Paediatrics Flashcards

1
Q

What is neonatal jaundice

A

The yellowing discolouration of the skin and sclera of a neonate, which is caused by increased levels of bilirubin in the blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is a neonate

A

An infant in the first 28 days of life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the aetiology of neonatal physiological jaundice

A
  • Increased bilirubin load secondary to increased RBC volume, decreased RBC lifespan, or increased enterohepatic circulation
  • Decreased uptake by the liver because of decreased UDPGT activity
  • Decreased exertion into bile
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the aetiology of neonatal pathological jaundice with unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia

A
  • Haemolytic anaemias
  • Extravasation of blood
  • Polycythaemia
  • Increased enterohepatic circulation
  • Defective conjugation
  • Metabolic conditions
  • Breastfeeding
  • Decreased binding of bilirubin to albumin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the aetiology of neonatal pathological jaundice with conjugated hyperbilirubinaemia

A

Hepatocellular disease:

  • Metabolic or genetic defects
  • Infection
  • TPN
  • Neonatal haemochromatosis
  • Idiopathic neonatal hepatitis
  • Shock

Intrahepatic biliary disease:

  • Alagille syndrome
  • Inspissate bile syndrome

Extrahepatic biliary disease

  • Biliary atresia
  • Choledochal cyst
  • Bile duct stenosis
  • Cholelithiasis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the pathophysiology of neonatal jaundice

A

When the normal process of bilirubin formation and excretion is dirupted, hyperbilirubinaemia results

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is physiological vs pathological neonatal jaundice

A

Physiological:

  • Usually noted at postnatal day 2, peaks on days 3 to 5 and then decreases
  • Serum bilirubin levels up to 205.2 micro mol/l are considered physiological in term neonates

Pathological:

  • Any jaundice in the first 24hrs of life
  • Bilirubin levels exceeding 95th percentile, as defined by a nomogram, are pathological
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the epidemiology of neonatal jaundice

A

Jaundice is the most common condition in newborns that requires medical attention.

Around 50-70% of term babies and 80% of preterm babies develop jaundice in the first week of life.

Jaundice usually appears 2-4 days after birth and resolves 1-2 weeks later without the need for treatment

The risk of neonatal hyperbilirubinaemia is higher in males and increases progressibely with decreasing gestational age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of neonatal jaundice

A

Yellowing discolouration of the skin and sclera
Cephalocaudal progression (first appears in the face, progresses down body as total serum bilirubin rises)
Fatigue
Not want to feed or not feed as well as usual
Dark yellow pee
Pale stool

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the risk factors for neonatal jaundice

A
Asian
American-indian
Maternal diabetes
Low birth weight
Decreased gestational age
Decreased caloric intake and weight loss
Breastfeeding
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How is suspected neonatal jaundice investigated

A
Transcutaneious bilirubinometer
Total serum bilirubin
Direct Coombs' test
Direct serum bilirubin
Haematocrit
FBC
Reticulocyte count
Peripheral blood smear 
Blood groups

Consider also:

  • G6PDH screen
  • osmotic fragility test
  • blood culture
  • LFTs
  • urine for reducing substances
  • plasma amino acids
  • urine organic acids
  • urine culture
  • abdominal ultrasound
  • percutaneous liver biopsy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is an infant

A

Child under 1 year old

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is a newborn

A

Child under 28 days of age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the perinatal period

A

22nd week of gestation to 7 days after birth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the post partum period

A

first 6 to 8 weeks after birth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is a live birth

A

Post natal presence of vital signs eg respiration, pulse, umbilical cord pulse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the types of term birth

A

All live births between 37-42 weeks gestation
Early term: 37+0 - 38+6
Full term: 39+0 - 40+6
Late term: 41+0 - 41+6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the evaluation categories for birth weight

A

Appropriate for gestational age: 10th-90th percentile for gestational age
Small for gestational age: <10th percentile for gestational age
Large for gestational age: >90th percentile for gestational age

Low birth weight: <2500g regardless of gestational age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How is a newborn immediately cared for when born

A

Wipe the newborn’s mouth and nose to clear airway secretions, use suction only if necessary.
Dry and stimulate the newborn.
Provide warmth.
Skin-to-skin contact with mother and initiation of breastfeeding
Clamp and cut the umbilical cord.
Apgar score assessment at 1 and 5 minutes after birth
Begin resuscitation if onset of respirations has not yet occurred within 30–60 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the APGAR score

A
Appearance
Pulse
Grimace
Activity
Respirations

Used for standardised clinical assessment at 1 and 5 minutes after birth
Each of the five components can be given between 0 and 2 points depending on the status of the newborn
The total Apgar score is the sum of all five components

Reassuring: 7-10
Moderately abnormal: 4-6
Low: 0-3

In infants with a score below 7, the Apgar assessment is performed at 5 minute intervals for an additional 20 minutes

Persistently low Apgar scores are associated with long-term neurologic sequelae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What factors can determine a delivery as high risk and therefore needing the neonatal resus team available

A

Maternal factors:

  • Extremes of maternal age
  • Diabetes
  • Hypertension
  • Substance abuse
  • Previous foetal loss

Foetal factors:

  • Prematurity
  • Postmaturity
  • Congential anomalies
  • Multiple gestations

Complications of pregnancy and delivery:

  • Placental anomalies
  • Oligohydraminos/ polyhydraminos
  • Transverse/breech delivery
  • Chorioamnionitis
  • Meconium-stained amniotic fluid
  • Abnormal foetal heart rate
  • Delivery with forceps/vacuum/Caesarean
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the neonatal resuscitation steps

A

Preductal pulse oximetry

Positive pressure ventilation (bag mask valve) at a rae of 40-60 per minute

  • Indicated in inadequated resp effort (gasping, apnea) or a heart rate <100
  • Intubation if pressure ventilation is ineffective or compressions are required
  • Restrictive use of supplementary oxygen, guided by pulse oximetry
    • At birth ventilation should be with room air for infants ≥35weeks
    • Premature infants <35weeks can receive FiO2 21-30% initally, titrated to SpO2

Chest compressions

  • Indicated if Heart rate <60bpm despite adequate ventilation for 30 seconds
  • Use the two thumb encircling hands technique if two health cae providers present
  • Use the two finger technique if only one health care provider is present
  • 3 chest compressions followed by 1 inflation

Iv epinephrine if HR <60bpm despite adequate ventilation and chest compressions for at least 30-60 seconds

If there is no evidence of return of spontaneous circulation within 20mins, consider termination of resuscitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the preventive measures which can be given directly after birth

A

Ophthalmic antibiotics: to prevent gonoccal conjunctivitis (erythromycin ophthalmic ointment)

Vitamin K: to prevent Vit K deficiency bleeding of the newborn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is neonatal polycythemia

A

Venous Haematocrit (HCT) greatly exceeding normal values for gestational and postnatal age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How common is neonatal polycythemia

A

1-5% of newborns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are the risk factors for neonatal polycythemia

A
Small for gestational age
Large for gestational age 
Infants of diabetic mothers
Twin to twin transfusion syndrome (recipient)
Maternal tobacco use
Chromosomal abnormalities
Delayed umbilical cord clamping
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the pathophysiology of neonatal polycythemia

A

Delayed umbilical cord clamping → erythrocyte transfusion → ↑ circulating red blood mass (HCT)

Placental insufficiency or chronic intrauterine hypoxia → increased intrauterine erythropoiesis → ↑ circulating red blood mass (HCT)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are the clinical features of neonatal polycythemia

A
Respiratory distress, cyanosis, apnea
Poor feeding, vomiting
Hypoglycemia
Plethora
Lethargy and irritability
Tremors or seizures
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How is neonatal polycythemia diagnosed

A

Venous HCT > 65%

Hemoglobin > 22 g/dL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

How is neonatal polycythemia treated

A

Monitoring
IV hydration
Partial exchange transfusion: a procedure in which part of the blood is replaced with an isotonic fluid to lower the hematocrit
-Indicated in asymptomatic patients with high hematocrit (> 75%) or symptomatic patients with hematocrit > 65%
-Increased risk of necrotising enterocolitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are the potential complications of neonatal polycythemia

A

Hypoglycaemia
Hyperbilirubinaemia
Necrotising enterocolitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is erythema toxicum neonatorum

A

A benign self limiting rash that appears within the first week of life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are the clinical features of erythema toxicum neonatorum

A

Small red macules and papules that progress to pustules with surrounding erythema
Located on trunk and proximal extremities
Spares the palms of hands and soles of feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

How is erythema toxicum neonatorum diagnosed

A

Based on clinical appearance of rash

Biopsy or smear of pustual (rarely necessary) but would show high eosinophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

How is erythema toxicum neonatorum treated

A

Observation only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the prognosis of erythema toxicum neonatorum

A

Typically resolves without complications within 7-14 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is a congenital dermal melanocytosis

A

AKA Mongolian spot

A benign blue-ray pigmented lesion of newborns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the neonatal prevalence of congenital dermal melanocytosis

A

Asian and Native American: 85–100%
African American: > 60%
Hispanic: 46–70%
White: < 10%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the pathophysiology of congenital dermal melanocytosis

A

Melanocytes migrating from the neural crest to the epidermis during development become entrapped in the dermis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are the clinical features of congenital dermal melanocytosis

A

Blue-gray pigmented macule (may also be green or brown)
Diameter: typically < 5 cm, may be > 10 cm
Location: most common on the back, also seen on the buttocks, flanks, and shoulders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

How is congenital dermal melanocytosis diagnosed

A

Based on clinical appearance
It is important to document the diagnosis of Mongolian spots, as they may resemble bruises and lead to false suspicions of child abuse.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the prognosis of congenital dermal melanocytosis

A

Usually resolves spontaneously during childhood (typically by the age of 10 years)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

How does a congenital melanocytic nevus clinically present

A
Vary in size: < 1.5 cm to > 20 cm
A nevus larger than 20 cm in size is referred to as a giant congenital melanocytic nevus
Light to darkly pigmented lesion
Often with increased hair growth
1/20,000 births
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

How is congential melanocytic nevus treated

A

Surgical excision or laser ablation (depending on type and size of lesion)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the prognosis for a congential melanocytic nevus

A

Large nevi are at risk of degeneration for need frequent follow up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is an infantile hemangioma

A

AKA strawberry hemangioma
Occurs in 3-10% of infants
Mostly affects girls
Manifests during the first few days to months of life
Progressive presentation: blanching of skin → fine telangiectasias → red painless papule or macule (strawberry appearance)
Most commonly on head and neck
Usually solitary lesions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is the pathophysiology of an infantile hemangioma

A

Abnormal development of vascular endothelial cells

Rapid proliferation followed by subsequent spontaneous slow involution (occurring at the age of 5–8 years)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

How is infantile hemangioma diagnosed

A

Based on clinical findings

The differential diagnosis of a cherry angioma is found mostly in adults

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

How is infantile hemangioma treated

A

Active nonintervention: (monitoring, parental education)

Systemic therapy with propranolol in complicated cases:

  • Rapidly growing cutaneous hemangiomas
  • Periorbital hemangioma: vascular anomaly in the periorbital region, most commonly the upper eyelid
  • Hemangiomas in the airways, gastrointestinal tract, or liver
  • Hemangiomas with high risk of complications

If unresponsive to medication:

  • Cryotherapy
  • Laser therapy
  • Resection if necessary
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What are potential complications of an infantile hemangioma

A

Ulceration

Disfigurement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is the prognosis for infantile hemangioma

A

Usually good prognosis
Spontaneous resolution is common
Visual impairment if periorbital hemangioma is left untreated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is milia neonatorum

A

Definition: tiny epidermal papules caused by the buildup of keratin and sebaceous secretions

Clinical features: pinhead-sized lesions located on the face/trunk

Treatment: not necessary

Prognosis: benign skin lesion, spontaneous resolution without scarring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What are capillary malformations

A

Naevus flammeus, port-wine stain, firemark
Definition: congenital, benign vascular malformations of the small vessels in the dermis

Epidemiology: may occur in association with a neurocutaneous disorder such as Sturge-Weber syndrome

Clinical features: typically unilateral, blanchable, pink-red patches that grow and become thicker and darker with age

Treatment: cosmetic laser treatment if desired (not necessary)

Prognosis: benign skin lesion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is transient neonatal pustular melanosis

A

AKA TNPM

Definition: a benign, transient, idiopathic neonatal skin condition

Epidemiology:

  • Incidence: ∼ 2%
  • Most commonly occurs in African American infants (5 %)

Clinical features:

  • Solitary or clustered pustules and vesicles on a nonerythematous base
  • Hyperpigmented, erythematous macules and collarettes of fine scale
  • Most commonly affects the forehead, anterior neck, and lower back

Treatment: reassurance

Prognosis: benign, self-limiting skin lesion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is nevus anemicus

A

Definition: a pale patch of skin that does not create erythema in response to trauma, heat, or cold

Etiology: caused by a vascular anomaly (increased sensitivity of cutaneous blood vessels to naturally occurring catecholamines)

Treatment: not required

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is LEOPARD syndrome

A

AKA Noonan syndrom with multiple lentigines

Lentigines: lenticular hyperpigmentation (dark macules)
Electrocardiographic conduction abnormalities
Ocular hypertelorism
Pulmonary stenosis
Abnormalities of genitalia
Retardation of growth
Deafness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is blueberry muffin syndrome

A

A descriptive term for neonates born with multiple bluish, purple marks in the skin, which can be due to extramedullary erythropoiesis, purpura, or metastases.

The differential includes various cancers (e.g., rhabdomyoscarcoma), blood disorders (e.g., hemolytic disease of the new born), and congenital viral infections (e.g., rubella)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What are the risk factors for birth trauma

A
Macrosomia or anatomical abnormalities
Extremely premature infants; low birth weight
Abnormal fetal presentation
Breech presentation
Shoulder dystocia 
Forceps-assisted delivery or vacuum delivery 
Prolonged or rapid labor
Small maternal stature
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What are the potential neonatal soft tissue injuries

A

Soft tissue injuries of the scalp in infants are mostly caused by shearing forces during vacuum or forceps delivery.

Head molding:

  • Transient deformation of the head into an elongated shape due to external compression of the fetal head as it passes through the birth canal during labor
  • Typically resolves within a few days after the birth

Caput succedaneum:

  • Benign oedema of the scalp tissue that extends across the cranial suture lines
  • Firm swelling; pits if gentle pressure is applied
  • No treatment required; resolves within hours or days

Cephalohematoma:

  • Subperiosteal hematoma that is limited to cranial suture lines
  • Complications: calcification of the hematoma, secondary infection
  • No treatment required; resolves within several weeks or months

Subgaleal hemorrhage:

  • Rupture of the emissary veins and bleeding between the periosteum of the skull and the aponeurosis that may extend across the suture lines
  • Associated with a high risk of significant hemorrhage and hemorrhagic shock
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

How does a birth related clavicle fracture present clinically

A

Epidemiology: most common fracture during birth (∼ 2% of deliveries)

Clinical features:
Usually asymptomatic 
Possible pseudoparalysis 
Bone irregularities, crepitus, and tenderness over the clavicle possible on palpation
Possible brachial plexus palsy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

How is a birth related clavicle fracture diagnosed

A

Clinical diagnosis

X-ray only indicated in cases of gross bone deformation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

How is a birth related clavicle fracture treated

A

Reassurance and promote gentle handling of the arm (e.g., while dressing)
To avoid discomfort, pin shirt sleeve to the front of the shirt with the arm flexed at 90 degrees
Consider analgesics
Follow-up 2 weeks later to confirm proper healing: via clinical findings of a callus formation, and possibly an x-ray
Usually self-resolves within 2–3 weeks without surgical intervention or long-term complications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is infant torticollis

A

Twisted or rotated neck caused by contraction of the sternocleidomastoid muscle
It can be acquired or congenital

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is the pathomechanism of infant torticollis

A

Acquired torticollis:

  • Sternocleidomastoid or trapezius muscle injury
  • Cervical muscle spasm
  • Cervical nerve irritation

Congenital torticollis:

  • Not fully understood; likely from muscular or skeletal injury during delivery with subsequent fibrosis and contracture of the sternocleidomastoid muscle
  • Associated with:
    • Intrauterine constraint, which causes unilateral shortening of the sternocleidomastoid muscle
  • – Oligohydramnios
  • – Multiple gestation
  • – Macrosomia
    • Decreased fetal movement
    • Breech presentation
    • Assisted vaginal delivery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What are the clinical features of infant torticolis

A

Head noticeably tilted to one side with the chin rotated towards the opposite side

Muscular tightness; limited passive range of motion

Potentially palpable thickening of the SCM

Conditions associated with congenital torticollis:

  • Developmental dysplasia of the hips
  • Brachial plexus palsy
  • Clubfoot
  • Craniofacial asymmetry
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What are the differentials for infant torticollis

A
Postural preference
Vertebral anomalies
Absence of cervical musculature
Ocular anomalies
Underlying conditions (e.g. spina bifida)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

How is infant torticollis treated

A

Early initiation of physiotherapy, passive positioning

Surgery at 12 months of age if conservative management is insufficient: myotomy or bipolar release of the affected SCM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What are the potential complications of infant torticollis

A

Craniofacial asymmetry

Scoliosis of the cervical spine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What are the important facts about facial nerve palsy due to birth trauma

A

Epidemiology: most common cranial nerve injury during birth

Pathomechanism:

  • Injury occurs during forceps-assisted delivery (most common)
  • Prolonged birth in which the head is pressed against the maternal sacral promontory

Clinical features
Peripheral facial nerve palsy: difficulty feeding, incomplete eye closure, absent nasolabial fold

Treatment: eye care with artificial tears and ointment

Prognosis: spontaneous recovery in 90% of cases within several weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What are the important facts about neonatal brachial plexus palsy due to birth trauma

A

Excessive lateral traction on the neck during delivery → injury to the upper trunk of the brachial plexus → Erb palsy (most common iatrogenic brachial plexus injury during delivery)

Excessive traction on the arm during delivery → injury to the lower trunk of the brachial plexus → Klumpke palsy

Prognosis: approx. 25% of affected infants experience persistent functional impairment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is Shoulder dystocia

A

An obstetric emergency in which the anterior shoulder of the fetus becomes impacted behind the maternal pubic symphysis during vaginal delivery

Occurs in ~0.2-3% of births

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What are the risk factors for shoulder dystocia

A
History of shoulder dystocia
Fetal macrosomia
Prolonged second stage of labor
Maternal diabetes mellitus
Maternal obesity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What are the clinical features of shoulder dystocia

A

Features of arrested active phase of labor
Turtle sign: the fetal head is partially delivered but retracts against the perineum
Failed restitution of the head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

How is shoulder dystocia diagnosed

A

Clinical diagnosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

How is shoulder dystocia treated

A

The patient should stop bearing down and lie supine with the buttocks on the edge of the bed.

