usually caused by infections or drugs Causes peeling of the skin, hands and mucosal changes High mortality
659
What clinical features would differentiate meningococcal septicaemia from HSP?
HSP rash looks very much like meningococcal rash (non-blanching, purpuric) But the child will be well and afebrile compared to a septic child Meningococcal rash will be all over the body HSP rash generally sticks to the lower limbs and buttocks HSP triad – abdo pain, purpura, arthritis If in doubt – treat as meningococcal sepsis
660
What type of skin disorder might you see in a child with insulin resistance?
Acanthosis nigricans This child will also be obese
661
How does the distribution of eczema differ in babies and children?
In babies – tends to be on their face and trunk Past age of 1 – can be generalised but tends to occur in the creases
662
What type of rash is it if it’s triggered when the child goes out in the sun, gets hot or cold?
Urticaria
663
What is the main purpose for screening for congenital hypothyroidism in the newborn blood spot?
It causes severe neurological dysfunction which leads to severe learning difficulties later In life Relatively common – affects 1 in 4000 births
664
What is the main cause congenital hypothyroidism a) worldwide b) in the UK and c) in consanguinous families?
Worldwide – iodine deficiency UK – mal-descent ent of thyroid/absent thyroid Consanguinous families – dyshormonogenesis (inborn error of thyroid hormone synthesis)
665
How does congenital hypothyroidism present?
PICKED UP ON GUTHRIE TEST – antenatal screening But if not picked up Failure to thrive Jaundice Feeding problems Hoarse cry Goitre Delayed development Etc.
666
What is the treatment for congenital hypothyroidism?
Lifelong oral replacement of thyroxine (if due to maldescent, athyrosis or dyshormonogenesis) Titrate dose to maintain normal growth `
667
What is the most important biochemical test to indicate long-term well controlled thyroid disease?
Normal TSH levels
668
What is the most common cause of hypothyroidism in children?
Autoimmune thyroiditis (Hashimoto’s?) Symptoms the same as in adult hypothyroidism
669
What is the most common cause for hyperthyroidism in children? What are the risk factors?
Grave’s diesease More common in girls More common in people with another autoimmune disease (Type 1 diabetes, coeliac disease) Symptoms same as in adult thyroid disease
670
How is hyperthyroidism treated?
Carbimazole Propylthiouracil Either by a dose titration or block and replace with thyroxine
671
What are the actions of insulin?
Acts to lower the blood glucose level Does this by stimulating glucose uptake from the blood into – muscle, kidney and fat cells Targets the liver to convert glucose into glycogen
672
How does T1DM mellitus present?
Either picked up by chance on a random plasma glucose Or – polydipsia, polyuria, weight loss, fatigue
673
What are the symptoms of DKA?
Smell of acetone on breath (pear drops) Vomiting Dehydration Abdominal pain Hyperventilation due to acidosis (Kussmaul breathing) Hypovolemic shock Drowsiness Coma
674
What metabolic abnormality in the blood is seen in DKA?
Hypokalaemic Hypochloraemic Metabolic acidosis
675
How do you treat DKA?
Aggressive fluid resuscitation before anything else Insulin Potassium Glucose Hourly obs watch closely and rehydrate slowly
676
What condition do you risk if you rehydrate a child in DKA too quickly?
Cerebral oedema
677
What are the symptoms of hypoglycaemia?
Irritable Nauseous Shaky Sweaty Pale Dizzy Confused Drowsy Odd behaviour Hypo seizure – convulsions can occur
678
What are some hypo phenomena?
Hypo unawareness Rebound hypoglycaemia Rebound hyperglycaemia Dawn phenomena – morning rise in blood sugar
679
What blood tests are needed for a diagnosis of diabetes?
Random plasma glucose ≥ 11.1 mmol/l Fasting plasma glucose ≥ 7.0 mmol/l HbA1c > 6.5% (or > 48 mmol/l)
680
How should a mild/moderate hypo be managed?
Check BM to confirm Glucose tablets/glucogel / 3 jelly babies Follow up with longer acting carbohydrate e.g. sandwhich Check BMs again after 15 mins
681
How do you manage a severe hypo?
Do not attempt to give anything by mouth Glucagon – SC or IM injection (0.5mg if < 5 years, 1mg if > 5 years) Wait 10 mins When conscious give longer acting carb
682
What area of the body is the main source of limp in children?
Hip Then leg Then knee Then thigh Then foot (least likely to be limping due to a foot problem)
683
What are some common causes of limp in children?
