GOSH Flashcards

1
Q

What is a speculum examination

A

Insertion of a speculum device to facilitate the inspection of the vaginal wall and ectocervix
Evaluation of the quality of vaginal discharge to determine whether a smear should be acquired

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2
Q

What is the ectocervix and what type of cells make it up

A

Outer part of the cervix, distal to the uterine external os
The mucosal surface of the vaginal cervix.
Lined with nonkeratinized stratified squamous epithelium.

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3
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of pathologic discharge

A
Malodorous
Abnormal consistence (frothy or curd like)
Bloody, brown, yellow, green or gray colour

Puritic and/or erythematous vagina
Cervical tenderness

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4
Q

What is physiological leukorrhea

A

Profuse white or yellow and non-malodorous vaginal discharge can be physiological if none of the other symptoms of pathologic discharge are present
In newborns, vaginal discharge may occur due to in-utero exposure to maternal oestrogen (no treatment necessary)

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5
Q

What is Important about speculum exams in preadolescent patients

A

Nearly never indicated but if absolutely necessary (eg vaginal bleeding, trauma or abuse) it is usually done under general anaesthesia

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6
Q

What is a colposcope

A

A type of microscope used to acquire a magnified view (6-40x) of the vaginal wall or ectocervix
Can detect pracancerous and cancerous lesions with application of acetic acid or iodine
Can be used for colposcopy directed cervical smears and biopsies
Can be used in surgical procedures

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7
Q

What is cervical ectopy

A

A state in which the squamous cell epithelium of the ectocervix is replaced by columnar cell epithelium of the endocervix under the physiological influence of oestrogen (eg precnancy, certain oral contraceptives)

Can be seen on colposcopy as a sharply demarcated bright red area with papillary structures

Clinical features: mostly asymptomatic, occasional postcoital bleeding and vaginal discharge

Predisposition to chlamydial infection

Malignant transformation may occur in cases of HPV-16 and/ or HPV-18 infections

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8
Q

What is the transformational zone

A

The area between the non-keratinised squamous epithelium of the ectocervix and the columnar epithelium of the endocervix.

It is a common site for infections and dysplastic changes

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9
Q

What are nabothian cysts

A

Retention cysts that arise in the transformational zone

These have no pathological significance

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10
Q

What are cervical polyps

A

Hyperplastic cervical epithelium
Clinical features: vaginal bleeding
Malignant degeneration is rare
Treatment: surgical resection of the polyp and cauterization of the polyp’s pedicle to prevent recurrence

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11
Q

What are the abnormal findings on colposcopy

A

All require further evaluation

Condylomata acuminata: white lesions under acetic acid application

Cervical leukoplakia: white membrane that cannot be scraped off

Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia: punctate lesions or coarse mosaic pattern

Cervical cancer: atypical vessels

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12
Q

What is the normal finding on a vaginal smear

A

Cylindrical Lactobacilli (Doderlein’s bacilli)

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13
Q

What are the pathological findings on a vaginal smear and what is the subsequent diagnosis

A

Pseudomycelia and/or yeast cells: Vaginal candidiasis

Motile flagellated protozoa: Trichomoniasis

Clue cells and positive whiff test: Bacterial vaginosis

Estimate pH levels:

  • Normal 4 - 4.5
  • > 4.5 then suspect bacterial infections (other causes could be menstruation, amniotic fluid and sexual intercourse)

Also need to do bacterial culture and sensitivity analysis if bacterial infections due to an unknown pathogen are suspected

PCR and/or serological tests can be done for suspected chlamydial infections or HPV typing

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14
Q

What is involved in a Whiff test

A

AKA: Amine test, Hinsberg reaction

Positive if adding 1–2 drops of 10% KOH (potassium hydroxide) to vaginal fluid (on the speculum after the pelvic examination/on a microscope slide) leads to an intensification of the fishy odor.

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15
Q

What is the tumour marker for breast carcinoma

A

CA 15-3

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16
Q

What is the tumour marker for ovarian and/or endometrial carcinoma

A

CA 125

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17
Q

What is the tumour marker for squamous cell carcinoma (eg cervical, vulval and/ or vaginal carcinomas)

A

SCC

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18
Q

What is the tumour marker for germ cell tumours

A

AFP

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19
Q

What is the tumour marker for choriocarcinomas and or/ germ cell tumours

A

HCG

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20
Q

What is a transabdominal ultrasound used for

A

The easiest menthof of assessing the uterus, ovaries and adnecal structures

Used in assessment of:

  • Urogenital tract
  • Foetal development
  • Pelvic organs
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21
Q

What is a transvaginal ultrasound used for

A

Performed to diagnose ovarian cysts, tumors and follicular maturation

Looking at uterus:

  • Myometrium (eg to diagnose leiomyomas)
  • Endometrium:
    • echogenic layer in the long axis view of the uterus (endometrial stripe)
    • endometial thickness varies with menstrual cycle
    • postmenopausal women with an endometial thickness >8mm should undergo a follow up ultrasound 1-3 months later
    • postmenopausal women with an endometrial thickness >10mm should undergo hysteroscopy and endometrial curettage to rule out endometrial carcinoma

Assessment of foetal development during first trimester

Meausrement of cervical length in cases of cervical incompetence

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22
Q

What is breast ultrasound used for

A

Used to assess breast lesions which were detected by palpation, mammography, and/or breast MRI scans

Can also be used to assess the axilla for lymph node involvement if there is suspicion for breast cancer

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23
Q

What is hysteroscopy

A

A fiberoptic scope is introduced transcervically into the uterus to diagnose and/or treat uterine pathologies

Commonly done as part of the work up of abnormal uterine bleeding

Can be combined with diagnostic/ therapeutic uterine curettage

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24
Q

What is uterine curettage

A

Scraping away endometrial tissue by introducing a curette into the uterine cavity

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25
Q

What are the Müllerian ducts

A

A pair of embryonal ducts that give rise to the fallopian tubes, uterus, cervix, and upper one-third of the vagina in a female foetus.

In a male fetus, the production of Müllerian inhibiting factor by the Sertoli cells of the testes causes degeneration of the Müllerian (or paramesonephric) ducts.

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26
Q

What are the anomalies of Müllerian duct fusion

A

Incidence: 3-4/100 females

Pathophysiology:

  • defective fusion of the Müllerian ducts during embryonal development
  • normally functioning gonads and female karyotype results in normal development of secondary sexual characteristics (eg breast, pubic hair development)
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27
Q

What are the types of Müllerian duct fusion anomalies

A

Müllerian agenesis: Both of the Müllerian ducts fail to develop, leading to the absent or hypoplastic uterus, absent cervix, and vaginal agenesis (but functional ovaries)

Unicornuate uterus: One of the Mullerian ducts fails to develop

Didelphic uterus: Complete lack of Mullerian duct fusion resulting in double uterus, double cervix, double vagina

Bicornuate uterus: Incomplete fusion of the mullerian ducts to various degrees:

    • Uterus bicornis unicollis - double uterus, single cervix, and single vagina
    • Uterus bicornis bicollis - double uterus and double cervix with/without a vaginal septum

Septate uterus: The mullerian ducts fuse, but the septa between the two ducts persists either partially (subseptate uterus) or completely (septate uterus)

DES-related abnormality: In utero exposure to diethylstilbestrol:

  • Vagina: adenosine, adenocarcinoma
  • Cervix: cockscomb cervix, cervical collar
  • Uterus: hypoplasia, uterine synechiae, T shaped uterine cavity
  • Fallopian tube: abnormal fimbriae, cornual budding
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28
Q

What are the clinical features of Mullerian duct fusion anomalies

A

Asymptomatic before puberty
Infertility and dyspareunia
In some cases, periodic lower abdominal pain
Menorrhagia
Amenorrhea
Associated urological (25-50% of cases) and skeletal (10-15% of cases) malformations
Increased risk of these obstetric complications:
- ectopic pregnancy
- cervical incompetence
- preterm labor
- malpresentation
- obstructed or prolonged labour
-retained placenta leading to postpartum haemorrhage

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29
Q

What is dyspareunia

A

A symptom of pain that occurs during or after sexual intercourse.

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30
Q

What is menorrhagia

A

A condition of abnormally high flow of bleeding (> 80 mL of bleeding volume) or prolonged duration of bleeding (> 8 days of menstruation) during menstrual periods.

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31
Q

What is malpresentation

A

An obstetric term that refers to a foetus with a part other than the head overlying the maternal pelvic inlet

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32
Q

How are anomalies of Müllerian duct fusion diagnosed

A

Screening tests
- Transvaginal or abdominal ultrasound
- Hysterosalpingography
Confirmatory test: MRI

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33
Q

What are the treatments of anomalies of Müllerian duct fusion

A

Surgical treatment is usually not recommended in the following situations:

  • Another treatable cause of infertility co-exists
  • The woman is asymptomatic

Metroplasty: reconstruction of the uterus

Septoplasty: a type of metroplasty that only involves resection of the septum in a separate uterus

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34
Q

What is Asherman syndrome

A

AKA Intrauterine adhesions

Endometrial adhesions or fibrosis

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35
Q

What is the aetiology of Asherman syndrome

A

Following uterine dilation or curettage (most common cause)

Postinflammatory (eg chlamydia)

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36
Q

What are the clinical features of Asherman syndrome

A
Usually asymptomatic
Abnormal uterine bleeding
Secondary amenorrhea
Infertility
Recurrent pregnancy loss
Periodic abdominal pain
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37
Q

How is Asherman syndrome diagnosed

A

Progesterone withdrawal test: bleeding does not occur following progestin withdrawal given block of the outflow tract

Hysterosalpingography: honeycomb appearance of the uterus

Confirmatory test: hysteroscopy to directly visualise adhesions

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38
Q

How is Asherman syndrome treated

A

Hysteroscopic resection of the adhesions

Treatment is only indicated if patient is symptomatic

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39
Q

What is an imperforate hymen

A

A hymen without an opening
A congenital defect
Seen in 1:1000-2000 females

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40
Q

What is the pathophysiology of an imperforate hymen

A

Central cells of the Müllerian eminence in the urogenital sinus do not disintegrate → imperforate hymen → cryptomenorrhea at puberty (outflow tract obstruction leads to backup of menstrual blood) → hematocolpos (accumulation of blood in the vagina) and/or hematometra (accumulation of blood in the uterus)

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41
Q

What are the clinical features of an imperforate hymen

A

Asymptomatic before puberty: At birth, vaginal secretions accumulate → may be detected as a swelling in the introitus → spontaneous resolution
Primary amenorrhea with periodic lower abdominal pain
Possible urinary retention, frequency, dysuria
Possible palpable lower abdominal mass
Perineal examination: tense, bulging, bluish membrane in the vulva

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42
Q

How is an imperforate hymen diagnosed

A

Primarily a clinical diagnosis but imaging may be conducted to rule out transverse vaginal septum

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43
Q

How is an imperforate hymen treated

A

Excision of the imperforate hymen (hymenectomy)

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44
Q

What is agenesis of the upper vagina

A

A condition in which the vagina is abnormally closed or absent
Seen in 1/5000 female individuals
Caused by Müllerian agenesis

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45
Q

What is the pathophysiology of agenesis of the upper vagina

A

Agenesis or hypoplasia of the Müllerian duct → atresia of the upper-third of the vagina

Normally functioning gonads and female karyotype → normal development of secondary sexual characteristics (e.g., breast, pubic hair development)

Associated anomalies:

  • Absent or malformed uterus and cervix (in almost all cases)
  • Urological malformations (25–50% of cases): single kidney, pelvic kidney, horseshoe kidney
  • Skeletal malformations (10–15% of cases)
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46
Q

What are the clinical features of agenesis of the upper vagina

A
Asymptomatic before puberty
Primary amenorrhea
Infertility
Dyspareunia
Perineal examination: vaginal dimple and a hymenal fringe
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47
Q

How is agenesis of the upper vagina diagnosed

A

Normal levels of LH, FSH, prolactin, estradiol, and testosterone

Ultrasound:

  • Absent or malformed uterus (e.g., hemiuterus, rudimentary uterus)
  • Normal ovaries
  • Possible associated malformations of the kidneys or urinary tract

MRI to determine if functional endometrium is present

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48
Q

How is agenesis of the upper vagina treated

A

Vaginoplasty

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49
Q

What is the cause of agenesis of the lower vagina

A

Abnormal development of the sinovaginal bulbs and vaginal plate

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50
Q

What are the clinical features of agenesis of the lower vagina

A

Primary amenorrhea

Cyclic pelvic pain

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51
Q

How is agenesis of the lower vagina diagnosed

A

Vaginal dimple may be present on physical exam

Palpable abdominal mass due to distention of the upper vagina

Confirmatory tests: ultrasound or MRI:

  • Normal ovaries, uterus, cervix, and upper vagina
  • Measurement of the distance from introitus to obstruction
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52
Q

How is agenesis of the lower vagina treated

A

Surgical pull through procedure

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53
Q

What is the pathophysiology of transverse vaginal septum

A

Failure of recanalization of the Müllerian duct → transverse septum in the upper-third (45%), lower third (15–20%), and/or middle third (35–40%) of the vagina

Associated with cervical hypoplasia or absence

Cryptomenorrhea → hematocolpos

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54
Q

What are the clinical features of transverse vaginal septum

A
Asymptomatic before puberty
Primary amenorrhea
Infertility
Periodic lower abdominal pain
Possibly, palpable lower abdominal mass
Perineal examination: normal vulva and external genitalia
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55
Q

How is transverse vaginal septum diagnosed

A

Transvaginal ultrasonography

MRI

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56
Q

How is transverse vaginal septum treated

A

First-line: nonsurgical dilation over 6–12 months using graduated vaginal dilators

Second-line: vaginoplasty

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57
Q

What is labial fusion

A

Partial or complete adhesion of the labia minora

Occurs in 2-5% of females up to 4 y/o

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58
Q

How common is transverse vaginal septum

A

1/70,000 females

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59
Q

What causes labial fusion

A

Absence of estrogen → predisposition to mild infection → local inflammation → raw surface epithelium of the labia minora → adhesions

In rare cases: trauma (sexual abuse), congenital defect

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60
Q

What are the clinical features of labial fusion

A

Usually asymptomatic

If external urethral opening is obstructed: recurrent attacks of UTI, vaginitis, vestibulitis

Perineal examination:

  • A thin vertical midline fold in the perineum
  • The labia, vaginal opening, and occasionally the urethral meatus are not visible.
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61
Q

How is labial fusion diagnosed

A

Primarily clinical diagnosis

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62
Q

How is labial fusion treated

A

Application of topical oestrogen

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63
Q

What is the start of menstruation called

A

Menarche

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64
Q

What is the cessation of menstruation

A

Menopause

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65
Q

What is meant by the term menses

A

Menstrual bleeding

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66
Q

What regulates the mentstrual cycle

A

A tightly regulated process in which the coordinated release of hormones from the hypothalamus, pituitary gland, and gonads produces a single mature oocyte. These hormones are controlled by positive and negative feedback loops.

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67
Q

What is amenorrhea

A

Menstrual cessation

No period

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68
Q

What is primary dysmenorrhea

A

Recurrent lower abdo pain shortly before or during menstruation (in the abscence of pathological findings that could account for those symptoms)

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69
Q

What is meant by abnormal uterine bleeding

A

AKA ABU

Increased frequency and/or volume of menstruation

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70
Q

What is meant by Premenstrual syndrome

A

Discomfort prior to the onset of menstruation that is accompanies by psychiatric, gastro, and/or near symptoms

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71
Q

What is an oocyte

A

An immature female germ cell that can undergo oogenesis to become an ovum.

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72
Q

How long is a normal menstrual cycle

A

24-38 days (28 days on average, with the first day of menstrual bleeding counted as day 1 of the cycle

First few years after menarche the cycles will be irregular due to immaturity of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis

Cycles are longest at age 25-30, with younger and older individuals having shorter cycles

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73
Q

What is the epidemiology of primary dysmenorrhea

A

Prevalence up to 90%
Most common gynaecologic condition
Mainfiestes during adolescence (typically within 3 years of menarche)

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74
Q

What is the aetiology of primary dysmenorrhea

A

Not completely understood

Associated with risk factors:

  • Early menarche
  • Nulliparity
  • Smoking
  • Obesity
  • Postive family history
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75
Q

What is the pathophysiology of primary dysmenorrhea

A

Increased endometrial prostaglandin (PGF2 alpha) production leads to vasoconstriction/ischemia and stronger, sustained uterine contractions (to prevent blood loss).

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76
Q

What are the clinical features of primary dysmenorrhea

A

Usually occurs during the first 1–3 days of menstruation
Spasmodic, crampy pain in the lower abdominal and/or pelvic midline (often radiating to the back or thighs)
Headaches, diarrhea, fatigue, nausea, and flushing are common accompanying symptoms.
Normal pelvic examination

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77
Q

How is primary dysmenorrhea diagnosed

A

Primary dysmenorrhea is a diagnosis of exclusion.

Rule out conditions that cause secondary dysmenorrhea (e.g., endometriosis).

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78
Q

How is primary dysmenorrhea treated

A

Symptomatic treatment: pain relief (e.g., NSAIDs), topical application of heat

Hormonal contraceptives (e.g., combined oral contraceptive pill, IUD with progestogen)

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79
Q

What is secondary dysmenorrhea

A

Recurrent lower abdominal pain shortly before or during menstruation that is due to an underlying condition

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80
Q

What is the epidemiology of secondary dysmenorrhea

A

May begin later in life than primary dysmenorrhea

Commonly affects female individuals ≥ 25 years of age

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81
Q

What is the aetiology of secondary dysmenorrhea

A

Uterine causes:

  • Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)
  • Intrauterine device (IUD)
  • Adenomyosis
  • Fibroids (intracavitary or intramural)
  • Cervical polyps

Extrauterine causes:

  • Endometriosis
  • Adhesions
  • Functional ovarian cysts
  • Inflammatory bowel disease
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82
Q

What are the clinical features of secondary dysmenorrhea

A

Depend on the underlying cause

Secondary dysmenorrhea should be suspected in the following cases:

  • Abnormal pelvic examination (e.g., uterine size, cervical motion tenderness, adnexal tenderness, masses, vaginal/cervical discharge)
  • The pain tends to get worse over time.
  • No previous history of pain with menstruation
  • Infertility (e.g., adhesions, endometriosis, PID)
  • Irregular cycles
  • Heavy menstrual flow (e.g., adenomyosis, fibroids, polyps)
  • Dyspareunia or postcoital bleeding
  • Partial or no response to therapy with NSAIDs and/or hormonal contraceptives
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83
Q

How is secondary dysmenorrhea diagnosed

A
Depend on the underlying cause
Initial laboratory testing
CBC with differential (rules out infection)
Urinalysis (rules out UTIs)
Other
β-hCG (rules out ectopic pregnancy),
Gonococcal/chlamydial swabs (rule out STDs and PID)
Pelvic ultrasound
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84
Q

How is secondary dysmenorrhea treated

A

Treat the underlying cause

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85
Q

What is dyspareunia

A

A symptom of pain that occurs during or after sexual intercourse.

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86
Q

What is primary amenorrhea

A

The absence of menarche at 15 years of age despite normal development of secondary sexual characteristics

or

Absence of menses at 13 years of age in female individuals with no secondary sexual characteristics

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87
Q

What is the aetiology of primary amenorrhea

A
  • Constitutional growth delay
  • Hypogonadotropic hypogonadism
  • Hypergonadotropic hypogonadism
  • Anatomic anomalies
  • Receptor and enzyme abnormalities
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88
Q

How is primary amenorrhea diagnosed

A

Pregnancy test

Check for secondary sexual characteristics and anatomical anomalies (physical examination, pelvic ultrasound):

  • Uterus absent: Perform karyotyping and serum testosterone to investigate for male/female genotype and androgen sensitivity
  • Uterus present: Test FSH and LH levels:
  • -Exclude imperforate hymen, vaginal atresia, and transverse vaginal septum.
  • -↑ FSH: primary ovarian insufficiency (e.g., Turner syndrome, Swyer syndrome, premature ovarian failure)
  • -Normal or ↓ FSH: constitutional growth delay, hypogonadotropic hypogonadism

If galactorrhea is present:
–Check prolactin and TSH levels.

If symptoms of hyperandrogenism are present:

  • Check serum testosterone and dehydroepiandrosterone sulfate (DHEA-S)
  • -If high: Suspect an androgen-secreting tumor.

If blood pressure is high: Suspect congenital adrenal hyperplasia.

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89
Q

How is primary amenorrhea treated

A

Management of the underlying cause:

  • anatomical anomalies - surgery
  • Hypogonadism - hormone replacement therapy with oestrogens and progesterone

Goal of treatment is the progression of normal pubertal development

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90
Q

What is amenorrhea physiological

A

Before menarche
After menopause
During pregnancy
During lactation

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91
Q

What is the female athlete triad of functional hypothalmic amenorrhea

A

Low calorie intake/ strenuous physical activity
Low bone mineral density
Amenorrhea

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92
Q

What is abnormal uterine bleeding (AUB)

A

Formerly known as dysfunctional uterine bleeding

Defined as menstrual bleeding that is abnormal and/or irregular in frequency, duration and/or intensity

It may or may not be accompanied by dysmenorrhea

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93
Q

What is the aetiology of abnormal uterine bleeding

A

PALM -COEIN system

Structural causes (PALM):

  • polyps
  • adenomysosis
  • leiomyomas and malignancy and hyperplasia

Nonstructual causes (COEIN):

  • coagulopathy
  • ovulatory dysfunction
  • endometrial
  • iatrogenic
  • not otherwise classified
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94
Q

What is acute AUB

A

Episodic uterine bleeding, in a nonpregnant female individual of reproductive age, that is of sufficient volume to require intervention to prevent further blood loss

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95
Q

What is chronic AUB

A

Uterine bleeding of abnormal frequency, regularity, and/or volume that has persisted for > 6 months

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96
Q

How can AUB be classified

A

According to aetiology

AUB-C: coagulopathies
AUB-O: ovulation disorders (e.g., disorders of the hypothalamic-pituitary axis)
AUB-E: endometrial disorders
AUB-I: iatrogenic causes (e.g., estrogens, androgens, IUD)
AUB-N: not otherwise classified (e.g., uterine arteriovenous malformations, cesarean scar defect)

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97
Q

How is AUB diagnosed

A

Gynae history:

  • Age of menarche
  • Last menstrual period
  • Cycle length and regularity
  • Pregnancies
  • FH
  • Recent complaints
  • Evaluation of possible causes guided by PALM-COEIN system
  • Characteristics of abnormal bleeding (frequency, regularity, duration, volume)

Physical Exam:

  • If acute bleed - ensure haemodynamic stability
  • Pelvic exam- Assess the severity and source of the bleeding (exclude structural abnormalities, neoplasms and trauma)
  • Swabs for microbiologic testing to rule out cervicitis due to gonorrhoea/ chlamydial infection

Pap smear:
- rule out cervical carcinoma

Initial lab testing:

  • FBC - anaemia
  • Platelet count, PT, PTT, rule out bleeding disorders
  • B-hCG - rules out pregnancy
  • Additional (TFTs, Prolactin, Serum iron)

Pelvic Ultrasound:

  • To rule out structural anomalies
  • Evaluation of endometrial thickness

Endometrial biopsy:

  • Indications vary by age group and risk factor presence
  • Postmenopausal w/ any uterine bleeding and/or endometrial thickness ≥ 4mm
  • All >45y/o with frequent, heavy, and/or prolonged bleeding
  • <45y/o with frequent, heavy and/or prolonged bleeding who are at high risk for endometrial cancer and/or have failed medical management
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98
Q

When is ovulation

A

Day 14 (counted from last menstrual period)

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99
Q

Where does fertilisation and therefore conception occur

A

In the fallopian tube

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100
Q

What is each stage of the fertilised egg during cell division in the fallopian tube

A

Zygote to morula to blastocyst which then enters the uterine cavity

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101
Q

How many cells in a blastocyst

A

64 cells

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102
Q

What day does the blastocyst implant in the uterine cavity

A

23 (counted from last menstrual period), starting metal maternal dialog

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103
Q

What is the most common site for an ectopic pregnancy implantation

A

Ampulla of the Fallopian tube

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104
Q

What happens at implantation

A

Blastocyst implants causes release of hCG which stimulates the ovary to produce progesterone

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105
Q

How do HCG levels rise

A

Rapidly up to 10 weeks, then plateau and potentially drop

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106
Q

How is hCG used in diagnosis

A

Basis of pregnancy test
Can be detected in serum and urine 4 weeks after last menstrual period, so just 2 weeks after conception
Urine +ve when conc reaches 25IU/ml

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107
Q

What is progesterone

A

Main pregnancy hormone
Modifies maternal physiology:
-cardio (increase in HR, stroke volume, so cardiac output increase, BP drops)
-resp (less lung capacity, so SOB, may make pathology difficult to identify)
-Uterine quiescence (relaxation)
-Immune system (immuno suppressive - so not to reject baby, but can increase infection risk) (can be a problem in those already immunosuppressed eg HIV)
-smooth muscle relaxation (constipation, UTI - urinary stasis)

Can be given progesterone supplementation to mothers with late miscarriage past 20 weeks previously, as will often improve current pregnancy outcome

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108
Q

How quickly does the foetus grow in the first trimester

A

Doubles in size every week from 6 until 12 weeks gestation

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109
Q

What can be seen in a pregnancy transvaginal ultrasound at what weeks

A

4-5 weeks: gestational sac 6mm

5-6 weeks: yolk sac

6 weeks: foetal pole 5mm

6.5-7 weeks: foetal heart activity

8 weeks: limb buds, foetal movements

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110
Q

How is a pregnancy dated

A

Crown-rump length of foetus

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111
Q

What determines the growth of the foetus

A

Intrinsic factors:

  • Maternal
    • height and weight (bigger mum, bigger baby)
    • parity (bigger baby the more pregnancies)
    • ethnic group
  • Foetal
    • sex (boys bigger)
    • genes/inherited conditions
    • multiple pregnancies (twins etc will be smaller than equivalent single foetus)

Extrinsic factors:

  • Maternal:
    • social class
    • nutritional status
    • environment (high altitude, smaller baby)
    • pre-existion disease
    • pregnancy-related disease
  • – hypertension (small baby), diabetes (large baby)
  • Fetal
    • nutrition (placenta)
    • Teratogenic
    • Infective
  • – viral (rubella, CMV)
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112
Q

What is intera uterine growth restriction

A

When the baby is small for gestational age, not growing as expected

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113
Q

What fetal measurements are taken on ultrasound for foetal growth

A

BPD: biparietal diameter
HC: Head circumference
AC: Abdominal circumference (T12 level)
FL: Femur length

This is then plotted on percentile graphs

Serial scans needed, one scan cannot prove whether constitutionally small or IUGR.