Perform shoulder dystocia maneuvers:

  • First-line: McRoberts maneuver
  • Any of the other internal maneuvers may be attempted to next (Rubin maneuver, Woods maneuver, Delivery of posterior arm)
  • Move to another maneuver if delivery is not accomplished within 20–30 seconds.
  • If all above maneuvers fail, attempt the all fours position.

Last-resort options:

  • Fracture of fetal clavicle
  • Zavanelli maneuver
  • Symphysiotomy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What are the potential complications of shoulder dystocia

A

Fetal:

  • Brachial plexus injury (Erb palsy is more common than Klumpke palsy)
  • Clavicle or humerus fracture
  • Hypoxia over an extended period of time as a result of umbilical cord compression

Maternal:

  • Perineal lacerations
  • Postpartum hemorrhage
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What is chorioamnionitis

A

An intrauterine infection of the foetal membranes, placenta and amniotic fluid most commonly caused by bacteria ascending from the vagina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What is the aetiology of chorioamnionitis

A

Common bacteria:

  • Ureaplasma urealyticum (up to 50% of cases)
  • Mycoplasma hominis (up to 30% of cases)
  • Gardnerella vaginalis
  • Bacteroides
  • Group B streptococcus
  • E. coli
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What are the risk factors for chorioamnionitis

A

Prolonged labor or premature rupture of membranes (PROM)

Pathological bacterial colonization of vaginal tract (e.g., STDs, frequent UTIs)

Iatrogenic: multiple digital vaginal exams, invasive procedures (e.g., amniocentesis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What are the clinical features of chorioamnionitis

A

Maternal:

  • Fever (> 38 °C or > 100°F)
  • Tachycardia > 120/min
  • Uterine tenderness, pelvic pain
  • Malodorous and purulent amniotic fluid, vaginal discharge
  • Premature contractions, PROM

Fetal tachycardia > 160/min in cardiotocography

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

How is chorioamnionitis diagnosed

A

Chorioamnionitis is a clinical diagnosis (fever plus ≥ 1 additional symptom).

Tests support or confirm diagnosis if the clinical presentation is ambiguous (e.g., in subclinical chorioamnionitis).

Maternal blood tests:

  • Leukocytosis > 15,000 cells/μL (∼ 70–90% of cases)
  • ↑ CRP

Bacterial cultures:

  • Urogenital secretions
  • Amniotic fluid (most reliable, but rarely conducted)
  • Group B Streptococcus screening: cervicovaginal and rectal swabs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

How is chorioamnionitis managed

A

Maternal antibiotic therapy:

  • Vaginal delivery: IV ampicillin plus gentamicin (broad coverage)
  • Cesarean delivery: IV ampicillin and gentamicin, plus clindamycin (anaerobe coverage to minimize postcesarean complications, e.g., endometritis)

Delivery:

  • Swift delivery is generally indicated to minimize both maternal and fetal complications.
  • Cesarean delivery is not generally indicated, but is often necessary because of obstetrical complications (e.g., insufficient contractions).
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What are the potential complications of chorioamnionitis

A

Maternal:

  • Uterine atony
  • Postpartum hemorrhage
  • Endometritis
  • Septic shock
  • DIC
  • Venous thrombosis
  • Pulmonary embolism
  • Death

Fetal/neonatal:

  • Fetal deat
  • Premature birth
  • Asphyxia
  • Intraventricular hemorrhage
  • Cerebral palsy
  • Neonatal infection
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What are the two types of neonatal infection/sepsis and their causes

A

Early-onset infection/sepsis:

  • ≤ 6 days after delivery
  • Common causes:
  • -chorioamnionitis
  • -bacterial colonization of the maternal genital tract (pathogen transfer to the infant)
  • Common pathogens:
  • -group B Streptococcus (GBS, Streptococcus agalactiae) and E. coli;
  • -less common are Listeria monocytogenes, Staphylococcus aureus, Enterococcus, and Haemophilus influenzae.

Late-onset infection/sepsis:

  • 7–89 days after delivery
  • Common causes: hospital acquired infection
  • Common pathogens: group B Streptococcus (GBS, Streptococcus agalactiae) and E. coli; less common are coagulase-negative Staphylococcus, Staphylococcus aureus, Klebsiella, Pseudomonas
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What are the risk factors for neonatal infection/sepsis

A

Maternal:

  • Fever
  • PROM, premature labor
  • Infections (e.g., UTI)

Fetal:

  • Premature birth, low birth weight, low Apgar score
  • Difficult delivery
  • Asphyxia
  • Intravascular catheter or nasal cannula (in late-onset sepsis)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What are the symptoms of neonatal infection/sepsis

A

General presentation:

  • Nonspecific
  • Irritability, lethargy, poor feeding
  • Temperature changes (fever and hypothermia both possible)
  • Cardiocirculatory: tachycardia, hypotension, poor perfusion, and delayed capillary refill > 3 sec
  • Respiratory: tachypnea, dyspnea (e.g., expiratory grunting), apnea (more common in preterm infants)
  • Skin tone: jaundiced and/or bluish-gray (indicates poor perfusion)

Specific symptoms:

  • Neonatal meningitis
    • Often no signs of meningism
    • Early phase: general symptoms, vomiting
    • Late phase: bulging fontanelles, shrill crying, seizures, stupor
  • Neonatal pneumonia
    • Tachypnea with intercostal/sternal retractions and nasal flaring
    • Reduced oxygen saturation with cyanosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

How is neonatal infection/sepsis diagnosed

A

Blood cultures or urine culture for suspected UTI
-In GBS sepsis: blood agar plate reveals β-hemolytic, gram-positive cocci that enlarge the area of hemolysis formed by S. aureus

Blood tests:

  • Leukocytopenia or leukocytosis, thrombocytopenia
  • ↑ CRP

Lumbar puncture:
-Test cerebrospinal fluid for possible meningitis

Chest x-ray:
-May reveal clear signs of pneumonia (e.g., segmental infiltrates) but more often nonspecific with diffuse opacities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

How is neonatal infection/sepsis managed

A

Supportive care (cardiopulmonary monitoring and support)

Broad-spectrum antibiotics: IV ampicillin and gentamicin
-Indications: clinical suspicion, confirmed or suspected maternal infection (e.g., chorioamnionitis)

Adapt therapy according to antibiogram results

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What is the prophylaxis regime for GBS infection

A

Indication:

  • Maternal GBS colonization
    • Determined via culture of vaginal and rectal swabs
    • Indicated between 36 0/7 – 37 6/7 weeks’ gestation
  • Anytime GBS bacteriuria occurs during pregnancy or if a previous newborn had a GBS infection
  • The presence of risk factors (e.g., chorioamnionitis, fever, ↑ CRP, premature contractions, PROM)

Medication:

  • Intrapartum IV penicillin G or ampicillin (readminister every 4 hours until delivery)
  • If previous mild penicillin reaction: IV cefazolin
  • If severe penicillin allergy: clindamycin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What is the prognosis of neonatal infection/sepsis

A

May cause septic shock within hours if treatment is inadequate (mortality rate up to 50%)
The longer symptoms are present, the higher the risk of developing meningitis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What is omphalitis

A

Bacterial infection of the umbilical stump occurring 3–9 days after delivery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What pathogens cause omphalitis

A

Staphylococcus aureus
Group A Streptococcus
E. coli
Klebsiella pneumoniae

Clostridium tetani: common cause of omphalitis and neonatal tetanus in developing countries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What are the symptoms of omphalitis

A

Periumbilical redness, tenderness, swelling, and hardening
Purulent discharge
Signs of systemic infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

How is omphalitis diagnosed

A

Generally a clinical diagnosis, although cultures should be conducted

Bacterial cultures: pathogen identification and antibiogram (sample of discharge)

In systemic infection: blood and cerebrospinal fluid cultures (detection of sepsis and meningitis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

How is omphaliitis managed

A

Broad-spectrum IV antibiotics: antistaphylococcal penicillin (e.g., oxacillin) PLUS aminoglycoside (e.g., gentamicin)

Surgery: complete debridement if complications arise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What are the complications of omphalitis

A

Sepsis

Necrotizing fasciitis and myonecrosis (infectious muscle involvement): rare; associated with high mortality rates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

How is omphalitis presented

A

Keep the navel dry (frequent diaper change)

Observe general hygiene measures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What is neonatal respiratory distress syndrome

A

AKA surfactant deficiency disorder

A lung disorder in infants that is caused by a deficiency of pulmonary surfactant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What is the aetiology of neonatal respiratory distress syndrome

A

It is caused by impaired synthesis and secretion of surfactant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What are the risk factors for neonatal respiratory distress syndrome

A
  • Premature birth
  • Maternal diabetes (leading to increased fetal insulin, which inhibits surfactant synthesis)
  • Hereditary
  • C section delivery (results in lower levels of fetal glucocorticoids than in vaginal delivery, in whiich higher levels are released as a response to stress from uterine contractions)
  • Hydrops fettles
  • Multiple pregnancies
  • Male sex
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What is the epidemiology of neonatal respiratory distress syndrome

A

Incidence:

  • 1% of all newborns
  • 10% of all preterm babies

The risk of developing NRDS depends on gestational age:

  • < 28 weeks of gestation: > 50%
  • > 37 weeks of gestation: < 5%
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What is the pathophysiology of NRDS

A

Pulmonary surfactant is a mixture of phospholipids and proteins produced by lamellar bodies of type II alveolar cells.

These phospholipids reduce alveolar surface tension, preventing the alveoli from collapsing.

Surfactant deficiency is most likely to occur in preterm infants, because:

  • Surfactant production begins at approximately 20 weeks gestation.
  • Distribution throughout the lungs begins at 28-32 weeks’ gestation and does not reach sufficient concentration until 35 weeks gestation.

Surfactant deficiency → little or no reduction of alveolar surface tension → increased alveolar collapse → atelectasis → decreased lung compliance and functional residual capacity → hypoxemia and hypercapnia

Hypoxemia and hypercapnia → vasoconstriction of the pulmonary vessels (hypoxic vasoconstriction) and respiratory acidosis → intrapulmonary right-to-left shunt → increased permeability due to alveolar epithelial damage → fibrinous exudation within the alveoli → development of hyaline membranes in the lungs (hyaline membrane disease)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

What are the clinical features of NRDS

A
  • Maternal history of premature birth
  • Onset of symptoms is usually immediately after birth but can occur up to 72 hours postpartum
  • Signs of increased respiratory effort:
    • Tachypnea
    • Nasal flaring
    • moderate to severe subcostal/intercostal and jugular retractions
  • Characteristic expiratory grunting
  • Decreased breath sounds on auscultation
  • Cyanosis due to pulmonary hypoxic vasoconstriction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

How is NRDS diagnosed

A

Physical exam

Maternal history

X ray chest:

  • Interstitial pulmonary oedema with perihilar streaking
  • Diffuse, fine, reticulogranular (ground-glass) densities with low lung volumes and air bronchograms
  • Atelectasis

Blood gas analysis:

  • Hypoxia with respiratory acidosis may lead to increased lactate levels
  • Evaluate for partial respiratory failure or global respiratory failure

Amniocentesis for prenatal testing of NRDS:

  • screening for markers of fetal lung immaturity
  • Lecithin-sphingomyelin ratio <1.5 (≥ 2 is considered mature)
  • Foam stability index <0.48
  • Low surfactant-albumin ratio

Histological findings:

  • Hyaline membranes lining the alveoli
    • Composed of fibrin, cellular debris and red blood cells
    • Eosinophilic appearance, amorphous material lining the alveolar surface
  • Engorged and congested capillary vessels in the interstitium
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What are the differentials for NRDS

A

Pulmonary hypoplasia
Congenital diaphragmatic hernia
Pneumothorax
Neonatal pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

WHat is pulmonary hypoplasia

A

Underdevelopment of the lungs characterised by a decreased number of alveoli and small airways and reduced lung volumes in on eor both lobes

Results in impaired gas exchange and severe respiratory distress that may require intubation

Associated with congenital diaphragmatic hernia (usually left-sided), oligohydramnios, and Potter sequence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

How is NRDS treated

A

Ventilation:

  • Nasal CPAP with a PEEP of 3–8 cm H2O
  • If respiratory insufficiency persists, start intubation with mechanical ventilation and O2 inhalation.

Endotracheal administration of artificial surfactant within 2 hours postpartum

Supportive measures: IV fluid replacement; stabilization of blood sugar levels and electrolytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

What is physiological O2 saturation in neonates

A

Around 90%

A saturation 100% is considered toxic for neonates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

What are the potential complications of NRDS

A
  • Bronchopulmonary dysplasia
  • Pneumothorax
  • Hypoxia
  • Patent ductus arteriosus (the persistently low partial pressure of oxygen in the blood contributes to PDA)
  • Cardiovascular arrest
  • Neonatal sepsis
Complications of O2 inhalation: 
-Retinopathy of prematurity
-Bronchopulmonary dysplasia
-Intraventricular hemorrhage
(Baby Oxen have RIBs)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

What is the prognosis of NRDS

A

Mortality rate <10%

Most cases resolve within 3-5 days if treated promptly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

How is NRDS prevented

A

Prevent premature birth where possible (use of tocolysis to slow down)
Antenatal corticosteroid therapy administered to the mother to stimulate infant lung maturation:
-48 hours before delivery
-2 doses of IM betamethasone 24 hours apart or 4 doses of IM dexamethasone 12 hours apart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

What is a teratogen

A

An environmental factor that causes a permanent structual or functional abnormality, growth restriction or death of the embryo or foetus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

How can the physical effects of teratogens characteritically present

A
VACTERL association:
Vertebral, 
Anal, 
Cardiac,
Tracheoesophageal fistula, 
Renal, and 
Limb abnormalities 
- All due to a defect during the development of embryonic mesoderm
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

What are the types of limb deformities due to teratogens

A

Syndactyly: fusion of two or more fingers or toes (most common congenital malformation of the limbs)

Polymelia/polydactyly: supernumerary limbs, fingers, or toes

Oligodactyly, adactyly: absence of one or more of the fingers or toes

Ectromelia: collective term for hypoplasia and/or aplasia of one or more long bones, resulting in limb deformity

Peromelia/perodactyly: amputation-like stump of a limb, finger, or toe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

What is the pathophysiology of diabetic embryopathy

A

In first trimester

Hyperglycemia → inhibition of myoinositol uptake → abnormalities in the arachidonic acid-prostaglandin pathway → birth defects and spontaneous abortion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

What are the effects of diabetic embryology

A

Congenital heart disease:

  • transposition of the great vessels,
  • ventricular septal defect,
  • truncus arteriosus,
  • tricuspid atresia,
  • patent ductus arteriosus,
  • dextrocardia

Neural tube defects

Caudal regression syndrome:

  • Definition: rare structural anomaly of the caudal region
  • Clinical features:
    • Mild to severe motor function impairment, paralysis, and/or bladder incontinence
    • Anorectal malformations and sacral agenesis (aplasia or hypoplasia of the sacrum and/or lumbosacral spine)
    • Lower limb or foot deformities are common.
  • Prognosis: severe disease in the neonatal period that often results in infant death secondary to cardiac and renal complications

Duodenal atresia

Small left colon syndrome: self-limiting inability to pass meconium

Vertebral anomalies

Cleft palate

Flexion contracture of the limbs

Renal agenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

What is the pathophysiology of diabetic fetopathy

A

In the second and third trimester
Chronic fetal hyperglycemia → fetal hyperinsulinemia, islet cell hyperplasia, ↑ insulin-like growth factor, and ↑ growth hormones → ↑ metabolic effects and oxygen demand → fetal hypoxemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