Transient synovitis (post-infectious) Slipped upper femoral epiphysis Reactive arthritis DDH Septic arthritis Duchenne’s Osteomyelitis Perthe’s disease – avascular necrosis of the femoral head Cancer – Ewing’s, osteogenic sarcoma
684
What is the typical presentation of transient synovitis?
Limping unhappy child Post viral- after cough, cold Limp < ROM NB – HIP PROBLEMS CAN OFTEN PRESENT AS KNEE PAIN
685
How would you investigate a limping unhappy child?
FULL HISTORY – including recent illnesses such as coughs and colds EXAMINE FROM HEAD TO TOE Urgent inflammatory markers Ultrasound the joint to look for thickening of capsule or effusion
686
What is the presentation of a slipped upper femoral epiphysis?
Traumatic acute limping child History important Age 7-16 years Not weightbaring Externally rotated hip KNEE PAIN Consider congenital insensitivity to pain – these patients can dislocate joints without realising
687
What are the differential diagnosis for a limping unwell (pyrexic) child?
Septic arthritis and oesteomyelitis They will be systemically unwell and pyrexic << ROM (limb tends to be completely immobile)
688
What investigations do you do for a septic limping child?
History Examination – red, hot, swollen extremely tender joint FBC, WCC, ESR, CRP X ray the affected joint USS joint capsule Blood cultures Joint aspiration for cultures
689
Which infecting organisms cause septic arthritis in babies, under 4s and >4s/adolescents?
Infants – group B strep, staph aureus, coliforms Children up to 4 – staph aureus, pneumococcus, haemophilus influenza Children >4/adolescents – staph aureus, gonococcus s
690
What would the differential diagnoses be for a CHRONIC limping child?
Perthe’s disease SUFE DDH (developmental dyplasia of the hip) Spinal problems Juvenile idiopathic arthritis Bone tumours – there is often a PALPABLE MASS Foot deformities
691
What is the typical presentation of Perthe’s disease?
4-8 years old Unilateral hip pain Limp Family history < ROM, < internal and external rotation There is often apparent shortening of one of the legs
692
How does a chronic slipped upper femoral epiphysis present?
9-16 years old Chronic (> 3 weeks) Pain – knee, thigh, hip STEROTYPE – MALE, LOWER SOCIOECONOMIC STATUS, PARENTS SMOKE Slightly overweight child Comes on gradually More common in children with endocrine issues Surgical emergency
693
How does developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) present?
Should be picked up on NIPE but can be a late presenter Leg length discrepency Reduced abduction Otherwise well Typically “waddle” when they walk
694
What sign can be elicited to demonstrate DDH?
Galleaze sign Child is laying down on the bed with their feet flat against the bed Positive test = knees are different heights Limited abduction on dislocated hip
695
How may a diagnosis of growing pains be reached?
Diagnosis of exclusion Growing pains are common Females > males Usually bilaterla DO NOT CAUSE LIMP and won’t have any systemic features Last thing you reach for if you cannot explain the pain
696
What are some essential questions to ask in a limp history?
Pain? Unwell in general? Onset – sudden or gradual? What type of limp? Can the problem be localised? Has it improved, got worse or stayed the same?
697
What are the 3 rockers of gait?
1 = heel off 2 = flat 3 = toe off
698
What causes a positive Trendelenberg test?
Pathology = abductor dysfunction Can be caused by - hip dysplasia, fracture that hasn’t healed, neurologcal injury, low grade long-term bone infection
699
Which test would you perform on a child in whom you suspected muscular dystrophy?
Gower test
700
How do you treat septic arthritis or osteomyelitis?
Aspiration/drainage of the pus in the joint Antibiotics – often flucloxacillin because the infection is often caused by staph aureus
701
What is the definition of juvenile idiopathic arthritis?
Onset before 16th birthday No identified underlying cause Persistent joint swelling/inflammation Lasting at least 6 weeks (i.e. it’s not reactive arthritis)
702
What causes JIA?
JIA
703
What are the X ray features seen in JIA?
Due to the inflammatory nature of JIA, this will be the same as the joint features seen in RA Loss of joint space Joint deformity Soft tissue swelling Periarticular osteopenia
704
How does JIA present?
Persistent joint swelling Limping/functional disability Pain Joint stiffness (particularly in the morning) Decreased ROM Joint deformity Warmth Colour change
705
What are the subtypes of JIA?