However, can compare the centile plotting of head circumference and abdominal circumference, and if AC

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114
Q

What does the biophysical profile on ultrasound look at

A

Indicator of how the baby is coping

Fetal breathing movements
Fetal movements
Fetal tone
Amniotic fluid volume

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115
Q

How is placental function assessed

A

DOPPLER to assess blood flow in foetal arteries

DOPPLER doesn’t measure blood flow directly but this is inferred from the wave forms on the ultrasound screen to produce the pulsatility index and resistance index

If high PI and RI then sign of placental insufficiency

Alterations in foetal blood flow can be an eraly indication of foetal compromise

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116
Q

What is a high risk pregnancy

A

A high risk pregnancy is one in which the probability of an adverse outcome in the mother and/or baby is greater than that for a pregnant woman in general

A pregnancy requiring medical involvement

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117
Q

Who is at high risk in pregnancy

A
Maternal conditions
Social factors
Obstetric issues in previous pregnancy
Problems in this pregnancy
Problems during labour
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118
Q

What maternal conditions canmake a pregnancy high risk

A

Obesity
Diabetes
Hypertension
Chronic disease (renal, autoimmune, respiratory..)
Infections
Previous surgery
VTE (100x more likely for VTE in this pregnancy if previous VTE)

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119
Q

What social factors can make a pregnancy high risk

A
Teenage pregnancy
Maternal age >40
High parity and low interpregnancy interval (> risk of haemorrhaging)
Poor socioeconomic conditions
Alcohol intake
Substance abuse
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120
Q

What obstetric issues in previous pregnancy can make a pregnancy high risk

A
Caesarean section
Preterm delivery
Recurrent miscarriage (>/=3)
Stillbirth
Pre-eclampsia
Gestational diabetes
Third degree tear
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121
Q

What is a third degree tare

A

Anal sphincter
3a <50% external AS involved
3b <50% external AS involved
3c internal AS involved

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122
Q

What is a first degree tear

A

Vaginal sphincter

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123
Q

What is a second degree tear

A

Tear of perineal muscles

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124
Q

What problems in this pregnancy can make a pregnancy high risk

A
Multiple Pregnancy
Small for gestation age
Placenta praevia (low-lying placenta) (has to have a c-section) (will bleed a lot in surgery)
Gestational diabetes
Pre-eclampsia
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125
Q

What problems during labour can make a pregnancy high risk

A
Meconium stained liquor
Blood stained liquor
Worrying features on CTG
Need for oxytocin infusion
Lack of progress
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126
Q

Who provides the care to pregnant women

A

Midwife / GP-led - UNCOMPLICATED PREGNANCY

Consultant-led shared care - HIGH RISK PREGNANCY

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127
Q

What is the risk of scar dehiscence in viginal birth after csection (VBAC)

A

1:200 in spontaneious labour

2-3:200 in medically induced labour

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128
Q

WHat is the success rate of VBAC

A

75% in spontaneous labour with no previous vaginal deliveries

90% in spontaneous labour with previous vaginal deliveries

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129
Q

Which mother’s who have had a previous C section should not attempt VBAC

A

Scarring in upper uterine segment:

  • classical caesarean incision
    • exteme prematurity/ foetal abnormality
    • placential site issues
    • uterine abnormality/ fibroid position
  • J or inverted T incision
    • usually due to difficulty during previous delivery
Other previous surgical complications
Multiple previous C sections
Short inter-pregnancy interval (<1 year)
Increased risk of obstructed labour
- previous history
-BMI
-Foetal vs maternal size

Don’t attempt VBAC if not willing for monitored hospital birth

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130
Q

Where is bleeding likely to be coming from in intermenstrual bleeding

A

Endometrium

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131
Q

Where is bleeding likely to be coming from in post coital bleeding

A

Cervix or in vagina

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132
Q

Where is bleeding likely to be coming from in post menopausal bleeding

A

12 months free of period,
Red flag for potential endometrial cancer
Most common cause atrophic vaginitis

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133
Q

What is dyspareunia

A

Pain during intercourse

Can be superficial or deep

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134
Q

What is GnRH

A

Gonodotrophin Releasing Hormone
Decapeptide
Secreted by mid basal hypothalamic neurons
Hourly pulses
Transported to pituitary via hypophyseal portal blood system

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135
Q

What affects GnRH secretion

A
Bereavement
Anxiety
Time zone
Day/night duty
Exercise
Weight loss/gain
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136
Q

What is the role of FSH

A

AKA Follicle stimulating hormone

Stimulates follicular activity, thus promoting estradiol production from granulosa cells

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137
Q

What is the role of LH

A

AKA Luteinising hormone
Triggers release of egg from dominant follicle
Promotes development of the corpus luteum and the production of progesterone

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138
Q

What is the journey of a follicle leading to ovulation

A
Primordial follicle 
Primary/preantral follicle
Secondary/antral follicle
Provulatory follicle
Ovulation
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139
Q

What is the endometrium

A

Lining of the uterus where a pregnancy will implant and be nourished

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140
Q

What is the proliferative phase

A
Oestrogen (estradiol E2) causes endometrial proliferation
Endometrium thickens
Increase in stromal cells
Increase in glands, blood vessels
By ovulation endometrium 2-3mm thick
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141
Q

Why can oestrogen be dangerous

A

If allowed to continually produce and so cause continuous proliferation of the endometrium, unopposed by progesterone, it can cause cancer

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142
Q

What is the secretory phase

A
Progesterone dominant hormone causing:
-increasing in secretion
-increase in lipids and glycogen
-increase in blood supply
-endometrium 4-6mm thick
Optimal conditions for implantation of fertilised egg (stable, vascular, nutrient rich)
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143
Q

What causes period bleeding commencement each cycle

A

Drop in prgesterone due to death of corpus luteam

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144
Q

What is high spinnbarkeit

A

Stringy and runny muscus type midcycle, to facillitate sperm access at ovulation

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145
Q

Where is mucus in the cervix produced

A

Columnar glands

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146
Q

How is the mucus in the luteal phase of the cycle

A

Tenacious and inelastic
To prevent microbial ingress so protects the developing embryo
This mucus plug is critical to pregnancy (Coreo amnioitis)

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147
Q

How long is the luteal phase

A

A constant 14 days in length

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148
Q

What is menopause

A

Is the last menstrual period

Average age at menopause is ~51 years

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149
Q

What is postmenopause

A

Is the time after complete cessation of menstruation
Can only be known with certainty after 12 months of amenorrhoea
Or 6 months with high levels of FSH and LH

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150
Q

What is primary ovarian insufficiency

A

Menopause before age of 40 y/o

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151
Q

What is HRT

A

Hormone replacement therapy

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152
Q

What symptoms are suggestive of pelvic inflammatory disease

A

Recent onset (usually <30 days)

Lower abdominal pain – often bilateral
Abnormal vaginal discharge – often purulent
Deep dyspareunia
Abnormal vaginal bleeding including IMB, PCB & menorrhagia
Secondary dysmenorrhoea

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153
Q

What are the risk factors for endometrial cancer

A
Obesity
PCOS
Type 2 diabetes
Tamoxifen therapy
Lynch syndrome
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154
Q

How is abnormal uterine bleeding managed

A

Attain haemodynamic stability

Pharmacological:

  • Acute AUB:
    • High dose IV conjugated equine oestrogen
    • Alternatives: multidose regimens of Oral contraceptive pills or oral progestins, as well as tranexamic acid
  • Oculatory Bleeding:
    • OCP, Progestin
    • NSAIDs
    • Tanexamic acid
  • Anovulatory bleeding:
    • Progestin PO for 10 days or as an IUD
    • OCPs

Surgical:

  • Uterine dilation and curettage with concomitant hysteroscopy
  • Endometrial ablation
  • Trancatheter uterine artery embolisation
  • Hysteroscopy
  • Hysterectomy
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155
Q

What are the indications for surgical intervention in AUB

A

Severe bleeding/ hemodynamic instability
Patient unresponsive to hormonal treatment
Hormonal treatment contraindicated (e.g., breast cancer, endometrial cancer)
Underlying medical condition requiring surgical repair

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156
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of PMS

A

Onset of symptoms 5 days before menstruation

Pain: dyspareunia, breast tenderness, headache, back pain, abdominal pain

Gastrointestinal changes: nausea, diarrhea, changes in appetite (food cravings)

Bloating and weight gain

Tendency to oedema formation

Neurological: migraine, increased sensitivity to stimuli

Psychiatric: mood swings, drowsiness, lethargy, exhaustion, depression, anxiety, aggressiveness, social withdrawal

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157
Q

How is PMS diagnosed

A

Diagnosis is based on history and self-assessment

Preexisting endocrine (e.g., thyroid disorders) and psychiatric (e.g., major depressive disorder) conditions should be ruled out.

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158
Q

WHat is PMS

A

The onset of severe discomfort or functional impairment prior to menstruation

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159
Q

What is Premenstrual dysphoric disorder

A

Aka PMDD

Severe affective symptoms and behavioural changes that cause clincially significant disturbance to daily life

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160
Q

What are the diagnostic criteria for PMDD

A

Present up to 7 days prior to the onset of menstruation for the majority of cycles within one year

≥ 5 symptoms that are marked and/or persistent (e.g., depressed mood, anxiety, anger, affective lability, sleep disturbances, change in appetite, pain, headache)

Significant interference in daily life (work, home, social activities, interpersonal relationships)

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161
Q

What are the diagnostic criteria for PMS

A

Present in the 5 days prior to the beginning of menstruation for at least 3 consecutive cycles

End within 4 days after the beginning of menstruation

Interfere with normal daily life activities

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162
Q

How is PMS treated

A

Lifestyle changes can be beneficial (e.g., regular exercise, healthy diet, avoiding individual triggers like alcohol, caffeine, or nicotine).

First-line treatment

  • NSAIDs (e.g., naproxen)
  • OCPs
  • SSRIs (e.g., fluoxetine) in the case of severe PMS and PMDD

Dietary supplements: reduce symptoms and improve mood swings

  • Calcium (1,200 mg/day) [16]
  • Vitamin E
  • Vitamin D

In the case of water retention/bloating:

  • Diuretics (e.g., spironolactone)
  • Magnesium
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163
Q

What is Mittelschmerz

A

Physiological preovulatory pain in female individuals of reproductive age

Also referred to as ovulatory or midcycle pain

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164
Q

How common is Mittelschmerz

A

~40% of females of reproductive age

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165
Q

What is the aetiology of Mittelschmerz

A

Enlargement and rupture of the follicular cyst and contraction of Fallopian tubes during midcycle ovulation leading to transient peritoneal irritation from follicular fluid.

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166
Q

WHat are the clinical features of Mittelschmerz

A

Recurrent unilateral lower abdominal pain (can mimic appendicitis)

Pain occurs during midcycle in individuals with regular menses.

Dull and achy pain which can become cramp-like

Can last up to 3 days

Physical examination: lower abdominal pain on palpation

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167
Q

How is Mittelschmerz managed

A

With NSAIDs as needed

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168
Q

What is PCOS

A

One of the most common endocrine disorders in women
It is characterized by hyperandrogenism (which primarily manifests as hirsutism, acne, and, occasionally, virilization), oligoovulation/anovulation, and/or the presence of polycystic ovaries.

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169
Q

What is teh prevalence of PCOS

A

6-12% of women in their reproductive years in the US

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170
Q

What is the most common cause of Hyperandrogenism

A

PCOS

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171
Q

What are the clinical features of PCOS

A

Menstrual irregularities

  • Primary or secondary amenorrhea
  • Oligomenorrhea
  • Menorrhagia
  • Infertility or difficulties conceiving

Insulin resistance and associated conditions

  • Metabolic syndrome (especially obesity) → ↑ risk of sleep apnea
  • Nonalcoholic fatty liver disease

Skin conditions

  • Hirsutism
  • Androgenic alopecia
  • Acne vulgaris
  • Oily skin
  • Acanthosis nigricans

Psychiatric conditions

  • Depression
  • Anxiety disorders
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172
Q

How does PCOS present macroscopically

A

Multiple, brown cysts arranged in a circular pattern in the subcapsular region of the ovary
Cysts are relatively small and of approximately the same size.

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173
Q

How does PCOS present microscopically

A
Ovarian hypertrophy with thick capsule
Stromal hyperplasia and fibrosis
Multiple enlarged cystic follicles 
Hyperluteinized theca cells
Decreased granulosa cell layer
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174
Q

What are the differentials for hyperandrogenism

A
PCOS
Nonclassic congenital adrenal hyperplasia
Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
Cushing disease
Hypothyroidism
Hyperprolactinaemia
Androgen secreting tumor
Acromegaly
Ovarian hyperthecosis
Placental aromatase deficiency 
Drug induced (eg exogenous steroid and androgen intake)
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175
Q

What is hyperandrogenism

A

A state of excess androgen levels that causes symptoms such as growth of facial hair, deepening of the voice, and male-pattern baldness

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176
Q

What are the clinical features of hyperandrogenism

A

Virilization: the appearance of male secondary sexual characteristics in a female individual

Hirsutism: excessive male pattern hair growth (e.g., chin, upper lip, mid-sternum, abdomen, back, buttocks)

Male-pattern hair loss

Acne

Increased muscle mass

Voice deepening

Clitoromegaly

Rapid onset of virilization is suggestive of exogenous androgen intake or androgen-secreting tumors

Manifestations of the underlying condition

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177
Q

How is hyperandrogenism diagnosed

A

Laboratory tests to identify hyperandrogenemia:
↑ Serum total testosterone
↓ SHBG
Free androgen index

Investigate for the underlying cause.

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178
Q

How is hyperandrogenism treated

A

Medication to suppress or block androgen and manage symptoms of virilization

OCP

Antiandrogen drugs (e.g., spironolactone, finasteride)

Treat the underlying cause (e.g., surgery for androgen-secreting tumors).

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179
Q

What is the Rotterdam criteria

A

Criteria used to diagnose PCOS
Must have 2 or more of the following (and have excluded other anocrinological conditions)
-Oligoovulation and/or anovulation
-Hyperandrogenism (based on clinical features or laboratory studies): Examine patients for signs of acne, alopecia, and hirsutism; obtain laboratory studies as needed. [6]
-Enlarged and/or polycystic ovary on ultrasound
– Ovarian volume ≥ 10 mL
– AND/OR the presence of multiple cystic follicles measuring 2–9 mm (string-of-pearls appearance) in one or both ovaries [10]

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180
Q

What are the laboratory studies for PCOS

A
Confirm hyperandrogenism: 
-Obtain in all women with clinical features of PCOS, even if features are minimal or unclear:
↑ Testosterone
↑ Androstenedione
↑ dehydroepiandrosterone sulfate

Rule out differential diagnoses: e.g., pregnancy, endocrine disorders

A clinical picture of hyperandrogenism fulfills a diagnostic criterion of pcos, even if serum androgen levels are normal

An elevated LH (with LH:FSH ratio > 2:1) is a characteristic finding in most patients with PCOS but not necessary for diagnosis.

Identification of cystic follicles is not mandatory to diagnose PCOS

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181
Q

What screening must those with PCOS undergo

A

Patients with PCOS are at risk of serious comorbidities, even at a young age.

It is important to screen for these at the first visit and at regular intervals.

Metabolic screening and monitoring:

  • Measure weight, height, and waist circumference; calculate BMI.
  • For patients with elevated BMI: Obtain a fasting lipid profile and screen for symptoms of obstructive sleep apnea.
  • Check blood pressure
  • Assess glycemic status

Mental health and quality of life:
-Screen for anxiety, depression, and psychosexual dysfunction.

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182
Q

How is PCOS treated

A

Weight loss

Combined oral contraceptives:

  • Indication: first-line treatment for hyperandrogenism and/or menstrual cycle abnormalities
  • Additional benefits:
    • ↓ Endometrial hyperplasia → ↓ risk of endometrial carcinoma
    • ↓ Menstrual bleeding
    • ↓ Acne
    • Treatment of hirsutism

Metformin
- improves menstrual irregularities, metabolic outcomes, and weight (especially when combined with lifestyle modifications)

Antiandrogens:

  • Controversial role
  • Examples: spironolactone, finasteride, flutamide
  • Indications: can be considered for treatment of hirsutism and androgen-related alopecia in patients unable to take or tolerate COCs

Additional interventions:

  • Antiobesity medications
  • Bariatric surgery, may be considered on a case-by-case basis.
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183
Q

How should patients with PCOS, planning to conceive, be treated

A

Letrozole:

  • First-line therapy for ovulation induction
  • Improves pregnancy and live birth rates in patients with anovulatory infertility with no other causes
  • Mechanism of action: aromatase inhibition reduces estrogen production, stimulating FSH secretion and inducing ovulation

Clomiphene:

  • Alternative to letrozole
  • May be preferred over metformin monotherapy in obese women with anovulatory infertility
  • Mechanism of action: inhibits hypothalamic estrogen receptors → disruption of the negative feedback mechanism governing oestrogen production → ↑ pulsatile secretion of GnRH → ↑ FSH and LH → stimulation of ovulation

Exogenous gonadotropins:

  • The low-dose regimen is the second-line treatment for ovulation induction.
  • Agents:
    • Exogenous FSH
    • Human menopausal gonadotropin
  • Indication: typically used if first-line therapies are unsuccessful; occasionally used as first-line if the drug and monitoring requirements are accessible

Metformin:

  • Can be used as second-line monotherapy for fertility treatment.
  • Combination with clomiphene may increase pregnancy rates, especially in obese women.
  • First-line therapy for insulin resistance

Additional fertility interventions:

  • Laparoscopic ovarian drilling:
    • a laparoscopic procedure in which ovarian tissue is reduced with a laser beam or surgical needle to decrease its volume and androgen production
    • this hormonal shift can induce FSH secretion and improve ovarian function in patients with polycystic ovary syndrome.
    • second-line treatment for ovulation induction; can be performed as a first-line treatment if other indications for laparoscopy exist

In vitro fertilization: can be offered as third-line therapy

Management of other PCOS manifestations

  • Hirsutism:
    • Nonpharmacological therapy is first-line (e.g., electrolysis, light-based hair removal via laser or photoepilation)
  • Acne:
    • Consider topical therapies (e.g., benzoyl peroxide, topical antibiotics)
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184
Q

What are potential complications of PCOS

A
Cardiovascular disease
Type 2 diabetes mellitus
Increased cancer risk (before menopause)
-Endometrial cancer
-Ovarian cancer
-Pancreatic cancer
-Kidney cancer
-Endocrine cancers (except thyroid)
Increased miscarriage rate
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185
Q

What is perimenopause

A

Definition: the time period from the first instance of climacteric symptoms caused by fluctuating hormonal levels to one year after menopause

Duration: The average length of perimenopause is 4 years.

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186
Q

What is premenopause

A

Definition: the time period from the first occurrence of climacteric irregular menstruation cycles to the last menstrual period

Onset: usually 45–55 years of age

Characterized by increasingly infrequent menstruation

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187
Q

At what age does the menopause occur

A

~49–52 years (earlier in smokers)

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188
Q

What is postmenopause

A

The time period beginning 12 months after the last menstrual period

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189
Q

What is the pathophysiology of menopause

A

Numerical depletion of ovarian follicles with age → ↓ ovarian function → ↓ estrogen and progesterone levels → loss of negative feedback to the gonadotropic hormones → ↑ GnRH levels → ↑ levels of FSH and LH in blood (hypergonadotropic hypogonadism) → ↑ frequency of anovulatory cycles → ovarian function eventually stops permanently

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190
Q

What are the clinical features of menopause

A

HAVOCS:

  • Hot flashes/ Heat intolerance
  • Atrophy of Vagina
  • Osteoporosis
  • Coronary artery disease
  • Sleep impairment

Irregular menses to complete amenorrhea

Autonomic symptoms:

  • Hot flushes
  • Vertigo
  • Headache

Mental symptoms:

  • Sleep impairment
  • Depressed mood
  • Mood swings
  • Anxiety
  • Irritability
  • Loss of libido

Atrophic features (result from an age-related drop in oestrogen levels)

  • Breast tissue atrophy (tenderness and reduced size)
  • Vulvovaginal atrophy
  • Urinary atrophy
    • urinary incontinence
    • dysuria
    • urinary frequency
    • urgency
    • increased UTIs
  • Osteoporosis

Weight gain and bloating
Hirsutism (due to relative increase in androgens
Increased risk of Coronary artery disease

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191
Q

What is a surgical menopause

A

Due to removal of ovaries (commonly after hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy)

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192
Q

How is menopause diagnosed

A
Diagnosis is usually clinical.
However, certain laboratory tests may help confirm the onset/presence of perimenopause:
-↓ Estrogen
-↓ progesterone
-↓ inhibin B
-↑↑ FSH
-Testosterone and prolactin levels are within normal ranges.
-Vaginal pH > 4.5
-Lipid profile: 
-- ↑ total cholesterol
-- ↓ HDL
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193
Q

When is menopause treatment indicated

A
Treatment is not warranted for all women approaching or undergoing menopause, as it is a normal aging process. Treatment may be considered in the following cases:
Symptoms are severe enough to infringe significantly on functional capacity, and hence affect quality of life.
Premature menopause 
Surgical menopause (e.g., post-oophorectomy)
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194
Q

What is HRT

A

Short term treatment of menopausal symptoms
Types:
Estrogen therapy: for women who have had a hysterectomy
Estrogen plus progestin therapy: for women with a uterus
Routes: oral, transdermal
Risks
Cancer
Unopposed estrogen can result in endometrial hyperplasia → increased risk of endometrial cancer
Estrogen plus progestin therapy → increased risk of breast cancer
Cardiovascular disease: coronary heart disease, deep vein thrombosis, pulmonary embolism, stroke
Gallbladder disease
Stress urinary incontinence
Contraindications
Undiagnosed vaginal bleeding
Pregnancy
Breast cancer/endometrial cancer
Chronic liver disease
Hyperlipidemia
Recent DVT/stroke
Coronary artery disease

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195
Q

What are the non-hormonal therapies available for menopause treatment

A

Non-hormonal therapy is used to treat menopausal vasomotor symptoms in women who do not want to use hormonal medications or who have contraindications for HRT.

Selective estrogen receptor modulators:

  • tamoxifen
  • ospemifene
  • raloxifene

Paroxetine:
-for vasomotor symptoms (i.e., hot flashes)

Clonidine and/or gabapentin

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196
Q

What is the definitition of premature menopause

A

Permanent cessation of menses before the age of 40

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197
Q

What causes premature menopause

A

Idiopathic
Primary ovarian insufficiency
Bilateeral oophorectomy

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198
Q

What is ovarian insufficiency

A

Failure of adequate ovarian function (endocrine as well as reproductive) before the age of 40, which often leads to premature menopause

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199
Q

What is primary ovarian insufficiency

A

Ovarian insufficiency despite adequate gonadotropin stimulation (previously called premature ovarian failure)

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200
Q

What causes primary ovarian insufficiency

A

Idiopathic (90% of cases)

Genetic disorders associated with ovarian hypoplasia, especially in women < 30 years (e.g., Turner syndrome, Swyer syndrome, androgen insensitivity syndrome, adrenogenital syndrome, fragile X syndrome)

Autoimmune diseases (e.g., autoimmune lymphocytic oophoritis, Hashimoto thyroiditis, Addison disease, type I diabetes mellitus, pernicious anemia)

Toxins: Smoking is a major risk factor.