What are the effects of diabetic fetopathy

A

Macrosomia (increased risk of birth injuries)

Polycythemia (associated with an increased risk of hyperviscosity syndrome and hyperbilirubinemia)

Neonatal hypoglycemia

Electrolyte imbalances (hypocalcemia, hypomagnesemia)

Respiratory distress (due to insufficient production of pulmonary surfactant)

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (polycythemia → redistribution of iron → iron deficiency in cardiac tissue and hypoxemia → impaired cardiac remodeling)

Polyhydramnios (fetal hyperglycemia → fetal polyuria)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

What can be the consequence of maternal graves disease

A
Neonatal thyrotoxicosis 
Microcephaly
Frontal bossing and triangular facies
Craniosynostosis
Developmental and behavioral problems
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

What can be the consequence of maternal hypothyroidism

A

Congenital hypothyroidism with a possible congenital iodine deficiency syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

What can be the consequence of maternal obesity in pregnancy

A

Neural tube defects
Cleft lip and cleft palate
Congenital heart disease
Limb reduction abnormalities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

What can be the consequence of phenylketonuria

A

IUGR
Microcephaly
Intellectual disability
Congenital heart disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

What is the epidemiology of fetal alcohol syndrome

A

Most common cause of teratogenic damage in children (0.2–1.5 per 1,000 live births) [10]
Most common preventable cause of intellectual disability in the US

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

What is the pathophysiology of fetal alcohol syndrome

A

Failed neuronal and glial cell migration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

What are the clinical features of fetal alcohol syndrome

A

Dysmorphic features:

  • Thin upper lip
  • Smooth hypoplastic philtrum (the vertical groove between the middle of the upper lip and the nose)
  • Down-slanting, short palpebral fissures (the opening between the upper and lower eyelid, defined as the elliptical space between the medial and lateral canthi of the open eye)
  • Hypertelorism
  • Microcephaly
  • Epicanthal folds
  • Receding chin

Features of specific systemic defects:

  • Heart defects (mainly ventricular septal defect)
  • Heart-lung fistulas
  • Skeletal anomalies (limb dislocations, joint contractures, pectus excavatum/pectus carinatum)
  • Renal anomalies (aplastic/dysplastic kidneys) leading to hypertension
  • Prenatal or postnatal growth retardation → short stature
  • Holoprosencephaly: a developmental field defect, in which the forebrain fails to divide into two hemispheres resulting in fusion of ventricles (leading to the formation of monoventricle) and other bilateral cerebral structures, e.g., basal ganglia
    • Typically occurring during the 3rd–4th week of pregnancy
    • Potential genetic causes include:
  • – Mutations in SHH gene coding for sonic hedgehog protein
  • – Trisomy 13
    • Associated clinical features:
  • – Craniofacial abnormalities (cyclopia and/or cleft lip/palate)
  • – Endocrine disorders related to pituitary dysfunction (e.g., diabetes insipidus)
  • – Seizures and epilepsy

Hyperactivity, intellectual disability (e.g., impaired language development, learning disabilities, memory deficits), and subsequent problems in social interactions and school performance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

What are potential differentials for fetal alcohol syndrome

A

Down syndrome
Fragile-X syndrome
Williams syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

What is the pathophysiology of smoking cigarettes during pregnancy

A

Nicotine:
↑ catecholamine release → vasoconstriction of uteroplacental blood vessels → compromised blood flow and oxygen delivery to the fetus

Carbon monoxide:
↑ COHb causes tissue hypoxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

What are the effects of cigarette smoking in pregnancy

A

Intrauterine growth restriction and low birth weight

Increased risk of preterm labor and miscarriage (e.g., due to placental abnormalities such as placental abruption)

Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) and conduct disorder

Sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS)

Cleft lip and palate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

What can result from opioid use during pregnancy

A

Fetal dysgenesis
Placental abruption
Respiratory depression
Neonatal abstinence syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

What can result from cocaine use during pregnancy

A

Causes vasoconstriction in the placental vessels
Intrauterine growth retardation and low birth weight
Increased risk of preterm labor and placental abruption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

What was Diethylstilbestrol used for previously

A

A synthetic estrogen that is primarily used to prevent miscarriages in expectant mothers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

What were the adverse effects found in use of Diethylstilbestrol, leading to it’s approval being revoked

A

Vaginal clear cell adenocarcinoma

Congenital anomalies of the Müllerian duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

What was Thalidomide used for previously

A

A sedative that was used to treat nausea or vomiting in pregnant women (now administered in limited indications, e.g., multiple myeloma)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

What were the adverse effects found in use of Thalidomide, leading to it’s approval being revoked for use in pregnancy

A

Thalidomide embryopathy:

  • Symmetrical amelia (complete absence of limbs)
  • Micromelia (“flipper limbs”)
  • Anotia (absence of the external ear)
  • Phocomelia: a teratogenic limb defect that is characterized by the absence of the proximal portion of a limb (hand or foot are directly attached to the shoulder or hip)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

What are the potential effects from radiation exposure during pregnancy

A

Chromosomal damage or cell death leading to:

  • Microcephaly
  • Intellectual disability
  • Growth restriction
  • Malignancy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

What are the potential effects of maternal lead toxicity

A

Spontaneous abortion
Stillbirth
Hemangiomas, lymphangiomas, hydroceles, skin tags, undescended testes
VACTERL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

What are the potential effects of maternal mercury toxicity

A

Cerebellar atrophy
Atrophy of the visual brain cortex
Polyneuritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

What is sudden infant death syndrome

A

SIDS
The abrupt and unexplained death of an infant
Diagnosis requires that a forensic examination reveals no other cause of death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

What is the epidemiology of SIDS

A

Peak incidence at 2-6 months
In rare cases during the first days of life
Male>female
Over 90% of SIDS occur during sleep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

What is the aetiology of SIDS

A

Unclear but suggests that caused by a combination of both extrinsic and intrinsic factors which ultimately lead to acute or chronic hypoxia

Extrinsic factors (triggers):

  • Sleeping in the prone position
  • Exposure to nicotine during pregnancy and after birth (including 2nd-hand smoking)
  • Overheating
  • Unsafe sleeping environment or CO2 rebreathing: e.g., a shared blanket, stuffed animals in the crib (because of the grasping reflex, newborns tend to drag items to their faces)
  • Many more correlations:
    • SIDS in siblings,
    • babies born prematurely,
    • young mothers (< 20 years),
    • low socioeconomic status, etc.

Intrinsic factors:
-Brainstem disorder that includes morphologic/ biochemical abnormalities of serotonin (known as 5-hydroxytryptamine or 5-HT), which impacts the respiratory drive, the ability to wake up, blood pressure, upper respiratory reflexes , and body temperature.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

How is SIDS diagnosed

A

Diagnosis of exclusion.

If there is an unexplained death of an apparently healthy infant, an autopsy is required by law to rule out other causes of death.

Differentials:

  • Congenital anomalies that could lead to infant death (e.g., cardiac anomalies)
  • Intentional suffocation; evidence of battered child syndrome
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

What is an apparent life-threatening event of an infant (ALTE)

A

A sudden and unexpected event occurring in an infant that is considered life-threatening by the observer and is characterized by some combination of the following:

  • Apnea
  • Changes in skin color (usually cyanosis or pallor) and/or muscle tone (e.g., rigidity, floppiness)
  • Choking/gasping

May occur when the infant is awake or asleep
Not associated with SIDS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

What is the epidemiology of ALTE

A

Reported incidence is 0.05-6%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

What is the aetiology of ALTE

A

Most common causes:

  • seizure,
  • respiratory tract infection,
  • gastroesophageal reflux,
  • cardiac conditions (e.g., arrhythmia)

Associated risk factors:

  • age < 10 weeks,
  • prematurity,
  • prior ALTE,
  • feeding difficulties,
  • and/or symptoms of upper respiratory infection
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

What is the prognosis of ALTE

A

Recurrence is high but overall mortality is low (<1%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

How is SIDS prevented

A

Parents should receive information on how to prevent SIDS during prenatal care and in pediatric check-ups after birth.

During pregnancy:

  • No smoking, alcohol, or recreational drugs
  • Prenatal care

Protective factors after birth:

  • The infant should be placed to sleep in the supine position
  • Safe sleep environment:
    • firm mattress;
    • no:
  • – pillows,
  • – blankets,
  • – stuffed animals,
  • – bumper pads in the crib.
  • In the first 6 months, co-sleeping in the same room without bed-sharing
  • Second-hand smoke and overheating should be avoided
  • Use of pacifier during sleep
  • Breastfeeding until the 4th–6th month
  • “Tummy time”
  • Immunization in line with the official schedule
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

What causes congenital infections

A

Pathogens transmitted from mother to child during pregnancy (transplacentally) or delivery (permpartum)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

What does the acronym TORCH stand for

A

Toxoplasmosis

Others:

  • Syphilis (Treponema pallidum)
  • Listeriosis
  • Varicella zoster virus
  • Parovirus B19 infection

Rubella virus

Cytomegalovirus (CMV)

Herpes simplex virus (HSV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

What are congenital TORCH infections

A

Vertically transmitted infections (acquired directly from the mother and transmitted to the embryo, fetus or newborn through the placenta or birth canal) that are capable of significantly influencing fetal and neonatal morbidity and mortality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

Which vaccines are contraindicated in pregnancy

A

Live vaccines: measles, mumps, rubella and varicella

Conception should be avoided for 1 months after immunisation with live vaccines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

How common is congenital toxoplasmosis

A

~0.5-1 : 10,000 live births per year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

Which pathogen causes congenital toxoplasmosis

A

Toxoplasma gondii

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

How is toxoplasmosis transmitted to a newborn

A

Mother:

  • Cat feces
  • Raw or insufficiently cooked meat
  • Unpasteurized milk (especially goat milk)

Fetus:

  • Transplacental transmission
    • First trimester: ∼ 15%
    • Third trimester: ∼ 70%
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

What are the clinical features of congenital toxoplasmosis

A

First trimester:

  • Increased risk of premature birth and spontaneous abortion
  • Classic triad of toxoplasmosis
    • Chorioretinitis (a form of posterior uveitis)
    • Diffuse intracranial calcifications
    • Hydrocephalus
  • Possible other nonspecific clinical features:
    • Petechiae and purpura (blueberry muffin rash)
    • Fever
    • Jaundice
    • Hepatosplenomegaly
    • Lymphadenopathy
    • Pneumonitis
    • Seizures
    • Macrocephaly or microcephaly
    • Thrombocytopenia

Second or third trimester:
-Subclinical or mild toxoplasmosis

Sequelae of congenital toxoplasmosis:

  • Epilepsy
  • Intellectual disability
  • Visual disabilities (chorioretinitis → increased risk of retinal lesions , cataracts, and glaucoma)
  • Sensorineural hearing loss
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

How is congential toxoplasmosis diagnosed

A

Fetus:
-PCR for T.gondii in amniotic fluid

Newborn:
-CT/MRI: intracranial calcifications, hydrocephalus, ring-enhancing lesions
-T. gondii-specific IgM antibodies (CSF, serum)
PCR forT. gondii DNA (CSF, serum)
-Ophthalmological evaluation: chorioretinitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

How is congential toxoplasmosis treated

A

Mother: immediate administration of spiramycin to prevent fetal toxoplasmosis

Fetus: When confirmed or highly suspected, switch to pyrimethamine, sulfadiazine, and folinic acid.

Newborn: pyrimethamine, sulfadiazine, and folinic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

What are the 4 Cs pf congenital toxoplasmosis

A

Cerbral calcifications
Chorioretinitis
hydroCephalus
Convulsions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

How can congenital toxoplasmosis be prevented

A

Avoid raw, undercooked, and cured meats.
Wash hands frequently, especially after touching soil (e.g., during gardening).
Avoid contact with cat litter.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

How common is congenital syphilis

A

~23:100,000 live births per year in US

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

What pathogen causes congenital syphilis

A

Treponema pallidum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

How is congenital syphilis transmitted

A

Mother:
-Sexual contact (contact with infectious lesion)

Fetus:

  • Transplacental transmission from infected mother
  • Increased risk of transmission with recent syphilis infection
  • Risk of transmission increases with gestational age

Neonate:
-Perinatal transmission during birth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

How does congenital syphilis present

A

In utero syphilis:

  • Miscarriage
  • Stillbirth
  • Hydrops fetalis

Early congenital syphilis (onset < 2 years of age):

  • Hepatomegaly and jaundice
  • Rhinorrhea with white or bloody nasal discharge (also called “snuffles”)
  • Maculopapular rash on palms and soles; a bullous form of the rash called pemphigus syphiliticus may be present at birth.
  • Skeletal abnormalities (e.g., metaphyseal dystrophy, periostitis)
  • Generalized lymphadenopathy (nontender)

Late congenital syphilis (onset > 2 years of age):
-Typical facial features:
– saddle nose,
– frontal bossing,
– short maxilla
-Dental findings:
– Hutchinson’s teeth (notched, widely spaced teeth);
– mulberry molars (poorly developed first molars)
-Eyes and ears
– Syphilitic keratitis: nonulcerative, interstitial keratitis that develops as a late complication of syphilis
(More common in patients with congenital syphilis than acquired syphilis. Causes stromal inflammation)
– Sensorineural hearing loss
-Skin: rhagades (perioral fissures, cracks, and/or scars, particularly near the corners of the mouth and nose)
-Skeletal
– Saber shins: An anterior bowing of the tibia, causing it to resemble a saber
(Other causes include rickets and Paget disease of bone.)
– Painless arthritis in knees and other joints
-Neurological:
– cranial nerve palsies (e.g., CN VIII defect causing deafness),
– intellectual disability,
– hydrocephalus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

How is congenital syphilis diagnosed

A

Newborn and mother:

  • Initial test: Rapid Plasma Reagin (RPR) or Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL) (serum)
  • Confirmatory test: dark-field microscopy or PCR of lesions or bodily fluids

Fetus:
-repeated ultrasound examinations (looking for placentomegaly, hepatomegaly, ascites, and/or hydrops fetalis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

How is congenital syphilis treated

A

10 days IV penicillin G for both pregnant women and newborns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

How is congenital syphilis prevented

A

Maternal screening and, if positive, antibiotic treatment: should take place in early pregnancy because placental transmission is most likely to occur after the first trimester.

Nationally notifiable condition: Congenital syphilis and syphilitic childbirth must be reported

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

WHat is Hutchinson triad

A

Triad of common symptoms of congenital syphilis

Interstitial keratitis
Sensorineural hearing loss
Hutchinson teeth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

How common is congenital listeriosis

A

~3:100,000 live births per year in the US

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

Which pathogen causes congenital listeriosis

A

Listeria monocytogenes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

How is congenital listeriosis transmitted

A

Mother:

  • Contaminated food: especially raw milk products
    • Other possible sources: fish, meat, and industrially processed vegetables (e.g., ready-made salads)

Fetus:

  • Transplacental transmission from an infected mother
  • Direct contact with infected vaginal secretions and/or blood during delivery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

What are the clinical features of congenital listeriosis

A

Listeriosis of pregnancy:

  • Increased risk of premature birth and spontaneous abortion
  • Early-onset syndrome: granulomatosis infantiseptica
    • Severe systemic infection characterized by disseminated abscesses (may develop in any organ system)
    • Most common findings: respiratory distress and skin lesions
    • Signs of meningitis may already develop.

Neonatal listeriosis:
-Late-onset syndrome (5 days to 3 weeks after birth): Listeria meningitis/encephalitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

How is congenital listeriosis diagnosed

A

Culture from blood or CSF samples (pleocytosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

How is congenital listeriosis treated

A

IV ampicillin and gentamicin for both mother and newborn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

How is congenital listeriosis prevented

A

Avoidance of soft cheese
Avoidance of potentially contaminated water and food
Notifiable condition so report to public health

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

How common is congenital varicella infection

A

Seroprevalence in the general population is ∼ 95%.

Most mothers have been vaccinated, so congenital infection is rare (< 2%).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

Which pathogen causes congenital varicella infection

A

Varicella zoster virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

How is congenital varicella infection transmitted

A

Mother:

  • Primary infection
    • Airborne droplets
    • Direct skin contact with vesicle fluid
  • Reactivation: usually in immunocompromised individuals
  • Chickenpox and Shingles

Fetus:
-Transplacental transmission from an infected mother

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

What are the clinical features of congenital varicella infection

A

Congenital varicella syndrome (infection during first and second trimester):

  • Hypertrophic scars (cicatricial skin lesions)
  • Limb defects (e.g., hypoplasia)
  • Ocular defects (e.g., chorioretinitis, cataracts, microphthalmia)
  • CNS defects (e.g., cortical atrophy, seizures, intellectual disability)
  • Hydrocephalus

Neonatal varicella:

  • Mild infection (maternal exanthem (rash) > 5 days before birth)
  • Severe infection (maternal exanthem (rash) < 5 days before birth):
    • hemorrhagic exanthem,
    • encephalitis, pneumonia, or
    • congenital varicella syndrome (mortality rate of up to 30%)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

How is congenital varicella infection diagnosed

A

Newborn and mother:

  • Usually clinical diagnosis is confirmed by appearance of skin lesions
  • DFA or PCR of fluid collected from blisters or cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)
  • Serology

Fetus:
-PCR for VZV DNA (in fetal blood, amniotic fluid) and ultrasound to detect fetal abnormalities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

How is congenital varicella infection treated

A

For pregnant women or newborns with (severe) infection: acyclovir

Administer postexposure prophylaxis in newborns if mother displays symptoms of varicella < 5 days before delivery:
-IgG antibodies (varicella-zoster immune globulin, VZIG)

Cesarean delivery if lesions are present at the delivery

Breastfeeding is encouraged because of the possible protective effect of antibodies in breast milk.

