Paediatrics notes Flashcards

1
Q

Define stillbirth

A

Foetus born with no signs of life >/= 24 weeks of pregnancy

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2
Q

Give examples of teratogenic medications

A

Retinoids
Warfarin
Sodium valproate

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3
Q

Why should eating liver be avoided in pregnancy?

A

high concentration of vitamin A

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4
Q

Which marker is raised in neural tube defects?

A

Raised maternal serum alphafetoprotein with spina bifida or anencepahly (but US is now increasingly used)

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5
Q

How to screen for Down syndrome

A

Risk estimate calculated from age, biochemical markers combined with US screening for nuchal translucency. Aim is to detect >75% with <3% false positive rate. If high risk, chromosome analysis is offered.

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6
Q

In utero treatment of foetal SVT

A

Digoxin or flecainide (via the mother)

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7
Q

Treatment of rhesus isoimmunisation

A

In utero foetal blood transfusion directly into umbilical vein
Foetuses at risk can be detected by looking at maternal antibodies

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8
Q

What is perinatal isoimmune thrombocytopenia, and how is it treated?

A

When anti-platelet antibodies from the mother cross the placenta and cause thrombocytopenia in the foetus.
Can be treated with IVIg.

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9
Q

Effects of pre-eclampsia on pregnancy

A

May require preterm delivery
Can cause maternal eclampsia or a cerebrovascular accident due to high BP
Associated with placental insufficiency and growth restriction

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10
Q

Placental insufficiency and IUGR

A

Growth-restricted foetuses require close monitoring
Absence or reversal of blood flow velocity in the umbilical or middle cerebral artery during diastole is associated with increased risk of morbidity from hypoxic damage to the gut or brain, or of intrauterine death

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11
Q

Multiple births are associated with:

A

Preterm labour (median gestation for twins is 37 weeks)
IUGR
Congenital abnormalities
Twin-twin transfusion syndromes in monochorionic twins
Complicated deliveries

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12
Q

Pregnancy complications associated with poorly controlled maternal diabetes

A
Polyhydramnios
Pre-eclampsia
Increased rate of foetal loss
Congenital malformations
Late unexplained intrauterine death

Women with insulin-dependent diabetes find it harder to maintain good glycaemic control during pregnancy and have higher insulin requirementa

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13
Q

Foetal problems associated with maternal diabetes

A

Congenital malformations
IUGR
Macrosomia (Maternal hyperglycaemia causes foetal hyperglycaemia. Insulin does not cross the placenta, so the foetus produced its own insulin, promoting growth) –> associated with increased risk of cephalopelvic disproportion, birth asphyxia, shoulder dystocia and brachial plexus injury

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14
Q

Neonatal problems associated with maternal diabetes

A

Hypoglycaemia (transient due to foetal hyperinsulinaemia)
Respiratory distress syndrome
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
Polycythaemia

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15
Q

In what ethnic population is gestational diabetes more common?

A

Asian and Afro-Caribbean women

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16
Q

Maternal hypothyroidism

A

In mothers with Graves disease, 1-2% of babies are hyperthyroid, due to circulating TSH
Foetal hyperthyroidism may be noticed by detecting tachycardia on the CTG trace and a foetal goitre may be seen on ultrasound

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17
Q

SLE with anti-phospholipid syndrome is associated with:

A
Recurrent miscarriage
IUGR
Pre-eclampsia
Placental abruption
Preterm delivery

Some infants born to mother with anti-Ro and anti-La antibodies will develop neonatal lupus syndrome (characterised by a self-limiting rash and (rarely) a heart block)

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18
Q

Maternal autoimmune thrombocytopenic purpura

A

The foetus may become thrombocytopenic because maternal IgG antibodies cross the placenta and damage foetal platelets–> could increase risk of intracranial haemorrhage following birth trauma
infants with severe thrombocytopenia or petechiae at birth should be given IVIg

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19
Q

Clinical features of foetal alcohol syndrome

A
Growth restriction
Characteristics face (saddle-shaped nose, maxillary hypoplasia, absent philtrum between nose and upper lip, short and thin upper lip)
Developmental delay
Cardiac defects
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20
Q

Risks of cocaine abuse during pregnancy

A

Placental abruption
Preterm delivery
Cerbral infarction

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21
Q

Risks with therapeutic drugs used during pregnancy

A

Opioid analgesia- may suppress respiration at birth
Epidrual anaesthesia- may cause maternal pyrexia during labour (which can be difficult to distinguish from a fever due to infective cause)
Sedatives e.g. diazpeam - may cause sedaiton, hypotherma and hypotension in the newborn
Oxytocin and Prostaglandin F2- may cuase hyperstimulation of the uterus leading to foetal hypoxia
IV fluids - may cause neonatal hyponatremia

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22
Q

How is maternal rubella infection confirmed?

A

Serologically

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23
Q

Triad of rubella infection in the newborn

A

Cataracts
Deafness
Congenital heart disease (PDA)

Risk and extent of foetal damage depends on gestational age at onset of maternal infection (infection <8 weeks causes cataracts, defaness and congenital heart disease in 80%, 30% foetuses infected at 13-16 weeks have impaired hearing, no consequences after 20 weeks)

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24
Q

Management of rubella in pregnancy

A

Notify the Health Protection Unit
HPU may also test for Parvovirus B19
There is NO EFFECTIVE TREATMENT for rubella: recommend rest, adequate fluid intake and paracetamol for symptomatic relief
Stay off work and avoid contact with other pregnant women for 6 days after initial development of rash
Once confirmed, refer urgently to obstetrics for risk assessment and counselling

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25
Q

What is the most common congenital infection?

A

CMV

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26
Q

Effects of CMV infection on neonate

A

90% are normal at birth and develop normally
5% will have clinical featuers (e.g. hepatosplenomegaly, petechiae) at birth and most of these babies will have neurodevelopmental disabilities, such as sensorineural hearing loss, cerebral palsy, epilepsy and cognitive impairment
5% develop problems later in life mainly sensorineural hearing loss

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27
Q

Effects of CMV infection on mother

A

Infection of the pregnant woman is usually asymptomatic

Pregnant women are not screened for CMV and there is no vaccine

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28
Q

Management of newborn infants with CMV

A

IV ganciclovir
OR
Oral valganciclovir

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29
Q

Clinical features of Toxoplasmosis infection in infants

A

Most infected infants are asymptomatic- at risk of developing chorioretinitis in adulthood
10% will have clinical features: retinopathy (due to acute fundal chorioretinitis), cerebral calcification, hydroecephalus –> these infants usually have long-term neurological disabilities

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30
Q

Management of newborns with toxoplasmosis

A

1st line: Pyrimethamine + sulfadiazine + calcium folinate

Adjunct: prednisolone

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31
Q

What is the risk of varicella zoster infection in the mother to the infant?