Iatrogenic: radiation and/or chemotherapy, prolonged GnRH agonist therapy, induction of multiple ovulation in infertility treatment

Infectious diseases (e.g., measles, mumps, tuberculosis of the genital tract)

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201
Q

What is the pathophysiology of premature ovarian insufficiency

A

Follicular dysfunction or depletion → ↓ estrogen levels → reduced feedback inhibition of estrogen on FSH and LH → ↑ FSH and LH (usually FSH > LH)

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202
Q

What are the clinical features of premature ovarian insufficiency

A

Climacteric symptoms such as vaginal dryness, night sweats, hot flashes, dyspareunia, and irritability

Abnormal/irregular bleeding pattern that can progress to secondary amenorrhea or permanent cessation of menstruation

Infertility or reduced fertility (Pregnancy is possible via in vitro fertilization.)

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203
Q

How is premature ovarian insufficiency diagnosed

A

Confirmed by two high FSH levels (> 30–40 mIU/mL) and two low estradiol levels (< 50 pg/mL) at least 1 month apart after > 3 months of menstrual irregularities in a woman under age 40

Further tests help determine the underlying cause (e.g, karyotyping, thyroid function)

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204
Q

How is premature ovarian insufficiency treated

A

Hormone replacement therapy

Treatment of underlying causes

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205
Q

What is secondary ovarian insufficiency

A

Ovarian insufficiency due to inadequate stimulation of the ovaries by the hypothalamus and/or pituitary

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206
Q

What is the definition of postmenopausal bleeding

A

Any vaginal bleeding that occurs after menopause in women who are not taking HRT or any unscheduled bleeding in women who are taking HRT

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207
Q

What causes postmenopausal bleeding

A

Endometrial or vulvovaginal atrophy, submucous leiomyomas, and endometrial polyps are among the most common causes of postmenopausal bleeding.

Approx. 10% of cases of postmenopausal bleeding are due to endometrial cancer

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208
Q

What is pelvic organ prolapse

A

AKA POP or Female genital prolapse

The protrusion of bladder, rectum, intestines, uterus, cervix, or vaginal apex into the vaginal vault due to decreased pelvic floor support.

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209
Q

What is a partial or subtotal prolapse

A

Pelvic organs are only partially outside the vaginal opening

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210
Q

What is a total prolapse

A

Pelvic organs are everted and located outside the vaginal opening

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211
Q

What is the endopelvic fascia

A

The anatomy which suppots the pelvic floor and consists of:

  • Uterosacral ligament complex (suspends the uterus and vaginal apex from the sacrum and lateral pelvis)
  • Paravaginal attachments
  • Perineal body, perineal membrane, and the perineal muscles
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212
Q

What are the specific sites of prolapse

A

Vaginal wall prolapse:

  • Anterior vaginal wall prolapse: herniated anterior vaginal wall, which is often associated with a cystocele (descent of the bladder) or urethrocele (descent of the urethra); can be due to weakness of the pubocervical fascia
  • Posterior vaginal wall prolapse: herniated posterior vaginal wall, which is associated with a rectocele (descent of the rectum) or enterocele (herniated section of the intestines); can be due to weakness of the rectovaginal fascia

Uterine prolapse: descent of the uterus

Vaginal vault prolapse: descent of the apex of the vagina

Apical compartment prolapse: herniated uterus, cervix, or vaginal vault

Uterine procidentia: protrusion of all vaginal walls or cervix beyond the vaginal introitus

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213
Q

Who is most likely to have POP

A

Common disorder in older women

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214
Q

What causes POP

A

POP is due to an insufficiency of the pelvic floor muscles and the ligamentous supportive structure of the uterus and vagina, which may be caused by:

  • Multiple vaginal deliveries and/or traumatic births (greatest risk factor)
  • Low estrogen levels (e.g., during menopause)
  • Increased intraabdominal pressure (e.g., obesity, cough related to chronic lung disease and/or smoking, ascites, pelvic tumors, constipation)
  • Previous pelvic surgery (e.g., hysterectomy)
  • Congenital connective tissue disorders
  • Diabetes mellitus
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215
Q

What are the clinical features of POP

A

Feeling of pressure on or discomfort around the perineum (“sensation of vaginal fullness”)

Lower back and pelvic pain (may become worse with prolonged standing or walking)

Rectal fullness, constipation, incomplete rectal emptying

Prolapse of the anterior (most common) or the posterior vaginal wall:

  • Occurs at rest and with increased abdominal pressure
  • Possibly with excessive vaginal discharge on inspection, bimanual examination, and speculum examination of the patient in lithotomy position

Weakened pelvic floor muscle and anal sphincter tone

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216
Q

What is the Pelvic Organ Prolapse Quantitation system

A

AKA POP-Q

Stage 0: no prolapse

Stage 1: The most distal portion of prolapse is more than 1 cm above the level of the hymen.

Stage 2: The most distal portion of prolapse is 1 cm or less proximal or distal to the hymenal plane.

Stage 3: The most distal portion of prolapse is more than 1 cm from the hymenal plane but no more than 2 cm less than the vaginal length.

Stage 4: The vagina is completely everted or uterine procidentia has occurred.

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217
Q

What are the differentials of POP

A

Elongation of the cervix
Urethral diverticulum
Pelvic floor dysfunction

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218
Q

What is urethral diverticulum

A

A distinct outpouching of the urethral mucosa most often located posterolaterally in the mid and distal two-thirds of the urethra

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219
Q

What is the aetiology of urethral diverticulum

A

Acquired (most common):

  • Recurrent infection of the periurethral glands
  • Pelvic trauma (particularly involving the vagina, bladder, or urethra)
  • Gynecological surgery, periurethral procedures
  • Vaginal delivery

Congenital

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220
Q

What are the clinical features of urethral diverticulum

A

Dysuria
Dyspareunia
Urinary incontinence (particularly, postvoid dribbling of urine)
Tender anterior vaginal wall mass during pelvic examination

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221
Q

How is urethral diverticulum diagnosed

A

MRI
Transvaginal ultrasound if MRI is not available/feasible
Urinalysis to evaluate for other conditions (e.g., urinary tract infection or malignancy)

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222
Q

What is a skene dust cyst

A

A retention cyst that results from obstruction, accumulation of fluid, and cystic dilation of the ducts that drain the paraurethral glands.

Manifests with dysuria, dyspareunia, and urinary overflow incontinence.

Pelvic examination typically shows masses located just lateral to the external urethral meatus.

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223
Q

How is urethral diverticulum treated

A

Conservative management

  • Indicated for individuals with minor symptoms
  • Manual compression of the suburethral mass after voiding

Surgery

  • Indicated for individuals with persistent symptoms, urinary calculi in the diverticulum, or suspicion of malignancy
  • Transvaginal diverticulectomy: is a preferred procedure
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224
Q

What is pelvic floor dysfunction

A

Inability to relax and coordinate pelvic floor muscles correctly in order to urinate and/or have bowel movements

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225
Q

What are the clincial features of pelvic floor dysfunction

A

Urinary incontinence, urgency, and/or dysuria
Fecal incontinence
Dyssynergic defecation
Dyspareunia
Lower back or pelvic pain
Feeling of pressure on the pelvic region or rectum
Pelvic muscle spasms

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226
Q

How is pelvic floor dysfunction diagnosed

A

Clinical features and physical examination
Pelvic ultrasound
Urodynamic studies
Anorectal manometry

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227
Q

How is pelvic floor dysfunction treated

A

Pelvic floor muscle training (e.g., Kegel exercises) and physical therapy

Biofeedback and electrical stimulation: probes or electrodes are placed externally or inserted into the vagina or rectum to stimulate the pelvic floor muscles

Stool softeners and muscle relaxants

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228
Q

How is pelvic organ prolapse treated

A

Conservative:

  • First line
  • Insertion of a vaginal pessary to support the pelvic organs:
    • A silicone or latex device that is inserted into the vagina
    • Pessary insertion is not a long-term treatment!
  • Reduction of modifiable risk factors (e.g., avoid smoking to prevent a chronic cough, weight loss, prevent constipation)
  • Kegel exercises: pelvic floor muscle training (also as a preventive measure)

Surgery:

  • Indicated for symptomatic prolapse if conservative treatment fails or the patient declines it
  • Obliterative surgery: colpocleisis in which the vagina is closed off or narrowed to provide more support for pelvic organs.
  • Reconstructive surgery (abdominal or vaginal approach): to restore the original position of the descended pelvic organs
    • Sacrocolpopexy (with vaginal vault suspension and hysterectomy): fixation of the vaginal apex to the sacrum for the repair of apical or vaginal vault prolapse, with suspension and hysterectomy
    • Suspension techniques: prolapsed organ is fixated or suspended using native tissues such as the endopelvic fascia, iliococcygeus muscle, uterosacral ligament, or sacrospinous ligaments.
    • Colporrhaphy: reinforcement of the anterior or posterior vaginal wall for the repair of cystocele or rectocele
    • Sacrohysteropexy: fixation of the cervix to the sacrum for the repair of uterine prolapse
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229
Q

What are potential complications of POP

A
Pressure ulcers with hemorrhage
Ascending infections 
Urinary disorders
Stress incontinence 
- "Masked" urinary incontinence 
- Obstructive uropathy 
Defecation disorders (e.g., constipation or fecal incontinence if the anal sphincter is weakened)
Sexual dysfunction 
Surgical complications (e.g., recurrence)
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230
Q

What is vulvovaginitis

A

A large variety of conditions that result in inflammation of the vulva and vagina.

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231
Q

What causes infectious vulvovaginitis

A

Common causes of infectious vulvovaginitis:

  • Bacterial vaginosis
  • Vaginal yeast infection
  • Trichomoniasis
  • Aerobic vaginitis

Other causes of infectious vulvovaginitis:

  • Gonorrhea
  • Chlamydial genitourinary infection
  • Enterobius vermicularis (especially in prepubescent girls)
  • Scabies (seven-year itch)
  • Pediculosis pubis (crabs, pubic lice)
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232
Q

What pathogen is involved in bacterial vaginosis

A
Gardnerella vaginalis
(a pleomorphic, gram-variable rod)
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233
Q

What is the pathophysiology of BV

A

Lower concentrations of Lactobacillus acidophilus lead to overgrowth of Gardnerella vaginalis and other anaerobes, without vaginal epithelial inflammation due to absent immune response

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234
Q

What are the risk factors for BV

A

Sexual intercourse (primary risk factor, but it is not considered an STD)
Intrauterine devices
Vaginal douching
Pregnancy

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235
Q

What are the clinical features of BV

A

Commonly asymptomatic
Increased vaginal discharge, usually gray or milky with fishy odor
Pruritus and pain are uncommon

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236
Q

How is BV diagnosed

A

Diagnosis is confirmed if three of the following Amsel criteria are met:

Clue cells

  • Vaginal epithelial cells with a stippled appearance and fuzzy borders due to bacteria adhering to the cell surface
  • Identified on wet mount preparation: A sample of vaginal fluid/discharge is transferred to a slide and mixed with normal saline. The slide is then examined under a microscope.

Vaginal pH > 4.5

Positive Whiff test: an intensified fishy odor after adding 1–2 drops of 10% potassium hydroxide to a sample of vaginal fluid

Thin, homogeneous gray-white or yellow discharge that adheres to the vaginal walls

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237
Q

How is BV treated

A

If asymptomatic: reassurance; often resolves without treatment

If symptomatic

  • First-line: oral metronidazole
  • Alternative: topical metronidazole or clindamycin

Oral probiotics

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238
Q

What are potential complications of BV

A

Acquisition of STDs (e.g., HSV2, HIV, trichomonas, gonorrhea, and chlamydia infection)
Miscarriage and spontaneous abortion
Preterm delivery
Postpartum endometritis

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239
Q

What is the ABCDEFG acronym for BV

A

Amsel criteria
Bacterial vaginosis
Clue cells
Discharge (gray or milky)
Electrons (pH of vaginal secretions is alkaline)
Fishy odor of discharge
Gestation (increased risk for miscarriage)

All are the most important features of bacterial vaginosis.

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240
Q

What pathogen is involved in vulvovaginal candidiasis (aka vaginal thrush)

A

Primarily Candida albicans

in immunosuppressed patients also Candida glabrata

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241
Q

What is the pathophysiology of vulvovaginal candidiasis

A

Overgrowth of C. albicans

Can be precipitated by the following risk factors:

  • Pregnancy
  • Immunodeficiency, both systemic (e.g., diabetes mellitus, HIV, immunosuppression) and local (e.g., topical corticosteroids)
  • Antimicrobial treatment (e.g., after systemic antibiotic treatment)
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242
Q

What are the clinical features of vulvovaginal candidiasis

A

White, crumbly, and sticky vaginal discharge that may appear like cottage cheese and is typically odorless

Erythematous vulva and vagina

Vaginal burning sensation, strong pruritus, dysuria, dyspareunia

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243
Q

How is vulvovaginal candidiasis diagnosed

A

Pseudohyphae on wet mount with potassium hydroxide (KOH)

Vaginal pH within normal range (4–4.5)

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244
Q

How is vulvovaginal candidiasis treated

A

Recommended regimens: topical azole (e.g., miconazole, clotrimazole, butoconazole) OR single-dose oral fluconazole

Recommended in pregnant women: topical azole OR nystatin pessary (where available)

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245
Q

What pathogen is involved in Trichomoniasis

A

Trichomonas vaginalis
Anaerobic, motile protozoan with flagella
Does not encyst and, therefore, does not survive well outside the human body
Under micrscope wiggles its little tail

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246
Q

How is TV transmitted

A

Sexually

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247
Q

What are the clinical features of TV

A

Foul-smelling, frothy, yellow-green, purulent discharge
Vulvovaginal pruritus
Burning sensation
Dyspareunia
Dysuria
Strawberry cervix (erythematous mucosa with petechiae)

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248
Q

How is TV diagnosed

A

Saline wet mount of vaginal smear: motile trophozoites with multiple flagella

If wet mount is inconclusive, perform culture.

pH of vaginal discharge > 4.5

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249
Q

How is TV treated

A

Oral metronidazole OR tinidazole for the patient and sexual partner(s) [7]
Check for other sexually transmitted infections

250
Q

What is the study phrase for TV and what does it mean

A

“After sex, Burn the Foul, Green Tree:”

burning sensation and foul-smelling, yellow-green discharge are the features of trichomonasis.

251
Q

What are the types of noninfectious vulvoganitis

A

Atrophic vaginits
Aerobic vaginits
Allergic vulvovaginitis
Mechanical vulvovaginitis

252
Q

What are the clinical features of atrophic vaginitis

A
Decreasing labial fat pad
Vaginal soreness, dryness
Dyspareunia, burning sensation after sex
Discharge, occasional spotting 
Commonly associated with receding pubic hair
253
Q

How is atrophic vaginitis diagnosed

A

primarily a clinical diagnosis, additional tests (e.g., pH test, wet mount) are often nonspecific

254
Q

How is atrophic vaginitis treated

A

Nonhormonal vaginal moisturizers and lubricants if mild symptoms
Vaginal estrogen therapy if moderate to severe symptoms
Systemic hormone therapy if vasomotor symptoms

255
Q

What is the aetiology of atrophic vaginitis

A

Low estrogen levels (e.g., after menopause, bilateral oophorectomy, radiotherapy, chemotherapy, immunological disorders)
Atrophy of epithelium in vagina and vulva

256
Q

What is aerobic vaginitis

A

An inflammatory vaginitis of noninfectious origin with microbiome disturbance and secondary bacterial infection

257
Q

What pathogens are involved in aerobic vaginitis

A

Gram-negative: Escherichia coli is the most common

Gram-positive: Streptococcus agalactiae, Staphylococcus aureus, and Enterococcus faecalis

258
Q

What is the pathophysiology of aerobic vaginitis

A

Lower concentrations of Lactobacillus species in the vaginal flora → increase in vaginal pH → overgrowth of aerobic pathogens may trigger vaginal immune reaction

259
Q

What are the clinical features of aerobic vaginitis

A

Copious, yellow (purulent), odorless vaginal discharge
Vaginal inflammation, redness and swelling
Dyspareunia, burning sensation, itching

260
Q

How is aerobic vaginitis diagnosed

A
Negative Whiff test
Vaginal pH > 4.5
Leukocytes on microscopy
Increased parabasal cells
Culture
261
Q

How is aerobic vaginitis treated

A

Adapt treatment according to the severity of each of the three disease components (infection, atrophy, and inflammation)

Antibiotics

  • Kanamycin OR quinolones (e.g., moxifloxacin)
  • Ampicillin for GBS or Enterococcus faecalis infection

Local steroids

Local estrogens

Oral probiotics reduce the risk of remission and relapse

262
Q

What are potential complications of aerobic vaginitis

A

Aerobic vaginitis is related to an increased risk of preterm delivery and to other severe pregnancy-related complications (e.g., ascending chorioamnionitis, PROM, miscarriage)

263
Q

What is the aetiology of allergic vulvovaginitis

A

Allergies to laundry or cleaning detergents, textile fibers, sanitary pads, etc.

264
Q

What are the clinical features of allergic vulvovaginits

A

Pruritus, redness, swelling, burning sensation

265
Q

How is allergic vulvovaginitis diagnosed

A

Special allergy diagnostics (e.g. prick/puncture, intradermal test) may be indicated if symptoms persist despite treatment.

266
Q

How is allergic vulvovaginitis treated

A

Avoid irritants
Soothing lotions, ice packs, and sitz baths (e.g., containing chamomile)
Cortisone creams if needed

267
Q

What are the causes of mechanical vulvovaginitis

A

Pruritus (e.g., due to atopic dermatitis, psoriasis, psychosomatic conditions)

Friction of tight clothes, obesity

Women suffering from postmenopausal estrogen deficiency or lichen sclerosis are especially at high risk.

268
Q

What are the clinical features of mechanical vulvovaginitis

A

Pruritus, redness, swelling, sometimes dysuria, and/or dyspareunia

269
Q

How is mechanical vulvovaginitis diagnosed

A

Special dermatological or rheumatological tests to find the cause of pruritus

270
Q

How is mechanical vulvovaginitis treated

A

Depends on the cause

Soothing lotions/creams, ice packs, and sitz baths (e.g., containing chamomile)

271
Q

What causes vulvovaginitis in pediatric patients

A
Poor hygiene (most common cause)
Use of perfumed soaps and bubble baths
Localized skin disorders
Foreign body in the genitourinary tract
In some cases, sexual abuse
272
Q

What is the pathophysiology of vulvovaginitis in pediatric patients

A

Estrogen levels are lower in prepubescent girls, making the vulvar skin and vaginal mucosa very thin. This makes them more susceptible to vulvovaginitis of any cause.

273
Q

What are the clinical features of vulvovaginitis in pediatric patients

A

Vaginal discharge: often bloody, purulent, or foul-smelling
Pain in the lower abdomen and suprapubic region
Increased urinary frequency, burning on urination, and dysuria
In some cases, visible segment of a foreign body at the genital opening

274
Q

How is vulvovaginitis in pediatric patients diagnosed

A

If an infectious etiology is suspected, then appropriate Gram stain, culture, prep, DNA PCR, etc. should be conducted.

Direct visualization of the foreign body, either on physical examination or by means of pelvic ultrasonography, plain pelvic radiography, vaginography, or MRI

275
Q

How is vulvovaginitis in pediatric patients treated

A

In the case of foreign body: removal of foreign body

  • First line of treatment: warm saline irrigation of the vagina in an outpatient setting
  • If irrigation fails, removal under general anesthesia
  • Antibiotics/antifungals are usually not needed if successful removal is achieved, as the vulvovaginitis would then spontaneously resolve.

Topical or oral antibiotics/antifungals

Conservative measures: improving hygiene, avoidance of tight clothing

276
Q

What is pelvic inflammatory disease

A

Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is caused by a bacterial infection that spreads beyond the cervix to infect the upper female reproductive tract, including the uterus, fallopian tubes, ovaries, and surrounding tissue.

277
Q

What is the epidemiology of pelvic inflammatory disease

A

Lifetime prevalence:
~4.5% in women of reproductive age (18–44 years)
> 1 million women experience an episode of PID/year.
PID is one of the most common causes of infertility.

278
Q

What pathogens are involved in PID

A

Most common:

  • Chlamydia trachomatis
  • Neisseria gonorrhoeae

Less common (consider coinfections):

  • E. coli
  • Ureaplasma
  • Mycoplasma
  • Other anaerobes
279
Q

What are the risk factors for PID

A
Multiple sexual partners
Unprotected sex
History of prior STIs and/or adnexitis
Intrauterine devices
Vaginal dysbiosis

Risk is lower during pregnancy;
-PID development during pregnancy increases the risk of maternal morbidity and preterm births

280
Q

What is the pathophysiology of pelvic inflammatory disease

A

Infection from the lower genital tract (e.g., vagina, cervix) ascends to infect the upper reproductive tract (endometrium, fallopian tubes, ovaries) and/or peritoneal cavity.

281
Q

What are the possible sites of infection to cause PID

A
Endometrium: endometritis
Fallopian tubes: salpingitis
Ovaries: oophoritis
Uterine adnexa: adnexitis
Surrounding pelvic structures (parametritis)
The peritoneum: (peritonitis)
282
Q

What are the clinical features of PID

A

Lower abdominal pain (generally bilateral), which may progress to acute abdomen
Nausea, vomiting
Fever
Dysuria, urinary urgency
Menorrhagia, metrorrhagia
Dyspareunia
Abnormal vaginal discharge (yellow/green color)

283
Q

What is Metorrhagia

A

Abnormal bleeding from the uterus

284
Q

How is PID diagnosed

A

PID should always be suspected in young, sexually active women who present with lower abdominal pain and adenexal/ cervical motion tenderness

Primarily based on clinical findings

Important diagnostic criteria:

  • Patient history: most often a sexually active young woman
  • Lower abdominal pain
  • Vaginal examination
    • Cervical motion tenderness: severe cervical pain elicited by pelvic examination
    • Uterine and/or adnexal tenderness
    • Purulent, bloody cervical and/or vaginal discharge

Blood tests:

  • elevated ESR
  • leukocytosis

Pregnancy test: to rule out an (ectopic) pregnancy

Cervical and urethral swab:

  • Gonococcal and chlamydial DNA (PCR) and cultures
  • Giemsa stain of discharge can show cytoplasmic inclusions in Chlamydia trachomatis infections, but not in N. gonorrhoeae infection.

Imaging:

  • Ultrasound: free fluid, abscesses, pyosalpinx/hydrosalpinx
  • Exploratory laparoscopy
    • Indicated in ambiguous cases and if patient does not respond to treatment
    • Characteristic findings include tubal edema, erythema, and purulent exudate.
  • Endometrial biopsy: to confirm the presence of endometritis
  • Culdocentesis: aspiration of intraperitoneal fluid from the pouch of Douglas:
    • Reveals nature of the fluid (e.g., serous, purulent, bloody)
    • Culdocentesis is no longer a routine procedure and it has been largely replaced by ultrasound.
285
Q

What are the differentials of lower abdominal pain in women of reproductive age

A
Ectopic pregnancy
PID
Appendicitis
Kidney stones
Ovarian cyst rupture
Ovarian torsion
Pelvic cellulitis 
Cervicitis
286
Q

What is cervicitis

A

Inflammation of the uterine cervix

287
Q

What causes cervicitis

A

Infectious (most common):

  • C. trachomatis,
  • N. gonorrhea,
  • HSV-2
  • T. vaginalis

Noninfectious

  • Localized trauma (e.g., cervical caps, diaphragms, tampons)
  • Chemical irritation (e.g., contraceptive creams, latex exposure)
  • Malignancy
Risk factors
Young age
Multiple sexual partners
New sexual partner within the last 6 months
Unprotected intercourse
288
Q

What are the clinical features of cervicitis

A

Often asymptomatic
Usually no fever
Vaginal discharge: may be purulent, blood-tinged, and/or malodorous
Dyspareunia
Postcoital or intermenstrual bleeding
Lower abdominal or pelvic pain
Symptoms of the underlying condition (e.g., genital lesions in HSV infections)
Physical examination
Abdominal palpation: possible tenderness/discomfort (if concomitant PID is present)
Bimanual examination: motion tenderness of the cervix
Pelvic examination: erythematous, edematous, friable cervix; possibly visible discharge

289
Q

How is cervicitis diagnosed

A

Diagnosis mainly clinical:

  • Mucopurulent discharge
  • Friable cervix on pelvic examination

Further tests for identification of a pathogen:

  • Assess vaginal secretions for appearance, pH, leukocyte count, and visible pathogens (e.g., protozoa in T. vaginalis infections)
  • Swab samples for bacterial culture
  • NAAT for N. gonorrhea and C. trachomatis
290
Q

How is cervicitis treated

A

Antibiotics are tailored to the causative agent
Evaluate sex partner(s) of patients with infectious cervicitis.
Follow-up to evaluate treatment success.