180
Q

How is congenital listeriosis prevented

A

Immunization of seronegative women before pregnancy
VZIG in pregnant women without immunity within 10 days of exposure

Nationally notifiable condition

181
Q

How common is congenital parvovirus B19 infection

A

∼ 5% incidence in pregnant women per year in the US

Higher prevalence in daycare workers and primary school teachers

182
Q

What causes congential parvovirus B19

A

Pathogen: parvovirus B19

Mechanism of action: infection of erythrocyte progenitor cells in bone marrow and endothelial cells by attaching to their P antigen → cell destruction → hydrops fetalis in neonates and pure RBC aplasia in adults

183
Q

How is congential parvovirus B19 transmitted

A

Mother

  • Mainly via aerosols
  • Rarely hematogenous transmission
  • See “Fifth disease.”

Fetus: transplacental transmission from infected mother

184
Q

How does congential parvovirus B19 present

A

Severe anemia and possibly fetal hydrops

Fetal demise and miscarriage/stillbirth in approximately 10% of cases (Risk is highest in the first and second trimesters.)

Most intrauterine infections do not result in fetal developmental defects.

185
Q

What is fetal hydrops

A

A fetal condition characterized by generalized edema and accumulation of fluid in serous cavities (e.g., pleural effusion, pericardial effusion, ascites).
Diagnosed via ultrasound.
Aetiologies include severe fetal anemia (e.g., hemolytic disease of the newborn, hemorrhage), congenital infections (e.g., parvovirus B19), chromosomal abnormalities, and congenital heart defects.
Associated with a high rate of perinatal mortality.

186
Q

How is congential parvovirus B19 diagnosed

A

Mother:
Serologic assays for IgG and IgM against parvovirus B19

Fetus:

  • PCR for parvovirus B19 DNA (amniotic fluid or blood)
  • Doppler ultrasound of fetal vessels in suspected hydrops fetalis (every 1–2 weeks)
  • In cases of suspected anemia according to Doppler ultrasound, fetal hemoglobin levels are determined via the umbilical vein.
187
Q

How is congential parvovirus B19 treated

A

Intrauterine fetal blood transfusion in cases of severe fetal anemia

Additional platelet transfusion if thrombocytopenia is also present

188
Q

How is congential parvovirus B19 prevented

A

Hand hygiene (frequent hand washing)

Pregnant women with risk factors for TORCH infection should avoid potentially contaminated workplaces (e.g., schools, pediatric clinics).

189
Q

How common is congenital rubella infection

A

Most mothers have been vaccinated so congenital infection is very rare

190
Q

What pathogen causes congenital rubella infection

A

Rubella virus

191
Q

How is congential rubella infection transmitted

A

Mother:
Mainly via airborne droplets

Fetus:

  • Transplacental from infected mother
  • Risk of fetal infection is high in the first trimester, decreased in the second trimester and then increased again in the third trimester.
  • Risk of congenital rubella syndrome:
    • 1–12 weeks gestation (period of organogenesis): highest risk
    • 12–20 weeks gestation: very low
    • > 20 weeks gestation: no documented cases
192
Q

How does congenital rubella infection present

A

Intrauterine rubella infection:

  • miscarriage,
  • preterm birth,
  • fetal growth restriction (especially likely if infection occurs during the first trimester)

Congenital rubella syndrome:

  • Triad of symptoms:
    • Cardiac defect: most common defect (e.g., patent ductus arteriosus, pulmonary artery stenosis)
    • Cataracts: Other eye manifestations may also occur later in life, including glaucoma and salt and pepper retinopathy (abnormal retinal pigmentation)
    • Cochlear defect: bilateral sensorineural hearing loss
  • Early features:
    • Hepatosplenomegaly, jaundice
    • Hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia
    • Petechiae and purpura, i.e., blueberry muffin rash (due to extramedullary hematopoiesis in the skin)
    • Transient meningitis and/or encephalitis
    • Pneumonia
  • Late features
    • CNS defects: microcephaly, intellectual disability, panencephalitis
    • Skeletal abnormalities
    • Endocrine disorders (e.g., diabetes, thyroid dysfunction)
    • Vascular disease
    • Immune defects
193
Q

How is congenital rubella infection diagnosed

A

Newborn and mother:

  • PCR for rubella RNA (throat swab, CSF)
  • Serology (abnormally high or persistent concentrations of IgM and/or IgG antibodies)
  • Viral culture (nasopharynx, blood)

Fetus:

  • IgM antibody serology (chorionic villi, amniotic fluid)
  • PCR for rubella RNA (chorionic villi, amniotic fluid)
194
Q

How is congenital rubella infection treated

A

Intrauterine rubella infection:

  • < 16 weeks: Counsel about potential maternal-fetal transmission and the possibility of terminating the pregnancy.
  • > 16 weeks: reassurance and symptomatic therapy (e.g., acetaminophen)

Congenital rubella syndrome:
-supportive care (based on individual disease manifestations) and surveillance (including monitoring for late-term complications)

195
Q

How is congenital rubella infection prevented

A

Immunization of seronegative women before pregnancy

Nationally notifiable condition

196
Q

What is the CCC triad of congenital rubella syndrome

A

Cataracts
Cochlear defects
Cardiac abnormality

197
Q

How common is congenital CMV infection

A

~0.5%-1% of live births per year in the US

198
Q

What is the pathogen that causes congenital CMV infection

A

Cytomegalovirus

199
Q

How is congenital CMV infection transmitted

A

Mother: via CMV-contaminated blood, urine, saliva, and genital secretions:

  • Blood transfusions
  • Sexual transmission
  • Droplet transmission
  • Transplant-transmitted infection (e.g., bone marrow, lungs, kidneys)

Fetus: transplacental transmission from an infected mother

Newborn: during birth or postnatal via breastmilk from infected mother

200
Q

How does congenital CMV infection present

A

Fetal infection:

  • Increased risk of fetal demise
  • IUGR
  • Oligohydramnios or polyhydramnios, placental abnormalities

Newborn infection:

  • Severity
    • Subclinical infection (∼ 90%): ∼ 10% go on to develop a late complication (most commonly hearing loss)
    • Symptomatic infection at birth (∼ 10%): ∼ 70–80% go on to develop a late complication.
  • CNS findings
    • Hydrocephalus
    • Microcephaly .
  • Sensorineural hearing loss (∼ 30%)
  • Chorioretinitis (∼ 10%)
  • Nonspecific findings (similar to other TORCH infections)
    • Petechiae, purpura (blueberry muffin rash)
    • Hepatosplenomegaly, jaundice
    • Small for gestational age (SGA)
    • Seizures, lethargy, poor suck
    • Hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia
    • Pneumonia
  • Late complications
    • Hearing loss, vision impairment
    • Psychomotor retardation, intellectual disability
    • Dental abnormalities
201
Q

How is congential CMV infection diagnosed

A

Fetus and newborn

  • CNS imaging:
    • hydrocephalus,
    • periventricular calcifications,
    • intraventricular hemorrhage
  • Ultrasound:
    • periventricular calcifications,
    • hyperechogenic foci (bowel and liver, ascites)
    • hydrops fetalis

Newborn and mother:

  • CMV IgM antibodies (blood)
  • Viral culture or PCR for CMV DNA (urine, saliva)

Fetus

  • Viral culture or PCR for CMV DNA (amniotic fluid)
  • CMV IgM antibodies (fetal blood)
202
Q

What is the differential in suspected congenital CMV infection

A

Congenital toxoplasmosis:

  • Causes chorioretinitis, hydrocephalus, and intracranial calcifications
  • Intracranial calcifications in congenital toxoplasmosis typically show ring-enhancement.
203
Q

How is congenital CMV infection treated

A

Fetus:

  • Severe anemia: intrauterine blood transfusions
  • Thrombocytopenia: platelet transfusions

Newborn:

  • Supportive therapy of symptoms (e.g., fluid and electrolyte imbalances, anemia, thrombocytopenia, seizures, secondary infections)
  • Ganciclovir, valganciclovir, or foscarnet

Mother:
-Valacyclovir is the only therapy approved during pregnancy

204
Q

How is congenital CMV infection prevented

A

Frequent hand washing, especially after contact with bodily secretions of small children (e.g., diaper changing)

Avoidance of food sharing with children

Avoidance of kissing small children on the mouth

205
Q

How common is congenital herpes simplex virus infection

A

~1:3,000-10,000 live births per year

206
Q

What pathogen causes congenital herpes simplex virus infection

A

Mainly HSV-2; in rare cases HSV-1

207
Q

How is congenital HSV infection transmitted

A

Mother:

  • Primary infection: contact with contaminated oral secretions via small skin lesions
  • Reactivation: usually in immunocompromised individuals

Fetus:
-transplacental transmission from an infected mother (rare)

Newborn: perinatal transmission during birth (∼ 30% transmission rate if mother has not yet undergone seroconversion at time of delivery)

208
Q

How does congential HSV infection present

A

Intrauterine HSV infection (∼ 5% of cases):

  • Fetal demise, preterm birth, very low birth weight
  • Microcephaly, hydrocephalus, and other CNS defects
  • Microphthalmia and chorioretinitis
  • Vesicular skin lesions

Perinatal and postnatal transmission:

  • Skin, eye, and mouth disease
    • Vesicular skin lesions
    • Keratoconjunctivitis leading to cataracts, chorioretinitis
    • Vesicular lesions of oropharynx
  • CNS disease
    • Meningoencephalitis (manifesting with fever, lethargy, irritability, poor feeding, seizures, bulging fontanelle)
    • Possibly vesicular skin lesions
  • Disseminated disease
    • Features similar to those of sepsis, with organ involvement (e.g., liver, CNS, lungs, heart, adrenal glands, kidneys, GI tract)
    • Vesicular skin lesions (may not appear until late in disease course)
209
Q

How is congenital HSV infection diagnosed

A

Mother: typically a clinical diagnosis

Fetus: The ultrasound may show CNS abnormalities.

Newborn (and mother)

  • Standard: viral culture of HSV from skin lesions, conjunctiva, oro/nasopharynx, or rectum
  • Alternative: PCR for HSV DNA (CSF, blood)
210
Q

How is congenital HSV infection treated

A

Newborn and mother: IV acyclovir or valacyclovir

Additionally in newborns: supportive therapy of fluid/electrolyte imbalances, SIRS, septic shock, seizures, secondary infections, etc.

211
Q

How is congential HSV infection prevented

A

Antiviral therapy (acyclovir) beginning at 36 weeks of gestation for individuals with a known history of HSV lesions

Cesarean delivery in women with active genital lesions or prodromal symptoms (e.g., burning pain)

212
Q

How is neonatal jaundice treated

A

Phototherapy:

  • Primary treatment in those with unconjucated hyperbilirubinaemia
  • Procedure:
    • Exposure to blue light (non-UV, wavelength: 420–480 nm) → photoisomerization (major mechanism) and photooxidation (minor mechanism) of unconjugated (hydrophobic) bilirubin in skin to water-soluble forms → excretion of water-soluble form in urine and/or bile
    • Continued until total bilirubin levels < 15 mg/dL
    • Adequate fluid supplementation to prevent dehydration
    • Eye protection to prevent retinal damage
  • Contraindications:
    • Concomitant use of photosensitizing medications
    • Congenital erythropoietic porphyria
    • Family history of porphyria

Exchange transfusion:

  • Most rapid method for lowering serum bilirubin concentrations
  • Indications
    • Threshold in a 24-hour-old term baby is a total serum bilirubin value > 20 mg/dL
    • Inadequate response to phototherapy, or a rapid rise in the total serum bilirubin level (> 1 mg/dL/hour in less than 6 hours)
    • Acute bilirubin encephalopathy
    • Hemolytic disease, severe anemia
  • Procedure
    • Use ABO-matched and Rh-negative erythrocyte concentrate.
    • Exchange blood in quantities of 5–20 mL via an umbilical venous catheter until total serum bilirubin is < 95thpercentile on nomogram.
  • Side effects
    • Higher mortality and morbidity from infections
    • Acidosis
    • Thrombosis
    • Hypotension
    • Electrolyte imbalances

IV immunoglobulin:

  • Indications: used in cases with immunologically mediated conditions, or in the presence of Rh, ABO, or other blood group incompatibilities that cause significant neonatal jaundice
  • Dose range for IVIG: 500–1000 mg/kg
213
Q

What are the potential side effects of phototherapy use in neonatal jaundice

A

Diarrhea, dehydration

Changes in skin hue (bronzing) and skin rashes

Separation of the neonate from the mother

↑ Risk of AML

Bronze baby syndrome (rare):

  • Occurs in infants with elevated direct bilirubin (conjugated bilirubin > 2mg/dL) following phototherapy
  • Thought to be caused by abnormal accumulation of bronze-colored pigments (photoisomers of bilirubin) within the skin
  • Presents with a reversible grayish-brown discoloration of the skin, urine, and serum
  • Usually resolves slowly after cessation of phototherapy without complications
214
Q

What are potential complications of neonatal jaundice

A

Acute bilirubin encephalopathy:

  • Onset within first days of life
  • Lethargy, hypotonia (floppy infant syndrome), poor feeding
  • Fever, shrill cry
  • Stupor, apnea, seizures
  • Possibly fatal if neurotoxicity is severe

Kernicterus (chronic bilirubin encephalopathy):

  • Develops over first years of life
  • Pathophysiology: deposition of unconjugated bilirubin (liposoluble) in the basal ganglia and/or brain stem nuclei
  • Clinical features:
    • Cerebral paresis, hearing impairment, vertical gaze palsy
    • Movement disorder (athetosis)
    • Apparent intellectual and developmental disabilities
    • Dental enamel hypoplasia
215
Q

What is the prognosis of neonatal jaundice

A

Favorable in most cases

In rare cases, kernicterus may occur, resulting in permanent neurological sequelae.

216
Q

How is neonatal jaundice prevented

A

Interruption of enterohepatic circulation with adequate enteral nutrition

Frequent feeds with breast milk

Protein-rich nutrition in the form of breast milk or special formula feeds

In the case of dehydration, protein-rich feeding solutions are preferred over glucose or water.

217
Q

What is haemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (HDFN)

A

A condition characterised by blood group incompatibility between mother and fetus that leads to the destruction of foetal erythrocytes by maternal antibodies

218
Q

What is the aetiology of HDFN

A

ABO incompatibility:

  • Present in ∼ 20% of all pregnancies
  • However, only 5–10% of newborns from these pregnancies are symptomatic.

Rh incompatibility:
-Rare following routine anti-D prophylaxis

Kell blood group system incompatibility:
-Second most common cause of severe HDFN after Rh disease

Risk factors:

  • Maternal exposure to fetal blood during pregnancy
  • Antenatal procedures (e.g., amniocentesis, cesarean delivery, termination of pregnancy)
  • Pregnancy-related complications (e.g., ectopic pregnancy, placental abruption)
  • Trauma
219
Q

What is the pathophysiology HDFN

A

ABO incompatibility:

  • Highest risk: mother with blood group O; newborn with blood group A or B
  • Maternal antibodies (anti-A and/or anti-B) against nonself antigens of the ABO system are present even if sensitization has not occurred, so fetal hemolysis may occur during the first pregnancy.

Rh incompatibility:

  • In an Rh-negative mother and Rh-positive newborn: maternal exposure to fetal blood (fetomaternal hemorrhage) → production of maternal IgM antibodies against the Rh antigen → over time, seroconversion to Rh-IgG (able to cross the placenta)
  • In a subsequent pregnancy with an Rh-positive newborn: rapid production of maternal IgG anti-D antibodies to fetal RhD antigens → Rh-IgG agglutination of fetal RBCs with hemolytic anemia → risk of HDFN with possible hydrops fetalis
220
Q

What is nonimmune hydrops fetalis

A

A subgroup of haemolytic diseases of the fetus and newborn not caused by red cell alloimmunisation

221
Q

How common is nonimmune hydrops fetalis

A

Incidence: ∼ 1 in 4,000 pregnancies

Accounts for over 90% of all hydrops fetalis cases

222
Q

What causes nonimmune hydrops fetalis

A

Congenital heart defects and arrhythmias

Chromosomal aberrations (e.g., Turner syndrome, Down syndrome, trisomy 18)

Severe fetal anemia (e.g., thalassemia, twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome, fetomaternal hemorrhage)

Congenital TORCH infections (especially parvovirus B19 infection)

223
Q

What is the pathophysiology of nonimmune hydrops fetalis

A

Severe fetal anemia → hypoxia → ↓ hepatic and renal blood flow → activation of RAAS → ↑ central venous pressure and ↓ lymphatic flow → fetal edema

224
Q

What are the clinical heatures of HDFN

A

Prenatal:
-Hydrops fetalis (expected in cases of Rh incompatibility and in nonimmune hydrops fetalis)

Postnatal:

  • Neonatal anemia
  • Hepatosplenomegaly
  • Neonatal jaundice
    • Usually present at birth or manifests within the first 24 hours of life
    • In Rh incompatibility, unconjugated bilirubin levels may be dangerously high, causing kernicterus.
  • Hypoxia
  • Prematurity
  • Scattered petechiae (rare but associated with poor prognosis)

ABO incompatibility usually has a significantly milder course of disease than Rh incompatibility

Anaemia may conceal cyanosis

225
Q

How is HDFN diagnosed

A

The diagnosis of HDFN requires evidence of hemolysis in the presence of fetomaternal blood incompatibility.