A

If the mother develops chicken pox in the first half of pregnancy (<20 weeks), there is a <2% risk of the foetus developing severe scarring of the skin and also ocular and neurological damage and digital dysplasia
If the mother develops chicken pox within 5 days before or 2 days after delivery, when the foetus is unprotected by maternal antibodies and viral dose is high, about 25% will develop a vesicular rash and mortality can be as high as 30%

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32
Q

Management of maternal chicken pox infection

A

Exposed susceptible mothers can be protected with VZIG and treated with aciclovir

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33
Q

Clinical features of congenital syphilis

A

Characteristic rash on soles of feet and hand and bone lesions

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34
Q

What changes occur intra-extrauterine?

A

Before birth, the blood vessels to and from the lungs are constricted, so most of the blood from the right side of the heart will pass through the ductus arteriosus into the aorta, and some will flow across the foramen ovale

Shortly before and during labour, lung liquid production is reduced

During descent through the birth canal, the infant’s chest is squeezed and some lung fluid is drained

Several thermal, tactile and hormonal stimuli (mainly an increase in catecholamine) to initiate breathing

The first breath takes place an average of 6 seconds after delivery

Lung expansion occurs due to intrathoracic negative pressure

Regular breathing is usually established after 30 seconds

After a the infant gasps, the rest of the lung fluid is absorbed into the lymphatic and pulmonary circulation

Pulmonary expansion leads to reduced pulmonary resistance and an increase in pulmonary blood flow

The flow of oxygenated blood through the ductus arteriosus leads to closure of the duct

IMPORTANT: in babies born via an elective Caesarean section, their chest would not have been squeezed so it may take longer for the fluid to be drained from the lungs

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35
Q

Primary apnoea

A

Some infants will not breathe at birth - this may be due to asphyxia (lack of oxygen during labour or delivery)

If a foetus is deprived of oxygen in utero, the foetus will attempt to breathe

BUT, as they are still in utero, this attempt will be unsuccessful - this is called primary apnoea

During the primary apnoea, heart rate is maintained

If oxygen deprivation continues, primary apnoea is followed by irregular gasping and then a second period of apnoea (secondary or terminal apnoea)

During terminal apnoea, the heart rate and blood pressure will fall

If the infant is delivered after the terminal apnoea, they will need help with lung expansion (e.g. positive pressure ventilation or tracheal tube)

The foetus rarely experiences continuous asphyxia except in the case of placental abruption or complete occlusion of umbilical blood flow in a cord prolapse

More commonly, asphyxia during labour and delivery is intermittent (e.g. due to frequent uterine contractions)

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36
Q

Define asymmetrical growth restriction

A

Weight or abdominal circumference lies on a lower centile than that of the head

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37
Q

When does asymmetrical growth restriction occur?

A

When the placenta fails to provide adequate nutrition late in the pregnancy but brain growth is relatively spared at the expense of liver glycogen and skin fat

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38
Q

What are the associated disorders with asymmetrical growth restriction?

A

Utero-placental dysfunction secondary to maternal pre-eclampsia, multiple pregnancy and maternal smoking

These infants tend to put on weight rapidly after birth

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39
Q

Define symmetrical growth restriction

A

Head circumference is equally reduced

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40
Q

What is suggested by symmetrical growth restriction?

A

Prolonged period of poor intrauterine growth starting in early pregnancy

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41
Q

Causes of symmetrical growth restriction

A

Usually due to a small but normal foetus
Could be due to a foetal chromosomal disorder, congenital infection, maternal drug/alcohol abuse or a chronic medical condition
These infants are more likely to be permanently small

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42
Q

What does intrauterine growth restriction predispose infants to?

A

Intrauterine hypoxia and unexplained intrauterine death
Asphyxia during labour and delivery

After birth, growth restricted babies are liable to:
Hypothermia (Large surface area)
Hypoglycaemia (low fat and glycogen stores)
Hypocalcaemia
Polycythaemia

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43
Q

Potential consequences of large for gestational age babies

A

> 90th centile for weight for their age

Birth asphyxia from a difficult delivery
Breathing difficulty from an enlarged tongue in Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome (overgrowth syndrome)
Hypoglycaemia (due to hyperinsulinism)
Polycythaemia

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44
Q

Why are babies given vitamin K at birth?

A

Prevent haemorrhagic disease of the newborn

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45
Q

Risk factors for DDH

A

Breech presentation

6x more common in females

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46
Q

Why is early recognition of DDH important?

A

Splinting in abduction reduced long-term morbidity

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47
Q

Management of DDH

A

For infants <2 months with normal physical examination without instabililty, observation is recommended with serial examinations and US on monthly basis
Hip abduction orthosis (splint) in Pavlik harness if the dysplasia persists or worsens (serial follow up and plain X-ray evaluation is recommended after 6 months of age)
Breech delivery: if no DDH at neonatal examination, arrange ultrasound scan at 6 weeks

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48
Q

What is the major risk in haemorrhagic disease of the newborn?

A

Some may suffer from intracranial haemorrhage which could leave them permanently disabled

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49
Q

Why are infants of mothers taking anticonvulsants at increased risk of haemorrhagic disease?

A

Anticonvulsants impair synthesis of vitamin-K dependent clotting factors

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50
Q

What does the guthrie test screen for?

A

PKU
Hypothryoidism
Haemoglobinopathies (sickle cell and thalassemia)
CF (measuring serum immunoreactive trypsin, which is raised if there is pancreatic duct obstruction –> DNA analysis also performed to reduced the false-positive rate)
MCAD deficiency

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51
Q

How is hearing screened in newborns?