Oligo articular – affects < 4 joints, big joints mainly Polyarticular – affects > 4 joints, small joints mainly Psoriatic – associated with nail pitting, dactylitis, family history Entethesis related Systemic arthritis – generalised inflammatory signs all over the body eg. Fever, rash, lymphadenopathy, hepatosplenomegaly
706
What is the most important systems examination to do in a child with suspected JIA?
GAIT – screening test for all sorts of joint problems
707
How is JIA treated?
Oligo - inject the affected joints with steroid Poly – system therapy - methotrexate is the safest and best option, NOT steroids in kids After 3 months if no response – start biologic (e.g. infliximab, adalamumab
708
What is the prognosis of JIA?
50% “grow out of it” and will no longer need treatment 50% will have chronic lifelong disease
709
How is osteoporosis defined in children?
1 or more vertebral crush fractures 2 or more long bone fractures by the age of 10 3 or more by 19 Bone density less than 2.5 SDs below the mean
710
What are the causes of osteoporosis in children?
Inherited/congenital: Osteogenesis imperfecta Haematological problems Acquired: Drug induced – particularly steroids (even ICS for asthma) Endocrinopathies – hypoparathyroidism (low calcium) Malabsorption Immobilisation e.g. disabilities Inflammation and inflammatory disorders
711
Which type of osteogenesis imperfecta is lethal and what is the cause of death?
Type 2 is fatal Child dies very early because the chest is too small to allow breathing They have a lot of rib fractures (sometimes caused by the birth process) and their lungs don’t function at all
712
What inheritance pattern in seen in osteogenesis imperfecta and what protein defect is seen?
Autosomal dominant Defects in type 1 collagen genes – the type of collagen in bones
713
How does osteogenesis imperfecta present?
Bone fragility, fractures and deformity Bone pain Impaired mobility Poor growth – much smaller than children of the same age Deafness Poor muscle mass Hernia Valvular prolapse, aortic dissection Lovely happy smiley children compared to what you’d expect
714
What eye sign do you see in children with OI?
Blue tinted sclera
715
What are some X-Ray features you’d see in OI?
Wormian bones (wiggly black lines in the skull) – feels like bubble wrap under your fingers if you feel their skull Bent bones - e.g. bent tibia Bowing of the femur Complete chest collapse in type 2 OI – fatal
716
Which members of the MDT are involved in the care of an OI patient?
Child and their family Metabolic bone doctors Pain team Physiotherapy Occupational therapy Specialist nurse Dietician School and teachers
717
Which medications can be used in OI?
Bisphosphonates – pamidronate Prefer to give IV These help increase lumbar spine and total body bone mass
718
What is Rickett’s and what causes it?
”Bent bones” e.g. bow legs due to under mineralisation of the bones Occurs due to vitamin D deficiency
719
What is the paediatric recommended daily vitamin D intake?
400mg
720
What are some risk factors for vitamin D deficiency?
Insufficient maternal vitamin D during pregnancy Lack of child’s exposure to sunlight Dark skin Lack of vitamin D in diet – prolonged un-supplemented breastfeeding
721
What is the role of vitamin D?
Increases calcium absorption from the gut Increases calcium release from the bone Decreases calcium excretion by the kidneys Role in immune function/tolerance
722
How dose vitamin D deficiency present?
Bowed leg deformity Hypocalcaemia convulsions Gross motor delay Incidental X-Ray finding Swollen ankle Carpopedal spasm
723
How is Rickett’s investigated?
History Examination Biochemistry – serum calcium levels low, raised PTH levels XR – bowed legs, splayed metaphyses, frayed metaphyses
724
How do you treat vitamin D deficiency?
Vitamin D supplement NOT the active metabolite – give them the inactive form because as long as they don’t have kidney or liver disease they will be able to convert it themselves
725
What is the definition of seizures?
A neurological event causing a sudden disturbance of neurological function due to excessive discharge of neurones
726
What are some causes of seizures in children?
Epilepsy Febrile convulsions Metabolic – hypo seizures, hypocalcaemia Head trauma Infection - meningitis, encephalitis, brain abscess Poisons/toxins – amphetamines/stimulants Iatrogenic – post brain surgery
727
What age do children get febrile convulsions?
6 months – 6 years They usually have a genetic predisposition
728
What are some causes of funny turns in children?