291
Q

What is a complication of cervicitis

A

Pelvic inflammatory disease

292
Q

How is PID treated

A

Empirical antibiotic therapy (also consider coinfections)

Outpatient regimen:

  • One single dose of IM ceftriaxone and oral therapy with doxycycline
  • Signs of vaginitis or recent gynecological instrumentation: Add oral metronidazole.

Inpatient regimen (parenteral antibiotics)

  • Indications
    • No response to or inability to take outpatient oral regimen
    • Non-compliance concerns (e.g., teenagers)
    • Severe illness with nausea, vomiting, and/or high fever
    • Tuboovarian abscess
    • Pregnancy
  • Possible combinations (should be administered for 14 days)
    • Cefoxitin or cefotetan plus doxycycline
    • Clindamycin plus gentamicin
    • In the case of tuboovarian abscess: Add oral metronidazole or clindamycin (to enhance anaerobic coverage).
  • Switch to oral therapy with doxycycline after clinical improvement.

It is better to overtreat rather than delay treatment if PID is suspected

293
Q

What are potential complications of PID

A

Short-term complications:

  • Pelvic peritonitis
  • Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome (perihepatitis)
    • Inflammation of the liver capsule
    • Characterized by violin-string-like adhesions extending from the peritoneum to the liver
  • Tubo-ovarian abscess
    • A confined pus collection of the uterine adnexa
    • May spread to adjacent organs (e.g., bladder, bowel)

Long-term complications:

  • Infertility: caused by adnexitis, adhesions of the fallopian tubes and ovaries, and tubal scarring, which result in impaired ciliary function and tubal occlusion
  • Ectopic pregnancy
  • Chronic pelvic pain
  • Hydrosalpinx/pyosalpinx: accumulation of fluid/pus in the fallopian tubes due to chronic inflammation and consequent stenosis
  • Chronic salpingitis
294
Q

What are the Bartholian glands

A

Located on both sides of the inner labia
Primarily function to produce mucus that moisturises the vaginal mucosa
This mucus is secreted into the two ducts that appear in the posterior vaginal Introits

295
Q

What is the pathophysiology of a Bartholian gland cyst

A

Blockage of the duct by inflammation or trauma → accumulation of secretions from gland → cyst formation

296
Q

What are the clinical features of a Bartholian gland cyst

A

Often asymptomatic but can cause mild dyspareunia

297
Q

How are Bartholian gland cysts diagnosed

A

Generally a clinical diagnosis based on physical examination.

Pelvic exam: unilateral, palpable mass in the posterior vaginal introitus

Biopsy is indicated if any of the following apply:

  • > 40 years of age
  • Progressive, solid, and painless mass found during pelvic exam
  • Not responsive to treatment
  • History of malignancy in the labia
298
Q

How are Bartholian gland cysts managed

A

Conservative approach

  • Indicated for smaller, asymptomatic cysts ≤ 3 cm
  • Involves sitz baths to facilitate rupture of the cyst and/or warm compresses

Surgery
Indicated for larger cysts > 3 cm and/or infected cysts

299
Q

What is the pathophysiology of a Bartholian gland abscess

A
Bartholin gland or cyst becomes infected
Usually a polymicrobial infection: 
-E. coli (most common)
-Staphylococcus species
-Streptococcus species
-N. gonorrhoeae
-C. trachomatis
300
Q

What are the clinical features of a Bartholian gland abscess

A

Acute unilateral pain and tender swelling
Dyspareunia
Pain especially while walking and sitting
Fever (~20% of cases)
Prompt pain relief with discharge (indicates spontaneous rupture of abscess)

301
Q

How are Bartholian gland abscesses diagnosed

A

Pelvic exam: unilateral, tender mass surrounded by edema and erythema in the posterior vaginal introitus

Possible culture

STD testing at the request of the patient

Consider biopsy to rule out malignancy

302
Q

How are Bartholian gland abscesses managed

A

Indicated in all cases of abscess formation and large cysts (> 3 cm)

Involves incision and drainage followed by marsupialisation or fistulisation with a Word catheter:

  • Incise the vestibule longitudinally to expose the cyst or abscess
  • Drain cyst or abscess.

Marsupialization: indicated for recurring abscesses

  • Evert and suture the edges of the cyst wall to the cut edges of the vestibule.
  • This creates a new opening that allows free drainage.

Fistulization with a Word catheter

  • Catheter is left in the abscess cavity for four weeks
  • Facilitates drainage and allows for reepithelialization

In case of suspected malignancy: biopsy

Surgical excision: indicated in the presence of features suggestive of malignancy (e.g., invasion of surrounding tissue) or failure of less invasive measures

303
Q

What are the differentials of bartholin gland cysts and abscesses

A
Bartholin gland carcinoma
Folliculitis
Inclusion cysts
Leiomyomas
Fibroma
304
Q

What are the Bartholin gland carcinoma facts

A

Epidemiology: primarily found in postmenopausal women

Symptoms: gradual, solid, and painless enlargement of the Bartholin gland

Diagnostics: biopsy

Treatment: Resection of the lesion
If surgery is not possible or as adjuvant therapy: chemotherapy and radiation

305
Q

What is oestrogen

A

A female sex hormone that is produced in the ovaries and, to a lesser degree, in the adrenal glands and adipose tissues.

It is essential for the development of primary and secondary sex characteristics, as well as function of the reproductive organs.

It also plays a role in several other processes, including bone metabolism and liver function

306
Q

What is progesterone

A

A female sex hormone produced by the corpus luteum in nonpregnant women and, in pregnant women, by the corpus luteum graviditatis until the 10th week of gestation, after which the placenta takes over production.

Progesterone plays an important role in the preparation of the endometrium for implantation of a fertilized ovum and maintenance of pregnancy.

307
Q

How is oestrogen synthesised

A

Primarily takes place in the ovarian granulosa cells:

  • LH stimulates androgen synthesis in ovarian theca cells.
  • FSH stimulates conversion of androgens to oestrogens.
  • Conversion of androgens to oestrogens is catalyzed by the aromatase enzyme

Also produced in other aromatase-containing tissues:

  • Fatty tissue
  • Placenta
  • Testicles
  • Adrenal glands
308
Q

What are the types of oestrogen

A

There are three types of oestrogen: estradiol, estrone, and estriol.

Potency: estradiol > estrone > estriol

During pregnancy, estrogen concentration increases:

  • Estradiol and estrone: 100-fold increase
  • Estriol: 1000-fold increase (it is secreted by the placenta as unconjugated estriol and a marker of fetal health)

When oestrogen binds to its receptor in the cytoplasm, a hormone-receptor complex is formed that translocates to the nucleus.

309
Q

How might obesity increase the risk of postmenopausal breast cancer

A

Potentially due to oestrogen production in adipose tissue

310
Q

What is the significance of unconjucated estriol in prenatal screening

A

Measurement of unconjugated estriol (uE3 or free estriol) is part of the prenatal screening for fetal anomalies (i.e., triple screen test and quad screen test).

Decreased levels are associated with Down syndrome, Edward syndrome, molar pregnancy, and fetal demise.

311
Q

What are the effects of oestrogen

A

Estrogen is a steroid hormone that promotes female sexual development and stimulates the growth and maturation of primary and secondary sex characteristics.

GENITALIA/SEX CHARACTERISTICS:

Uterus:

  • Endometrial proliferation
  • ↑ Myometrial excitability

Cervix:

  • ↑ Production of cervical mucus: facilitates passage of sperm
  • Facilitates cervical dilation during labor

Vagina: proliferation of epithelium

Pubis: hair growth

Breast: breast growth

EXTRAGENITAL TISSUE:

Bones: ↑ bone formation by inhibiting bone resorption (induces osteoclast apoptosis)

Blood vessels: protective effect against atherosclerosis

Blood clotting: ↑ risk of thrombosis

Kidneys: ↑ water and sodium retention (may contribute to oedema)

Protein synthesis

  • Slightly ↑ (anabolic effect)
  • ↑ Transport proteins (e.g., SHBG)

Adipose tissue: female distribution of adipose tissue

Liver:

  • ↓ Bilirubin excretion
  • ↑ HDL and ↓ LDL
312
Q

What are adverse effects of oestrogen

A

Adverse effects of oestrogen can arise from high levels secondary to increased endogenous production or medication (e.g., hormone replacement therapy during menopause):

  • ↑ Cancer risk
    • Endometrial cancer
    • Breast cancer
  • Thrombosis
  • Spider nevi, gynecomastia, and testicular atrophy in individuals with cirrhosis
  • Breast hypertrophy, gynecomastia (in men), galactorrhea
  • Weight gain (oedema)
  • Liver toxicity
  • Nausea and vomiting
  • Depressive moods
313
Q

What does oestrogen do in colon cancer

A

Reduces risk of colon cancer

314
Q

What is hyperestrogenism

A

A condition of increased circulating oestrogen

315
Q

What is the aetiology of hyperestrogenism

A

↑ Estrogen production (e.g., due to ovarian tumors, obesity)

Excess estrogen supplementation (e.g., due to hormone replacement therapy)

↓ Metabolism and excretion of estrogens (e.g., due to chronic liver disease)

316
Q

What are the clinical features of hyperestrogenism

A

Both sexes:

  • palmar erythema
  • spider telangiectasias

Men:

  • Gynecomastia
  • Testicular atrophy
  • Reduced libido
  • Erectile dysfunction
  • Infertility
  • ↓ Body hair (e.g., loss of chest hair, female pattern of pubic hair distribution)

Women:

  • Menstrual irregularities
  • Enlargement of the breast and uterus
  • Infertility
  • ↑ Cancer risk (e.g., endometrial cancer)
317
Q

What is hypoestrogenism

A

A condition of decreased circulating estrogen

318
Q

What is the aetiology of hypoestrogenism

A

Menopause

Ovarian insufficiency: idiopathic or secondary to an underlying conditions (e.g., Turner syndrome, polycystic ovary syndrome)

Congenital aromatase deficiency (↓ aromatase → ↑ androgens and ↓ estrogen)

Hyperprolactinemia (e.g., in pituitary adenomas, hypothyroidism)

GnRH agonists

319
Q

What are the clinical features of hypoestrogenism

A
Hot flashes
Headaches
Reduced libido
Breast atrophy
↓ Bone density and secondary osteoporosis
Urogenital atrophy
Dyspareunia
320
Q

How is progesterone produced

A

In nonpregnant women: granulosa cells of the corpus luteum

In pregnant women

  • Until the 10th week of gestation: corpus luteum graviditatis
  • From 10th week of gestation: placenta (syncytiotrophoblast)
321
Q

What are the effects of progesterone

A

The effects of progesterone are mediated via intracellular receptors.

GENITALIA/SEX CHARACTERISTICS:

Uterus:

  • Endometrial glandular secretion and spiral artery development
  • Inhibits endometrial hyperplasia
  • ↓ Estrogen receptor expression
  • ↓ Myometrial excitability

Cervix:
-↓ cervical mucus production → cervical mucus thickening (inhibits entry of spermatozoids to the uterus)

Breasts:
-inhibits prolactin (the decrease in progesterone levels after delivery disinhibits prolactin, triggering lactation)

EXTRAGENITAL TISSUE:

Hypothalamus:

  • ↑ Body temperature (basis of basal body temperature contraception method)
  • Inhibits gonadotropin secretion

ROLE IN MENSTRUAL CYCLE:

  • After ovulation, the ruptured follicle transforms into the corpus luteum, which produces progesterone.
  • Progesterone induces changes in internal reproductive organs required for proper implantation of a zygote and inhibits the secretion of FSH and LH, preventing other follicles from developing.
322
Q

What is the clinical significance of progesterone

A

Associated pathologies: low levels of progesterone are associated with infertility, premature birth, and spontaneous abortion

Synthetic progesterone derivatives (progestins) are indicated for the following conditions:

  • Hormonal contraception
  • Treatment of abnormal uterine bleeding
  • Treatment of endometriosis
  • Treatment of endometrial cancer
  • Hormone replacement therapy (prevent endometrial proliferation induced by estrogens)
  • Progesterone withdrawal test
323
Q

What is amastia

A

Absence of breast tissues and nipples

324
Q

What is polymastia

A

Presence of accessory breast tissue

325
Q

What is athelia

A

Absence of nipples

326
Q

What is polythelia

A

Presence of accessory nipples

327
Q

What is Poland syndrome

A

Unilateral aplasia/hypoplasia of the pectoral is muscles and breast with associated fingers abnormalities (eg brachysyndactyly)

Most commonly develops on the right side

328
Q

When do congenital anomalies of the breast arise

A

Disorders during the process of the mammary ridge regressing in the 7th to 8th week of embryonal development

329
Q

What are the possible congenital anomalies if the breast

A
Amastia
Polymastia
Athelia
Polythelia
Poland syndrome
330
Q

What are fibrocystic changes

A

Benign breast changes characterised by the formation of fibrotic and/or cystic tissue

331
Q

What’s the epidemiology of fibrocystic change

A

Most common benign lesion of the breast
Primarily in premenopausal women 20–50 years of age
Up to 50% of women are affected during their lifetime.

332
Q

What are the histologic subtypes of fibrocystic breast changes

A

Nonproliferative lesions:

  • Cysts: dilated, fluid-filled ducts (blue dome cysts)
  • Stromal fibrosis (no malignant potential)
  • Apocrine metaplasia

Proliferative lesions (occur with or without atypical cells):

  • Sclerosing adenosis
    • Proliferation of small ductules and acini in the lobules
    • Stromal fibrosis
    • Calcifications (slightly increased risk of breast cancer)
  • Ductal epithelial hyperplasia (ductal hyperplasia)
    • Epithelial hyperplasia of terminal duct cells and lobular epithelium
    • Presence of atypical cells is associated with an increased risk of breast cancer.
    • Papillary proliferation (papillomatosis) is a type of ductal hyperplasia that has a papillary histopathological appearance.
333
Q

What are the clinical features of fibrocystic changes

A

Premenstrual bilateral multifocal breast pain
Tender or nontender breast nodules
Clear or slightly milky nipple discharge

334
Q

What is Gravidity

A

The number of times a woman has been pregnant, regardless of pregnancy outcome (includes current pregnancy)

335
Q

What does nulligravidity mean

A

No history of pregnancy

336
Q

What does primigravidity mean

A

History of one pregnancy (eg. currently pregnant)

337
Q

What does multigravidity mean

A

History of two or more pregnancies

338
Q

What is parity

A

The number of pregnancies that a woman carries beyond 24 weeks of gestation, regardless of whether the child was born alive or was stillborn

339
Q

What does nulliparity mean

A

No history of completed pregnancy beyond 24 weeks

340
Q

What does primiparity mean

A

A history of one completed pregnancy beyond 24 weeks

341
Q

What does multiparity mean

A

A history of multiple completed pregnancies beyone 24 weeks

342
Q

How can fetal age be measured

A

Counted as completed weeks of gestation and completed days (0–6) of the current week of pregnancy

Gestational age: estimated fetal age (in weeks and days) calculated from the first day of the last menstrual period

Conceptional age: the age (in weeks and days) of the fetus calculated from the day of conception (fertilization)

343
Q

What is the normal duration of pregnancy

A

40 weeks (280 days)

344
Q

What is a postterm pregnnacy

A

A pregnancy that extends beyond 42 weeks gestation

345
Q

What is a periviable pregnancy

A

Live birth occurring between 20-25 weeks of pregnancy

346
Q

What is a preterm birth

A

Live birth before the completion of 37 weeks

347
Q

What is an at term birth

A

37-42 weeks

348
Q

What ar ethe trimesters of pregnancy

A
First trimester (weeks 1–13) 
Second trimester (weeks 14–26)
Third trimester (weeks 27–40)
349
Q

What are the presumptive clinical signs of early pregnancy

A
Amenorrhea 
Nausea and vomiting 
Breast enlargement and tenderness 
Linea nigra: darkening of the midline skin of the abdomen
Hyperpigmentation of the areola 
Abdominal bloating and constipation
Increased weight gain
Cravings for, or aversions to, certain foods
Increased urinary frequency 
Fatigue
350
Q

What are probable signs of early pregnancy

A

Goodell:

  • Cervical softening
  • First 4 weeks

Telangiectasias and palmar erythema:
-Small blood vessels and redness of the palms
First 4 weeks

Ladin:

  • Softening of the midline of the uterus
  • First 6 weeks

Hegar:

  • Softening of the lower segment of the uterus
  • Between 6 to 8 weeks

Chadwick:

  • Bluish discolouration of vagina and cervix
  • Between 6 to 8 weeks

Chloasma:
-Hyperpigmentation of the face (forehead, cheeks, nose)

351
Q

Where is Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) produced

A

Placental syncytiotrophoblast

352
Q

What is the function of hCG

A

Maintenance of the corpus luteum during the first 8–10 weeks of pregnancy (LH has a similar function)

Luteal-placental shift: levels decrease after corpus luteum involution (placenta starts synthesizing its own estriol and progesterone)

353
Q

How is hCG used in pregnancy diagnosis

A

Pregnancy test: measurement of human chorionic gonadotropin (β-hCG)

Urine β-hCG test (e.g., home pregnancy test):

  • Qualitative test (less sensitive than serum pregnancy test)
  • β-hCG can be detected in urine 14 days after fertilization

Serum β-hCG test:

  • Quantitative test (high sensitivity)
  • Detectable 6–9 days (on average) after fertilization
354
Q

What are the ultrasound findings of a normal pregnancy

A

Confirms pregnancy

At 5 weeks of pregnancy: detection of the gestational sac (corresponds with a serum β-HCG level of 1500–2000 mIU/mL)

At 5–6 weeks of pregnancy: detection of the yolk sac

At 6–7 weeks of pregnancy: detection of the fetal pole and cardiac activity with transvaginal ultrasound

At 10–12 weeks of pregnancy: detection of fetal heartbeat with doppler ultrasound

At 18–20 weeks of pregnancy: fetal movements

355
Q

What is the Naegele rule

A

Used to calculate the expected date of delivery (due date)

First day of the last menstrual period + 7 days + 1 year - 3 months

356
Q

What can make the Naegele rule inaccurate

A

Inaccurate if:

  • The date of the last menstrual period is uncertain or unknown
  • The patient has irregular menstruation cycles
  • The patient conceived while taking contraceptive pills
357
Q

How is ultrasonography used to determine gestational age and estimated due date

A

More accurate than Naegele rule

Measurement of the crown-rump length (CRL) in the first trimester

Measurement of biparietal diameter, fetal femoral length, and abdominal circumference in the second and third trimesters (can be used for determining gestational age starting at 13 weeks)

358
Q

What is the symphysis fundal height?

A

The length from the top of the uterus to the top of the pubic symphysis:
-Used to assess fetal growth and development from approx. 20 weeks’ gestation onwards
-Development is approx. 1 cm/week after 20 weeks
Correlates with gestational age

359
Q

What causes pelvic girdle pain in pregnancy

A

Increased pressure from the uterus, lumbar lordosis, and relaxation of the ligaments supporting the joints of the pelvic girdle

360
Q

How does pelvic girdle pain present

A

Lower back pain

  • Particularly between the posterior iliac crest and the gluteal fold and in the area of the sacroiliac joint
  • May radiate to the thighs and hips
  • Worsens with weight-bearing
361
Q

How is pelvic girdle pain diagnosed

A

Positive pelvic pain provocation tests (e.g., posterior pelvic pain provocation test, FABER test, active straight leg raise)

362
Q

How is pelvic girdle pain managed

A

Nonpharmacological: heat therapy, manual therapy (e.g., massage, spinal manipulation), braces, physical therapy
Pharmacological: regular analgesia (paracetamol)

363
Q

What causes round ligament pain

A

Stretching of the round ligament of the uterus as the uterus expands
One of the most common conditions during pregnancy

364
Q

What are the clinical features of round ligament pain

A

Typically manifests in the second and third trimester

Sharp pain in the lower abdomen and groin area (most often right-sided)

Triggered by sudden and/or rapid movements (e.g., rolling over in bed, sneezing, vigorous physical activity)

365
Q

How is round ligament pain diagnosed

A

Based on clinical history

366
Q

How is round ligament pain managed

A

Usually no treatment required

Resolves after delivery

367
Q

What are potential skin changes to occur in pregnancy

A

Spider angioma

Palmar erythema

Striae gravidarum: scarring that manifests as erythematous, violaceous, and/or hypopigmented linear striations on the abdomen

Hyperpigmentation: chloasma, linea nigra, hyperpigmentation of the nipples

368
Q

What are the contraindications to aerobic exercise in pregnancy

A

Severe anemia
Restrictive lung disease
Hemodynamically significant heart disease
Cervical insufficiency
Premature rupture of membranes
Gestational hypertension and preeclampsia

Physical activity should be discontinued in the event of the following:

  • antepartum or postpartum hemorrhage
  • uterine contractions
  • amniotic fluid leakage
  • chest pain
  • dyspnea before exertion
  • dizziness
  • headaches
  • calf pain/swelling
  • and/or muscle weakness with impaired balance.
369
Q

What are the risk factors for a complicated pregnancy

A
  • Family history (medical and obstetric) of complicated pregnancies
  • Personal history
  • Advanced maternal age (> 35 years)
  • First pregnancy
  • Multiple pregnancies
  • Multiparity (> 5 births)
  • Medical conditions (e.g., antiphospholipid syndrome, hypertension, diabetes mellitus, epilepsy, malignancies)
  • Social and environmental factors (e.g., drug use, stress)
  • Preexisting gynecological conditions (e.g., uterine leiomyoma, history of uterine surgery)
  • Prior complicated pregnancies
  • Premature delivery (< 38 weeks), baby with low birth weight, or a baby born with congenital defects
  • Prior cesarean delivery
  • Rhesus incompatibility
  • History of > 2 abortions or placental abruption
  • Use of assisted reproductive technologies: in vitro fertilization, ICSI
  • Complications that arise during pregnancy
370
Q

What is oligohydraminos

A

Amount of amniotic fluid is less than expected for gestational age

371
Q

What causes oligohydraminos

A

Fetal anomalies:

  • Urethral obstruction (e.g., posterior urethral valves)
  • Bilateral renal agenesis
  • Autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease (ARPKD)
  • Chromosomal aberrations (e.g., trisomy 18)
  • Intrauterine infections (e.g., congenital TORCH infections)
  • In multiple pregnancies: twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome

Maternal conditions:

  • Placental insufficiency
  • Late or postterm pregnancies (> 42 weeks of gestation)
  • Premature rupture of membranes
  • Preeclampsia

Idiopathic

372
Q

How is oligohydraminos diagnosed

A

Small abdominal girth and uterine size for gestational age

Ultrasound: determine amniotic fluid and assess for fetal anomalies

Amniotic fluid index (AFI): a semiquantitative tool used to assess amniotic fluid volume (normal range: 8–18 cm)

  • Determined by dividing the uterus into 4 quadrants, holding the transducer perpendicular to the patient’s spine, and adding up the deepest vertical pocket of fluid in each quadrant.
  • Oligohydramnios: ≤ 5
  • In pregnancies < 24 weeks and multiple gestations, the single deepest pocket is used (normal range: 2–8 cm).
373
Q

How is oligohydraminos treated

A

Amnioinfusion: infusion of fluid into the amniotic cavity through amniocentesis

Treat underlying cause

Delivery is advised if the fetus is close to term

374
Q

What are potential complications of oligohydraminos

A

Intrauterine growth restriction (due to diminished mobility of the fetus)

Birth complications (e.g. umbilical cord compression)

Potter sequence

375
Q

What are the clinical features of Potter sequence

A

Pulmonary hypoplasia (cause of death due to severe neonatal respiratory insufficiency)

Craniofacial abnormalities (e.g., prominent epicanthal and infraorbital folds, flattened nose, receding chin, low set ears)

Wrinkling of the skin

Limb anomalies (e.g., bowed legs, clubbed feet)

376
Q

How can Potter sequence be remembered

A

POTTER sequence: Pulmonary hypoplasia (lethal), Oligohydramnios (origin), Twisted facies, Twisted skin, Extremity deformities, and Renal agenesis (classic form).

377
Q

What is polyhydraminos

A

Excessive amniotic fluid volume expected for gestational age that results in uterine distention.