A

Evoked Otoacoustic emission: earphone palced over the ear and a sound is emitted which evoked an echo or emission from the ear if cochlear function is normal. IF a normal result is not achieved, move on to:

Automated Auditory Brainstem Response Audiometry: A computer will analyse the EEG waveforms evoked in response to a series of clicks

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52
Q

Hypoxic-ischaemic encephalopathy

A

In perinatal asphyxia, gas exchange, either placental or pulmonary, is compromised leading to cardiorespiratory depression. This leads to hypoxia, hypercapnia and metabolic acidosis. Reduced cardiac output leads to hypoxic-ischaemic injury to the brain and other organs.

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53
Q

Significant hypoxic events which may lead to HIE in neonates?

A

Failure of gas exchange across placenta (excessive or prolonged uterine contractions, placental abruption, ruptures uterus)
Interruption of umbilical blood flow (e.g. cord compression including shoulder dystocia, cord prolapse)
Inadequate maternal placental perfusion
Compromised foetus (anaemia, IUGR)
Failure of cardiorespiratory adaptation at birth (failure to breathe)

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54
Q

Clinical features of HIE

A

Clinical manifestations of of HIE start up to 48 hours after asphyxia and can be graded:
MILD= infant is irritable and responds excessively to stimulation, may have staring eyes, hyperventilation and impaired feeding
MODERATE= infant shows marked abnormalities of tone and movement, cannot feed and may have seizures
SEVERE= No spontaneous movements or response to pain, tone in limbs may fluctuate between hypotonia to hypertonia, seizures are often prolonged and refractor to treatment, multi-organ failure present

NB: the neuronal injury in HIE may be immediate from primary neuronal death or may be delayed from reperfusion injury causing secondary neuronal death

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55
Q

Prognosis of HIE

A

With mild HIE, full recovery can be expected
Even infants with moderate HIE, who have recovered fully on neurological examination and are feeding normally by 2 weeks of age have an excellent long-term prognosis
Sever HIE has a mortality of 30-40%. Of the survivors, 80% have neurodevelopmental disabilities, particularly cerebral palsy.
If MRI shows significant abnormalities at 4-14 days, there is a very high risk of later cerebral palsy

Although HIE usually occurs antenatally or during delivery/labour, it can occur postnatally or be caused by a neonatal condition (e.g. kernicterus)

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56
Q

What is the difference between a caput succadaneum and cephalhaematoma (both types of extracranial haemorrhage)?

A

Both are potential injuries sustained during birth

Caput Succedaneum - bruising and oedema of the presenting part extending beyond the margins of the skull bones (resolves within a few days)

Cephalhaematoma - haematoma from bleeding below the periosteum, confined within the margins of the skull sutures. Usually involves the parietal bone (resolves over several weeks)

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57
Q

What is a chignon?

A

Oedema and bruising from Ventouse delivery

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58
Q

What potential injuries may be sustained during birth?

A
Extracranial haemorrhage
Chignon
Bruising
Abrasion
Forceps marks
Subaponeurotic haemorrhage
Nerve palsies (brachial nerve palsies result from traction to the brachial plexus nerve roots. This can occur during breech delivery or shoulder dystocia. Upper nerve root (C5+C6) injury results in Erb's palsy- can be accompanied by a phrenic nerve palsy which results in an elevated diaphragm. facial nerve palsies may occur from compression of the facial nerve against the mother's spine. Most palsies will resolve spontaneously)
Fractures
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59
Q

Fractures during birth

A

Clavicle= usually from shoulder dystocia. A snap may be heard during delivery and the infant may show reduced arm movement on the affected side. A lump may be noticed due to callous formation. Prognosis is excellent- no specific treatment needed.

Humerus/Femur= Humerus fractures tend to occur with shoulder dystocia. Femoral fractures more likely with breech deliveries. Infants may show some deformity, reduced movement of the limb and pain on movement. Fractures heal rapidly with immobilisation.

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60
Q

What is respiratory distress syndrome also known as?

A

Hyaline membrane disease

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61
Q

What causes respiratory distress syndrome?

A

Surfactant deficiency–> widespread alveolar collapse and inadequate gas exchange

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62
Q

Risk factors for respiratory distress syndrome

A

Preterm baby

Maternal diabetes

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63
Q

Treatment for respiratory distress syndrome

A

Glucocorticoids given antenatally to mother if preterm delivery is anticipated

In babies born with RDS, artifical surfactant can be instilled into the lungs directly or with a tracheal tube

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64
Q

Clinical signs of respiratory distress syndrome

A

Seen within 4 hours of birth

Tachypnoea (>60breaths/minute)
Laboured breathing with chest wall recession (particularly sternal and subcostal indrawing) and nasal flaring
Expiratory grunting (attempting to create positive airway pressure during expiration and maintain functional residual capacity)
Cyanosis if severe

Diffuse granular or ‘ground glass’ appearance of lungs and air bronchogram on CXR. Indistinct heart border/obscured heart border with severe disease.

In RDS, air from overly distended alveoli may track into the interstitium, resulting in pulmonary interstitial emphysema (PIE)

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65
Q

Management (NICE guidelines) of respiratory distress syndrome

A

Oxygen and ventilation
CPAP or artificial ventilation via a tracheal tube may be necessary
Other options: mechanical ventilation, high-flow humidified oxygen therapy

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66
Q

What is a major risk of ventilation therapy for RDS?

A

In about 10% of infants ventilated for RDS, air will leak into the pleural cavity and cause a pneumothorax

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67
Q

Clinical signs of neonatal pneumothorax

A

Increased oxygen demands
Breath sounds and chest expansion reduced on affected side

A pneumothorax can be demonstrated by transillumination

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68
Q

Management of ventilation-induced pneumothorax

A

Immediate decompression + oxygen therapy + chest drain if tension pneumothorax

To prevent pneumothoraces, infants should be ventilated with the lowest pressures that provide adequate chest movement and blood gases

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69
Q

What can cause pneumothoraces in term infants?

A

Can occur spontaneously or be secondary to:
Meconium aspiration
Respiratory distress syndrome
Complication of ventilation

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70
Q

Apnoea–> bradycardia –> desaturation

A

Very common in very low birthweight infants until 32 weeks’ gestation. Can occur when an infant stops breathing over 20-30 seconds or when breathing continues against a closed glottis.
Tend sot be caused by immaturity or central respiratory control and breathing will usually start again after gentle physical stimulation
Caffeine may also help stimulate breathing
CPAP may be needed if apnoeic episodes are frequent

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71
Q

Sinister underlying causes of apnoea in infants

A
Hypoglycaemia
Infection
Anaemia
Hypoxia
Electrolyte disturbances
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72
Q

What can hypothermia cause in the infant?