Breath holding attacks – cries, holds breath, goes blue, recovers quickly Reflex anoxic seizures – triggered by pain, cold food, fright, fever Syncope Migraine Benign paroxysmal vertigo - associated with nsytagmus, unsteadiness, viral labrynthitis Arrythmias Non-epileptic attack disorders Fabricated by a parent
729
What is the difference between generalised and focal seizures?
Generalised – discharge arises from both hemispheres (absence, myoclonic, tonic, tonic-clonic, atonic) Focal – seizures arise from one part of the brain (so will only affect for example their right hand)
730
What are the symptoms of a temporal lobe seizure?
Strange warning feelings/aura - smell, taste, visual, ‘rising sensation’ Automatisms – lip smacking, plucking clothing, pacing De ja vu and jamais vu Impaired consciousness – longer duration than a typical absence seizure
731
How are seizures investigated?
WITNESS HISTORY is important – it is often a clinical diagnosis History from patient esp. family history and birth/development EEG Blood tests Metabolic investigations
732
How is epilepsy managed?
Explanation of diagnosis MDT approach – family, school, doctors, specialist nurses, OT Anti-epileptic medications – valproate, lamotrigine, carbamazepine
733
Which anti-epileptic drug should be avoided in absence and myoclonic seizures?
Carbamazepine
734
Define cerebral palsy
A disorder of movement and posture due to a non-progressive lesion of motor pathways in the developing brain The symptoms develop over time as the child starts to develop – the specific deficits due to the non-progressive lesion becomes apparent
735
What additional problems will children with CP often have on top of their movement and posture trouble?
Epilepsy Squints Visual impairment Speech and language disorders due to hearing problems Behaviour problems Feeding problems Joint contractures Hip subluxation Scoliosis
736
What are the causes of cerebral palsy?
Antenatal (80%) – genetic syndromes, congenital malformations, congenital infections Hypoxic-ischaemic injury at birth (10%) Postnatal (10%) – intraventricular haemorrhage in premies, meningitis, encephalitis, trauma, NAI, hydrocephalus, kernicterus du to hyperbilirubinaemia
737
What are the early features of CP?
Abnormal limb tone (head and trunk hypo, limbs hyper) Abnormal limb and trunk posture Delayed motor milestones Feeding difficulties – oromotor incoordination, slow feeding, gagging, vomiting Abnormal gait Hand preference before 12 months of age Persistent primitive reflexes beyond 6 months of age
738
What are the 3 main types of CP?
Spastic (70%) Ataxic hypotonic (10%) Dyskinetic (10%) 10% will have a mixed picture of this
739
Which motor tract is involved in spastic CP and what are the features?
UMN pathways affected – pyramidal or corticospinal Features – increased limb tone (spasticity), brisk deep tendon reflexes, extensor plantar response (positive Babinski sign), increased tone may suddenly yeild under pressure (clasp knife)
740
What are the 3 main types of spastic CP?
Hemiplegic Quadriplegic Diplegic
741
What are the features of hemiplegic CP?
They will have one “bad side” Unilateral involvement of arm and leg Arm usually worse Face spared Tip-toe walking Fisting and flexion of the affected arm
742
What are the features of quadriplegic CP?
All 4 limbs affected Arms usually worse Trunk involved – extensor posturing, poor head control, low central tone Seizures Microcephaly Learning difficulites
743
What are the features of diplegic CP?
All 4 limbs affected But LEGS WORSE – so arm function appears relatively normal Walking is abnormal
744
What are the features of ataxic CP and which part of the brain is affected?
Symmetrical Early trunk and limb hypotonia Poor balance Delayed motor development Signs – ataxic gait, intention tremor Cerebellar signs – so shows cerebellum is affected
745
What are the features of dyskinetic CP and which part of the brain is involved?
Fluctuating tone Involuntary movements Chorea, dystonia Intellect unimparied Basal ganglia are affected (extra-pyramidal)
746
How should CP be investigated?
MRI brain – helps identify cause of CP CLINICAL DIAGNOSIS – assessment of pattern of tone in the limbs and trunk, posture, hand function, gait, reflexes, developmental assessment
747
Which members of the MDT are involved in the care of a child with CP?
Doctors Physiotherapists – to help with the tone and posture problems SALT – to help with swallowing problems OT – if any adjustments at home needed Child and parents School – especially the special educational needs team
748
What treatment can be given to help with symptoms of hypertonia/spasticity?
Baclofen – oral or intra-thecal Oral diazepam Botox injection Orthopaedic surgery
749
Why is it important to measure head circumference in children?