Prenatal diagnosis:
Imaging
-Ultrasound: to determine hydrops fetalis
– Fetal pleural or pericardial effusions
– Fetal ascites
– Fetal subcutaneous or nuchal edema
– Placental edema
-Doppler sonography of fetal blood vessels:
– Increased flow rate indicates fetal anemia.

Postnatal diagnosis:

  • If the newborn has signs of hemolysis, conduct a Coombs test (either direct or indirect).
    • Rh incompatibility: positive
    • ABO incompatibility: weak positive or negative
226
Q

What is a Coombs test

A

An agglutination test that is used either to detect haemolytic antibodies and/or complement proteins that are already bound to erythrocytes (direct Coombs test) or unbound anti-erythrocyte antibodies in serum (indirect Coombs test).

227
Q

What is neonatal alloimmune thrombocytopenia

A

A rare condition in newborns characterised by maternal-fetal platelet incompatibility resulting in fetal thrombocytopenia

The leading cause of severe thrombocytopenia in the newborn

228
Q

What is the pathophysiology of neonatal alloimmune thrombocytopenia

A

Formation of maternal antibodies against fetal platelets (most commonly targeting platelet antigen 1a) → maternal IgG cross the placenta and result in the destruction of fetal platelets → fetal and neonatal thrombocytopenia

229
Q

What are the clinical features of neonatal alloimmune thrombocytopenia

A

Mild: asymptomatic thrombocytopenia

Moderate: petechia and/or ecchymoses within a few hours after birth

Severe: spontaneous intracranial hemorrhage

230
Q

How is HDFN treated

A

Prenatal:

  • Intrauterine blood transfusion via the umbilical vein, umbilical artery, peritoneal cavity, or heart (should only be performed in centers with experience in fetal transfusions.)
  • Possible IV immunoglobulin (IVIG) in severe cases

Postnatal:
-Anemia: iron supplementation and, if necessary, RBC transfusion.
-Hyperbilirubinemia: phototherapy; if necessary, exchange transfusion with red blood cells
See “Treatment” in neonatal jaundice.
-In severe cases, IV immunoglobulin (IVIG) may be administered.

231
Q

How is neonatal HDFN prevented

A

SCREENING:

ABO and Rh typing of the mother

  • Rh-positive mothers do not need further screening.
  • Rh-negative mothers: screening for anti-D antibodies
    • No anti-D antibodies (unsensitized mothers): antibody screening repeated at 28 weeks’ gestation and at delivery.
    • Anti-D antibodies manifest with an anti-D antibody titer > 1:8, which indicates maternal sensitization to fetal Rh antigens (sensitized mothers).
    • Further monitoring with amniocentesis and imaging is required for evidence of hemolysis.

Fetomaternal hemorrhage in Rh-negative mother

  • Conduct a rosette test (initial test of choice).
    • This is a qualitative test that assesses whether fetomaternal hemorrhage has occurred.
    • The apt test is an alternative to the rosette test, but it only differentiates whether the origin of blood is fetal/newborn or from the mother, e.g., from:
  • – Newborn gastrointestinal (stool, vomiting) or pulmonary bleeding
  • – Antepartum hemorrhage (e.g., vasa previa)
  • If the rosette test is positive, conduct a Kleihauer-Betke test.
    • Quantitative testing to evaluate fetomaternal hemorrhage
    • The amount of fetal hemoglobin determines the amount of Anti-D immunoglobulin necessary.
    • Flow cytometry is an alternative, but its use is limited by equipment and costs.

Fetal Rh genotyping

ANTI-D IMMUNOGLOBULIN:

Anti-D prophylaxis protects newborns in subsequent pregnancies
Only indicated in unsensitised mothers

Anti-D should be adminstered during the 28th week of gestation and within 72 hours following the birth of an Rh-positive baby
Anti-D should also be given in any sensitising events:
-miscarriage
-ectopic pregnancy
-termination of pregnancy
-bleeding during pregnancy
-invasive procedures:
-- amniocentesis 
-- chorionic villus sampling

Dose:

  • Standard dose: 300μg (1500 IU) IV/IM
  • If whole fetal blood is >30 mL (i.e., fetal RBCs > 15 mL): 300 μg (1500 IU) IM should be given for every 30 mL of fetal blood volume.
232
Q

What is Vitamin K deficiency bleeding of the newborn (VKDB)

A

Spontaneous bleeding in a newborn caused by a deficiency of vitamin K dependent coagulation factors.

233
Q

How common is VKDB

A

Without prophylaxis it affects ~0.25-1.7% of newborns

234
Q

What is the aetiology of vitamin K deficiency bleeding

A

The underlying cause is always a deficiency of vitamin K, which can be due to various factors:

  • Exclusive breastfeeding: low vitamin K levels in breast milk (most important in late-onset VKDB)
  • Low liver storage capacity
  • Poor placental passage of vitamin K
  • Vitamin K deficiency in the mother (e.g., because of anticonvulsant therapy; most important in early-onset VKDB; maternal malnutrition)
  • Underdeveloped intestinal flora (which produces vitamin K), e.g., due to premature birth
  • Chronic diarrhea of the newborn
  • Long-term antibiotic treatment in newborns
  • Cholestatic diseases (e.g., biliary atresia)
235
Q

How does VKDB present

A

Early onset: within 24 hours after birth; intracranial bleeding common

Classic: within 4 weeks after birth; intracranial bleeding rare

Late onset: between 2–8 months after birth; intracranial bleeding common

236
Q

How is VKDB diagnosed

A

Coagulation studies:

  • ↑ Prothrombin time (PT)
  • Normal or ↑ activated partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
  • Normal bleeding time
  • ↓ Factors II, VII, IX, and X
237
Q

How is VKDB treated

A

Transfusions as necessary

Administration of vitamin K

238
Q

How is VKDB prevented

A

Newborns can recieve intramuscular vitamin K (0.5-1mg) at birth

239
Q

What is hyperbilirubinaemia

A

Characterised by serum bilirubin levels of ≥ 1.1 mg/dL (11mg/L)

240
Q

What is the epidemiology of Gilbert syndrome

A

Most common inherited hyperbilirubinemia: The prevalence is 3–7% in the US

♂ > ♀

Age of onset: adolescence

241
Q

What causes Gilbert syndrome

A

Mutation in the promoter region of UGT1A1 gene → mild reduction of UDP-glucuronosyltransferase activity → ↓ conjugation of bilirubin → ↑ indirect bilirubin

Alternative: missense mutation in UGT1A1 gene

Impaired hepatic bilirubin uptake

Autocomal recessive or autosomal dominant inheritance pattern

242
Q

How does Gilbert syndrome present

A

Asymptomatic or unspecific symptoms such as fatigue and loss of appetite

Transient, usually mild jaundice (varying from mild scleral jaundice to general jaundice)

Triggering factors of transient jaundice:

  • Stress (e.g., trauma, illness, exhaustion)
  • Fasting periods
  • Alcohol consumption
243
Q

How is Gilbert syndrome diagnosed

A

Slightly ↑ indirect bilirubin but < 3 mg/dL (higher levels are possible during episodes of increased bilirubin breakdown)
Normal liver function
No evidence of hemolysis
Detection of mutation using PCR

244
Q

How is Gilbert syndrome treated

A

No treatment required as this is a benign condition

245
Q

What is the aetiology of Crigler-Najjar syndrome type I

A

UDP-glucuronosyltransferase is (almost completely) absent.

Autocomal recessive inheritance

246
Q

How does Crigler-Najjar syndrome type I present

A

Excessive, persistent neonatal jaundice

Kernicterus: neurological symptoms (onset during infancy or later in childhood)

247
Q

How is Crigler-Najjar syndrome type I diagnosed

A
  • ↑ Indirect bilirubin (20–50 mg/dL)
  • Normal liver function tests
  • No evidence of hemolysis
248
Q

How is Crigler-Najjar syndrome type I treated

A

Phototherapy: conversion of unconjugated bilirubin (hydrophobic bilirubin) to more polar, water-soluble form → ↑ excretion via urine and/or bile

Plasmapheresis during acute rises in serum bilirubin levels

Tin protoporphyrin

Calcium carbonate

Liver transplantation is the only curative treatment.

249
Q

What is the prognosis for Crigler-Najjar syndrome type I

A

Without treatment, Crigler-Najjar syndrome type I is incompatible with life because it causes kernicterus.

If treated, patients may survive past puberty, but most will eventually develop kernicterus.

250
Q

What is the aetiology of Crigler-Najjar syndrome type II

A

Reduced levels of UDP-glucuronosyltransferase

Autosomal recessive or autosomal dominant inheritance pattern

251
Q

What is the other name for Crigler-Najjar syndrome type II

A

Arias syndrome

252
Q

How does Crigler-Najjar syndrome type II present

A

Often asymptomatic
No neonatal jaundice, although jaundice may occur during the patient’s first year of life
No neurological symptoms

253
Q

How is Crigler-Najjar syndrome type II diagnosed

A

↑ Indirect bilirubin (< 20 mg/dL)

Normal liver function tests

No evidence of hemolysis

Responds to phenobarbital → ↓ serum bilirubin levels

254
Q

How is Crigler-Najjar syndrome type II treated

A

Patients are less likely to develop kernicterus. Specific treatment may therefore not be required. The following treatment options are, however, available if patients become icteric.

Phenobarbital: leads to induction of UDP-glucuronosyltransferase

Phototherapy (as in type I)

Avoid hormonal contraception and hepatic enzyme inhibitors

255
Q

What is the prognosis for Crigler-Najjar syndrome type II

A

Usually favourable

Management of jaundice allows for normal quality of life

256
Q

What causes Dubin-Johnson syndrome

A

Defective multidrug resistance-associated protein 2 (MRP2) → impaired excretion of conjugated bilirubin from the hepatocytes into the bile canaliculi

Autosomal recessive inheritance

257
Q

How does Dubin-Johnson syndrome present

A

Mild to moderate jaundice

  • Onset often occurs during adolescence
  • May worsen because of medication (particularly contraceptives) or pregnancy

Splenomegaly may occur in rare cases.

258
Q

How is Dubin-Johnson syndrome diagnosed

A

Direct hyperbilirubinemia (direct bilirubin/total bilirubin up to 50%)

Liver biopsy: dark, granular pigmentation (due to accumulation of epinephrine metabolites)

259
Q

How is Dubin-Johnson syndrome treated

A

Not required (benign condition)

Be careful when administering a drug that is toxic to hte liver as it may worsen jaundice

Contraindication for oral contraception

260
Q

What is the aetiology of Rotor syndrome

A

Defective organic anion transport proteins (OATP) 1B1 and 1B3 in hepatocytes → impaired transport and reduced storage capacity of conjugated bilirubin (direct bilirubin)

Autosomal recessive inheritance

261
Q

How does Rotor syndrome present

A

Usually asymptomatic but mild jaundice may occur (milder presentation compared to Dubin-Johnson syndrome)

262
Q

How is Rotor syndrome diagnosed

A

Moderate, direct hyperbilirubinemia and mild, indirect hyperbilirubinemia

Normal liver function test

↑ Urinary coproporphyrins I and III (fraction of isomer I < 70% of total)

Liver biopsy: normal, no pigmentation

263
Q

How is Rotor syndrome treated

A

Not required

Be careful when administering a drug that is toxic to hte liver as it may worsen jaundice

Contraindication for oral contraception

264
Q

How can the liver biopsy differences in Rotor vs Dubin-Johnson syndrome be remembered

A

In Rotor syndrome, the liver appears Regular

In Dubin-johnson syndrome, the liver appears Dark

265
Q

What are glycogen storage disorders

A

Hereditary metabolic disorders characterised by defects in the enzymes responsible for glycogenolysis or glycolysis

13 different types have been found

All types cause abnormal accumulation of glycogen due to impaired glycogen metabolism

266
Q

What is the epidemiology for glycogen storage disorders

A

Incidence: up to 1:20,000 live births

Age of onset: presentation during infancy or childhood

Sex: ♂ = ♀

Mode of inheritance: mostly autosomal recessive (types I, II, III, and V)

267
Q

What is the pathophysiology of glycogen storage disorders

A

Defective enzymes responsible for glycolysis or glycogenolysis → impaired glycogen metabolization → ↑ storage of either normal or abnormal glycogen

Liver, heart, and muscle are the most common sites of glycogen storage and are, therefore, predominantly affected.

268
Q

What are the clinical features of glycogen storage disorders

A

Glycogen storage disorders can be classified as muscle and/or liver GSD according to the presenting symptoms.

Muscle involvement:

  • Seen in types II, III, IV, V
  • Two groups of skeletal muscle symptoms are seen:
    • Defects of muscle glycogenolysis and muscle glycolysis:
  • – Easy fatiguability, exercise intolerance
  • – Cramps
  • – Rhabdomyolysis → myoglobinuria (burgundy-colored urine)
    • Defects of muscle glycogenesis (type IV) and lysosomal glycogenolysis (type II):
  • – progressive weakness of extremities and trunk (proximal myopathy)
  • Cardiac involvement
    • Seen in several types (e.g., type II, type III)
    • Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy and/or conduction defects are most common in type II.

Liver involvement

  • Seen in types I, III, IV
  • Hypoglycemia (typically fasting hypoglycemia) and ketosis
  • Symptoms of hypoglycemia in infancy: seizures, hypotonia, poor feeding, cyanosis, irritability
  • Hepatomegaly → distended abdomen

Additional clinical manifestations:

  • Growth delay/growth retardation/failure to thrive: types I, II, III, IV
  • Anemia: type I
  • Hyperlipidemia: types I, III
  • Macroglossia: type II
  • Lactic acidosis: type I
  • Hyperuricemia: type I
269
Q

How are glycogen storage disorders diagnosed

A

Initial tests:

  • Muscle and/or liver biopsy (depending on the enzyme deficiency): glycogen storage appears as PAS-positive granules .
  • Enzyme assays in RBCs, leukocytes, liver tissue, muscle tissue, or fibroblasts (depending on the enzyme deficiency)

Confirmatory test: DNA testing for the gene defects

Additional tests:

  • Muscle GSD
    • Ischemic forearm test: an important test to evaluate if a patient has a metabolic disorder of muscle function
  • – A sphygmomanometer cuff is tied around the arm and inflated to beyond systolic blood pressure. The patient is then asked to repeatedly form a fist. The cuff is then deflated and multiple blood samples are taken to measure serum lactate levels.
  • – The normal response to an ischemic exercise test is an increase in the levels of lactate as a result of anaerobic metabolism of glucose.
  • – In the case of GSD type III and type V, not enough glucose is produced from glycogen. As a result, lactate levels do not rise.
    • ↑ Creatine kinase
    • Electroneuromyography: to identify proximal myopathy
    • ECG and/or echocardiography: to identify cardiac hypertrophy and conduction blocks
  • Liver GSD
    • ↑ Serum biotinidase serves as diagnostic biomarkers in type I and type III
    • Liver function tests and abdominal ultrasonography: to detect liver cirrhosis and/or hepatic failure
270
Q

What is the management of glycogen storage disorders

A

General:

  • Most forms of GSD can be managed effectively with dietary therapy (e.g., uncooked corn starch, glucose preparations) with the aim of preventing hypoglycemia and/or muscle symptoms
  • Foods rich in fructose and galactose should be avoided in patients with GSD type I

Definitive therapy:

  • Enzyme replacement therapy is available for some forms of GSD
  • A liver transplant may be required in the case of liver GSD that progress to liver cirrhosis and/or result in poor metabolic control.
  • Cardiac involvement
    • Severe conduction defects: pacemaker implantation
271
Q

What is galactosemia

A

Hereditary defects in enzymes that are responsible for the metabolism of galactose

272
Q

What is galactose

A

A component of the disaccharide lactose, which is present in breast milk

273
Q

How does galactosemia present

A
Poor feeding
Failure to thrive
Vomiting, diarrhea
Jaundice, hepatomegaly 
Cataracts
Cognitive impairment
↑ Risk of E. coli sepsis (esp. in neonates)
Hypoglycemia
274
Q

How is galactosemia diagnosed

A

Newborn screening test: ↑ galactose/galactose-1-phosphate in blood

Urine galactose levels: galactosuria

Total serum bilirubin: hyperbilirubinemia

275
Q

How is galactosemia treated

A

Complete cessation of lactose-containing feeds and lifelong adherence to galactose-free and lactose-free diet

276
Q

What is the most common cause of anaphylaxis related emergnecy admissions

A

Food allergies

277
Q

WHat is the aetiology of food allergies

A

Hypersensitivity reaction against select ingredients in food

278
Q

What are the most common food allergens

A
Cow's milk
Eggs
Nuts
Peanuts
Seafood (shellfish, fish)
Soy
Wheat
Fruits (eg kiwi)
279
Q