A

Increased energy consumption –> hypoxia, hypoglycaemia –> failure to gain weight and increased mortality

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73
Q

Why are preterm infants particularly susceptible to hypothermia?

A

Large SA:volume ratio
Thin skin that is heat permeable (transepidermal water loss)
Little subcutaneous fat for insulation
Often nursed naked and cannot conserve heat by curling up or generate heat by shivering

Preterm babies are kept in incubators to closely control the temperature and humidity

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74
Q

In which population of infants is shunting of blood across ductus arteriosus from left to right side of heart more common in?

A

Infants with respiratory distress syndrome

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75
Q

Clinical features of patent ductus arteriosus

A

Can be asymptomatic

Can cause apnoea and bradycardia
Increased oxygen requirement
Difficulty in weaning infant from artificial ventilation
Bounding pulse (due to increased pulse pressure)
Prominent precordial impulse
Systolic murmur

Echocardiography can be used to assess infant’s circulation

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76
Q

Management of patent ductus arteriosus?

A

Duct can be closed using:
IV indomethacin
Prostacyclin synthetase inhibitor
Ibuprofen

If pharmacological methods are unsuccessful, surgical ligation or percutaneous catheter device closure may be used

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77
Q

At what gestational age are infants mature enough to suck and swallow milk?

A

35-36 weeks

Less mature infants will need feeding via an orogastric or nasogastric tube

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78
Q

What needs to be supplemented into the diets of very preterm infants?

A

Phosphate

May need supplementation of protein, calories and calcium

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79
Q

How is parenteral nutrition administered for very immature or sick infants?

A

Central venous catheter (e.g. PICC line)

NB: PICC lines carry a significant risk of septicaemia (and other risks such as thrombosis)

NB: cows’ milk formula increases the risk of necrotising enterocolitis

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80
Q

Why do preterm babies have low iron stores/are at risk of iron deficiency?

A

Iron is usually transferred to the foetus during the last trimester

Iron supplements are usually started at several weeks of age

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81
Q

Why are preterm infants at increased infection risks?

A

IgG is mainly transferred across the placenta in the last trimester
Additionally, infection in and around the cervix is often a reason for preterm labour

Most infections in preterm infants occur after several days and are nosocomial (e.g. indwelling catheters, artificial ventilation)

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82
Q

How can haemorrhages in the brain of infants be visualised?

A

Ultrasound scans

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83
Q

Where do brain haemorrhages occur in preterm babies?

A

Usually occur in the germinal matrix above the caudate nucleus (contains a fragile network of blood vessels)

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84
Q

Risk factors for brain haemorrhages in preterm infants

A

More common following perinatal asphyxia and in infants with severe RDS
Pneumothorax is a major risk factor for brain haemorrhage

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85
Q

What is the most severe type of brain haemorrhage in a preterm infant?

A

The MOST SEVERE type of haemorrhage is a unilateral haemorrhagic infarction involving the parenchyma of the brain - usually resulting in hemiplegia

A large intraventricular haemorrhage may impair the drainage and reabsorption of CSF, leading to an accumulation of CSF
This may resolve spontaneously or may progress to hydrocephalus
Hydrocephalus may lead to separation of cranial sutures, a rapid increase in head circumference and the anterior fontanelle to become tense
A ventriculoperitoneal shunt may be required, but symptomatic relief by relieving CSF via a lumbar puncture or ventricular tap may be sufficient
Around 50% of infants with progressive post-haemorrhagic ventricular dilatation have cerebral palsy

Periventricular white matter brain injury may occur following infarction or inflammation and may occur in the absence of haemorrhage
This may resolve spontaneously
However, if cystic lesions become visible on ultrasound 2-4 weeks later, there is definite loss of white matter

The presence of multiple bilateral cysts is called periventricular leukomalacia (PVL) - it is associated with an 80-90% risk of spastic diplegia
Definition of Spastic Diplegia: a form of cerebral palsy that manifests as especially high tightness or stiffness in the muscles of the lower extremities

NOTE: PVL and intraventricular haemorrhage could both occur in the absence of clinical signs

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86
Q

Necrotising enterocolitis associations

A

Associated with bacterial infection of ischaemic bowel wall

Preterm infants fed with cows’ milk formula are more likely to develop this condition

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87
Q

Clinical features of necrotising enterocolitis

A
Infant stops tolerating feeds
Milk is aspirated from the stomach
Vomiting (may be bile-stained)
Abdominal distension
Rectal bleeding (sometimes)

The infant may develop shock and require artificial ventilation

Characteristic X-ray features:
Distended loops of bowel
Thickening of the bowel wall with intramural gas
Gas in the portal tract

The disease may progress to bowel perforation, which can be detected by X-ray or transillumination of the abdomen

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88
Q

Management of necrotising enterocolitis

A

Stop oral feeding
Broad-spectrum antibiotics to cover both aerobic and anaerobic organisms
Surgery if bowel perforation/necrosis
Parenteral nutrition is always needed and artificial ventilation and circulatory support are often needed

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89
Q

Consequences of necrotising enterocolitis

A

Long-term consequences include the development of strictures and malabsorption if extensive bowel resection is necessary

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90
Q

What is retinopathy of prematurity?

A

Affects developing blood vessels at the junction of the vascular and non-vascularised retina, usually due to uncontrolled use of high concentrations of oxygen

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91
Q

What are the consequences of retinopathy of prematurity?

A

May progress to retinal detachment, fibrosis and blindness

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92
Q

What is bronchopulmonary dysplasia?