378
Q

What causes polyhydraminos

A

Typically idiopathic (∼ 70% of cases)

Fetal anomalies:

  • Gastrointestinal (e.g., esophageal atresia, duodenal atresia and stenosis): reduced swallowing and absorption of amniotic fluid
  • CNS: anencephaly (leads to impaired swallowing of amniotic fluid, leakage of cerebrospinal fluid, and increased urination due to lack of fetal ADH), meningomyelocele (due to leakage of cerebrospinal fluid)
  • Pulmonary: cystic lung malformations
  • Multiple pregnancy: twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome
  • Fetal anemia
  • Chromosomal aberrations
  • Intrauterine infections (e.g., congenital TORCH infections)

Maternal conditions:

  • Diabetes mellitus
  • Rh incompatibility (e.g., hemolytic disease of the newborn)
379
Q

How is polyhydraminos diagnosed

A

Physical examination: abdominal girth and uterine size large for gestational age

Ultrasound

  • AFI ≥ 25
  • Assess for fetal anomalies

Others
Rh screen
Blood glucose

380
Q

How is polyhydraminos managed

A

Amnioreduction: drainage of excess amniotic fluid

Treat the underlying cause (e.g., glycemic control in diabetic mothers, intrauterine exchange transfusion in hemolytic disease of the newborn)

381
Q

What are potential complications of polyhydraminos

A
Fetal malposition 
Umbilical cord prolapse
Premature birth
Premature rupture of membranes
Premature uterine contractions
382
Q

What are the predisposing factors for multiple pregnancy

A

Advanced maternal age (≥ 35 years)
Previous multiple pregnancy
Use of assisted reproductive technology
Maternal family history of dizygotic twins

383
Q

What are the types of twins

A

Monozygotic:

  • ie identical
  • 1/3 of all twin pregnancies
  • Division of the fertilised oocyte into two embryonic layers
  • Genetically identical
  • Can share amniotic sac and placenta in various ways:
    • Monochorionic-diamniotic: The twins share a single chorionic sac (the twins share a placenta) but have a separate, individual amniotic sac
    • Monochorionic-monoamniotic: The twins share a single chorionic sac (the twins share a placenta) and a single amniotic sac
    • Monochorionic-monoamniotic (conjoined twins): The twins share a single chorionic sac (the twins share a placenta) and a single amniotic sac and are conjoined

Dizygotic:

  • ie fraternal
  • 2/3 of all twin pregnancies
  • Fertilisation of two oocytes with two mature spermatozoa
  • Genetically different
  • Dichorionic-diamniotic: The twins have separate chorionic sacs (separate placentas) and separate amniotic sacs.
384
Q

What mnemonic can be used to remember time of zygote division in types of twins

A

A FOUR-wheeler has SPACe for twins.

1st four days (0–3): Separate placenta and amniotic sac

2nd four days (4–7): shared Placenta

3rd four days (8–11): shared Amniotic sac

Day 12 and beyond: Conjoined twins.

385
Q

How is multiple pregnancy diagnosed

A

Physical examination:

  • Fundal height and abdominal girth are unusually large for the gestational age.
  • Two or more fetal heart rates can be heard on auscultation.

Ultrasound:

  • Evidence of more than one fetus
  • Differentiation between monochorionic and dichorionic twins during early pregnancy
    • Dichorionic twins: lambda sign: Both chorionic cavities are separated from one another. Separation of the chorionic and amniotic sacs resembles the Greek symbol λ (lambda) on ultrasound.
    • Monochorionic twins: T-sign: One chorionic cavity is present and each twin has an individual amniotic sac. Separation of the amniotic sacs resembles the letter T on ultrasound.
386
Q

What are the potential complications of multiple pregnancy

A

Almost all complications associated with normal pregnancies are more likely in multifetal pregnancies.

Maternal illnesses:

  • Preterm labor and birth (most common complication)
  • Hyperemesis gravidarum
  • Gestational diabetes
  • Preeclampsia, eclampsia, pregnancy-induced hypertension
  • Cervical incompetence, premature rupture of membranes
  • Placental insufficiency, hypotrophy, and intrauterine malnutrition of at least one fetus
  • Uterine atony
  • Miscarriage or loss of one fetus during the first trimester
  • Placenta previa
  • Increased risk of maternal morbidity

Birth complications:

  • prolonged first stage of labor
  • premature placental abruption after birth of the first fetus
  • prolapsed cord

Fetal illnesses:
-Spontaneous reduction or vanishing twin syndrome: can occur during the first trimester
-Twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome:
– Affects 10–15% of monochorionic twin pregnancies
– Blood is continuously shunted from one twin to the other through vascular anastomoses on the shared placenta, posing a risk to both fetuses.
– (Recipient twin: Polycythemia
Hypervolemia
Polyhydramnios in diamniotic pregnancies)
– (Donor twin:
Anemia
Growth retardation
Hypovolemia, dehydration (stuck twin or cocooned appearance)
Oligohydramnios in diamniotic pregnancies)
-Cord entanglement: can occur only in monoamniotic twin pregnancies
-Increased risk of neonatal morbidity (growth restrictions, prematurity, cerebral palsy, congenital abnormalities) and mortality

387
Q

How are twins delivered

A

Indications for Cesarean delivery:

  • Monochorionic-monoamniotic twin pregnancies between 32–34 weeks’ gestation
  • Breech presentation
  • Significant difference in fetal weight

Indication for vaginal delivery:
-Diamniotic twins ≥ 32 weeks with one fetus in vertex presentation

  • Indication for induction of labor:
  • Dichorionic-diamniotic twin pregnancy at 38 weeks gestation
388
Q

What is an ectopic pregnancy

A

A pregnancy in which the fertilised egg attaches in a location other than the uterine endometrium

389
Q

What is a tubal pregnancy

A

A pregnancy that occurs within the fallopian tube

390
Q

What is an interstitial pregnancy

A

A pregnancy that occurs within the interstitial portion of the fallopian tube (ie the bit that connects the tube to the endometrial cavity)

391
Q

What is a heterotopic pregnancy

A

A rare condition involving multiple gestations in which one is intrauterine and another is ectopic
Occurs more frequently in patients undergoing infertility treatments (eg IVF)

392
Q

Where can an ectopic pregnancy implant

A

Fallopian tube (∼ 95% of cases):

  • Ampulla (∼ 70%)
  • Isthmus (∼ 15%)
  • Fimbriae (∼ 8%)
  • Interstitial/cornual pregnancy (∼ 2%): implantation of gestational sac in the cornua of a bicornuate or septate uterus

Ovary (∼ 3% )

Abdomen (∼ 1%)

Cervix (< 1%)

393
Q

What are the risk factors for ectopic pregnancy

A

Anatomic alteration of the fallopian tubes:

  • History of PID (e.g., salpingitis)
  • Previous ectopic pregnancy
  • Surgeries involving the fallopian tubes
  • Endometriosis
  • Ruptured appendix
  • Kartagener syndrome
  • Exposure to diethylstilbestrol (DES) in utero
  • Bicornuate uterus

Nonanatomical risk factors:

  • Smoking
  • Advanced maternal age
  • Pelvic inflammatory disease
  • Intrauterine device
  • In vitro fertilization
  • Hormone therapy
394
Q

What are the general symptoms of ectopic pregnancy

A

Patients usually present with signs and symptoms 4–6 weeks after their last menstrual period.

Lower abdominal pain and guarding (ectopic pregnancy is often mistaken for appendicitis due to the similarity of symptoms)

Possibly, vaginal bleeding

Signs of pregnancy:

  • Amenorrhea
  • Nausea
  • Breast tenderness
  • Frequent urination

Tenderness in the area of the ectopic pregnancy

Cervical motion tenderness, closed cervix

Enlarged uterus

Interstitial pregnancies tend to present late, at 7–12 weeks of gestation, because of myometrial distensibility.

395
Q

What are the clinical features of a tubal rupture

A

Acute course with sudden and severe lower abdominal pain (acute abdomen)

Signs of hemorrhagic shock (e.g., tachycardia, hypotension, syncope) (In some cases acute hemorrhage may lead to bradycardia)
More common in interstitial pregnancy

396
Q

What will show on a transvaginal ultrasound in suspected ectopic pregnancy

A

Indication: best initial imaging test for determining the location of the pregnancy

Supportive findings:

  • Empty uterine cavity in combination with a thickened endometrial lining
  • Possible free fluid within the pouch of Douglas (unspecific)
  • Additional findings in tubal pregnancy:
    • Possible extraovarian adnexal mass
    • Tubal ring sign (blob sign): an echogenic ring that surrounds an unruptured ectopic pregnancy
  • Additional findings in interstitial pregnancy
    • Interstitial line sign: an echogenic line that extends from the gestational sac into the upper uterus (thought to be the echogenic appearance of the interstitial portion of the tube)
    • A thin myometrial layer (< 5 mm) surrounding the gestational sac

Additional considerations
Ultrasound findings in normal pregnancy: In an intrauterine pregnancy at 5–6 weeks’ gestation, a gestational sac and yolk sac are visible in the uterus.
If the gestational sac cannot be seen at all on ultrasound, the patient is diagnosed with pregnancy of unknown location.

397
Q

What is the first line investigation of unstable patients with suspected ectopic pregnancy

A

Exploratory laparoscopy

398
Q

How is an ectopic pregnancy managed

A

Stabalise patient
Refer immediately to obs and gynae for emergnecy surgery

If stable, determine whether medical, surgical or expectant management

Supportive management:

  • pain relief
  • prenatal and contraceptive counselling following treatment
  • anti-D immunoglobulin for Rh-neg patients with bleeding
Medical therapy:
Methotrexate (first line)
-Mechanism of action: inhibits folate-dependent steps in DNA synthesis to terminate the rapidly dividing ectopic pregnancy.
-Indications:
-- Uncomplicated ectopic pregnancies
-- Hemodynamically stable patients
-- Unruptured mass
-- β-hCG ≤ 2,000–5,000 mlU/mL
-- Mass size < 3.5 cm
-- No fetal heartbeat
-Absolute contraindications:
-- Chronic conditions
--- Pulmonary (e.g., severe asthma)
--- Renal (e.g., creatinine clearance < 50 mL/min/1.73 m2)
Hepatic (e.g., alcohol use disorder or chronic liver disease)
--- Hematologic (e.g., leukopenia, thrombocytopenia, severe anemia)
--- Intrauterine pregnancy
--- Breastfeeding
--- Methotrexate sensitivity
--- Immunodeficiency
--- Peptic ulcer disease
--- Ruptured ectopic pregnancy

Non-urgent surgical management:

  • Indications for nonurgent surgery
    • Contraindications for MTX
    • Unsuccessful medical treatment
    • A concurrent surgical procedure (e.g., bilateral tubal blockage) is necessary.
    • The patient has indicated a preference for surgical treatment.
  • Approach Laparoscopy (preferred)
  • Procedure: salpingostomy, i.e., removal of ectopic pregnancy without removing the affected fallopian tube (tube‑conserving operation)
    • Preferred in patients with unruptured tubal pregnancy who do not meet the criteria for conservative treatment
    • Complications
  • – Risk of persistent ectopic pregnancy
  • – Risk of repeat ectopic pregnancy
  • -Additional considerations
  • – Patients require serial hCG measurement.
  • – Consider a prophylactic dose of MTX if there is concern for incomplete resection.
    • Salpingectomy may be required in select cases (e.g., large ectopic mass).

Expectant management:
Asymptomatic patients with very low β-hCG levels may experience spontaneous resolution of ectopic pregnancy
-Indications
– Minimal symptoms
– No evidence of ectopic mass on TVUS
– Confirmed plateauing or decreasing serial β-hCG levels
-Considerations during expectant management
– Provide extensive counseling on the risks of complications in addition to general counseling.
– Arrange close surveillance and serial β-hCG measurement (e.g., every 2–7 days).
-Conversion to medical or surgical therapy
– Increasing symptoms, e.g., pain, signs of ruptured ectopic pregnancy
– Insufficient decrease, persistent plateau, or increase in β-hCG levels

399
Q

How is a ruptured ectopic pregnancy managed

A

ABCDE approach for patients with obvious signs of rupture and those at high risk of impending rupture.

Suspect ruptured ectopic pregnancy in patients in their first trimester with any of the following:

  • Clinical features of shock: e.g., tachycardia, hypotension, pallor
  • Severe abdominal or pelvic pain
  • Peritoneal signs on examination
  • Significant vaginal bleeding
  • Clinical deterioration after receiving MTX therapy

Acute stabilisation:

  • Start immediate IV fluid resuscitation.
  • Rapidly deliver blood transfusion as soon as blood products are available.
  • If hypotension persists, start vasopressors

Surgical management:

  • Indications for emergency surgery
    • Hemodynamic instability
    • Symptoms of impending rupture (e.g., severe pelvic pain)
    • Signs of intraperitoneal bleeding: e.g., peritonitis, POCUS positive for free fluid
    • Risk factors for rupture
  • Approach: Laparotomy is preferred for large intraperitoneal bleeding or critically unstable patients, otherwise a laparoscopic approach is typically performed.
  • Procedure:
    • Salpingectomy, i.e., partial or complete removal of the affected fallopian tube (does not preserve tube function)
    • Preferred approach for:
  • – Ruptured tube
  • – Heavy bleeding
  • – Large ectopic mass
  • – Severe damage to the fallopian tube
  • -Additional considerations
  • – If the patient desires future pregnancies: Evaluate the status of the contralateral fallopian tube before salpingectomy.
    • If the patient does not desire future pregnancies: Bilateral salpingectomy may be performed.
400
Q

What is the prognosis in ectopic pregnancy

A

The condition is fatal for the fetus.

Maternal mortality rate: ∼ 0.6/100,000 in the US

Future fertility: depends primarily on the fertility status prior to the ectopic pregnancy

Recurrence: Approx. 10%

Risk factors:

  • History of previous spontaneous miscarriage
  • Tubal damage
  • Age > 30 years
401
Q

What is gestational hypertension

A

AKA pregnancy induced hypertension

Pregnancy-induced hypertension with onset after 20 weeks’ gestation without proteinuria or end-organ dysfunction

Defined as a systolic blood pressure ≥ 140 mmHg or diastolic blood pressure ≥ 90 mmHg on 2 separate measurements at least 4 hours apart

When hypertension is diagnosed < 20 weeks’ gestation, the diagnosis is chronic hypertension and is not due to pregnancy.

402
Q

What is pre-eclampsia

A

New-onset gestational hypertension with proteinuria or end-organ dysfunction

403
Q

What is superimposed pre-eclampsia

A

Pre-eclampsia that occurs in a patient with chronic hypertension

404
Q

What is HELLP syndrome

A

A life-threatening form of pre-eclampsia characterized by Hemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes, and Low Platelets
May occur without hypertension or proteinuria

405
Q

What is gestational trophoblastic disease

A

Occurrence of new-onset hypertension, proteinuria, or end-organ dysfunction at < 20 weeks gestation

406
Q

What is eclampsia

A

A severe form of pre-eclampsia with convulsive seizures and/or coma

407
Q

WHat is postpartum hypertension

A

Persistent hypertension after delivery that generally resolves within 12 weeks
If hypertension lasts > 12 weeks postpartum, a secondary cause should be considered.

408
Q

What mneumonic can be used for remembering pre-eclampsia

A

The three primary features of PREeclampsia are

  • Proteinuria
  • Rising blood pressure (hypertension)
  • End-organ dysfunction.
409
Q

How common are hypertensive pregnancy disorders

A

Hypertensive pregnancy disorders occur in 6–8% of pregnancies.

Preeclampsia: 5–7% of pregnancies
Eclampsia: < 0.1% of all deliveries
HELLP syndrome: 0.5–0.9% of all pregnancies

410
Q

What are the risk factors for hypertensive pregnancy disorders

A

General risk factors:

  • Thrombophilia (e.g., antiphospholipid syndrome)
  • < 20 or > 35 years of age
  • African-American descent
  • Diabetes mellitus or gestational diabetes
  • Chronic hypertension
  • Chronic renal disease (e.g., SLE)
  • Obesity (BMI ≥ 30)

Pregnancy-related risk factors:

  • Nulliparity
  • Multiple gestation (e.g., twins)
  • Hydatidiform mole
  • Previous preeclampsia
  • Chromosomal anomalies or congenital structural anomalies
  • Family history
411
Q

What is an unexpected protective factor of pre-eclampsia development

A

Smoking

412
Q

What are the clinical features of gestational hypertension

A
Asymptomatic hypertension
Nonspecific symptoms (e.g., morning headaches, fatigue, dizziness) can occur.
413
Q

What are the clinical features of pre-eclampsia

A

Preeclampsia without severe features:

  • Usually asymptomatic
  • Nonspecific symptoms may include:
    • Headaches
    • Visual disturbances
    • RUQ or epigastric pain
    • Rapid development of oedema
  • Hypertension
  • Proteinuria

Preeclampsia with severe features:

  • Severe hypertension (systolic BP ≥ 160 mmHg or diastolic BP ≥ 110 mmHg)
  • Proteinuria
  • Oliguria
  • Headache
  • Visual disturbances (e.g., blurred vision, scotoma)
  • RUQ or epigastric pain
  • Pulmonary edema
  • Cerebral symptoms (e.g., altered mental status, nausea, vomiting, hyperreflexia, clonus)
414
Q

What are the clinical features of HELLP syndrome

A

Onset: most commonly > 27 weeks’ gestation (∼ 30% occur postpartum)

Preeclampsia usually present (∼ 85%)

Nonspecific symptoms: nausea, vomiting, diarrhea

RUQ pain (liver capsule pain; liver hematoma)

Rapid clinical deterioration (DIC, pulmonary edema, acute renal failure, stroke, abruptio placentae)

415
Q

What are the clinical features of Eclampsia

A

Onset: The majority of cases occur intrapartum and postpartum.

Most often associated with severe preeclampsia

Eclamptic seizures: generalized tonic-clonic seizures (usually self-limited)

416
Q

What is DIC

A

Disseminated intravascular coagulation

A condition characterized by systemic activation of the clotting cascade, platelet consumption, and subsequent exhaustion of clotting factors that leads to widespread thrombosis and hemorrhage.

Often associated with trauma, shock, and sepsis.

417
Q

What are the warning signs of a potential eclamptic seizure

A

Deterioration with headaches, RUQ pain, hyperreflexia, and visual changes

418
Q

What is endometriosis

A

A common benign and chronic disease in women of reproductive age that is characterised by the occurrence of endometrial tissue outside of the uterus

419
Q

What is the epidemiology of endometriosis

A

Age of onset: 20–40 years

Incidence: 2–10% of all women

Ethnicity: In the US, endometriosis is more common in white and Asian women than in black and Hispanic women

420
Q

What is retrograde menstruation

A

When a woman’s menstrual flow moves in the wrong direction, so backwards through the fallopian tubes rather than out through the vagina

421
Q

What is the aetiology of endometriosis

A

Not fully understood
Retrograde menstruation seems to play a major role in pathogenesis

Other contributing factors:

  • Coelomic metaplasia
  • Iatrogenic implantation
  • Haematogenic and lymphogenic dissemination of endometrial cells
  • Hereditary component
422
Q

What are the common locations of endometriotic implantation

A

Pelvic organs:

  • Ovaries (most common site, often affected bilaterally)
  • Rectouterine pouch
  • Fallopian tubes
  • Bladder
  • Cervix

Peritoneum

Extrapelvic organs (less commonly affected):

  • Lung
  • Diaphragm
423
Q

How does endometrial tissue act

A

Regardless of location, it reacts to the hormone cycle, much the same as the endometrium and proliferates under the influence of oestrogen

424
Q

What results from endometrial implants

A
Increased production of inflammatory and pain mediators
Nerve disfunction
Altered anatomy (eg pelvic adhesions) which can lead to infertility
425
Q

How does endometriosis present

A

Up to a third of patients are asymptomatic
Chronic pelvic pain that worsens before onset of menses
Uterosacral tenderness, uterosacral nodularity
Dysmenorrhea
Pre-or postmenstrual bleeding
Dyspareunia
Infertility
Dyschezia

426
Q

What is dyschezia

A

Painful or difficult defection

427
Q

How is endometriosis diagnosed

A

Patient history

Physical exam:

  • rectovaginal tenderness
  • adnexal masses

Transvaginal ultrasound (best initial test):

  • Uterus is generally not enlarged
  • Evidence of ovarian (chocolate) cysts
  • Nodules in bladder or rectovaginal septum

Laparoscopy (confirmatory test):
-May show endometriotic implants and adhesions

Normally severity of the findings does not correlate with the severity of symptoms

428
Q

What are the macroscopic findings of endometriosis

A

Endometrium:
-Endometrial implants that present as yellow-brown (sometimes reddish-blue) blebs, islands, or pinpoint spots

Ovaries:

  • Gunshot lesions or powder-burn lesions
  • -Black, yellow-brown, or bluish nodules or cystic structures
  • -Seen on the serosal surfaces of the ovaries and peritoneum
  • Ovarian endometriomas or chocolate cysts: cyst-like structures that contain blood, fluid, and menstrual debris

Fallopian tubes: salpingitis isthmica nodosa
-Nodular tube changes, resulting in:
↑ Risk of sterility and ectopic pregnancy
↓ Transmittance

429
Q

What are the microscopic findings of endometriosis

A

Normal endometrial glands
Normal endometrial stroma
Preponderance of hemosiderin laden macrophages due to cyclic hemorrhages into endometriomas

430
Q

What is adenomyosis

A

Benign disease characterised by the occurrence of endometiral tissue within the myometrium due to hyperplasia of the endometrial basal layer

431
Q

What is the the epidemiology of adenomyosis

A

Peak incidence at 35-50 years

432
Q

What is the aetiology of adenomyosis

A

The exact etiology is unknown, though some risk factors have been identified:

  • Endometriosis
  • Uterine fibroids
  • Parity
433
Q

What are the clinical features of adenomyosis

A

May be asymptomatic
Dysmenorrhea
Abnormal uterine bleeding
Chronic pelvic pain, aggravated during menses
Globular, uniformly enlarged uterus that is soft but tender on palpation

434
Q

How is adenomyosis diagnosed

A

Diagnosis is clinical

May be supported by transvaginal ultrasound and MRI findings:

  • Asymmetric myometrial wall thickening
  • Myometrial cysts

Histology serves to confirm the diagnosis.

435
Q

How is adenomyosis treated

A

Conservative:

  • Combined oral contraceptives ,
  • Progestin-only contraception (e.g., IUD, continuous-use contraceptive pill)
  • NSAIDs for pain relief
  • GnRH agonists

Surgical:

  • Hysterectomy is the definitive treatment.
  • Excision of single, organized adenomyomas.
436
Q

How is endometriosis treated

A

Medical therapy:

  • Mild to moderate pelvic pain without complications
    • Empirical medical therapy with NSAIDs and continuous hormonal contraceptives
    • NSAIDs alone if pregnancy is desired
    • Synthetic androgens (e.g., danazol)
  • Severe symptoms
    • GnRH agonists (e.g., buserelin, goserelin) and estrogen-progestin OCPs

Surgical therapy:

  • First-line: laparoscopic excision and ablation of endometrial implants
    • To confirm the diagnosis and exclude malignancy
    • If there is a lack of response to medical therapy
    • Treat expanding endometriomas and complications (e.g., bowel/bladder obstruction, rupture of endometrioma, infertility)
  • Second-line: open surgery with hysterectomy with or without bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy
    • Treatment-resistant symptoms
    • No desire to bear additional children
437
Q

What are the potential complications of endometriosis

A

Anemia

Endometriosis in the uterotubal junction inhibits implantation of the zygote: ↑ risk of ectopic pregnancy

Endometriosis → fibrous adhesions → strictures and entrapment of organs:

  • Intestines: constipation or diarrhea; in rare cases, intestinal obstruction, ileus, or intussusception may occur
  • Ureter: urine retention
438
Q

What are uterine leiomyomas

A

AKA Fibroids

A benign, hormone-sensitive smooth muscle tumor of the uterus

439
Q

What are the predisposing factors for fibroids

A

Nulliparity
Early menarche (< 10 years old)
Age: 25–45 years
-Fibroids are largely found in women of reproductive age
-Influenced by hormones (i.e., estrogen, growth hormone, and progesterone)
-During menopause, hormone levels begin to decrease and leiomyomas begin to shrink
Increased incidence in African American individuals
Obesity
Family history

440
Q

How are fibroids classified

A

Leiomyomas are classified according to their location.

Subserosal leiomyoma: located in the outer uterine wall beneath the peritoneal surface

Intramural leiomyoma (most common): growing from within the myometrium wall

Submucosal leiomyoma: located directly below the endometrial layer (uterine mucosa)

Cervical leiomyoma: located in the cervix

Diffuse uterine leiomyomatosis: The uterus is grossly enlarged due to the presence of numerous fibroids.

441
Q

How do fibroids present clinically

A

Most women have small, asymptomatic fibroids. Symptoms depend on the number, size, and location of leiomyomas.