What is the pathophysiology of food allergies

A

Commonly IgE-mediated: Type I hypersensitivity reaction (immediate onset; within minutes to 2 hours of ingestion)

Mixed IgE/non-IgE-mediated and non-IgE-mediated reactions are also possible (delayed onset; hours to days after ingestion)

280
Q

What are the typical clinical features of food allergies

A

Skin (most common): pruritus, urticaria, exanthem, angioedema, atopic dermatitis

Respiratory: rhinitis (often with sneezing), nasal congestion, dyspnea, wheezing, laryngeal edema

Gastrointestinal tract: oral allergy syndrome (oral pruritus, tingling numbness, and swelling of the lips, tongue, palate, and throat) , nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, diarrhea

Cardiovascular: hypotension, tachycardia, dysrhythmias

CNS: headache

Non-IgE or mixed reactions are typically limited to the ckin and GI tract

Respiratory manifestations can be fatal

281
Q

How is a food allergy diagnosed

A

Patient history: determine type of food, time and amount of ingestion, and the type of reaction

Suspected IgE-mediated reaction:

  • IgE skin prick test
  • RAST (radioallergosorbent test)
    • An immunoassay that detects specific compounds using antibodies coupled to radioactive tags.
    • Previously used to detect allergen-specific IgE but is no longer widely used.
    • IgE serum levels are measured in response to predetermined food allergens.
  • Total IgE-antibody serum test
  • N-methylhistamine (urine)

If above tests are inconclusive or suspected food is not a common allergen:

  • Elimination diet: The suspected allergens are eliminated from the patient diet, while being observed for an improvement in symptoms without the need for medication.
  • Oral food challenge: the effect of potential allergens on the mucous membranes is tested (the patient is given different foods that contain potential allergens to chew but not swallow in increasing doses over a fixed period of time). May be implemented after a positive elimination diet.
282
Q

How does infantile colic present

A

Otherwise healthy infant with appropriate weight gain

Paroxysmal episodes of loud and high pitched crying that often occur at the same time each day (usually in the late afternoon or evening)

Hypertonia (e.g., clenched fists, stretched legs) during episodes

Infant is not easily consoled

283
Q

How is infatile colic diagnosed

A

crying that lasts ≥ 3 hours per day, ≥ 3 days per week, for ≥ 3 weeks in an otherwise healthy infant <3 months old

284
Q

How is infantile colic treated

A

Reassurance
Soothing techniques
Trial of various feeding techniques

285
Q

What are the differentials in suspected food allergy

A

Infantile colic
Lactose and fructose intolerance
Coeliac disease

286
Q

How are food allergies treated

A

Avoid allergens and in case of emergency treat anaphylactic reactions

Oral immunotherapy is a novel approach being studies and not yet widely available

287
Q

What is the prognosis following a food allergy diagnosis

A

The majority of children with milk and egg allergies will outgrow them by 5 years of age.

A lot of children with food allergies will develop asthma and allergic rhinitis.

Adult-onset food allergies usually remain for life.

288
Q

How is anaphylaxis treated

A

Stabilize the patient (ABCDE approach).

  • Airway assessment and management
  • Rapid sequence intubation (RSI) for airway compromise
  • Oxygen: Provide FiO2 of 100% (e.g., high-flow O2 by nonrebreather mask).
  • Aggressive IV fluid resuscitation if hypotension present
  • Position the patient supine.

If anaphylaxis is likely, start initial treatment immediately:

  • Remove inciting allergen
  • Administer adrenalin IM 1:1,000 (1 mg/mL) into the anterolateral thigh

Once stabilized, consider adjunctive therapy with antihistamines, corticosteroids (e.g., methylprednisolone)

Continuous reassessment and subsequent management

289
Q

What are primitive reflexes

A

Reflexes that are normally present during infancy and disappear with the development of inhibitory pathways to the subcortical motor areas (usually within the 1st year of life

290
Q

What is the clinical relevance of primitive reflexes persistence

A

In children: indicates impaired brain development

In adults: suggests frontal lobe lasions (frontal release signs)

291
Q

What are the types of primitive reflexes

A
Moro reflex
Rooting reflex
Sucking reflex
Palmar grasp
Plantar grasp
Plantar reflex
Stepping reflex
Galant reflex
Asymmetrical tonic neck reflex (ATNR)
Glabellar tap sign
Landau reflex
Snout reflex
Parachute reflex
292
Q

What is the Moro reflex

A

Holding an infant in the supine position while supporting the head, then allowing the head to suddenly fall back elicits abduction and extension of the infant’s arms and elbows, followed by their flexion.

Age of resolution: 3-6 months

293
Q

What is the clinical significance of the Moro reflex

A

Unilateral absence:

  • Ipsilateral brachial plexus injury
  • Ipsilateral fractured clavicle

Bilateral absence indicates brain injury (e.g., due to birth asphyxia, intracranial hemorrhage) or bilateral brachial plexus injury

294
Q

What is the rooting reflex

A

Stroking the cheek elicits turning of the head towards the stimulus and opening of the mouth

Age of resolution: 4 months

295
Q

What is the sucking reflex

A

Touching the roof of the mouthe elicits a sucking motion

Age of resolution: 4 months

296
Q

What is the clinical relevance of the rooting reflex and the sucking reflex

A

Unilateral absence indicates peripheral nerve injury

Bilateral absence or premature resolution:

  • Perinatal asphyxia
  • Intracranial hemorrhage
297
Q

What is the palmar grasp

A

Stimulation of the palm elicits a grasping motion

Resolves around 3-6 months

298
Q

What is the clinical relevance of the palmar grasp

A

Unilateral absence:

  • Brachial plexus injury
  • Peripheral nerve injury

Bilateral absence of the reflex at birth may indicate cerebral palsy.

299
Q

What is the plantar grasp

A

Stimulation of the sole elicits curling of the toes (plantar flexion).

Resolves at 3 months

300
Q

What is the clinical relevance of the plantar grasp

A

Bilateral absence: suggestive of cerebral palsy.

301
Q

What is the plantar reflex

A

Stroking the sole of the foot from heel to toe elicits dorsiflexion of the foot with concomitant extension of the big toe and fanning of the other toes.

Resolves at 12-24 months

302
Q

What is the clinical relevance of the plantar reflex

A

Persistence or reappearance after 24 months indicates an upper motor neuron lesion (Babinski sign).

303
Q

What is the stepping reflex

A

Holding the infant upright with feet on the examination table elicits a stepping motion with alternating flexion and extension of the legs.

Resolves at 2 months

304
Q

What is the clinical relevance of the stepping reflex

A

Infants born at term step from heel to toe.

Preterm infants tiptoe.

305
Q

What is the galant reflex

A

Holding the infant in the prone position and stroking it on one side of the paravertebral region elicits flexion of the lower back and hip towards the stimulus.

Resolves at 2-6 months

306
Q

What is the clinical relevance of the galant reflex

A

Persistent galant reflex may be associated with bed wetting

307
Q

What is the asymmetrical tonic neck reflex

A

Turning the head to one side elicits extension of the arm and leg on the side the head is facing and flexion of the contralateral arm and leg (fencing posture).

Resolves at 3-4 months

308
Q

What is the clincial relevance of the aymmetrical tonic neck reflex

A

The ATNR aids in the development of hand eye coordination

309
Q

What is the glabellar tap sign

A

Tapping the glabella elicits blinking

Resolves 4-6 months

310
Q

What is the glabella

A

The region of the face above the root of the nose and between the eyebrows.

311
Q

What is the clinical relevance of the glabellar tap sign

A

Persistent glabellar tap sign is a frontal release sign called Myerson sign

312
Q

What is the landau reflex

A

Placing the infant in a prone position elicits arching of the back and raising of the head

Resolves by 24 months

313
Q

What is the snout reflex

A

Tapping or applying light pressure to closed lips elicits puckering

Resolves at 4 months

314
Q

What is the parachute reflex

A

Holding the infant in an upright position, followed by sudden lowering towards the examination table elicits extension of the infant’s arms.
This reflex appears at 6–9 months of age and persists

315
Q

What is the clinical relevance of the parachute reflex

A

Infants suffering from neonatal encephalopathy may show an asymmetric or absent parachute reflex

316
Q

How is developmental delay defined

A

Should be suspected when the child’s age is >25% of the mena age at which a particular milestone is attained or >1.5 standard deviations on a standardised developmetnal screening tests

317
Q

What is the normal weight for age velocity

A

Term neonates lose up to 7% of their birth weight in the first few days after delivery and normally regain it within 2 weeks.

Birth weight should double by 4 months, triple by 1 year and quadruple by 2 years of age.

318
Q

WHat is the normal height/length for age velocity

A

An infant’s height/length increases by approx. 30% within the first 6 months and by approx. 50% within the first year.

Midparental height (target height):
♀ height = [mother’s height in cm + (father’s height in cm - 13)]/2
♂ height = [father’s height in cm + (mother’s height in cm + 13)]/2

From birth to 6 months: 2.5 cm (1 in) per month

From 6 months to 1 year: 1.3 cm (0.5 in) per month

319
Q

WHat is the normal wight for height/length

A

Useful in detecting malnutrition in children <5 years of age

Heigh/length at 1 year of age should be ~50% more than birth height/length

320
Q

WHat is the clinical relevance of head circumference for age

A

Used for microcephaly and macrocephaly screening, especially during the first 3 years of life

321
Q

What is the normal head circumference for age increases

A

In a healthy infant, head circumference increases by:

  • 5 cm during first 3 months.
  • 4 cm between 3–6 months.
  • 2 cm between 6–9 months.
  • 1 cm between 9–12 months.
322
Q

How is microcephaly defined and when is it observed

A

A head circumference that is > 2 standard deviations below the mean size for a given age and sex (usually < 3rdpercentile)

Seen in:

  • chromosomal trisomies,
  • fetal alcohol syndrome,
  • congenital TORCH infections,
  • cranial anatomic abnormalities,
  • neural tube defects
323
Q

How is microcephaly defined and when is it observed

A

A head circumference that is ≥ 2 standard deviations above the mean size for a given age and sex (usually ≥ 97thpercentile)

Seen in:

  • hydrocephalus,
  • neurofibromatosis,
  • tuberous sclerosis,
  • skeletal dysplasia,
  • acromegaly,
  • intracranial hemorrhage,
  • cerebral metabolic diseases (e.g., Tay-Sachs disease, maple syrup urine disease)
324
Q

WHat is the rule of fives in developmental growth

A

Normal growth rates in children can be approximated by multiples of five: birth–1 year (50–75 cm, 25 cm/year), 1–4 years (75–100 cm, 10 cm/year), 4–8 years (100–125 cm, 5 cm/year), 8–12 years (125–150 cm, 5 cm/year).

325
Q

What is failure to thrive

A

Inadequate growth of a child for their age

Seen in up to 10% of children in the United States (most <18 months of age)

Anthropometric criteria of FTT:

  • Weight-for-age: <5th percentile
  • Length-for-age: <5th percentile
  • Body mass index-for-age: <5th percentile
  • Deceleration of weight velocity that crosses 2 major lines on the growth chart
326
Q

What is the aetiology of failure to thrive

A

Nonorganic FTT (∼ 90% of cases):

  • No underlying disorder
  • Usually associated with:
    • Wrong feeding practices
    • Wrong preparation of formula feeds
    • Child neglect
    • Poor socioeconomic status
    • Intrauterine growth restriction
    • Prematurity and low birth weight

Organic FTT (∼ 10% of cases) is associated with disorders that:

  • Prevent nutrient intake
    • Cleft palate and/or lip
    • Gastroesophageal reflux disease
  • Prevent nutrient absorption
    • Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
    • Food intolerance
    • Celiac disease
    • Inflammatory bowel disease
    • Inborn errors of metabolism
  • Cause excessive calorie loss
    • Cystic fibrosis
    • Congenital heart defects (CHDs)
    • Malignancies
    • Other chronic diseases
327
Q

What are the clinical features of failure to thrive

A

Developmental delay
Failure to gain weight despite adequate feeds
Recurrent vomiting and diarrhea
Recurrent infections
General signs of malnutrition (e.g., lymphadenopathy, oedema, organomegaly)

328
Q

How is failure to thrive diagnosed

A

History of feeding habits (e.g., number and frequency of feeds, food refusal)

Laboratory studies

  • Complete blood count and ESR
  • Urinalysis
  • Hepatic and renal function tests
  • Thyroid function tests
  • Immunoglobulin levels assessment: to evaluate for underlying immunodeficiencies (e.g., HIV, tuberculosis)

Imaging

  • Hand and wrist x-ray
  • Echocardiogram
  • Upper gastrointestinal series with small bowel follow-through
329
Q

How is failure to thrive treated

A

Treatment of the underlying cause

Counseling parents on appropriate child nutrition

Formula supplementation for infants and nutritional supplementation for toddlers

Close follow-up and monitoring of the child’s growth

330
Q

What is involved in the physical examination of a well child

A

Charting of growth and recording of developmental milestones

Evaluation of resolution of primitive reflexes

BP measured after 3 y/o

Abdo: palpate for masses (Wilms tumor, neuroblastoma)

Heart: New murmurs, rate/rhythm disturbances

Spine: Assess for scoliosis once able to stand

Evaluate for developmetnal dysplasia of the hip in neonates and tibial torsion, femoral torsion, and metatarsus adductus in the first 2-4 years of life

Genital: For testicular descen and congenital hydrocele in all male infants; imperforate hymen in all female infants; and inguinal hernias in all infants; pubescent genital development (Tanner stages)

331
Q

How is visual devlopment and acuity screened for

A

Ocular motility and visual acuity assessment

Photoscreening: Paaediatric vision test used to detect errors of refraction, screen for amblyogenic risk factors and test visual acuity in preverbal or non-cooperative children

Physiological red reflex evaluation (in newborns): absence or leukocoria should prompt further investigation

Strabismus and amblyopis screening: Strabismus is a normal finding in children <3months old

332
Q

How is hearing loss screened for in children

A

Recommended in newborns and then at ages 4,5,6,8, and 10; or if there are >1 risk factor for hearing loss which include:

  • FH of childhood hearing loss
  • TORCH infections
  • History of meningitis/ head trauma
  • Recurrent or persistent otitis media
  • Neonatal ICU stay for >5 days
  • Behavioural abnormalities

Screening tests included:

  • Electric response audiometry
  • Tympanometry
  • Otoacoustic emission

Undetected hearing loss in children:

  • Can cause speech, language or social delay
  • May be mistake for neurodevelopmental disorder, especially communication disorders
333
Q

What is expected by 2 months old

A

Raises head and chest when prone

Follows objects past midline

Coos

Smiles back (social smile)
Recognises parents
334
Q

What is expected by 4 months old

A

Holds head straight
Roles over front to back
Props self up on wrists in prone position

Holds and shakes rattle

Laughs
Makes constant sounds

Localises sounds

335
Q

What is expected by 6 months old

A

Sits without support
Rolls over back to the front

Grabs and transfers objects from one hand to the other
Raking grasp

Babbles

Develops stranger anxiety (6-9months)
Develops object permanence (6-9months)

336
Q

What is expect by 9 months old

A

Crawls
Stands when holding on to something

Pincer grasp (9-12months)

Says mama or dada

Orients to name
Imitates actions
Has separation anxiety

337
Q

What is expected by 12 months old

A

Starts to walk
Can throw objects

Points at objects

Knows 1-5 words

Follows commands

338
Q

What is expected by 18 months old

A

Starts to run
Learns to walk backwards with help

Stacks up 4 blocks
Uses spoon and cup

Knows 10-50 words

Play pretend

339
Q

What is expected by 2 years old

A

Walks up and downstairs, stepping with both feet on each step
Kicks ball
Jumps

Stacks up to 6 blocks (number of blocks = years x 3)
Draws a line

Knows >50 words
Uses sentences of up to 2 words

Engages in parallel play (2-3 years)
Moves away and comes back to parent
Follows 2 step commands
Removes clothes

340
Q

WHat is expected by 3 years old

A

Alternates feet when walking up and down the stairs
Pedals a tricycle

Stacks up to 9 blocks
Copies a circle

Mostly intelligible speech
Knows >300 words and understnads >1000 words
Uses sentences of up to 3 words

Understands gender difference
Brushes teeth and grooms self
Has bladder and bowel control (however, bed wetting until 5 years of age is considered normal)
Plays away from parents

341
Q

What is expected by 4 years old

A

Hops on one foot
Catches and throws ball overhand

Copies a square

Tells complex stories
Can identify some colours and numbers

Plays cooperatively
May have imaginary friends

342
Q

What is expected by 5 years old

A

Skips

Copies a triangle
Can tie shoelaces
Can write some letters

Speak fluently
Counts 10 or more things
Uses sentences of up to 5 words

Learns how to read
Understands directions (left and right)
Plays dress up

343
Q

What is the definition of short stature

A

Children: height of > 2 SDs below the mean for children of the same age, sex, and similar genetic background

Adults: height of ≤ 4 ft 10 in (147 cm) for women and ≤ 5 ft 1 in (155 cm) for men

344
Q

What is proportionate short stature

A

Limbs proportionate to trunk

Seen in most cases of familial short stature

345
Q

What is disproportionate short stature

A

Limbs disproportionately short compared to trunk

Seen in most cases of skeletal dysplasia

346
Q

What is growth failure

A

Growth rate below the rate considered appropriate for sex and age

347
Q

What are the causes of short stature

A

Short stature can have a variety of genetic, systemic, and psychosocial causes.