A

Infants who still have oxygen requirement at a post-menstrual age of 36 weeks are described as having bronchopulmonary dysplasia (or chronic lung disease)

Lung damage occurs as a result of artificial ventilation, oxygen toxicity and infection

CXR may show widespread areas of opacification, sometimes with cystic changes

Subsequent pertussis or RSV infection could lead to respiratory failure

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93
Q

Management of bronchopulmonary dysplasia

A

Some infants will need prolonged ventilation, but most will be weaned onto CPAP and then additional ambient oxygen
Corticosteroids may facilitate earlier weaning (although there are concerns about abnormal neurodevelopment)

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94
Q

Problems after discharge in preterm infants

A

Additional iron supplementation needs to be given until 6 months corrected age

Increased risk of:
Poor growth
Pneumonia/wehezing/asthma
Bronchiolitis from RSV infection
Bronchopulmonary dysplasia
Gastro-oesophageal reflux
Complex nutritional and GI disorders (e.g. following necrotising enterocolitis)
Inguinal hernias

About 5-10% of very low birthweight babies develop cerebral palsy, but the most common impairments are learning difficulties

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95
Q

Why are neonates predisposed to developing jaundice?

A

Over 50% of newborns become visibly jaundiced, due to:
Marked physiological release of haemoglobin from the breakdown of red blood cells because of the high Hb concentration at birth
Red cell life span of newborn infants (70 days) is considerably shorter than that of adults (120 days)
Hepatic bilirubin metabolism is less efficient in the first few days of life

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96
Q

Why is it important to recognise neonatal jaundice?

A

May be a sign of another disease (e.g. haemolytic anaemia)

Unconjugated bilirubin can get deposited in the brain, particularly in the basal ganglia, causing kernicterus

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97
Q

Define kernicterus

A

Encephalopathy resulting from the deposition of unconjugated bilirubin in the basal ganglia and brainstem nuclei

It may occur when the level of unconjugated bilirubin exceeds the albumin-binding capacity of the blood- free bilirubin is fat-soluble, so it can cross the blood-brain barrier.

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98
Q

Acute clinical manifestations of kernicterus

A

Lethargy
Poor feeding

In severe cases:
Irritability
Increased muscle tone causing the baby to lie with an arched back (opisthotonos)
Seizures
Coma
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99
Q

Potential consequences of kernicterus

A

Infants who survive may develop choreoathetoid cerebral palsy (due to damage to the basal ganglia), learning difficulties and sensorineural deafness

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100
Q

At what level of bilirubin do babies become clinically jaundiced?

A

Around 80mcM/L

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101
Q

What is the likely cause of jaundice <24 hours of age?

A

Usually due to haemolysis:

Rhesus haemolytic disease: affected infants are usually identified antenatally. Severely affected infants will have anaemia, hydrops and hepatosplenomegaly with rapidly developing jaundice

ABO incompatibility: Most ABO antibodies are IgM and do not cross the placenta. However, some O group women have an IgG anti-A-haemolysin in the blood, which can cross the placenta and haemolyse the red cells of a group A infant. Jaundice doesnt tend to be as bad as with rhesus disease and hepatosplenomegaly is absent. Coombs test positive.

G6PD deficiency: Parents of affected infants should be given a list of drugs that they should avoid that may precipitate haemolysis

Spherocytosis

Congenital infection

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102
Q

What are the likely causes of jaundice between 2 days - 2 weeks of age?

A

Physiological jaundice

Breastmilk jaundice: Unconjugated

Dehydration: Poor milk intake. In some infants, IV fluids may be needed.

Infection: a baby with an infection may develop unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia from poor fluid intake, haemolysis, reduced hepatic function and an increase in enterohepatic circulaiton.

Bruising and polycythaemia can exacerbate jaundice

Criggler-Najjar syndrome (deficient or absent UGT)

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103
Q

What are the likely causes of jaundiced at >2 weeks age?

A

Biliary atresia
Neonatal hepatitis syndrome

However, most cases are unconjugated:
breast milk jaundice is most common
Infection
Congenital hypothydroidism

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104
Q

Where does jaundiced usually begin on the body?

A

Tends to start on the head and face and spread down the trunk and limbs

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105
Q

When should jaundice be checked for in a neonate?

A

It is recommended that in the UK all babies should be checked clinically for jaundice in the first 72 hours of life. If clinically jaundiced, a transcutaneous measurement should be made.

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106
Q

Why can serial measurements of bilirubin be taken in an infant?

A

The rate at which bilirubin rises tends to be linear until it plateaus, so serial measurements can be plotted on a chart and used to anticipate the need for treatment

Drugs that displace bilirubin from albumin (e.g. sulphonamides and diazepam) should be avoided in newborn infants

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107
Q

Assessment of neonatal jaundice

A
Visually inspect baby in natural light
Measure bilirubin (use serum bilirubin if jaundice developed in the first 24 hours of life or if the gestational age if <35 weeks. Use transcutaneous bilirubinometer if >35 weeks or with jaundice that develops after first 24 hours- if result >250micromol/L, measure serum bilirubin)

Assess risk of developing kernicterus: increased risk if serum bilirubin >340 in babies >37 weeks gestation, rapidly rising bilirubin >8.5 micromol/L per hour, clinical features of acute bilirubin encephalopathy
Serum bilirubin should be measured every 6 hours until it drops below the treatment threshold or becomes stable/falling

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108
Q

Investigations for neonatal jaundice

A

Measure haematocrit
Blood group of mother and baby
Coombs- if mother is Rh -ve, find out whether mother received prophylactic anti-D immunoglobulin during pregnancy

Consider:
FBC and blood film (e.g. looking for hereditary spherocytosis)
Blood G6PD levels (consider ethnic origins)
Microbiological cultures of blood, urine and/or CSF (if suspected infection)

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109
Q

Treatment of neonatal jaundice

A

Phototherapy 1st line (light from blue-green band of visible spectrum converts conjugated bilirubin into harmless water-soluble pigment that is excreted in the urine) –> monitor baby’s temperature during phototherapy and protect the baby’s eyes. Phototherapy can be stopped once serum bilirubin is >50micromol/L below threshold for treatment. Check for rebound hyperbilirubinaemia by measuring serum bilirubin 12-18 hours after stopping phototherapy

Exchange transfusion
IVIG

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110
Q

What is the most common cause of respiratory distress in term infants?

A

Transient tachypnoea of the newborn, caused by delay in resorption of lung liquid

Usually settles within the first day of life

More common in birth by C-section

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111
Q

In what percentage of babies is meconium passed before birth?