Abnormal menstruation:

  • hypermenorrhea
  • heavy menstrual bleeding
  • metrorrhagia (possibly associated anemia)
  • dysmenorrhea

Features of mass effect:

  • Enlarged, firm and irregular uterus during bimanual pelvic examination
  • Back or pelvic pain/discomfort
  • Urinary tract or bowel symptoms (e.g., urinary frequency/retention, constipation, features of hydronephrosis)

Reproductive abnormalities

  • Infertility (difficulty conceiving and increased risk of miscarriage)
  • Dyspareunia
442
Q

How are fibroids diagnosed

A

Ultrasound (best initial test)

  • Concentric, hypoechoic, heterogeneous tumors
  • Calcifications or cystic areas suggest necrosis
  • Saline-infused sonography: can be used to better visualize submucosal and intramural fibroids

Hysteroscopy: to assess submucosal fibroids

MRI: to evaluate the uterus and ovaries for potentially complicated surgical cases and visually differentiate between leiomyomas, adenomyomas, and adenomyosis

443
Q

How do fibroids present in pathology

A

Macroscopic:

  • Grayish-white surface
  • Homogeneous; tissue bundles on cross-section partly in a whorled pattern
  • Some leiomyomas may involve regressive changes: scar formation, calcification, and cysts

Microscopic:

  • Smooth muscle tissue in a whorled pattern with well-demarcated borders
  • Consisting of monoclonal cells interspersed with connective tissue
444
Q

How are fibroids treated

A

Only treat symptomatic patients
Treatment depends on patient’s desire to preserve fertility, personal preference, comorbidity which contraindicates surgery, and severity of symptoms

Fertility preserving treatments:

Medical:

  • First line (to reduce heavy bleeding and symptom management)
    • COCP and mini pill (control bleeding and pain but may promote growth of fibroids)
    • Mirena coil (controls heavy bleeding but does not treat fibroids themselves)
    • Antifibrinolytics (eg tansexamic acid) (reduce heavy bleeding and used when desired no hormonal contraceptives)
    • NSAIDs (for dysmenorrhea)
  • Second line (to reduce tumor sixe and decrease tumor vascularisation)
    • GnRH agonists
  • – (optimal prior to surgery but not for long term (>6months) use due to risk of odteoporosis, hot flushes and depression)
  • – (decrease size of fibroids)
  • – (suppress growth of new ones)
  • – (decrease tumor vascularisation)
  • – (induce amenorrhea, so improve anaemia)
  • – (rebound growth of fibroids after discontinuation of GnRH therapy)
    • GnRH antagonists
    • Androgenic agonists (suppress growth of fibroids but have high side effect profile (acne, oedema, hair loss etc))
    • Selective progesterone receptor modulators

Myomectomy:
Surgical removal of fibroids
-preferred in rapidly growing fibroids, recurrent refactory bleeding secondary to medical therapy and in severe symptoms
-Approach:
– Hysteroscopic myomectomy: submucosal fibroids and some intramural fibroids that are primarily intracavitary
– Abdominal myomectomy (laproscopic or open incision): subserosal and intramural fibroids

Fertility affecting treatments:

Interventional therapy:

  • Uterine artery embolization: a percutaneous, radiologic procedure in which an embolic agent is injected into the uterine artery in order to block the blood supply to the fibroid(s)
    • Procedure
  • – Injection of polyvinyl alcohol (PVA) into the arteries that supply the fibroid, causing it to shrink
  • – 25% of patients require further invasive treatment (e.g., hysterectomy) due to failed embolization or recurrent symptoms
    • Indications
  • – Recurrent refractory heavy bleeding and/or severe pain unresponsive to medical treatment
  • – Contraindications to surgery or personal preference to avoid surgery
  • – No desire to preserve fertility, but wish to preserve the uterus

-Magnetic resonance-guided focused ultrasound surgery (MRgFUS): a procedure that utilizes MRI and ultrasound waves to destroy fibroids

Surgery: hysterectomy with/without bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy (definitive treatment)

445
Q

What are potential complications of fibroids

A

Infertility
Iron deficiency anemia (due to heavy menstrual bleeding)
Fibroid torsion
Thromboembolism
Very rare: malignant transformation to uterine leiomyosarcoma

446
Q

How are uterine leiomyomas in preganancy

A

Elevated concentrations of progestin and estrogen foster the growth of leiomyomas.

Pain may be caused by:

  • Mass effect
  • Necrosis
  • Peritoneal irritation

Premature contractions

Depending on location and size:

  • Fetal malpresentation
  • Fetal growth retardation
  • Prematurity and miscarriages
  • Extrauterine pregnancy
  • Placental abruption

Cervical leiomyoma: obstruction of the birth canal is an indication for cesarean delivery

Postpartum: atonic hemorrhages

Puerperium: fibroid regression accompanied by calcification

447
Q

What is the epidemiology of ovarian tumors

A

Ovarian tumors are the most common ovarian mass in women > 55 years of age.
Lifetime prevalence of malignant ovarian cancer: 1–2%
Ovarian cancer is the second most common gynecological cancer (after endometrial cancer) but causes the most deaths (with endometrial cancer causing the second most).
Median age at diagnosis of ovarian cancer: 63 years
Incidence rates highest in non-Hispanic white women

448
Q

What is the aetiology of ovarian cancer

A

Risk factors:

General:

  • Age: Incidence of ovarian cancer increases with age.
  • Asbestos exposure

Genetic predisposition:

  • BRCA1/BRCA2 mutation
    • The lifetime risk of developing ovarian cancer is up to 44% for BRCA1-positive women and 17% for BRCA2-positive women.
    • Positive family history and/or the occurrence of breast cancer at a younger age (i.e. < 30 years) increase the likelihood of carrying a mutation in these genes.
  • HNPCC syndrome: The lifetime risk of developing ovarian cancer is ∼ 10%.
  • Family history
  • Peutz-Jeghers syndrome

Hormonal factors:

  • Elevated number of lifetime ovulations
    • Infertility/low number of pregnancies
    • Early menarche and late menopause
  • Endometriosis

Protective factors:

Surgical intervention:

  • Bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy
  • Hysterectomy
  • Tubal ligation

Hormonal factors:

  • Oral contraceptives
  • Breastfeeding
  • Parity
449
Q

Wat is HNPCC syndrome

A

Hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer syndrome
AKA Lynch syndrome
A hereditary cancer syndrome caused by a mutation in mismatch repair genes. Individuals have a significantly higher risk of developing colorectal, gastric, and endometrial cancer

450
Q

What is Peutz jeghers syndrome

A

An autosomal dominant, hamartomatous polyposis syndrome
Characterized by the presence of polyps (typically < 20) throughout the gastrointestinal tract (mainly the jejunum).
Associated with mutation of the STK11 gene on chromosome 19p13.3. Manifests with hematochezia, constipation, diarrhea, mucocutaneous hyperpigmentation, and an increased risk of colorectal, ovarian, breast, and pancreatic cancer.

451
Q

How are ovarian tumors classified

A

Epithelial ovarian tumors

  • Arise from ovarian surface epithelium
  • Most commonly benign

Germ cell ovarian tumors

  • Arise from the primordial germ cells (e.g., oocytes)
  • Can be benign or malignant
  • Subtypes are determined by structural differentiation
    • Extraembryonic differentiation: yolk sac tumor
    • Somatic differentiation: teratoma
    • No differentiation: dysgerminoma

Sex cord and stromal ovarian tumors

  • Arise from sex cord cells (e.g., Sertoli or granulosa cells) or stromal cells (e.g., fibroblasts or primitive gonadal stroma)
  • May be benign or malignant

Krukenberg tumor:

  • Secondary ovarian tumor that most commonly arises from metastatic spread of gastric carcinoma
  • Often bilateral
  • Characteristic mucin secreting signet ring cells on histology
  • Route of metastatic spread is still debated
452
Q

How do ovarian cancers present clinically

A

Traditionally asymptomatic
But ~90% of patients do present with symptoms before diagnosis

Subacute symptoms:

  • Most common manifestations
  • Nonspecific and difficult to attribute to ovarian cancer
  • Adnexal mass
    • Can be asymptomatic
    • Often found on routine pelvic examination or imaging
  • Pelvic and abdominal symptoms
    • Changes in urination (e.g., frequency or urgency)
    • Bloating/abdominal distention
    • Early satiety
    • Nonspecific pelvic pain
  • Abnormal bleeding
    • Postmenopausal bleeding
    • Rectal bleeding
  • Paraneoplastic syndromes
    • Polyneuritis
    • Cerebellar degeneration
    • Dermatomyositis
    • Hemolytic anemia

Acute symptoms:

  • Occur in advanced disease
  • Indication for immediate evaluation and treatment
  • Extrapelvic symptoms
    • Ascites
    • Malignant pleural effusion
    • Bowel obstruction
  • Hematologic complications
    • venous thromboembolism
  • Intrapelvic symptoms
    • ovarian torsion
  • Metastatic dissemination
    • Liver: nausea, jaundice, ascites
    • Brain: headaches, seizures, focal motor deficits
    • Omentum: omental caking (i.e., disease infiltration of omental fat) resulting in abdominal pain
    • Distant lymph nodes: supraclavicular or inguinal lymphadenopathy
453
Q

How is ovarian cancer diagnosed

A

Pelvic ultrasound

  • Imaging test of choice for evaluation of adnexal masses and suspected ovarian cancer
  • Both TA and TV used
  • Assess:
    • Size and structural characteristics
    • Laterality
    • Mass margins
    • Vascularity
    • Pelvic fluid

MRI:

  • Not routinely recommended
  • May be helpful in determining origin of pelvic masses that are not clearly arising from the ovary
  • Useful for assessing feasibiltiy of surgical resection

CT:

  • Not recommended in initial evalution of adnexal masses
  • Useful for determining th eextent of ovarian mets

Tumor markers:

  • Epithelial ovarian tumors: CA-125 is elevated in ~80% of malignant tumors
  • In premenopausal: elevated CA-125 points to benign process
  • In postmenopausal: elevated CA-125 >35 should raise malignancy concerns
  • Should only be used to monitor disease progression or recurrence after treatment

Germ cell tumors:

  • Dysgerminoma: LDH, B-hCG
  • Yolk sac tumor: AFP
  • Immature teratoma: AFP, LDH, CA-125
  • Choriocarcinoma: B-hCG
  • Embryonal carcinoma: AFP, b-hCG

Sex cord-stromal tumors:

  • Granulosa cell tumor: inhibin
  • Other types: none

Tissue diagnosis:

  • Noninvasive biopsy (fine needle aspiration): not recommended due to the risk of tumor seeding and, as a result, advancing the stage of disease
  • Fine needle aspiration is absolutely contraindicated in ovarian tumors because it may directly spread tumor cells to the peritoneum
  • Surgical evaluation:
    • Recommended method for diagnosing ovarian cancer
    • Should only be utilized in patients with a high probability of a malignant ovarian mass
    • If a malignancy is found, it can be staged and cytoreduction can be performed
454
Q

What are the differentials in suspected ovarian cancer

A
Gynecologic
Benign causes:
-Ovarian cysts
-Pelvic inflammatory disease
-Tuboovarian abscess
-Hydrosalpinx
-Leiomyoma
-Endometrioma
Malignant cause
-metastatic cancer
Nongynecologic
Benign causes
-Appendiceal abscess
-Pelvic kidney
-Complicated diverticulitis
-Bladder diverticulum
Malignant causes
-Retroperitoneal sarcoma
-Gastrointestinal cancer
-Metastatic cancer
455
Q

How are ovarian tumors treated

A

Surgical:
For best outcomes
-Surgical staging: used to obtain pathologic specimens and evaluate the extension of cancer spread
– Peritoneal cytology
– Hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy
– Pelvic and paraaortic lymph node dissection
– Omentectomy
-Surgical debulking: whenever possible, maximal cytoreduction (ie removal of visible tumor) should be completed to imprive long term outcomes
– Residual disease <1cm defines optimal debulking
– Utilised in disease stages 1-3

Chemotherapy:
-Indications:
-- Early stage disease
--- Those with high risk disease  (stage 1C, stage 2)
--- Only used as adjucant therapy after initial debulking surgery
-- Advance stage disease (stages 3-4)
--- All patients after initial cytoreductive surgery
-Preferred regimens
-- Carboplatin/ paclitaxel (first line)
-- 5-FU/ oxaliplatin
-- Carboplatin/ paclitaxel/ bevacizumab
-Route of administration
--IV
Intraperitoneal

Targeted molecular therapy:

  • Indications:
    • BRCA1 or BRCA2 postive disease
    • Maintenance therapy after surgical debulking and chemotherapy
  • Targeted agents: Poly (ADP-ribose) polymerase inhibitors
    • Olaparib
    • Niraparib
    • Veliparib

Radiation therapy:
-Reserved as symptomatic treatment for recurrent or metastatic disease

456
Q

What is the prognosis for ovarain cancer

A

Very poor overall prognosis as a result of late diagnosis

5-year survival rate of all stages: ~50%

457
Q

How is ovarian cancer screened for

A

Indications:

  • Routine screening with CA-125 or transvaginal ultrasound is not recommended in individuals with an average risk of ovarian cancer
  • In high-risk individuals:
    • familial risk assessment should be performed
    • after which genetic counseling and subsequent genetic testing for hereditary cancer syndromes (e.g., BRCA1, BRCA2, or Lynch syndrome) may be indicated.
  • – Some of the tools used for familiar risk stratification include the Ontario Family History Assessment Tool, the Manchester Scoring System, the Referral Screening Tool, and the Pedigree Assessment Tool
    • In patients with high-risk mutations:
  • – Risk-reducing bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy (rrBSO) is a preventive treatment option for patients who do not wish to conceive in the future
  • – Periodic screening for ovarian cancer (e.g., annual transvaginal ultrasound, pelvic exam, and CA-125 levels) is an alternative to rrBSO

Potential benefits

  • Reduction in mortality
  • Diagnosis of ovarian cancer at an earlier stage

Potential harms

  • False positives
  • Psychological distress
  • Morbidity or mortality from surgery
458
Q

What about ovarian tumor in pregnancy

A

Pregnancy luteoma

  • Definition: rare, benign tumors that arise in response to elevated hormone levels (e.g., β-hCG) during pregnancy
  • Clinical features:
    • The majority of patients are asymptomatic.
    • Occasionally, they are functionally active (i.e., cause androgen hypersecretion) and manifest with symptoms of virilization of the mother or the fetus.
  • Diagnostics:
    • Pelvic ultrasound
  • – Solid adnexal mass
  • – Can be unilateral or bilateral
  • – Significant venous or arterial flow
  • – 4–10 cm in diameter
    • Luteomas are often diagnosed incidentally during cesarean delivery.
  • Treatment
    • Observation
    • Most regress spontaneously post partum.

Theca lutein cysts

Corpus luteum cyst

If surgical removal of an ovarian tumor is indicated during pregnancy, surgery should, if possible, be scheduled for after the 10th week of gestation, as the secretion of progesterone by the corpus luteum is essential for the maintenance of the pregnancy. The placenta takes over this function from approximately the 10th week of pregnancy onwards.

459
Q

What is HPV

A

Human papilloma virus causes infections of the skin and mucus membranes
There are many strains which result in varying presentations
Double stranded, circular, nonenveloped DNA virus with an icosahedral capsid

460
Q

Which are the low risk HPV types and what do they cause

A
Types 6 and 11
Cause:
-Anogenital warts
-Mild cervical cell abnormalities
-Tumors of nongenital mucosal membranes (eg respiratory tract, oral cavity, oesophagus, eye)
461
Q

What are the high risk HPV types and what can they cause

A

Types 16, 18, 31, 33

Cause:
-cervical cancer (responsible for 70% of cases)
High risk of anogenital, oral and oropharyngeal squamous cell carcinoma

462
Q

What do HPV types 1, 2 and 4 cause

A

Skin warts, such as common warts (verruca vulgaris) and plantar warts (myrmercias)

463
Q

How is HPV transmitted

A

Transomission occurs between two epithelial surfaces
Close personal contact: cutaneous warts
Sexual contact: anogenital lesions

464
Q

What are the risk factors for HPV

A

Damaged skin/mucous membranes (e.g., maceration, trauma, herpes simplex virus infection)

Immunodeficiency (e.g., HIV infection, chemotherapy)

Additional risk factors for genital/mucosal HPV infections include:

  • Unprotected sex
  • Number of lifetime sexual partners
  • Early age at first sexual activity
  • Uncircumcised males
465
Q

What is the epidemiology of anogenital HPV

A

Most common sexually transmitted infection (STI)
Approx. 50% of new infections affect individuals between 15–24 years of age.
Prevalence: ∼ 79 million in the US
Incidence: ∼ 14 million annually in the US

466
Q

What are the genital intraepithelial neoplasms resulting from anogenital HPV

A

Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN) and cervical cancer

Vulvar intraepithelial neoplasia (VIN) and vulvar cancer

Vaginal intraepithelial neoplasia (VAIN) and vaginal cancer

Squamous cell carcinoma of the penis

Anal cancer

467
Q

What are anogenital warts

A

AKA condylomata acuminata

Pathogen:
HPV types 6 and 11 (responsible for ∼ 90% of genital warts)

Location:
♀: vulvar, cervix, anal region, urethra (rare)
♂: glans penis, foreskin, urethra, anal region

Clinical features

  • Exophytic, cauliflower-like lesions
  • Often asymptomatic; may cause pruritus, tenderness, or bleeding in rare cases

Diagnostics:

  • Visual inspection
  • Application of 5% acetic acid turns lesions white (not a specific finding)
  • Biopsy indications
    • Immunodeficiency (e.g., HIV infection)
    • Warts with atypical features (e.g., affixed to underlying tissue, pigmented, indurated, bleeding)
    • Warts refractory to treatment

Treatment:

  • Pharmacotherapy: local cytostatic treatment (e.g., 5-FU, trichloroacetic acid, podophyllin, salicylic acid) or immune response modifiers (e.g., imiquimod, interferon alpha)
  • Cryotherapy: freezing external warts with CO2, N2O, or N2
  • In case of numerous warts: curettage, laser surgery, or electrocoagulation
468
Q

What are flat condylomata

A

Pathogen: particularly HPV types 3 and 10

Clinical features: flat, white-brown, slightly elevated, scattered plaques in the anogenital region

Differential diagnosis: condylomata lata (usually flat, smooth, and moist) in syphilis

Treatment:

  • Curettage or laser surgery
  • Regular checks are necessary because of the high risk of malignancy
469
Q

What are bowenoid papulosis

A

Description: transitional stage between a genital wart and Bowen disease (a squamous cell carcinoma in situ)

Pathogen: most commonly HPV-16

Clinical features:
Multiple, flat, red-brown pigmented papules on the external genitalia (particularly the penile shaft, glans, foreskin, vulva, and perianal region)

Treatment:

  • Re-examination every 3–6 months (lesions often regress spontaneously)
  • If persistent:
    • local destructive therapy(same as for anogenital warts)
    • followed by surveillance (annual examinations), since lesions may recur

Prognosis: malignant transformation occurs in 2.6% of cases

470
Q

What are giant condylomata

A

AKA Buschke-Löwenstein tumor

Pathogen: primarily HPV types 6 and 11

Clinical features: exophytic, verrucous, locally invasive squamous cell carcinoma without a tendency to metastasize

Treatment: surgical excision

471
Q

What is the aetiology of nonanogenital HPV

A

Most common in infancy, childhood, and adolescence

Prevalence: ∼ 7–12% in the US

Sex: ♀ = ♂

472
Q

What are common warts

A

AKA verruca vulgaris

Pathogen: particularly low-risk HPV types 2 and 4

Clinical features

  • Lesions are plaques or papules
    • Skin-colored or whitish
    • Usually firm, often with a rough and scaly surface
    • Sometimes have a cauliflower-like appearance
    • Located on the elbows, knees, fingers, and/or palms
  • Often asymptomatic but may cause tenderness (depending on the location) and pruritus → scratching → bleeding

Treatment

  • Initially watchful waiting (most skin warts regress within 2 years)
  • Topical agents (e.g., salicylic acid), cryotherapy, or surgical interventions
473
Q

What are plantar warts

A

AKA verruca plantaris

Pathogen: HPV type 1

Clinical features:

  • Rough, hyperkeratotic lesions on the sole of the foot
  • Often grow inwardly and cause pain while walking
474
Q

What are flat warts

A

AKA verruca plana

Pathogen: particularly HPV types3 and 10
Clinical features
Multiple small, flat patches or plaques
Localized on the face, hands, and shins

475
Q

What are nonanogenital mucosal manifestations of HPV

A

HPV types that cause mucosal manifestations in the genital area may also lead to nonanogenital mucosal manifestations, such as:

  • Oral warts and oropharyngeal carcinomas
  • Laryngeal papilloma: benign tumor of the laryngeal epithelium caused by HPV infection of the throat
    • Associated with HPV type 6 and 11
    • Appear as white, exophytic cauliflower-like lesions located in the larynx, trachea, and on the vocal cords
    • Usually single lesions in adults and multiple in children
    • Can cause voice changes (e.g., hoarseness) and, in more severe cases, airway obstruction
  • Laryngeal carcinoma
  • Respiratory papillomatosis and squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) of the lung
  • Conjunctival papillomas and conjunctival carcinoma
476
Q

What are the differentials for suspected HPV lesions

A

Benign tumors, e.g., fibroids, papillomatous dermal nevi

Molluscum contagiosum

Malignant tumors, particularly squamous cell carcinomas

477
Q

How is HPV treated

A

There is no treatment for the infection itself.

In most cases the infection clears up without any treatment

Several factors guide the choice of the treatment of anogenital warts, including wart characteristics (i.e., size, number, and anatomic site), patient preference, and potential adverse effects.

Treatment options of HPV–related anogenital warts are:

  • Routine clinical monitoring
  • Local treatment with one of the following:
    • Podophyllotoxin
    • Imiquimod
  • – Toll-like receptor 7 agonist; activates immune cells
  • – Indications include actinic keratoses, superficial basal cell carcinomas, herpes simplex infections, and genital warts.
    • Trichloroacetic acid
  • Cryotherapy
  • Surgical removal (e.g., tangential scissor, shave excision, curettage, laser, electrosurgery)

Evidence of malignancy should always be excluded on HPV–related cervical lesions via cytological and histological monitoring.

For treatment options of HPV–related cervical lesions, see cervical cancer treatment

478
Q

What is the prognosis in HPV infection

A

High rate of recurrence

Infection with high-risk types may transition to precancerous or malignant lesions after several years

479
Q

How can HPV infection be prevented

A

Education about risk factors
HPV vaccination
Use of condoms (decrease risk of infection but do not provide full protection as uncovered areas may still be infected

480
Q

What is the relvance of HPV in pregnancy

A

Vertical transmission to the fetus is rare but may lead to:

  • Laryngeal papillomatosis → airway obstruction
  • Conjunctival papillomatosis

Treatment/prevention:

  • Vaccination should be avoided during pregnancy.
  • Trichloroacetic acid is preferred
  • Cryotherapy and surgical interventions are also safe.
  • Podophyllin, 5-FU, and interferon are teratogenic and contraindicated in pregnancy.

Delivery:

  • Cesarean section does not prevent vertical transmission of HPV.
  • Cesarean section is indicated only if the birth canal is obstructed by large genital warts.
481
Q

What is the epidemiology of cervical cancer

A

3rd most common gynae malignancy after endometrial and ovarian and 3rd most common one to cause death
Incidence is higher in countries without screening programs and HPV vaccination
Incidence has declined in. recent times due to screening and vaccine
Peak incidence 35-44 years
Mortality is highest in those aged 55-64
Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN), a precursor of cervical cancer, typically occurs in young adults (aged 25-35 years)

482
Q

What is the aetiology of cervical cancer

A

Infection with high risk HPV types:

  • HPV 16: most common in squamous cell carcinoma
  • HPV 18: most common in adenocarcinoma

Risk factors:

Associated with HPV infection:

  • Multiple sexual partners (strongest risk factor)
  • Early-onset of sexual activity
  • Multiparity
  • Immunosuppression (e.g., HIV infection, post-transplantation)
  • History of sexually transmitted infections (e.g., herpes simplex, chlamydia)

Environmental risk factors:

  • Cigarette smoking and/or exposure to second-hand smoke (for squamous cell cancer types only)
  • In-utero exposure to diethylstilbestrol (DES)
  • Low socioeconomic status
483
Q

What are the clinical features of cervical cancer

A

Patients are usually asymptomatic in the early stages and develop symptoms later in the course of the disease.

Always consider cervical cancer as a cause of postcoital bleeding

Early symptoms:

  • Abnormal vaginal bleeding: irregular vaginal bleeding, heavy, irregular menstrual bleeding, postcoital spotting
  • Abnormal vaginal discharge: blood-stained or purulent malodorous discharge (not necessarily accompanied by pruritus)
  • Dyspareunia
  • Pelvic pain

Late symptoms:

  • Hydronephrosis
  • Lymphedema
  • Fistula formation

Cervical examination:

  • Ulceration
  • induration
  • or an exophytic tumor
484
Q

What are the potential complications of cervical cancer

A

Direct complications of invasive cervical cancer:

  • Local infiltration of organs
    • Infiltration and compression of ureter → urinary obstruction → hydronephrosis → kidney failure (bilateral obstruction is a potentially fatal complication)
    • Other organs often affected by the spread of cervical cancer include the rectum, bladder, and vagina.
  • Fistula formation in locally advanced disease (e.g., rectovaginal, vesicovaginal, urethrovaginal fistula)
  • Compression of veins or lymphatic vessels in the lesser pelvis → lymphedema of the lower extremities
  • Metastasis
    • Bone metastasis: bone pain, pathologic fractures, spinal compression, hypercalcemia
    • Liver metastasis: abdominal pain, abdominal distention, nausea, jaundice
    • Lung metastasis: cough, hemoptysis, dyspnea, chest pain
    • Brain metastasis: headaches, seizures, cognitive deficits, focal neurological deficits
  • Cancer anorexia-cachexia syndrome (CACS)

Complications of radiation therapy:

  • Vaginal stenosis
  • Postirradiation vaginitis (e.g., vaginal dryness, dyspareunia)
  • Radiogenic cystitis/proctitis
  • Radiation may increase the risk of cancer complications such as fistula formation
485
Q

What is the prognosis of cervical cancer

A

Cervical cancer has the best prognosis out of the three main gynecological cancers (ovarian, endometrial, and cervical cancer).