Genetic causes include:

  • Familial short stature
  • Constitutional growth delay
  • Laron syndrome
  • Turner syndrome

Systemic causes include:

  • Congenital hypothyroidism
  • GH deficiencies
  • Glucocorticoid excess

Psychosocial causes include:

  • Maternal substance use (e.g., alcohol)
  • Psychosocial short stature
  • Psychiatric conditions (e.g., anorexia nervosa)
348
Q

How is short stature investigated and diagnosed

A

Patient history:
-Physical examination findings
-Growth rate
-Family history of short stature
-Midparental height (estimated adult height of a child calculated on the basis of parental height), calculated via the following formula:
♀ = [mother’s height in cm + (father’s height in cm - 13)]/2
♂ = [father’s height in cm + (mother’s height in cm + 13)]/2

Laboratory tests:

  • FBC, differential blood count, ESR
  • Thyroid function tests (Hypothyroidism)
  • Renal function tests and urinalysis (in case of CKD and associated renal osteodystrophy)
  • Screening for GH deficiency (Hypopituitarism)
  • Hormone profile (LH, FSH, estrogen/testosterone) for puberty status assessment
  • Karyotyping

Imaging tests

  • X-ray: used to determine an individual’s bone age and height by comparing their x-ray images of the left hand and wrist to those displayed in the standard bone development atlas
  • Cranial MRI: in suspicion of hypothalamic or pituitary tumors
349
Q

How is short stature treated

A

Management depends on the underlying cause:

  • Reassurance that low height is a normal variant (e.g., familial short stature) that does not require treatment
  • Discontinuation of growth-inhibiting medication (e.g., glucocorticoids)
  • Sex hormone substitution in children with delayed puberty and growth
  • GH supplementation (e.g., somatropin) in cases of GH deficiency, idiopathic short stature, and Turner syndrome
  • In case of primary severe IGF-1 deficiency: mecasermin (recombinant insulin-like growth factor)
  • Treatment of underlying conditions
350
Q

What is tall stature

A

A height of more than 2 standard deviations above the population mean or exceeding the 97th percentile on the normal growth curve for age and sex
Most tall children do not have a pathological cause

351
Q

How is growth evaluated

A

History:

  • Assess milestones (exclude developmental delay)
  • Determine midparental height

Physical examination

  • Accurate serial measurements of individual body areas
    • Proportional vs disproportional growth (e.g., disproportionately long extremities usually indicate Marfan syndrome)
    • Length or height
    • Growth velocity
  • Exclude the following:
    • Secondary sexual characteristics
    • Neurological lesions
    • Dysmorphisms

Further diagnostic measures (if a pathological cause is suspected)

  • Bone age
  • Karyotyping
  • Endocrine laboratory tests (depends on which pathology is suspected e.g., insulin-like growth factor for excess growth hormone, or TSH and T4 hormone for hyperthyroidism)
352
Q

What is gigantism

A

A rare disorder characterised by abnormal linear growth during childhood due to growth hormone excess while the epiphyseal growth plates are still open

353
Q

What is the pathophysiology of gigantism

A

Most common: ↑ growth hormone (GH) secretion from the anterior pituitary (i.e., adenoma ) → ↑ IGF-1 synthesis → ↑ cell growth and proliferation

↑ GHRH secretion from the hypothalamus (i.e., tumors)

↑ Production of IGF-binding protein → ↑ half-life of IGF-1

354
Q

What are the risk factors for gignatism

A

Associated with an ↑ incidence of pituitary tumors

Multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1 (MEN 1)

McCune-Albright syndrome

Carney complex

Neurofibromatosis

Tuberous sclerosis

355
Q

What are the clinical features of gigantism

A

Tall stature

↑ Growth of distal limbs (i.e., hands, feet, fingers, toes)

Tumor mass symptoms: headaches, visual changes , features of hypopituitarism

Progressive macroencephaly

Coarse facial features, frontal bossing, prognathism

Obesity

356
Q

How is gigantism diagnosed

A

↑ Serum IGF-1

↑ GH after oral glucose tolerance test confirms pituitary gigantism.

After a biochemical diagnosis is established:

  • MRI: pituitary mass
  • CT if MRI is negative: exclude other GH-secreting tumors (e.g., pancreas, adrenal glands, ovarian, bronchial)
357
Q

How is gigantism treated

A

Transsphenoidal surgery: pituitary adenoma excision

Medical therapy

  • Somatostatin analogs (e.g., octreotide )
  • GH receptor antagonists (e.g., pegvisomant)
358
Q

What are the potential complications of gigantism

A

Carpal tunnel syndrome

Cardiovascular disease

  • Heart failure (the most common cause of death)
  • Hypertension

Osteoarthritis

Endocrine disorders (i.e., hypogonadism, diabetes, hyperprolactinemia)

Benign tumors (i.e., uterine leiomyomas, prostatic hypertrophy, colonic polyps)

359
Q

What are the endocrine disorders that result in tall stature

A

Gigantism
Precocious puberty
Hyperthyroidism

360
Q

What is Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome

A

Congenital disorder of growth with a predisposition to tumour development

361
Q

What is the epidemiology of Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome

A

∼ 1/15,000 newborns in the US

Increased risk of Wilms tumor, hepatoblastoma, neuroblastoma, adrenal tumors

362
Q

What is the aetiology of Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome

A

WT2 gene mutation on chromosome 11 (~80% of cases)

363
Q

What are the clinical features of Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome

A

Macrosomia, omphalocele (i.e., exomphalos)

Macroglossia, organ enlargement (heart, liver, kidney, etc.)

Hemihypertrophy (hemihyperplasia): One side or a part of one side of the body is larger than the other.

Features of neonatal hypoglycemia: irritability, intellectual disability

Genitourinary abnormalities

Facies: midface hypoplasia, infraorbital and earlobe creases

Cleft palate (rare)

364
Q

How is Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome diagnosed

A

↓ Blood glucose, ↑ serum insulin, IGF-2 (hypoglycemia)

Screening options for embryonal tumors:

  • Abdominal ultrasound every 3 months until 8 years of age
  • Alpha-fetoprotein levels every 3 months until 4 years of age
365
Q

How is Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome treated

A

Frequent feedings to maintain sufficient blood glucose levels

Resection of embryonal tumors

366
Q

What is sotos syndrome

A

Cerebral gigantism

367
Q

What is the epidemiology of sotos syndrome

A

1/10,000–14,000 newborns

368
Q

What is the aetiology of sotos syndrome

A

Autosomal dominant mutation in the NSD1 gene on chromosome 5

369
Q

What are the symptoms of sotos syndrome

A

Tall stature

Macrocephalus

Facies

  • High forehead
  • Elongated face
  • Hypertelorism
  • Pointed chin
  • Receding hairline

Psychomotor retardation

Hypotonia

Delays in achieving milestones (e.g., walking, talking, clumsiness)

370
Q

How is sotos syndrome diagnosed

A

Clinically

DNA studies (5q35 microdeletions and partial NSD1 deletions in 10–15% of cases)

Prenatal diagnosis possible

371
Q

How is sotos syndrome treated

A

Only symptomatic treatment is possible

Multiprofessional approach

372
Q

What is the course of sotos syndrome

A

Normal growth rate from 3–5 years of age (only moderately increased adult height)

Permanent cognitive-developmental impairments are common.

373
Q

What are the gentic disorder causes of tall stature

A
Sotos syndrome
Marfan syndrome
Homocystinuria
Fragile X syndrome
Neurofibromatosis type 1
Klinefelter syndrome (47, XXY)
Weaver syndrome
374
Q

What is puberty

A

A phase of development between childhood and complete, functional maturation of the reproductive glands and external genitalia (adulthood)

375
Q

What are the phases of pubertal changes

A

The age of pubertal onset may vary, but the order of changes that occur in each person is consistent.

Adrenarche: activation of adrenal androgen production (axillary and pubic hair, body odor, and acne)

Gonadarche: activation of reproductive glands by the pituitary hormones FSH and LH

Thelarche: onset of breast development

Pubarche: onset of pubic hair growth

Menarche: onset of menstrual bleeding:

  • Anovulatory cycle: The menstrual cycle may be irregular in adolescents during the first few months/years after menarche.
    • Immaturity of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis → irregular secretion of gonadotropins → short luteal phase, and lack of progesterone → endometrium remains in the proliferative phase → irregular menses and heavy menstrual bleeding
    • Does not require treatment because menses become regular as hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis matures
376
Q

What is the physiology of puberty

A

Unknown initial trigger → ↑ activators and/or ↓ inhibitors of GnRH secretion → pulsatile GnRH secretion→ ↑ FSH and ↑ LH secreted by the anterior pituitary gland → stimulation of the Leydig cells and Sertoli cells in the testicles, and the theca and granulosa cells in the ovary.

The hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis is tightly regulated by a negative feedback mechanism.

Testosterone inhibits further GnRH secretion from the hypothalamus.

FSH-stimulated Sertoli cells also secrete inhibin, which further inhibits FSH secretion from the pituitary.

377
Q

What influences puberty

A
General health (nutritional state, bodyweight)
Genetics
Social environment (e.g., family stress)
378
Q

What is normal pubery for girls

A

Normal age of onset: 8–13 years (average 11 years)

Normal order of changes: adrenarche → gonadarche → thelarche (age of onset 8–11 years) → growth spurt (age of onset 11.5–16.5 years) → pubarche (mean age of onset 12 years) → menarche (age of onset 10–16 years, mean age: 13 years)

The first sign of puberty is breast development

379
Q

What is normal puberty for boys

A

Normal age of onset: 9–14 years (average 13 years)

Normal order of changes: adrenarche → gonadarche (age of onset 9–14 years) → pubarche (mean age of onset 13.5 years)→ growth spurt (mean age of onset 13.5 years)→ androgenic hair growth

The first visible sign of puberty in males is testicular enlargement

380
Q

What is precocious puberty

A

The appearance of secondary sexual characteristics before the age of 8y in girls and 9y in boys

381
Q

What is the epidemiology of precocious puberty

A

Incidence: 1:5,000 to 1:10,000 children

Ten times more common in girls than boys.

382
Q

How is precocious puberty classified

A

Central precocious puberty (gonadotropin-dependent precocious puberty, true precocious puberty)

Peripheral precocious puberty (gonadotropin-independent precocious puberty, peripheral pseudopuberty, peripheral precocity)

Isosexual precocious puberty: premature development of secondary sexual characteristics appropriate for gender (can be complete or incomplete)

Heterosexual precocious puberty: masculinization of girls or feminization of boys

Benign pubertal variants

  • Precocious thelarche
  • Idiopathic premature pubarche
  • Premature adrenarche
  • Precocious menarche

Obesity-related precocious sexual development

383
Q

What is central precocious puberty

A

Precocious puberty with elevated GnRH levels

384
Q

What causes central precocious puberty

A

Idiopathic (most common cause)

CNS lesions

  • Intracranial tumors (e.g., hamartoma, glioma, craniopharyngioma)
  • Trauma
  • Infections (e.g., encephalitis, meningitis)
  • Hydrocephalus

Obesity-related precocious sexual development

Systemic conditions: tuberous sclerosis, neurofibromatosis

Radiation

385
Q

What is the pathophysiology of central precocious puberty

A

Early activation of the hypothalamo-hypophyseal axis → abnormally early initiation of pubertal changes → early development of secondary sexual characteristics

386
Q

What are the clinical features of central precocious puberty

A

Premature sexual development typically follows the normal pattern of puberty, except that it is early.

Symmetric development of secondary sexual characteristics or, occasionally, as isolated premature thelarche, adrenarche, or menarche.

Increased growth velocity: Children tend to be taller than their peers during adolescence, but are of shorter stature by the time they reach adulthood (due to early closure of the epiphyseal plate).

387
Q

How is central precocious puberty diagnosed

A

Laboratory tests:

  • Serum LH and FSH: increased
  • GnRH stimulation test (gold standard): evaluates the reactivity of the hypothalamic-pituitary-axis to GnRH stimulation
    • Indications: suspicion of precocious puberty or delayed puberty
    • Method: base LH and FSH values → administer GnRH → blood is drawn after a certain time for reevaluation of LH and FSH levels
    • Gonadotropin (LH and FSH) levels increase after intravenous administration of GnRH.
  • Serum testosterone/estradiol: increased

Imaging:
-X-ray of the left hand and wrist: allows comparison between skeletal maturation and chronological age
– Assess and confirm accelerated bone growth.
Bone age is within 1 year of a child’s age: Puberty likely has not started.
– Bone age is > 2 years of the child’s age: Puberty has been present for a year or longer.
-MRI/CT of the brain with contrast: when ↑ LH is confirmed
– Perform in girls ≤ 6 years of age, all boys, and children with neurologic symptoms.
– Rule out intracranial causative pathology.

388
Q

How is central precocious puberty treated

A

GnRH agonist (e.g., leuprolide, buserelin, goserelin): to prevent premature fusion of growth plates

Close monitoring of therapy
Follow-up is recommended every 4–6 months to assess progression.

Manage underlying cause.

389
Q

What is peripheral precocious puberty

A

Precocious puberty without elevated GnRH levels (due to ↑ peripheral synthesis of or exogenous exposure to sex hormones)

390
Q

What is the aetiology of peripheral precocious puberty

A

↑ Androgen production

  • Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
  • Virilizing ovarian and adrenocortical tumors (e.g., Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor, Leydig-cell tumor)

↑ Estrogen production

  • McCune-Albright syndrome
  • HCG-secreting germ cell tumors (e.g., dysgerminomas)

↑ β-hCG production

  • Dysgerminoma
  • Malignant embryonal cell carcinoma
  • Choriocarcinoma

Primary hypothyroidism

Exogenous steroid use

Obesity-related precocious sexual development

391
Q

What are the clinical features of peripheral precocious puberty

A

May not follow the normal developmental pattern (signs of estrogen or androgen excess)

May exhibit possible features of an underlying condition (e.g., cafe-au-lait spots in McCune-Albright syndrome, testicular mass in Leydig-cell tumor)

392
Q

How is peripheral precocious puberty diagnosed

A

Laboratory tests:

  • Serum basal FSH and LH: decreased
  • GnRH stimulation test
    • No increase in LH levels after GnRH administration.
    • Precocious pseudopuberty is associated with low basal LH levels (prepubertal values).
  • Serum testosterone/estradiol levels: increased (depending on the tumor)
  • TSH, T3 hormone: suspicion of hypothyroidism
  • Serum DHEA-S and 17-hydroxyprogesterone: in cases of hyperandrogenism
  • Corticotropin stimulation test: suspicion of congenital adrenal hyperplasia or an adrenal tumor

Imaging:

  • X-ray of left wrist and hand: accelerated bone growth
  • Ultrasound of the ovaries, testicles, and abdomen (cases of increased ovarian and/or uterine volume than expected for age, diagnostic uncertainty)
393
Q

How is peripheral precocious puberty treated

A

Precocious puberty caused by excessive hormonal production from a tumor in the body: surgical removal

Precocious puberty caused by Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia: cortisol replacement

Ovarian cysts: no intervention is necessary (spontaneous resolution is common)

394
Q

What is obesity related precocious sexual devleopment

A

Obesity is associated with early pubertal development, mainly due to obesity-related insulin resistance. This resistance leads to increased insulin and leptin levels.

395
Q

What is the pathophysiology of obesity related precocious sexual development

A

Central mechanism: Obesity causes increased secretion of leptin, which leads to increased GnRH pulsatility → ↑ production of gonadotropins and sex hormones → early development of secondary sexual characteristics and early gonadarche.

Peripheral mechanism: Obesity causes insulin resistance and compensatory hyperinsulinemia → premature adrenarche, thelarche, and pubarche.

  • Adrenals and ovaries: ↑ androgens
  • Liver: ↓ SHBG
  • Adipocytes: ↑ aromatase → ↑ bioavailability of sex steroids
396
Q

What is McCune-Albright syndrome

A

A genetic syndrome caused by a G-protein activating mutation and subsequent continupus stimulation of endocrine functions

397
Q

What is the epidemiology of McCune-Albright syndrome

A

Accounts for 5% of cases of precocious puberty (more common in females)

Affects 1 in 100,000 to 1 in 1,000,000 individuals in the general population

Peak incidence: early childhood

398
Q

What is the aetiology of McCune-Albright syndrome

A

Mosaic mutation in the GNAS1 gene on chromosome 20 (autosomal recessive inheritance)

Some cells have a normal version of the GNAS1 gene, while other cells have the mutated version.

Embryos only survive if mosaicism occurs.

If the mutation occurs before fertilization, it affects all cells so is incompatible with life.