A

8-20%

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112
Q

Mechanism of action of meconium aspiration

A

Meconium may be passed in response to foetal hypoxia- asphyxiated infants may start gasping before delivery and aspirate the meconium.
Meconium is a lung irritant and will cause both mechanical obstruction and chemical pneumonitis, and it predisposes to infection

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113
Q

Clinical features of meconium aspiration

A

Lungs become overinflated and have patches of collapse and consolidation.
There is a high incidence of air leak, leading to pneumothorax and pneumomediastinum

Artificial ventilation is often needed
Infants may develop persistent pulmonary hypertension

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114
Q

Management of meconium aspiration

A

If normal term infant with meconium-stained amniotic fluid but no history of GBS, observation is recommended

If there are risk factors or laboratory findings that are suggestive of infection, consider antibiotics (IV ampicillin and gentamicin)

Oxygen therapy and non-invasive ventilation (e.g. (CPAP) may be used in more severe cases)

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115
Q

Risk factors for pneumonia in infants

A

Prolonged rupture of membranes
Chorioamnionitis
Low birthweight

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116
Q

Treatment of pneumonia in infants

A

Broad-spectrum antibiotics are started early until the results of the infection screen are available

NB: milk aspiration can also cause respiratory symptoms in the newborn

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117
Q

Associations of persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn

A

Birth asphyxia
Meconium aspiration
Septicaemia
RDS

Can occur as a primary disorder

LIFE THREATENING

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118
Q

Clinical features of persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn

A

High pulmonary vascular resistance leads to right-to-left shunting of blood
Cyanosis occurs soon after birth
CXR will show a normal sized heart but there may be some pulmonary oligaemia

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119
Q

What investigation is required in persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn, and why?

A

Urgent echocardiogram to make sure that the infant does not have a congenital cardiac defect

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120
Q

Management of persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn

A

Most infants will require mechanical ventilation and circulatory support
Inhaled nitric oxide is a potent vasodilator and can be beneficial
Sildenafil has also been introduced recently
High-frequency (oscillatory) ventilation may be useful
ECMO (heart and lung bypass for several days) may be used for severe but reversible causes

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121
Q

How are diaphragmatic hernias detected in infants?

A

Many are diagnosed during antenatal ultrasound screening

Diagnosis is confirmed by X-ray

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122
Q

Presentation of diaphragmatic hernia

A

Usually presents with failure to respond to resuscitation or respiratory distress
In most cases, there is a left-sided herniation of abdominal contents through the posterolateral foramen of the diaphragm- this will cause the apex beat and heart sounds to be displaced to the right, with poor air entry in the left

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123
Q

Management of congenital diaphragmatic hernia

A

Once diagnosed, a large NG tube is passed and suction applied to prevent distension of the intrathoracic bowel. Once stabilised, the hernia will be surgically repaired

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124
Q

Potential consequences of diaphragmatic hernias

A

In most infants, the main consequence is pulmonary hypoplasia- compression by herniated loops of bowel throughout pregnancy prevents lung development in foetus
Hypoplastic lungs are associated with high mortality

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125
Q

Other causes of respiratory distress

A

Heart failure (Femoral arteries must be palpated in all infants with respiratory distress, as coarctation of the aorta and interrupted aortic arch are important causes of heart failure in newborn infants)

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126
Q

Causes of early onset bacterial infection in infants (<48 hours)

A

Bacteria will have either ascended from the birth canal or invaded the amniotic fluid
The foetus becomes infected because the foetal lungs are in direct contact with the infected amniotic fluid
These infants will develop pneumonia and secondary septicaemia/bacteraemia

On the other hand, with congenital viral infections and early-onset infection with Listeria moncytogenes, foetal infection is acquired via the placenta following maternal infection

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127
Q

Risk factors for early-onset infection in infants

A

Prolonged or premature rupture of membranes when chorioamnionitis is clinically evident (e.g. mother having fever during delivery)

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128
Q

Clinical features of early-onset infection in the newborn

A
Respiratory distress
Apnoea
Temperature instability
Vomiting
Poor feeding
Abdominal distension
Jaundice
Neutropenia
Shock
Irritability
Seizures
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129
Q

Investigations for early-onset infection of the newborn

A

CXR
Septic screen
FBC to check for neutropenia
Blood cultures

NB: Acute phase proteins can take 12-24 hours to rise, so a single normal result doesnt rule out infection

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130
Q

Management of early-onset infection of the newborn

A

Antibiotics are started immediately without waiting for culture results
IV antibiotics should cover:
Group B Strep
Listeria monocytogenes
Other Gram +ve organisms (usually with benzylpenicillin or amoxicillin)
Gram -ve organisms (usually with an aminoglycoside such as gentamicin)

If CRPs are negative and the infants appears to have recovered initially, antibiotics can be stopped after 48 hours

If the blood culture is positive or there are any neurological signs, CSF must be examined and cultured

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131
Q

Source of late-onset infection of the newborn

A

Often the infant’s environment
Common in NICU, due to sources of infection such as indwelling catheters, invasive procedures and tracheal tubes

Most common pathogen is coagulase negative staphylococcus (Staph epidermidis)

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132
Q

Suitable regiments for late-onset infection of the newborn

A

Ampicillin + gentamicin/cefotaxime
Flucloxacillin + gentamicin

If resistant, specific antibiotics (e.g. vancomycin for coagulase-negative staphylococci or enterococci) or broad-spectrum antibiotics (e.g. meropenem) may be needed

NB: The use of prolonged or broad-spectrum antibiotics predisposes to invasive fungal infections (e.g. candidiasis)

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133
Q

Investigations for late-onset infection of the newborn

A

Serial measurements of CRP to measure response to therapy

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134
Q

Signs of neonatal meningitis

A

Late signs:
Bulging fontanelle
Hyperextension of the neck and back (opisthotonos)

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135
Q

Treatment of neonatal meningitis

A

Ampicillin or penicillin and a 3rd generation cephalosporin (eg. cefotaxime)

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136
Q

Complications of neonatal meningitis

A

Cerebral abscess

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137
Q

Management of sepsis in children

A

1) Supplemental oxygen
2) Gain IV or IO access and order blood cultures, blood glucose and arterial/venous/capillary gases
3) IV/IO broad-spectrum antibiotics
4) IV fluids (be cautious of fluid overload)
5) Experienced senior clinicians should be involved early
6) Vasoactive inotropic support (e.g. adrenaline) should be considered early- considered if normal parameters are not achieved after >40ml/kg of fluid resus

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138
Q

How will a baby with early-onset sepsis caused by group B streptococcus present?