The survival rates decrease with increasing FIGO stage:
Stage 0: > 93%
Stage I: 93%
Stage II: 63%
Stage III: 35%
Stage IV: 16%

Patients without lymph node involvement have a very good prognosis, regardless of FIGO stage.

Main cause of death: uremia, often occurs secondary to bilateral ureteral obstruction.

486
Q

What are the types of endometrial cancer

A

Type I endometrial cancer: endometrioid adenocarcinomas (grade 1 and 2) derived from atypical endometrial hyperplasia

Type II endometrial cancer: endometrioid adenocarcinomas (grade 3) and tumors of non­endometrioid histology (serous, clear cell, mucinous, squamous, transitional, and undifferentiated cells)

487
Q

What is the aetiology of endometrial cancer

A

Type I endometrial cancer

  • Directly related to long-term exposure to increased estrogen levels
  • Some genetic mutations (e.g., in the PTEN gene or mismatch repair genes) are also associated with this type of cancer.

Type II endometrial cancer

  • Mostly estrogen-independent
  • Associated with endometrial atrophy (especially in postmenopausal women)
  • Strongly associated with a genetic predisposition

Risk factors for estrogen-dependent tumors

  • Nulliparity
  • Early menarche and late menopause
  • Polycystic ovary syndrome
  • Metabolic syndrome (esp. obesity and diabetes mellitus type 2 )
  • Hypertension
  • Unopposed estrogen replacement therapy (e.g., for menopausal symptoms)
  • History of breast cancer and tamoxifen treatment
  • Lynch syndrome (hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer)
Protective factors:
Low estrogen and high progestin or progesterone levels have a protective effect.
-Multiparity 
-Combination oral contraceptive pills
-Regular physical exercise 
-Lifelong soy-rich diet
488
Q

What is the epidemiology of endometrial cancer

A
1-2% of population
Most common cancer of female genital tract
Fourth most common cancer in women (after breast, lung and colorectal)
Type 1 ~80% of endometrial cancers
Type 2 ~10-20% of cases
Primarily affects postmenopausal women
Peak incidence 65-74 years
Type 1 onset usually nearer to menopause
Type 2 usually in older ladies
489
Q

How does endometrial cancer present clinically

A

Tumor-related:
Abnormal uterine bleeding is the main symptom.
-Postmenopausal: any amount of vaginal bleeding, including spotting or staining
-Perimenopausal/premenopausal: metrorrhagia, menometrorrhagia
-Vaginal bleeding usually does not occur in type II cancer.
Later stages may present with pelvic pain, palpable abdominal mass, and/or weight loss.
Pelvic exam is often normal, Possible findings include:
-Abnormal cervix
-Enlarged uterus
-Evidence of local metastases

Metastases:

  • Localized metastasis: contiguous spread to the cervix and vagina, fallopian tubes, and ovaries (25% of cases)
  • Lymphogenic metastasis: Seen in late stage cases
    • Retroperitoneal spread, or involvement of the pelvic and/or para-aortic lymph nodes
  • Hematogenic metastasis:
    • Rare
    • Occurs at a very late stage and usually in the lungs
490
Q

How is endometrial cancer diagnosed

A

Procedures:

  • Endometrial sampling: most commonly performed as part of a pelvic exam
  • Hysteroscopy-guided biopsy
  • Dilatation and curettage

Results:

  • Endometrial hyperplasia, with or without atypia
  • Pronounced proliferation of disorganized glandular tissue (characteristic of endometrial adenocarcinoma)
  • If there is no detectable pathology on biopsy and if no further symptoms occur, endometrial cancer can be ruled out.

Imaging:

Transvaginal ultrasonography

  • Considered to be the first diagnostic step by some experts since it is noninvasive and enables initial assessment
  • Findings:
    • Thickening of the endometrium
    • Cystic changes, variable echogenicity
    • Possibly visible tumor infiltration into neighboring organs
  • Regular monitoring required in postmenopausal women with endometrial thickening ≥ 5 mm

Abdominal ultrasonography:
-A complete abdominal ultrasound is indicated to exclude metastasis.

Chest x-ray, CT, MRI:
-assessment of metastatic spread (lungs, pelvis)

Laboratory tests:
FBC - anaemia
Coagulation studies to assess for other possible causes of heavy uterine bleeding

Ther is no routine screening test for endometrial cancer

491
Q

What is an endometrioid adenocarcinoma

A

Prevalence: most frequent form of endometrial cancer

Types:

  • Type I endometrial carcinoma includes estrogen-dependent endometrioid adenocarcinoma (grade 1 and 2; the most common)
  • Type II endometrial carcinoma includes estrogen-independent endometrioid adenocarcinoma (grade 3; rare, poor prognosis)

Histology findings:

  • Pronounced glandular proliferation, which presents as atypical glandular tubes
  • The glands are positioned, in part, back-to-back (“dos-à-dos”) with no separating stroma
  • Lined with pseudostratified epithelial cells, the nuclei of which are enlarged in an atypical vesicular form.
  • These glandular cells frequently demonstrate mitosis.
  • Tumor cell nests may also be observed and infiltrate the myometrium in high-grade tumors.
492
Q

What are the tumors of nonendometrioid histology in endometrial cancer

A

Serous adenocarcinoma (contains psammoma bodies and papillary structure with tufts)

Clear cell adenocarcinoma

Mucinous adenocarcinoma

Squamous cell carcinoma

Undifferentiated carcinoma

493
Q

How is endometrial cancer treated

A

Surgical management:

  • Indication: women with endometrial cancer who are postmenopausal, perimenopausal, or do not intend to become pregnant
  • Procedures:
    • Total hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy (TAH/BSO) with or without lymph node removal
    • Advanced radical hysterectomy and removal of the upper vagina according to Wertheim-Meigs additional

Nonsurgical management:

  • Progestins: Indicated for women with early stage endometrial carcinoma (well-differentiated and progesterone and estrogen receptor positive), who would prefer to avoid TAH-BSO and preserve fertility, or as adjuvant therapy
  • Radiotherapy and/or chemotherapy (adjuvant or palliative)
494
Q

What is a potential complication of endometrial cancer

A

Pyometra:

  • An accumulation of pus in the uterine cavity
  • Caused by infection resulting from obstruction of the cervical opening by the tumor and secondary blood stasis (hematometra)
  • Can develop in patients with duplication of the cervix or as an uncommon complication of gynecological malignancy
  • Presented with purulent vaginal discharge, lower abdominal pain, and enlarged uterus
  • Diagnosed by imaging studies (e.g., abdominal ultrasound or CT scan)
  • Treated with drainage and dilation of the cervical lumen
495
Q

What is the prognosis of endometrial cancer

A

Endometrial cancer has the 2nd best prognosis (after cervical cancer) of all gynecological cancers in the US.

Cancer stage at diagnosis determines the 5-year survival rate:

  • Localized endometrial carcinoma: > 90 %
  • Metastasized endometrial cancer: 16.8 %

Death rate: 4.9 per 100,000 women per year

Types of endometrial carcinomas that are well-differentiated and possess estrogen receptors (type I) have a more favorable prognosis.

Clear cell and papillary serous carcinomas (type II) have an aggressive course and a poor prognosis.

496
Q

How can the prognoses of gynaecological cancers be remembered

A

Think of a CEOs decline

Cervical, Endometrial, Ovarian have a progressively worse prognosis

497
Q

What is vulvar cancer

A

A malignancy of the outer female genitalia

498
Q

What is vaginal cancer

A

Malignancy that is closely related to vulvar cancer in terms of aetiology and histology but it occurs inside the vagina, typically the posterior third of the vaginal wall, rather than the vulva

499
Q

What is the epidemiology of vulvar cancer

A

Incidence: rare
Age:
-HPV-related vulvar cancer: 35–65 years
-Non-HPV related types: 55–85 years

500
Q

What is the aetiology of vulvar cancer

A

Infection with HPV 16, 18, 31, and 33 (16 and 33 account for 55% of HPV-related cases of vulvar cancer)

Vulvar dystrophy and vulvar or cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (VIN/CIN)

Smoking

Precancerous lesions (e.g., lichen sclerosus)

Immunosuppression

501
Q

What are the classifications of vulvar cancer

A

Squamous cell carcinoma (> 80% of cases)
Basal cell carcinoma
Melanoma
Paget disease of the vulva

502
Q

What is paget disease of the vulva

A

Pathology

  • Adenocarcinoma; carcinoma in situ
  • Low risk (< 15%) of underlying invasive Paget disease/ invasive adenocarcinoma (unlike Paget disease of the breast which is always associated with underlying carcinoma)

Clinical features

  • Eczematoid lesions
  • Raised, well-demarcated borders
  • Erythematous patches with white scaling
  • Crusting and ulcerations
  • Local pruritus
503
Q

What are the clincial features of vulvar cancer

A

May initially be asymptomatic

Local pruritus, possibly with burning sensation and pain

Reddish, blackish, and/or whitish patches of discoloration

Lumps or growths of various shapes, often wart-like lesions or ulcers

Vulvar bleeding or discharge (less common)

Dysuria, dyspareunia

Lymphadenopathy in the groin area

504
Q

How is vulvar cancer diagnosed

A

Pelvic exam
Colposcopy
Biopsy

505
Q

What are the differential for suspected vulvar cancer

A

Vulvar dermatoses

Vulvar intraepithelial neoplasia

506
Q

What are vulvar dermatoses

A

Vulvar dermatoses are not inherently precancerous, but they do increase the risk of squamous cell carcinoma.

Subtypes:

  • Lichen sclerosus: epidermal atrophy and loss of vulvar architecture
  • Lichen simplex chronicus: squamous cell hyperplasia
  • Genital lichen planus (hypertrophied skin with purple lesions)

Etiology: unclear

Epidemiology:
-postmenopausal women and, less commonly, prepubescent girls

Clinical features:

  • Parchment-like, thin, shiny vulvar skin
  • Narrow, atrophic vaginal introitus resulting in dyspareunia
  • Burning pain, pruritus, bleeding vulvar ulcers
  • Lichen simplex chronicus is characterized by chronic pruritus, which provokes persistent scratching of the vulva and so causes lichenification of the skin.

Diagnosis: Colposcopy and biopsy of suspicious lesions are required to rule out malignancy.

Histology

  • Epidermal atrophy, localized hyperkeratosis, degeneration of the basement membrane
  • Loss of collagenous and elastic connective tissue
  • Presence of an inflammatory infiltrate

Therapy

  • Without atypical cellular morphology: local therapy with glucocorticoid-containing creams
  • In the event of malignancy: surgical resection of the lesion
507
Q

What is vulvar intraepithelial neoplasia (VIN)

A

Definition: precancerous lesion caused by dysplasia of squamous cells

Classification:

  • VIN, usual type (most common)
    • Associated with HPV
    • Commonly multifocal
  • VIN, differentiated type
    • Associated with lichen sclerosis and other dermatoses
    • Commonly unifocal
  • VIN, unclassified type

Diagnosis: tissue biopsy

Treatment: depending on severity, excision or ablation may become necessary

Prognosis: may progress to vulvar carcinoma despite treatment (in < 10% of cases)

508
Q

How is vulvar cancer treated

A

First-line treatment: local excision and surgical resection (radical vulvectomy)

Radiotherapy and/or palliative chemotherapy: when disease metastasizes to peripheral lymph nodes or other organs

509
Q

What is the prognosis of vulvar cacner

A

The average 5-year survival rates range from 30–50%.

Survival rates vary greatly depending on the stage of the disease.

510
Q

What are the subtypes of vaginal cancer

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

  • Most common type
  • Usually occurs secondary to cervical squamous cell carcinoma, primary carcinoma is rare

Clear cell adenocarcinoma

  • Usually occurs secondary to vaginal adenosis (the presence of glandular columnar epithelium within the upper two-thirds of the vaginal wall)
  • Seen in daughters of women who received diethylstilbestrol during pregnancy

Sarcoma botryoides

  • Rare, highly malignant embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma that arises most commonly, but not exclusively in the genitourinary system
  • Epidemiology: peak incidence in childhood (< 4 years)
  • Pathology
    • Gross: clear, polypoid masses that resemble a bunch of grapes protruding through the vagina
    • Microscopy: pleomorphic spindle-shaped cells
    • Immunohistochemical staining: desmin positive
511
Q

What are the symptoms of vaginal cancer

A

Vaginal bleeding
Leukoplakia, vaginal ulceration with contact bleeding
Malodorous discharge
Possibly urinary frequency

512
Q

How is vaginal cancer diagnosed

A

Pelvic exam
Colposcopy: if abnormal cytology results without a clearly visible lesion during peliv exam
Biopsy of mass to determine histopathology

513
Q

How is vaginal cancer treated

A

Radiotherapy

  • Indicated in squamous cell carcinomas
  • Preserves external genitalia

Surgical therapy

514
Q

What is meant by “failure rate with typical use” when discussing contraceptives

A

The number out of every 100 women who become pregnant within the first year of typical use of the method of contraception

515
Q

What is the pearl index when discussing contraception

A

The number of unintended pregnnacies in 100 women per year with perfect use of the method of contraception

The PI is the most common measure of contraceptive efficacy used in clinical studies

516
Q

What are the behavioural methods of contraception

A

Coitus interruptus

Fertility awareness base methods

Vaginal douche

Lactational amenorrhea

517
Q

What is coitus interruptus

A

AKA the withdrawal method
Method: penis is withdrawn from the vagina before ejaculation
~22% failure rate

518
Q

What are fetility awareness based methods of contraception

A

Avoidal of sexual intercourse during the ovulation period

Calendar method:

  • The fertility period is estimated by documenting the timing of ovulation
  • Based on 3 points:
    • (i) an egg can be fertilized for ∼ 24 hours after ovulation
    • (ii) the lifespan of sperm is 48 hours following ejaculation
    • (iii) ovulation occurs 12–16 days before onset of the next menses.
  • Fertilization can occur anytime from 3 days before to 1 day after ovulation.
  • The fertility period is calculated after recording 6 menstrual cycles

Cervical mucus method:

  • The fertility period is estimated by evaluating the abundance and consistency of cervical mucus throughout the cycle.
  • During the days leading to ovulation, cervical mucus becomes stringy/elastic, thick, and abundant due to an increase in progesterone.
  • Conception is more probable up to 4 days after cervical mucus reaches its maximum abundance and elasticity; intercourse should be avoided during this time.
  • Contraindicated in:
    • breastfeeding women < 6 weeks postpartum
    • non-breastfeeding women < 4 weeks postpartum
    • in women with irregular menstrual cycles

Basal body temperature method:

  • The body temperature is measured throughout the cycle.
  • The increase in progesterone concentration after ovulation triggers an increase in basal body temperature, thus indicating the fertility period.

Symptothermal method:
-Including a combination of the basal body temperature method and the cervical mucus method

519
Q

What is vaginal douche method of contraception

A

Unreliable method of contraception, although still practiced by over 20% of women in the US.
Not a recommended form of contraception, but many women in the US still have this misconception

Risk of promoting unintentional pregnancy by pushing semen into the cervical canal

Method: The vagina is flushed with water or other products immediately after male ejaculation during intercourse in an attempt to theoretically flush semen out

520
Q

What is the lactational amenorrhea method of contraception

A

Amenorrhea is induced by exclusively breastfeeding for up to 6 months immediately postpartum

Method
Suckling at the breast → ↑ prolactin and ↓ gonadotropin-releasing hormone → suppression of ovulation
FSH levels are normal/high → follicle growth; however, ↓ LH leads to inhibited follicular maturation and the absent LH surge prevents ovulation

521
Q

What is the nonhormonal copper intrauterine device

A

A T-shaped device wrapped in copper wire that is inserted into the uterus

Approved for 5 or 10 years of continuous use; may be effective for longer

Mechanism of action: altered tubal motility and a sterile inflammatory reaction of the endometrium → spermicidal effect and prevention of implantation

Indications:

  • Emergency contraception (most effective type)
  • Long-acting contraception
  • Contraception in patients with contraindications for estrogen-based contraceptives

Contraindications:

  • Uterine abnormalities (i.e. bleeding, malignancy, infection, abnormal anatomy)
  • Cervical infections
  • Known or suspected pregnancy
  • Menorrhagia
  • Dysmenorrhea
  • Copper hypersensitivity

Complications:

  • Menorrhagia
  • Dysmenorrhea
  • Uterine perforation
  • Ectopic pregnancy
  • Pelvic inflammatory disease
522
Q

What are the barrier methods of contraception

A
Condom
Diaphragm
Cervical cap
Sponge
Spermicide
523
Q

What are condoms

A

Description:
A thin sheath that is placed over the shaft of the penis (male condom) or in the vaginal canal (female condom) prior to sexual intercourse

Acts as a physical barrier between penile, vaginal, and/or anal secretions

Contraindication: latex allergy for latex condoms

Complications: unintentional pregnancy or infection due to breakage (usually related to incorrect use)

524
Q

What is a diaphragm contraceptive

A

Description:
Dome-shaped latex, metal, or plastic device that holds spermicide

Placed into the anterior and posterior fornix of the vagina prior to sexual intercourse; must be kept in place for 6 hours after intercourse
Prevents passage of semen into the cervix

Contraindications: cervical anomalies or abnormalities (e.g., infection, malignancy), spermicide or latex allergy

Complication: toxic shock syndrome (use for ≥ 24 hours is not recommended)

525
Q

What is a cervical cap

A

Description:
Cup shaped latex, metal, or plastic device that holds spermicide

Placed over the base of the cervix; inserted up to ∼ 8 hours before sexual intercourse and must be removed after 48 hours

Prevents passage of semen into the cervical canal

Contraindications:

  • cervical anomalies or abnormalities,
  • spermicide or latex allergy

Complication: toxic shock syndrome,
-cervical erosion (resulting in spotting)

526
Q

WHat is the sponge method of contraception

A

Description:
Foam disk containing spermicidal fluid; activated by moistening with tap water and gently squeezing before inserting into the vagina
Inserted up to 24 hours before intercourse; should not be worn > 30 hours
Prevents entry of semen into the cervix and has spermicidal effects

Contraindications:

  • cervical anomalies or abnormalities,
  • spermicide allergy

Complication: vaginal irritation,
-toxic shock syndrome (rare)

527
Q

What is the spermicide method of contraception

A

Description:
Foams or jellies that are inserted into the vagina prior to sexual intercourse

The active ingredient disrupts surface membranes → spermicidal effect

Contraindication: spermicide allergy

Complication: vaginal irritation

528
Q

WHat are the surgical sterilisation methods

A

Female sterilization:

Description: surgical interruption of the fallopian tubes

Methods:

  • Tubal ligation with or without partial salpingectomy
  • Partial destruction of oviduct with electrocoagulation
  • Clipping or banding of the fallopian tubes

Can be performed under neuraxial or general anesthesia

Vasectomy:

Description: division and removal of a section of the vas deferens

Can be performed under local anesthesia

Complications:

  • Hematoma
  • Surgical site infection
  • Sperm granulomas: a collection of sperm due to leakage from the vas deferens into the surrounding interstitium
  • Postvasectomy pain syndrome
    • A condition characterized by a chronic, dull, aching pain in the testes in patients who have had a vasectomy
    • Caused by the accumulation of testicular fluid in the epididymis
  • Failure
    • Patients should be counseled about potential post-vasectomy pregnancies (approx. 1 in 2,000 cases)
    • Follow-up sperm sample test at three months after surgery to verify azoospermia
529
Q

What is the definition of infertility and what are the two types

A

Inability to achieve pregnancy after 12 months of unprotected sex in women < 35 years and 6 months in women ≥ 35 years of age

Primary infertility: infertility in persons who have never achieved pregnancy

Secondary infertility: infertility in persons who have previously achieved at least one pregnancy

530
Q

What is the definition of recurrent pregnancy loss

A

The inability of a woman to carry to live birth even if conception is possible (e.g., due to uterine myomas, antiphospholipid syndrome)

531
Q

What is the epidemiology of infertility

A

Infertility affects approx. 10–15% of couples of reproductive age
Approx. 5% of women in the US aged 15–44 years old are infertile
Approx. 5–10% of men in the US aged 15–44 years old are infertile

532
Q

What is the aetiology of female infertility

A

Ovary-related causes:

  • Premature ovarian failure
  • Menstrual cycle abnormalities (e.g., functional hypothalamic amenorrhea)
  • Hyperprolactinemia
  • Thyroid disorders
  • Systematic conditions:
    • diabetes mellitus
    • hypertension
    • obesity
    • chronic diseases (e.g., hepatic or renal)
  • Pituitary adenoma
  • Diminished ovarian reserve
    • A decline in functioning oocytes (either reduced number or impaired development)
    • A normal consequence of age, but can also be caused by an underlying disorder (e.g., endometriosis)
  • Hypogonadotropic hypogonadism
  • Cushing syndrome
  • PCOS

Tubal/pelvic causes

  • PID
  • Endometriosis
  • Fallopian tube adhesions and/or obstruction
    • Following tubal or pelvic surgery
    • Following infections:
  • – appendicitis
  • – chronic chlamydia infection
  • – acute salpingitis
  • – inflammatory bowel disease

Uterine causes:

  • Anatomical anomalies (e.g., septate uterus, bicornuate uterus, Mayer‑Rokitansky-Kuster‑Hauser syndrome)
  • Uterine leiomyoma
  • Endometrial polyps
  • Asherman syndrome
    • Mostly iatrogenic (scarring, fibrosis, and/or adhesions of the endometrium caused by curettage)
    • Reduces the sensitivity of the endometrium to progestogens

Cervical causes:
-Cervical anomalies (e.g., insufficient cervical mucus production)
-Trauma (e.g., following cryotherapy, conization)
Immune factors (e.g., antisperm antibodies in the cervical mucus)
-DES exposure in utero

Psychiatric causes:

  • Vaginismus
  • Sexual arousal disorder
533
Q

What is the aetiology of male infertility

A

Sperm disorders (e.g., reduced sperm count, impaired motility, reduced ejaculate volume)

Testicular damage (e.g., scrotal injuries, testicular torsion, infections such as mumps, gonorrhea)

Scrotal hyperthermia (varicocele)

Medication (e.g., anabolic steroids, spironolactone, corticosteroids, cimetidine)

Thyroid disorders

Chronic diseases (e.g., liver cirrhosis, renal insufficiency)

Inherited disorders

  • Klinefelter syndrome
  • Kallmann syndrome
    • Often associated with structural/developmental abnormalities:
  • – cryptorchidism
  • – cleft palate
  • – scoliosis
  • – renal agenesis
    • Characterized by delayed onset of puberty and hyposmia/anosmia
    • More common in men

Sexual dysfunction (e.g., impaired libido, anejaculation)

Pituitary and hypothalamic tumors

Hyperprolactinemia

Cryptorchidism

534
Q

How is female infertility diagnosed

A

Medical history of both partners, especially gynecological history

Assess ovulatory function

  • Menstrual history
  • Body temperature analysis to monitor menstrual cycle
  • Hormone tests (between the 3rd and 5th day of the menstrual cycle )
    • Midluteal serum progesterone levels: progesterone should increase shortly after ovulation → failure of progesterone levels to rise indicates anovulation
    • Ovulation prediction test (detect LH levels)
    • Androgen levels: elevated levels induce negative feedback to the hypothalamus → inhibition GnRH secretion → decreased estrogen levels and suppression of ovulation
    • Ovarian reserve
  • – Early follicular FSH levels: elevated in ovarian insufficiency and indicate reduced ovarian reserve
  • – Early follicular estradiol levels
  • – Anti-Müllerian hormone levels
    • TSH levels: elevated levels in hypothyroidism
    • Prolactin levels: hyperprolactinemia
  • Ovarian sonography: antral follicle count
  • Endometrial biopsy
    • Usually performed 1–3 days before menstruation to determine thickness of endometrium
    • A flat endometrial lining indicates a defect in the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle.