It’s an accurate representation of brain size and development Microcephaly – can indicate the brain has not formed properly, particularly if it’s sloped at the front, and could mean they will have learning difficulties Macrocephaly – can indicate a child has hydrocephalus or SOL BEWARE – small babies will have small heads!! Compare to their centile for weight and length. If they are on 2nd centile for everything they are just small. If they are on 6th for weight and length and 2nd for head, their head is too small
750
Which types of fluids can be used for maintenance in children?
0.45% sodium chloride + 5% dextrose 0.9% sodium chloride + 5% dextrose
751
What is the RATE for maintenance fluids in children?
100, 50, 20 100 mls/kg/day for the first 10kg 50 mls/kg/day for the next 10kg (so up to 20kg) 20 mls/kg/day for every kg after
752
So how much fluid must be given to a 23 kg child?
(100 x 10) + (50 x 10) + (20 x 3) = 1560 ml/24 hours (1 day) So hourly rate = 1560/24 = 65ml/hour
753
What fluid maintenance is needed for babies on the first day they are born?
10% dextrose only Do not need saline on day 1
754
What are the 2 situations in which you’d give a fluid bolus in paeds?
Hypoglycaemia Hypovolaemia (shock)
755
What fluid bolus is given for hypoglycaemia?
10% dextrose 2mls/kg stat
756
So what fluids would be given to a 15kg child with hypoglycaemia?
15 x 2 = 30 30mls bolus of 10% dextrose
757
What fluid type and dose is given for hypovolaemia?
NORMAL SALINE 0.9% (even in newborn babies) 20mls/kg stat
758
What fluid is given for dehydration?
Correction of dehydration = % dehydration x 10 x weight in kg
759
What are some risk factors for child abuse?
Parental mental health problem Low socioeconomic status/deprivation Parental learning difficulty Alcohol and substance misuse “Difficult child” Disabled child Preterm infants Born to substance misusers
760
What are some features of a history in a child that would make you feel concerned about abuse/NAI?
History that does not fit with the visible injuries: Too many injuries Wrong site Unusual shape or pattern Wrong type of incident Delay in presenting to hospital (old injuries) No history A history that changes
761
What are “normal” places for children to bruise?
Shins – external bony bits Knees Elbows Toddlers – bumps on heads from walking into things
762
Where are some places bruises do not “normally” occur?
Abdomen Genitalia Insides of arms and legs (bits that are tucked away) Behind the neck/any other soft bits Young babies that cannot roll over or move yet should not have any bruises at all – massive red flag. RIB FRACTURES IN BABIES also very specific for NAI
763
What kind of brain event occurs in “shaken baby” syndrome?
Subdural haematoma
764
What is the definition of neglect?
A standard of care that does not meet the needs of a child Types – food and drink, warmth, education, emotional support
765
How do you investigate potential abuse/neglect?
Medical assessment Lab tests – FBC and platelets if they are prone to clotting Swabs – skin sores (could be impetigo etc.) Bone profile if fractures (calcium, vit D, PTH) Skeletal survey Developmental assessment Social services assessment
766
How may a UTI present in a baby and what is the most likely causative organism?
Miserable Pyrexia Temperture Vomiting E.Coli Treatment – IV cefuroxime and USS urinary tract system
767
By which mechanism can E. Coli become resistant to penicillin?
By producing beta lactamase Breaks down the beta lactam part of the antibiotic making it uneffective
768
Meningitis is a notifiable disease. Who needs notifying?
Public Health England
769
What is a complication of pneumonia which may be a reason why they do not respond to antibiotic treatment?
Empyema Will never resolve by antibiotics Needs surgical drainage
770
What is the danger of an inguinal hernia and how do you differentiate it from a hydrocele?
Potential to cause bowel obstruction or perforation Hernia – cannot get above it in examination Hydrocele – you can get above it
771
What are features that differentiate thyroglossal cysts, branchial cysts and demoid cysts on the head/neck?
Thyroglossal – midline, smooth, moves when they stick their tongue out Branchial – NOT in the midline, tend to appear along the border of the sternocleidomastoid Dermoids – lateral aspect of the eye, produce sebaceous material. Beware because can communicate intracranially and cause meningitis
772
What do you worry about in a child with bilious vomiting?
Bowel obstruction Either due to intussusception, malrotation, volvulus etc
773
If a baby is vomiting and “bringing up their knees” what is your main differential?
Intussusception
774
If you can see bowel up in the lungs on an X- Ray in a baby, what’s the diagnosis?
Congenital diaphragmatic hernia