A

Respiratory distress
Pneumonia

May also cause septicaemia and meningitis

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139
Q

Risk factors for Group B strep infection in colonised mothers

A
Preterm labour
Prolonged rupture of membranes
Maternal fever during labour
Maternal chorioamnionitis
Previously infected infant

Prophylactic intrapartum antibiotics given IV can prevent this infection

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140
Q

Management of group B strep infection in neonates

A

Targeted antibiotic therapy (Benzypenicillin or ampicilolin + gentamicin or cefotaxime or ceftriaxone)
Supportive therapy

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141
Q

How is Listeria monocytogenes transmitted?

A

Transmitted to the mother through food (e.g. unpasteurised milk, soft cheeses, undercooked poultry)

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142
Q

How does LIsteria infection present?

A

mild influenza-like illness in mother
Can pass to the foetus throuhg the placenta

Meconium staining of the amniotic fluid (unusual in preterm infants)
Widespread rash
Septicaemia
Pneumonia
Meningitis
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143
Q

Consequences of maternal infection with Listeria

A

Spontaneous abortion
Preterm delivery
Foetal/neonatal sepsis

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144
Q

Management of Listeria infection

A

Amoxicillin or co-trimoxazole (trimethoprim is contraindicated in pregnancy)
If systemic infection: IV ampicillin or benzylpenicillin with gentamicin

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145
Q

Treatment for neonatal conjunctivitis

A

Cleaning with saline and water is all that is required- will resolve spontaneously

Discharge and redness is suggestive of staph or strep infection and can be treated with a topical ointment (e.g. neomycin)

Gonococcal infection may cause purulent discharge, conjunctival infection and swelling of the eyelids. Discharge should be Gram-stained and cultured. Treatment (usually a 3rd generation cephalosporin) should be started immediately because loss of vision could occur

Chlamydia infection presents with a purulent discharge and swelling of the eyelids. Treated with oral erythromycin for 2 weeks.

Bacterial conjunctivitis treated with opthalmic azithromycin OR erythromycin OR polymyxin

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146
Q

Treatment for umbilical infection

A

Systemic antibiotics if skin around umbilicus becomes inflamed
Sometimes, the umbilicus can be prevented from involuting bi an umbilical granuloma, which can be removed by applying silver nitrate or by applying a ligature around the stump

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147
Q

How is herpes simplex transmitted from mother to infant?

A

During passage through an infected birth canal or occasionally by ascending infection
Often the mother does not know that she is infected
More common in preterm infants

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148
Q

Presentation of neonatal herpes simplex infection

A

Infants present up to 4 weeks of age with:
Localised herpetic lesions on the skin or eye
Or encephalitis
Or disseminated disease

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149
Q

Management of neonatal herpes simplex infection

A

If the mother is identified as having primary disease or delivery genital herpetic lesions at the time of devliery, C-section is indicated
Aciclovir or valaciclovir can be given prophylactically to the baby during the at-risk period

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150
Q

Hepatitis B

A

Infants of mothers who are HbsAg positive should receive the hepatitis V vaccination shortly after birth to prevent vertical infection
Babies are at highest risk of becoming chronic carriers when their mothers are e-antigen positive but have no e-antibodies

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151
Q

Management of hepatitis B infection in neonates

A

Mothers should receive antiviral monotherapy (Tenofovir disoproxil OR lamivudine)
Babies at risk should receive passive immunisation with hepatitis B immunoglobulin AND hepatitis B vaccine

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152
Q

Risk factors for hypoglycaemia in the newborn

A
Particularly likely within the first 24 hours of babies with:
IUGR
Preterm
Born to mothers with diabetes (infants undergo hyperplasia of the islet cells in the pancreas causing high insulin levels)
Large-for-dates
Hypothermia
Polycythaemia
Ill
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153
Q

Hypoglycaemia symptoms in infants

A
Jitteriness
Irritability
Apnoea
Lethargy
Drowsiness
Seizures

During the first 24 hours, many asymptomatic babies will have blood glucose below 2.6mmol/L (optimal level for desirable neurodevelopmental outcomes)
Prolonged, symptomatic hypoglycaemia can cause permanent neurological disability

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154
Q

Management of hypoglycaemia in infants

A

Can be prevented with early and frequent milk feeding
Glucose can be given IV in refractory or severe hypoglycaemia
Glucagon and hydrocortisone can also be given

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155
Q

Neonatal seizures

A

Seizures are unstimulated and usually appear as repetitive, rhythmic movement of the limbs which persist despite restraint and are often accompanied by eye movements or changes in respiration

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156
Q

What investigations are used to confirm and monitor neonatla seizures?

A

EEGs

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157
Q

Causes of seizures in neonataes

A
HIE
Cerebral infarction
Septicaemia/meningitis
Hypoglycaemia
Hypo/hypernatraemia
Hypocalcaemia
Hypomagnesaemia
Inborn errors of metabolism
Pyridoxine dependency

Whenever seizures are observed, hypoglycaemia and meningitis need to be excluded or treated urgently

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158
Q

Treatment for neonatal seizures

A

A cerebral ultrasound can be performed to identify haemorrhage or cerebral malformations
Ongoing or repeated seizures will be treated with anticonvulsants

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159
Q

Which artery is usually affected in cerebral infarction in the newborn?

A

Infarction in the territory of the middle cerebral artery

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160
Q

Cerebral infarction presentation

A

May present with seizures
Seizures can be focal or generalised
There are no other abnormal clinical features (unlike HIE)

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161
Q

What investigation can help confirm the diagnosis of neonatal stroke?

A

MRI

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162
Q

Pathophysiology of cerebral infarction of the newborn

A

Thrombotic (e.g. thromboembolism from placental vessles or inherited thrombophilia)

Prognosis is relatively good (only 20% have hemiparesis or epilepsy)

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163
Q

What causes cleft lip/palate?