Imaging: assess the patency of fallopian tubes and uterus

  • Indications:
    • If the initial workup does not reveal any abnormalities and no history suggestive of tubal obstruction
    • Screen for tubal occlusion and structural uterine abnormalities (e.g., septate uterus, submucous fibroids, intrauterine adhesions)
  • Hysterosalpingography: an imaging technique involving the injection of contrast dye into the cervical canal and serial radiographs to evaluate the uterine cavity and morphology/patency of the fallopian tubes
  • Sonohysterosalpingography: an ultrasound technique in which fluid is inserted into the uterus via the cervix to examine the uterine lining
  • Hysteroscopy and/or laparoscopy
    • Indicated if there is evidence of intrauterine abnormalities or tubal occlusion.
    • Can also be used therapeutically to remove small adhesions or mucous plugs obstructing the tubal lumen

Examine cervix:

  • Physical examination
  • Pap smear
  • Testing for antisperm antibodies in cervical mucus
535
Q

How is female infertility treated

A

Lifestyle modifications: cessation of alcohol, nicotine, and recreational drug use as they contribute to subfertility.

Treatment of underlying causes: (e.g., levothyroxine for hypothyroidism, bromocriptine for hyperprolactinemia, metformin for PCOS) [10]

Ovulation induction

  • Clomiphene citrate
  • GnRH (pulsatile): stimulation of FSH and LH release → follicle maturation
  • Gonadotropins (e.g., recombinant hCG, recombinant LH): stimulate final oocyte maturation → ovulation
  • Tamoxifen (selective estrogen receptor modulator)
  • GnRH-antagonists

Assisted reproductive technology:

  • In vitro fertilization
    • The most common form of assisted reproduction technology
    • Involves hormonal follicular stimulation followed by a transvaginal follicular puncture for oocyte retrieval with ultrasound monitoring
    • The recovered oocytes are mixed with processed spermatozoa and incubated.
    • Two (in young women) to a maximum of five embryos (in women over 40 years of age) are transferred into the uterus.
  • Intracytoplasmic sperm injection: a type of assisted reproductive technology, in which a single spermatozoon is introduced into an oocyte under a microscope using an injection pipette

Intrauterine insemination (IUI): a procedure in which washed and concentrated sperm are introduced directly into the uterine cavity

Oocyte donation

Surgery: removal of tubal, cervical, or uterine adhesions, myomas, and/or scar tissue

536
Q

What is ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome

A

A potentially life-threatening complication of ovulation induction with exogenous human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)

537
Q

What is the pathophysiology of ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome

A

Exogenous hCG is thought to be responsible for the massive luteinization of the ovarian granulosa cells.

Formation of multiple ovarian follicles and corpus luteum cysts with rapid ovarian enlargement

↑ Release of vasoactive mediators (e.g., VEGF) that induce an increase in capillary permeability and consequent third spacing into the abdominal cavity

538
Q

What are the clinical features of ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome

A

Onset: between 3 days (early onset) and ≥ 9 days (late onset) after hCG administration

Abdominal pain and distention
Nausea and/or vomiting
Weight gain
Severe features
Pleural effusion
Acute kidney injury with oliguria/anuria
Venous or arterial thromboembolic events
539
Q

How is ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome diagnosed

A

Laboratory analysis:

  • Leukocytosis, ↑ Hct
  • Serum electrolyte concentrations and renal function tests
  • Liver function tests

Transvaginal ultrasound: ascites and ovarian enlargement

540
Q

How is ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome managed

A

Mild and moderate cases (usually early onset): manage on an outpatient basis:

  • Limit physical activity
  • Pain management with acetaminophen
  • Daily monitoring of body weight (should not increase by > 1 kg/day) and urine output
  • Sufficient hydration (1–2 L/day)
  • Paracentesis to relieve symptoms of ascites

Severe cases (usually late onset)

  • Hospitalization
  • Multidisciplinary management approach:
    • supportive care
    • monitoring
    • prevention of complications (e.g., prophylactic anticoagulation)
541
Q

How is male infertility diagnosed

A

Medical history of both partners

Semen analysis

Mixed antiglobulin reaction test for antisperm antibodies

  • Antisperm antibodies form in disruption of the blood-testis barrier (composed of Sertoli cell tight-junctions)
  • The antibodies can lead to immobilization and agglutination of sperm or have a spermatotoxic effect.

TSH levels

Prolactin levels

Karyotype test (Kallmann syndrome, Klinefelter syndrome)

542
Q

How is male infertility treated

A

Treatment of underlying cause

Modification of lifestyle factors such as alcohol, nicotine, and recreational drug use

Medical therapy: clomiphene citrate, tamoxifen

Assisted reproductive technology

  • Intrauterine insemination
  • In vitro fertilization
  • Intracytoplasmic sperm injection

Surgical treatment of testicular anomalies and/or defects

543
Q

How is fibrocystic breast change diagnosed

A

Physical exam

Ultrasound and mammogram (first-line)

  • Ultrasound:
    • Findings range from normal appearance to focal regions of thick parenchyma.
    • Сysts may be present.
  • Mammogram (not recommended for women < 30 years):
    • Round or oval masses with clear borders
    • In some cases, dispersed calcifications

Fine-needle aspiration (after imaging confirms a cystic lesion): indicated if the patient is symptomatic and/or requests the procedure

Biopsy: confirms diagnosis if imaging is inconclusive

544
Q

How is fibrocystic breast change treated

A

If symptoms are mild, treatment is not required.

In case of severe symptoms:

  • oral contraceptives
  • tamoxifen
  • progesterone

Fine-needle aspiration or surgery:

  • If a cyst causes severe pain, discomfort, or disfiguration
  • In the case of proliferative lesions with atypical cells

Reevaluate the cyst after 4–6 weeks.

545
Q

What is the fibrocystic breast change prognosis

A

Depends on the histologic subtype:

  • Nonproliferative lesions do not increase the risk of cancer.
  • Proliferative lesions with atypical cells (e.g., ductal epithelial hyperplasia) are associated with an increased risk of cancer
546
Q

What is mastitis

A

Inflammation of the breast parenchyma

547
Q

What is the aetiology of mastitis

A
Staphylococcus aureus (most common)
Other pathogens (e.g., Streptococcus, Escherichia coli) are rare.
548
Q

What is the epidemiology of mastitis

A

Occurs in up to 10% of nursing mothers (2-4 weeks postpartum)

549
Q

What is the pathophysiology of mastitis

A

Nipple fissures facilitate the entry of bacteria located in the nostril and throat of the infant or on the skin of the mother into the milk ducts during breastfeeding.

Prolonged breast engorgement (due to overproduction of milk ) or insufficient drainage of milk (e.g., due to infrequent feeding, quick weaning, illness in either the baby or mother) result in milk stasis, which creates favorable conditions for bacterial growth within the lactiferous ducts.

550
Q

What are the clinical features of mastitis

A

Tender, firm, swollen, erythematous breast (generally unilateral)
Pain during breastfeeding
Reduced milk secretion
Flu-like symptoms, malaise, fever, and chills
In some cases, reactive lymphadenopathy

551
Q

How is masitits diagnosed

A

Clinically

Breast milk cultures or imaging may be required if there is no response to intitital treatment

552
Q

How is masitits treated

A

In nursing mothers, breastfeeding with alternate breasts is recommended every 2–3 hours.

Patients with mastitis should continue to breastfeed to reduce risk of breast abscess

Analgesics (e.g., ibuprofen)
Cold compresses
Antibiotic treatment
-Oral penicillinase-resistant penicillin or cephalosporin (e.g., dicloxacillin or cephalexin)
-In the case of methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA): clindamycin or trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) or vancomycin for severe cases

In the case of inadequate response to initial treatment:

  • Initiate treatment according to breast milk culture results.
  • Consider an underlying breast abscess, which requires surgical drainage.
553
Q

How is mastitis prevented

A

Anticipatory lactational counseling

To prevent recurrence: oral Lactobacillus probiotic

554
Q

What is a breast abscess

A

An encapsulated accumulation of pus within the breast tissue

The main complication of mastitis

555
Q

What are the clincial features of a brest abscess

A
Breast pain, erythema, and edema
Purulent discharge from the nipple of the affected breast
Fluctuating mass on palpation
Possibly overlying skin necrosis
Fever
Nausea
556
Q

How is a breast abscess treated

A

Needle aspiration: for abscesses with intact overlying skin

Incision and drainage: if overlying skin necrosis is present

Antibiotic treatment (samer as for mastitis)

557
Q

What is fat necrosis of the breast

A

Benign nonsuppurative inflammatory lesion affecting adipose tissue of the breast

558
Q

What is the epidemiology of fat necrosis of the breast

A

Incidence: < 3% of all breast lesions

Peak incidence: 50 years

559
Q

What is the aetiology of fat necrosis of the breast

A

Trauma

560
Q

What are the clinical features of fat necrosis of the breast

A

Nontender periareolar mass with irregular borders

Breast skin retraction, erythema, or ecchymosis

561
Q

How is fat necrosis of the breast diagnosed

A

Mammogram and/or ultrasound:

  • Fluid-filled oil cyst
  • Coarse rim calcifications

Biopsy (if any suspicious or inconclusive imaging findings)

  • Foam cells and multinucleated giant cells
  • Necrotic fat cells
  • Hemosiderin deposition and chronic inflammation
562
Q

How is fat necrosis of the breast treated

A

No treatment required

563
Q

What is mammary duct ectasia

A

Subareolar periductal chronic inflammatory condition defined by dilated mammary ducts which are eventually clogged

564
Q

What is the epidemiology of mammary duct ectasia

A

Most common in perimenopausal women

Peak incidence: 40–50 years

565
Q

What is the aetiology of mammary duct ectasia

A

Inspissated luminal secretion stasis leading to periductal inflammation and fibrous obliteration

566
Q

What are the clinical features of mammary duct ectasia

A

Unilateral greenish or bloody discharge (most common cause of greenish nipple discharge)
Nipple inversion
Firm, stable, painful mass under the nipple (may mimic breast cancer)
May progress to a breast abscess

567
Q

How is mammary duct ectasia diagnosed

A

Mammogram and/or ultrasound: can be used to determine mammary duct diameter

Biopsy (if any suspicious or inconclusive imaging findings) can show the following:

  • Central cavity filled with neutrophils and secretion
  • Pericentral inflammation and/or fibrotic breast parenchyma
  • Obliteration of the ducts
568
Q

How is mammary duct ectasia treated

A

Usually not necessary (most cases resolve spontaneously)
Antibiotic therapy if infected
Surgical excision for persistent lesions

569
Q

What are the types of benign breast neoplasms

A

Fibroadenoma
Phyllodes tumor
Intraductal papilloma
Lobular carcinoma in situ (LCIS)

570
Q

What is a fibroadenoma

A

Bengin breast tumor with fibrous and glandular tissue

571
Q

What is the epidemiology of fibroadenoma

A

Most common breast tumour in women <35 years

Peak incidence 15-35 years

572
Q

What is the aetiology of fibroadenoma

A

Unknown, but a hormonal relationship has been established (increased estrogen, e.g., during pregnancy or before menstruation, may stimulate growth)

573
Q

What are the clinical features of fibroadenoma

A

Usually, a well-defined, mobile mass
Most commonly solitary
Non-tender
Rubbery consistency

574
Q

How is a fibroadenoma diagnosed

A

Ultrasound: well-defined mass

Mammogram: well-defined mass that may have popcorn-like calcifications

Core needle biopsy or fine needle aspiration to confirm the diagnosis: fibrous and glandular tissue

575
Q

How is a fibroadenoma treated

A

Regular check ups

576
Q

What is the prognosis of fibroadenoma

A

Goo

Most not associated with increased risk of breast cancer

577
Q

What is a phyllodes tumor

A

Rare fibroepithelaial tumor with histology similar to that of fibroadenoma

578
Q

What is the epidemiology of a phyllodes tumor

A

Peak incidence: 40–50 years
Most commonly benign
Approx. 0.4% of all breast tumors
Of unknown aetiology

579
Q

What are the clincial features of a phyllodes tumor

A

Painless, smooth, multinodular lump in the breast, with an average size of 4–7 cm

Variable growth rate: may grow slowly over many years, rapidly, or have a biphasic growth pattern

580
Q

How is a phyllodes tumor diagnosed

A

Ultrasound and mammogram findings are similar to fibroadenoma, but phyllodes tumors tend to be larger and grow faster than fibroadenomas.

Despite the fact that the lesion is typically benign, a suspected phyllodes tumor should be considered a suspicious mass until proven otherwise.

If a phyllodes tumor is suspected, perform a core needle biopsy

  • Leaf-like architecture with papillary projection of epithelium-lined stroma
  • Connective tissue and cysts
  • Varying degrees of atypia and hyperplasia
581
Q

How is a phyllodes tumor treated

A

Surgical excision

In case of recurrence: total mastectomy

582
Q

What is the prognosis of phyllodes tumor

A

After excision of benign tumors: excellent prognosis

Lesions that show signs of malignancy on histology may recur and metastasize.

583
Q

What are the characteristics of lobular carcinoma in situ

A

Microcalcifications or production of a mass are rare (usually incidental biopsy finding).

Lower risk of subsequent invasive carcinoma (equal predisposition in both breasts) compared to DCIS

Multifocal localisation

584
Q

What is the pathology of LCIS

A

Decreased E-cadherin expression
Lobules filled with monomorphic cells
Intact basal membrane
Diffuse growth pattern

585
Q

How is LCIS managed

A

After core needle biopsy:

  • Clinical and imaging follow-up
  • Usually no treatment necessary

After surgical excision:

  • Classic LCIS: no further surgery is necessary
  • Nonclassic LCIS (e.g., pleomorphic LCIS): evaluation of surgical margins and re-excision is recommended
586
Q

What is gynaecomastia

A

Benign proliferation of mammary gland tissue in male individuals or infants of either sex (neonatal gynecomastia)

587
Q

WHat is the aetiology of gynaecomastia

A

Increased oestrogen:testosterone ratio

588
Q

What are the types of physiological gynaecomastia

A

Neonatal:

  • Occurs in up to 90% of neonates due to placental transfer of maternal estrogens
  • Gynecomastia is bilateral, sex independent, and spontaneously resolves within a few weeks or months

Pubertal:

  • Epidemiology: occurs in up to 50% of adolescent boys
  • Pathophysiology: caused by pubertal estrogen/androgen imbalance
  • Clinical features:
    • Small, mobile, firm plaques of breast tissue in the subareolar region that develop during puberty
    • Can be tender, unilateral/bilateral, and associated with fatty development around the nipple
    • Spontaneously resolve by 17 years of age
  • Management
    • Reassurance of benign nature of the condition
    • Surgical removal of the breast glandular tissue is indicated for pubertal gynecomastia which persists after 17 years of age (persistent pubertal gynecomastia).

Senile:
-Occurs in ~50% of men over 50 years of age

589
Q

What is pathological gynaecomastia

A

Due to estrogen excess:

  • Malignancies
    • Leydig cell tumor
    • Sertoli cell tumor
    • Ectopic hCG-producing tumors (e.g., lung cancer, hepatocellular carcinoma)
    • Adrenocortical tumors
  • Liver cirrhosis: due to increased conversion of adrenal androgen precursors to estrogen
  • Hyperthyroidism: due to ↑ peripheral conversion of androgens to estrogens and ↑ hepatic production of sex hormone binding globulin (SHBG), which has a higher affinity for testosterone → ↓ free testosterone and a relative increase in estrogen
  • Refeeding (after prolonged starvation) [36]

Due to decreased testosterone:

  • Klinefelter syndrome
  • Chronic kidney disease
  • Testicular disorders (e.g., mumps orchitis, castration, trauma to both testes)
  • Starvation

Due to drugs

  • Inhibitors of testosterone receptors
    • Antiandrogens (e.g., finasteride, bicalutamide, cyproterone acetate, flutamide)
    • High-dose cimetidine (H2 receptor blocker)
    • Spironolactone
  • Inhibitors of testosterone synthesis
    • Ketoconazole
    • Spironolactone
    • Chemotherapy drugs (e.g., cyclophosphamide, methotrexate, bleomycin, cisplatin, vincristine)
  • Exogenous androgens and androgenic steroids
    • Exogenous testosterone
    • Androgen precursors (e.g., DHEA, androstenedione)
    • Androgenic steroids
  • Estrogen receptor stimulators
    • Estrogens
    • Digitalis compounds
    • Marijuana
    • HAART drugs

Idiopathic:
-25% of patients

590
Q

What are the clinical features of gynaecomastia

A

Firm, concentric mass at the nipple-areolar complex that may be tender

In pathological gynecomastia: possible features of undervirilization, hyperthyroidism, liver/kidney disease, etc.

591
Q

How is gynaecomastia diagnosed

A

Laboratory studies:

  • Serum levels of testosterone, estradiol, luteinizing hormone, and hCG: indicated in patients with pathological/idiopathic gynecomastia
  • Other tests based on history and examination findings:
    • Liver function tests
    • Renal function tests
    • Thyroid hormone assay

Imaging:

  • Mammography and ultrasound-guided biopsy
    • Indicated in patients with suspected breast cancer
    • Gynecomastia appears as normal breast tissue behind the nipple on mammography.
  • Testicular ultrasound:
    • indicated in patients with abnormal findings on testicular examination, signs of undervirilization, features of primary hypogonadism, or ↑ hCG levels
592
Q

What are the differentials in suspected gynaecomastia

A

Pseudogynecomastia
Male breast cancer
Mastitis
Lipoma

593
Q

What is the treatment for gynaecomastia

A

Treat the underlying cause.

  • Discontinue the offending drug (if possible).
  • Treat hyperthyroidism, hypogonadism, chronic liver or kidney disease.

Observation: indicated in physiological and recent-onset (< 6 months) pathological gynecomastia

Medical therapy:

  • indicated for cosmesis or tender gynecomastia in select patients
  • Testosterone replacement: in patients with hypogonadism
  • Selective estrogen receptor modulators (e.g., tamoxifen): in patients with severe pubertal gynecomastia or idiopathic gynecomastia > 3 months that causes substantial breast enlargement with tenderness and/or psychosocial distress

Surgery (subcutaneous mastectomy):
-indicated for cosmesis in persistent gynecomastia (> 1 year)

594
Q

What is galactocele

A

A milk retention cyst located in the mammary gland

595
Q

What is the the epidemiology of a galactocele

A

Frequently occurs during or after lactation

Most common benign breast lesion in lactating women

596
Q

What is the the pathophysiology of a galactocele

A

Obstruction of lactiferous duct → distention of the duct due to collection of milk and epithelial cells → cyst formation

597
Q

What are the clinical features of a galactocele

A

Firm, nontender mass, typically located in the sub-areolar region
Pain suggests secondary infection.

598
Q

How is a galactocele diagnosed

A

Primarily a clinical diagnosis

Fine needle aspiration: milky substance (diagnostic and therapeutic)

Ultrasound

  • Complex mass
  • Findings depend on the fat and water content of the cyst

Mammography (rarely indicated): Galactoceles may appear as an indeterminate mass or a mass with the classic fat-fluid level.

599
Q

What are the differentials in a suspected galactoceles

A

Pseudolipoma
Cystic mass with fat fluid level
Pseudohamartoma

600
Q

How is a galactocele treated

A

Usually not necessary as most spontaneously resolve

Repeated needle aspiration or surgical excision for symptomatic cysts

601
Q

WHat is the prognosis of a galactocele

A

Usually good

No increased risk of subsequent breast cancer

602
Q

What is superficial thrombophlebitis of the breast

A

AKA Mondor disease

Thrombophlebitis of the superficial veins of the breast and/or anterior chest wall

603
Q

What is the aetiology of Mondor disease

A

Idiopathic
Iatrogenic (e.g., breast surgery, breast biopsy, radiation therapy)
Traumatic (e.g., tight brassiere use, strenuous exercise)

604
Q

What are the clinical features of Mondor disease

A

Sudden onset
Painful, thickened, cord-like lump or mass
Overlying erythema of the superficial veins of the breast and/or anterior chest wall

605
Q

How is mondor disease diagnosed

A

Clinical features and history

Imaging: ultrasound and/or mammography to rule out other underlying conditions

606
Q

How is mondor disease managed

A

Conservative measures:

  • Warm compressed
  • NSAIDs
  • Avoidance of irritating clothes
607
Q

What is the prognosis of mondor disease

A

Benign and self-limited disease

608
Q

What is a breast cyst

A

A well-circumscribed collection of fluid within the breast that is influenced by hormonal changes

609
Q

What is the epidemiology of breast cysts

A

25% of all breast masses
Most common in premenopausal women
Peak incidence: 35–50 years of age

610
Q

How are breast cysts classified

A

Solitary breast cyst (most common): a single, circumscribed collection of fluid within the breast

Multiple breast cysts: multiple, circumscribed collections of fluid within the breast

Simple breast cysts: smooth, thin, regularly shaped walls that are completely filled with fluid

Complicated breast cysts: thin-walled cysts filled with fluid and debris

Complex breast cysts : thick-walled or septated masses, with intracystic or other solid components

611
Q

What are the clincial features of a breast cyst diagnosis

A

Single or multiple breast masses
May be painful or tender
Variable size (microcysts, gross cyst, clusters) and texture (smooth, soft, firm)
Usually movable

612
Q

How are breast cysts diagnosed

A

The preferred initial study depends on the woman’s age.

Breast ultrasound and/or mammography:

  • Simple cyst
    • Imperceptible wall, well-defined, round, anechoic lesion with posterior acoustic enhancement and no solid components
    • Up to 1–2 inches (2.5–5 cm) in size
    • Other findings include peripheral calcifications and reverberation artifacts
  • Complicated cysts:
    • Thin-walled, homogeneous hypoechoic mass or fluid levels, with or without posterior acoustic enhancement
  • Complex cysts:
    • Thick-walled, thickly septated, or intracystic mass with irregular or lobulated margins and posterior acoustic enhancement due to the presence of cystic components

Other: MRI

613
Q

How are breast cysts managed

A

Simple and complicated cysts:

  • Mostly benign; do not require intervention
  • If the cyst is large, painful, and/or has signs of infection: ultrasound-guided fine-needle aspiration
  • Rarely, complicated cysts are diagnosed as probably benign: clinical follow up in 6 months and repeat imaging

Complex cysts:

  • May develop into breast cancer
  • Ultrasound-guided core needle biopsy
614
Q

What is mastalgia

A

Breast discomfort or tenderness caused by physiological changes (e.g., hormonal effects) or disease (e.g., breast cancer).

615
Q

What is the epidemiology of mastalgia

A

Peak age: 30–50 years of age

Approx. 70% of women are affected during their lifetime.

616
Q

How is mastalgia classified

A

Cyclical mastalgia:

  • Primary breast pain associated with the menstrual cycle
  • Aetiology: hormonal fluctuations of the menstrual cycle, postmenopausal hormone therapy, and oral contraceptive use

Noncyclical mastalgia:

  • Primary breast pain not associated with the menstrual cycle
  • Aetiology: breast lesions or cysts, chest wall trauma, hormone replacement therapy, pendulous breasts, previous breast surgery

Extramammary pain:

  • Secondary breast pain referred from extramammary locations
  • Aetiology: chest wall or spinal disorders and trauma
617
Q

What are the clinical features of mastalgia

A

Cyclical mastalgia:

  • Often bilateral, diffuse breast pain
  • Typically, most severe in the upper outer quadrant of the breasts
  • May radiate to the medial aspect of the upper arm
  • Usually worsens the week prior to the onset of menstruation

Noncyclical mastalgia:

  • Unilateral or bilateral breast pain, usually located over the costal cartilages
  • Sharp or burning pain and/or soreness

Extramammary pain:
-Depends on the underlying condition

618
Q

How is mastalgia diagnosed

A

Medical history (e.g., hormone therapy, trauma, surgical history, risk factors for breast cancer)

Physical examination:

  • Focused breast examination
  • Look for signs of infection (e.g., erythema, swelling, pain)
  • Rule out signs suggestive of breast malignancy (e.g., skin changes, mass, nipple discharge)

Imaging:

  • Breast ultrasound and/or mammography
  • Indications: depend on the patient’s age and the presence of findings suggestive of malignancy
    • Women with cyclical breast pain usually do not require imaging.
    • Women with noncyclical or focal breast pain that is not extramammary should undergo breast imaging.
  • – < 30 years of age: ultrasound
  • – 30–39 years of age: ultrasound and/or mammography
  • – ≥ 40 years of age: ultrasound and/mammography
619
Q

How is mastalgia treated

A
First-line treatment:
Conservative
-Provide reassurance
-Recommend well-fitting sports bra
-Use of warm or cold compresses
-Analgesia (e.g., acetaminophen, NSAIDs)

Second-line treatment: for patients with persistent (> 6 months of conservative treatment) or severe symptoms

  • Tamoxifen
  • Postmenopausal hormone therapy should be decreased or discontinued if it is the cause of breast pain.
620
Q

What is the prognosis in diagnosed mastalgia

A

Cyclical mastalgia:

  • Usually resolves spontaneously within 3 months of onset
  • Typically relapses and remits

Noncyclical mastalgia:

  • Resolves spontaneously in approx. 50% of patients
  • Usually responds poorly to treatment