399
Q

What is the pathophysiology of McCune-Albright syndrome

A

Activating mutation in GNAS gene → impaired Gs-protein signaling → constitutively activated adenylate cyclase → excess production of cAMP

400
Q

What are the clinical features of McCune-Albright syndrome

A

Unilateral café-au-lait spots with unilateral, ragged edges

Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia

Endocrinopathies:

  • Peripheral precocious puberty (most common)
  • Cushing syndrome
  • Acromegaly
  • Hyperthyroidism
401
Q

How is McCune-Albright syndrome diagnosed

A

Clinical features

Laboratory tests:

  • Increased hormone levels (e.g., estradiol, testosterone, cortisol, thyroid hormone, growth hormone, prolactin, somatomedin C)
  • Increased alkaline phosphatase
  • Molecular testing: GNAS1 analysis

Imaging:

  • X-rays of long bones: well-defined, lobulated lesions with a thin cortex and a radiolucent, ground-glass appearance
  • CT/MRI: identify fibrodysplastic lesions
  • Bone scan: determine the extent of bone disease
402
Q

How is McCune-Albright syndrome treated

A

Symptomatic: treat underlying endocrinopathies

Estrogen synthesis inhibitors

  • Ketoconazole
  • Testolactone: an aromatase inhibitor that prevents the conversion of androstenedione to estrone and testosterone to estrogen

Selective estrogen receptor modulators (e.g., tamoxifen)

403
Q

What are the differentials for McCune-Albright syndrome

A

Neurofibromatosis type 1

Fibrous dysplasia

404
Q

What is the prognosis for McCune-Albright syndrome

A

The condition is lethal when the mutation affects all cells (i.e., occurs before fertilization), but survivable in patients affected by mosaicism.

405
Q

What are the 3 Ps of McCune-Albright syndrome

A

Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia

Pigmentation (cafe au lait spots)

Precocious puberty

406
Q

What is delayed onset of puberty

A

Absent or incomplete development of secondary sex characteristics by the age of 14 years in boys or 13 years in girls

407
Q

What is the aetiology of delayed onset of puberty

A

Physiological causes: constitutional growth delay

Pathologic causes:

  • Hypergonadotropic hypogonadism
    • Primary gonadal insufficiency (e.g., Klinefelter syndrome, Turner syndrome, androgen insensitivity syndrome)
    • Secondary gonadal insufficiency (e.g., chemotherapy, pelvic irradiation, infections, trauma/surgery, autoimmune disease)
  • Hypogonadotropic hypogonadism (e.g., CNS lesions, Kallmann syndrome, idiopathic hypogonadotropic hypogonadism, Prader-Willi syndrome, Gaucher disease)
  • Malnutrition (e.g., anorexia nervosa)
  • Chronic diseases (e.g., inflammatory bowel disease, hypothyroidism, cystic fibrosis)
408
Q

What are the clinical features of delayed onset of puberty

A

Clinical features: depend on the underlying condition

Physical examination

  • Tanner staging (testes ≤ 3 ml, absent breast buds, pubic/axillary hair or menarche)
  • Assessment of height (short stature)
  • Assessment of weight
  • Neurological exam (anosmia)
409
Q

How is delayed onset of puberty diagnosed

A

Medical history (e.g., positive family history of delayed onset of puberty, tanner staging, BMI)

Routine tests:

  • Serum LH, FSH, and testosterone/estradiol
    • Low or normal with low testosterone/estradiol: constitutional growth delay, isolated GnRH deficiency, functional hypogonadotropic hypogonadism (e.g., medical illness, malnutrition), or hypothalamic-pituitary disorders (e.g., malformations, hemochromatosis, injury, tumors)
    • Elevated: primary hypogonadism
  • X-ray of the left hand and wrist
    • First imaging study
    • Shows delayed bone age (less than the individual’s chronological age)

Additional tests: based on suspected etiology

  • Serum prolactin level (elevated in prolactinoma)
  • IGF-1 levels (exclude growth hormone deficiency)
  • TSH and T4 hormone: evaluate amenorrhea and hypothyroidism
  • Karyotype (Turner syndrome in girls, Klinefelter syndrome in boys)
  • Complete blood and biochemical tests (e.g., FBC, ESR, LFT, U and Es, creatinine): suspected systemic disorder in children
  • Antiendomysial antibody: screen for celiac disease in patients with signs of malabsorption
  • Abdominal ultrasound (streak ovaries in Turner syndrome, testicular mass)
  • Head MRI: suspected prolactinoma (e.g., headaches, bitemporal hemianopia)
410
Q

How is delayed onset of puberty treated

A

Constitutional growth delay:

  • expectant management
  • No treatment is needed as catch-up growth eventually occurs and the individual reaches a normal adult height.
  • Serial growth measurements at frequent intervals (∼ every 6 months)
  • Reassuring the child and parents is sufficient.

Other pathologies:
Treatment of the underlying disease
Hormonal therapy
-Testosterone: used in boys to achieve secondary sex characteristics (e.g., virilization, growth spurt)
– Boys with constitutional growth delay usually respond well after one or two courses of testosterone therapy.
– If little or no response is seen, isolated GnRH deficiency should be suspected in boys over the age of 18 years.
-Estradiol: used in girls with primary gonadal insufficiency (e.g., Turner syndrome)
– Initially: low-dose estradiol that is gradually increased
– After 2 years: Add cyclic progestin therapy to induce menstruation.

411
Q

What is Bruton agammaglobulinaemia

A

AKA X linked agammaglobulinaemia

X-linked recessive disease that causes a complete deficiency of mature B lymphocytes

412
Q

What is the epidemiology of Bruton agammaglobulinaemia

A

Occurs mainly in boys

413
Q

What is the aetiology of Bruton agammaglobulinaemia

A

Defect of Bruton tyrosine kinase expressed in B cells leading to a complete deficiency of mature B cell

414
Q

What are the clinical features of Bruton agammaglobulinaemia

A

Symptoms develop between 3 and 6 months of age when maternal IgG levels in fetal serum start to decrease.

Hypoplasia of lymphoid tissue (e.g., tonsils, lymph nodes)

Recurrent, severe, pyogenic infections (e.g., pneumonia, otitis media), especially with encapsulated bacteria (S. pneumoniae, N. meningitidis, and H. influenzae)

Hepatitis virus and enterovirus (e.g., Coxsackie virus) infections

415
Q

How is Bruton agammaglobulinaemia diagnosed

A

Flow cytometry:

  • Absent or low levels of B cells (marked by CD19, CD20, and CD21)
  • Normal or high T cells

Low immunoglobulins of all classes

Absent lymphoid tissue, i.e., no germinal centers and primary follicles

416
Q

How is Bruton agammaglobulinaemia treated

A

IV immunoglobulins
Prophylactic antibiotics
Live vaccines are contraindicated in patients with Bruton agammaglobinaemia

417
Q

How can Bruton agammaglobulinaemia be remembered

A

Brutal defects in a B cell make little Boys feel unwell

418
Q

What is selective IgA deficiency (SIgAD)

A

Most common primary immunodeficiency that is characterized by a near or total absence of serum and secretory IgA

419
Q

What is the epidemiology of selective IgA deficiency

A

~1:220 to 1:1000

Unknown aetiology

420
Q

What are the clinical features of selective IgA deficiency

A

Often asymptomatic

May manifest with sinusitis or respiratory infections (S. pneumoniae, H. influenzae)

Chronic diarrhea, partially due to elevated susceptibility to parasitic infection (e.g. by Giardia lamblia)

Associated with autoimmune diseases (e.g., gluten-sensitive enteropathy, inflammatory bowel disease, immune thrombocytopenia) and atopy

Anaphylactic reaction to products containing IgA (e.g., intravenous immunoglobulin)

421
Q

How is selective IgA deficiency diagnosed

A

Decreased serum IgA levels (< 7 mg/dL)

Normal IgG and IgM levels

False-positive pregnancy tests

422
Q

How is selective IgA deficiency treated

A

Treatment of infections

Prophylactic antibiotics

Intravenous infusion of IgA is not recommended because of the risk of anaphylactic reactions (caused by the production of anti-IgA antibodies).

To prevent transfusion reactions, IgA-deficient patients must be given washed blood products without IgA or obtain blood from an IgA-deficient donor

423
Q

What are the Six As of selective IgA deficiency

A
Asymptomatic
Airway infections
Anaphylaxis to IgA containing products
Autoimmune diseases
Atopy
424
Q

What is common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)

A

Primary immunodeficiency with low serum levels of all immunoglobulins despite phenotypically normal B cells

425
Q

What is the epidemiology of CVID

A

F=M

Onset: later than other B-cell defects (typically at 20-40 y/o)

426
Q

What is the aetiology of CVID

A

Most cases are sporadic with no known family hisotry

427
Q

What is the pathophysiology of CVID

A

B cells are phenotypically normal but are unable to differentiate into Ig-producing cells, resulting in low immunoglubulins of all classes

428
Q

What are the clinical features of CVID

A

Recurrent pyogenic respiratory infections, e.g., sinopulmonary infections (in rare cases, enteroviral meningitis)

Associated with a high risk of lymphoma, gastric cancer, bronchiectasis, and autoimmune disorders (e.g., rheumatoid arthritis, autoimmune hemolytic anemia, immune thrombocytopenia, vitiligo)

429
Q

How is CVID diagnosed

A

Quantitative immunoglobulin levels: low levels of IgG, IgA, and IgM

Decreased number of plasma cells

Flow cytometry shows subsets of normal B and T cells

Poor response to immunizations

430
Q

How is CVID treated

A

Treatment of infections

Prophylactic antibiotics

IV immunoglobulins

431
Q

What is neuroblastoma

A

A malignant embryonal neuroendocrine neoplasm of the sympathetic nervous system that originates from neural crest cells, potentially secretes catecholamines and is usually found in the adrenal glands or sympathetic ganglia

432
Q

what is the epidemiology of neuroblastoma

A

Most common malignancy of the adrenal medulla in infants and third most common childhood cancer overall following leukaemia and brain tumours

Mean age of diagnosis is 1-2 y/o

The majority of children have progressed to advanced stage disease by the time of diagnosis

433
Q

What is the aetiology of neuroblastoma

A

Cause: unclear

Genetic associations:

  • chromosomal abnormalities, especially deletions (found in ∼ 50% of neuroblastomas)
    • Deletions of 1p, 11q, and 14q chromosomosomal regions
    • Amplification and overexpression of oncogene MYCN (N-myc)

Risk factors:

  • Maternal: gestational diabetes, opiates, folate deficiency
  • Congenital syndromes: Turner syndrome, neurofibromatosis, Hirschsprung’s disease, Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome
  • Familial
434
Q

What are the clinical features of neuroblastoma

A

General:

  • Failure to thrive or weight loss
  • Fever
  • Nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite
  • Hypertension

Localised symptoms:

  • Abdomen (>60% of cases):
    • Palpable, firm, irregular abdominal mass that may cross the midline (in contrast to Wilms tumor, which is smooth and usually does not cross the midline)
    • Abdominal distension and pain
    • Hepatomegaly
    • Constipation
  • Chest (~20% of cases):
    • Spinal cord compression → back pain, weakness, numbness, ataxia, loss of bowel or bladder control
    • Scoliosis
    • Dyspnea, cough
    • Inspiratory stridor
  • Neck:
    • Horner syndrome
    • Symptoms due to spinal cord compressions

Mets locations:

  • Orbit of the eye:
    • periorbital ecchymoses (raccoon eyes)
    • Proptosis
  • Bones:
    • Bone pain
    • Anaemia (bone marrow suppression)
  • Skin:
    • Subcutaneous nodules

Paraneoplastic syndromes:

  • Chronic diarrhea → electrolyte imbalances
  • Opsoclonus-myoclonus-ataxia: a paraneoplastic syndrome of unclear etiology characterized by rapid and multi-directional eye movements, rhythmic jerks of the limbs, and ataxia (dancing eyes dancing feet syndrome)
  • Possibly hypertension, tachycardia, palpitations, sweating, flushing (hypertension is more commonly seen in pheochromocytoma)
435
Q

What are the stages of neuroblastoma

A

International Neuroblastoma Staging System

  1. Localized tumor
    Complete gross excision with or without microscopic residuals
    Negative ipsilateral lymph nodes

2A.
Localized tumor
Incomplete gross excision
Negative ipsilateral lymph nodes

2B.
Localized tumor
Complete or incomplete gross excision
Positive ipsilateral lymph nodes

3.
Unresectable unilateral tumor that crosses the midline with or without lymph node involvement
Any tumor with positive contralateral lymph nodes
Midline tumor with bilateral tumor or lymph node involvement

4.
Any tumor with dissemination to distant lymph nodes or other organs (e.g., bone, liver, skin), with the exception of Stage 4S disease

4S.
Localized primary tumor with dissemination to skin, liver, or bone marrow, occurring in infants < 12 months

436
Q

How is neuoblastoma diagnosed

A

Laboratory tests:

Urine

  • ↑ Catecholamine metabolites homovanillic acid (HVA) and vanillylmandelic acid (VMA) in 24-hour urine
  • Urinalysis

Blood

  • ↑ Catecholamine metabolites (HVA/VMA)
  • ↑ Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH), ferritin, neuron-specific enolase (NSE)
  • FBC with differential
  • Serum chemistry profile
  • Liver and kidney function tests

Other procedures:

Imaging:

  • To identify the primary site
  • Abdominal ultrasound
  • CT or MRI (depending on the presumable site of the lesion)

Scintigraphy:

  • MIBG scan: Uptake scan of metaiodobenzylguanidine (MIBG) combined with a radioactive iodine tracer.
  • In MIBG non-avid tumors: technetium bone scan and plain radiographs

Biopsy:

  • Image-guided needle aspiration of the tumor or biopsy at the time of surgical tumor resection
    • Evaluation for MYCN gene amplification
    • Evaluation for DNA ploidy
  • Bilateral bone marrow biopsy of iliac crests
437
Q

What is the pathology of neuroblastoma

A

Homer Wright rosettes: Halo-like clusters of neuroblast cells surrounding a central pale area containing neuropil (associated with tumors of neuronal origin such as neuroblastoma, medulloblastoma, primitive neuroectodermal tumors, and pineoblastoma)

Small round blue cells with hyperchromatic nuclei

Bombesin and NSE positive

438
Q

What are the differentials in suspected neuroblastoma

A
Wilms tumor
Pheochromocytoma
Lymphoma
Sarcomas
Osteomyelitis or transient synovitis
439
Q

How is neuroblastoma treated

A

Neuroblastoma patients are treated based on their risk category (low, intermediate, or high), which is based on the stage of their neuroblastoma (extent of disease), age at diagnosis, and the presence/absence of MYCN amplification.

Low risk: generally children with early-stage disease (Stages 1–2) and no MYCN amplification

  • Observe
  • Preoperative chemo
  • Surgery

Intermediate risk: generally children with intermediate and late-stage disease (Stages 3–4) and no MYCN amplification

  • Preoperative chemo
  • Surgery
  • Post op chemo
  • Radiation

High risk: generally children with late-stage disease and/or MYCN amplification

  • Pre op chemo
  • Surgery
  • Post op chemo
  • Radiation
  • GD2 antibody, dinutuximab, GM-CSF, IL-2 and cis-retinoic acid
  • MIBG therapy post op

Stage 4S (an exception): disseminated disease in infants (< 12 months)

  • Better prognosis than other stage 4 neuroblastoma and spontaneous regression is very common
  • Children with Stage 4S belong to the low-risk or intermediate-risk groups unless they have a MYCN amplification, in which case they are high-risk patients
440
Q

What pre op chemotherapy may be used in neuroblastoma

A

Doxorubicin
Cyclophosphamide
Etoposide
Platinum drug

441
Q

What determines prognosis in neuroblastoma

A

Prognosis depends on the risk group.
Important factors include:
-Age
-Children with MYCN amplification are classified as high risk
-Histopathology, disease dissemination and biochemical markers

442
Q

What is Wilms tumor

A

Nephroblastoma

Most common renal malignancy in children

443
Q

What is the epidemiology of Wilms tumor

A

Peak incidence between 2 and 5 years

Most common malignant neoplasm of the kidney in children

444
Q

What is the aetiology of Wilms tumor

A

The exact aetiology of Wilms tumor remains unknown, but it is associated with several genetic mutations and syndromes.

Genetic predisposition:

  • Gene mutations have been found in children both with and without genetic syndromes who have Wilms tumor.
  • Associated with loss of function mutations of tumor supressor genes on chromosome 11
    • The WT1 (Wilms tumor 1) gene is the most important Wilms tumor gene (mutated in ∼ 10–20% of cases).
    • WT2 (Wilms tumor 2) gene

Associated syndromes:

  • WAGR syndrome: Deletion of the 11p13 band leads to the deletion of the WT1 gene and other genes, such as PAX6
    • Wilms tumor
    • Aniridia
    • Genitourinary anomalies
  • – Pseudohermaphroditism, undescended testes in males (due to gonadal dysgenesis)
  • – Early-onset nephrotic syndrome
    • Range of intellectual disability
  • Denys-Drash syndrome: point mutation in WT1 gene, which encodes a zinc finger transcription factor
    • Wilms tumor
    • Pseudohermaphroditism, undescended testes in males (due to gonadal dysgenesis)
    • Early-onset nephrotic syndrome caused by diffuse mesangial sclerosis
  • Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome: mutations of the WT2 gene
445
Q

What is WAGR syndrome

A

Wilms tumor, Aniridia, Genitourinary anomalies and Range of intellectual disability