A

May be unilateral or bilateral

Cleft lip results from failure of fusion of the frontonasal and maxillary processes
In bilateral cases, the pre-maxilla becomes anteverted

Cleft palate result from failure of fusion of the palatine processes and the nasal septum

These defects can occur as a part of a syndrome (e.g. chromosomal disorders)
They are associated with maternal anticonvulsant therapy

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164
Q

Associations with cleft lip/palate

A

Infants are prone to acute otitis media

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165
Q

Management of cleft palate/lip

A

Specialised feeding advice may be necessary
Watch out for airway problems (e.g. Pierre-Robin sequence)
Pre-surgical lip tapping, oral appliances or pre-surgical nasal alveolar moulding (PNAM) may be needed to narrow the cleft
Definitive repair is by surgery

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166
Q

Associations with Pierre-Robin sequence

A

Associated with micrognathia (small jaw), posterior displacement of the tongue (glossoptosis) and midline cleft of the soft palate

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167
Q

Consequences of Pierre-Robin Sequence

A

Can lead to difficulty feeding
As the tongue falls back, there is obstruction to the upper airways which may cause cyanotic episodes
Infant is at risk of failure to thrive

Due to the risk of airway obstruction, infants may need to lie on their front

Eventually, as the mandible grows, these problems resolve

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168
Q

Associations with oesophageal atresia

A

Usually associated with a trans-oesophageal fistula
Associated with polydramnios during pregnancy

Almost half of babies with oesophageal atresia will have other congenital malformations (e.g. VACTERL: verterbral, anorectal, cariac, trachea-oEsophageal, renal and radial limb)

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169
Q

Presentation of oesophageal atresia

A

If not diagnosed at birth, it typically presents with persistent salivaiton and drooling
The infant will cough and choke when fed and may have cyanotic episodes
They may aspirate saliva or milk into the lungs from the upper airways, and acid from the stomach

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170
Q

Investigations for oesophageal atresia

A

Passing a wide-calibre feeding tube through the mouth and checking, using an X-ray, to see if it reaches the stomach

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171
Q

Small bowel obstruction presentation

A
Persistent vomiting (may be bile-stianed, unless obstruction is procximal to the ampulla of Vater:
Abdominal distension is more prominent.
High lesions will present soon after birth, whereas lower lesions may take a few days)
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172
Q

Causes of small bowel obstruction

A

Atresia or stenosis of the duodenum (1/3 have Down syndrome)
Atresia or stenosis of the jejunum or ileum
Malrotation with volvulus (could lead to infarction of the entire midgut)
Meconium ileus (almlost all affected neonates have CF)
Meconium plug (a plug of congealed meconium causes lower intestinal obstruction)

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173
Q

How is a diagnosis of small bowel obstruction made?

A

Based on clinical features and abdominal X-ray

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174
Q

Treatment of small bowel obstruction

A

Atresia or stenosis is treated surgically
A meconium plug will usually pass spontaneously
A meconium ileus can be dislodged using Gastrograffin

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175
Q

Causes of large bowel obstruction

A

Hirschsprung disease - absence of the myenteric nerve plexus in the rectum which may extend along the colon
Rectal atresia - absence of the anus at the normal site

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176
Q

Exomphalos (Omphalocele)

A

Often diagnosed antenatally

Abdominal contents protrude through the umbilical ring and are covered by a transparent sac (formed by the amniotic membrane and peritoneum)
Often associated with other major congenital abnormalities

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177
Q

Gastroschis

A

Bowel protrudes through a defect in the anterior abdominal wall adjacent to the umbilicus and there is no covering sac
It is not associated with any other congenital abnormalities
Carries a much greater risk of dehydration and protein loss, so the abdomen of affected infants should be wrapped in several layers of clingfilm
An NG tube is passed and asiprated frequently and an IV dextrose infusion is set up
Colloid support is often required to replace lost protein
Can be corrected with surgery

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178
Q

What is the difference between posseting and regurgitation?

A

Posseting refers to small amounts of milk that often accompay the return to swallowed air (burp)
Regurgitation describes larger, more frequent losses, and may indicate the presence of more significant gastro-oesophageal reflux

Vomiting is the forceful ejection of gastric contents

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179
Q

Red flag features of a vomiting child

A

Bile stained vomit= intestinal obstruction

Haematemesis= oesophagitis, peptic ulceration, oral/nasal bleeding, oesophageal variceal bleeding

Projectile vomiting in the first few weeks of life= pyloric stenosis

Vomiting at the end of paroxysmal coughing = whooping cough

Abdominal tenderness/abdominal pain on movement = surgical abdomen

Abdominal distension= intestinal obstruction, including stragulated inguinal hernia

Hepatosplenomegaly= chronic liver disease, inborn error of metabolism

Blood in stool = intussusception, bacterial gastroenteritis

Severe dehydration, shock = severe gastroenteritis, systemic infection (UTI, meningitis), DKA

Bulging fontanelle or seizures = raised ICP

Faltering growth = GOR, coeliac, other chronic GI conditions

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180
Q

At what age do most cases of GOR resolve by?

A

1 year

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181
Q

Mechanism of infantile gastro-oesophageal reflux

A

Functional immaturity of lower oesophageal sphincter leading to inappropriate relaxation

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182
Q

Baby factors that contribute to reflux

A

Predominantly fluid diet
Mainly horizontal posture
Short intra-abdominal length of oesophagus

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183
Q

When is GOR referred to as gastro-oesophageal reflux disease?

A

When it starts causing significant problems

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184
Q

GORD is more common in:

A

Cerebral palsy and other neurodevelopmental disorders
Preterm infants (especially those with bronchopulmonary dysplasia)
Following surgery for oesophageal atresia or diaphragmatic hernia

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185
Q

Complications of GORD

A
Faltering growth from severe vomiting
Oesophagitis
Recurrent pulmonary aspiration (recurrent pneumonia, cough, wheeze)
Dystonic neck posturing
Apparent life-threatening events
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186
Q

Investigations for GOR

A

24 hour oesophageal pH monitoring
24 hour impedance monitoring
Endoscopy with oesophageal biopsies
Upper GI contrast study

Diagnosis usually clinical and no investigations are required. However, the investigations above may be used.

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187
Q

Management of GOR

A

Referral
SAME DAY referral if haematemesis, melaena or dysphagia present
Arrange assessment by paediatrician if:
Red flag symptoms
Faltering growth
Unexplained distress
Unresponsive to medical therapy
Feeding aversion
Unexplained iron deficiency anaemia
No improvement after 1 year of age
Suspected Sandifer’s syndrome

Refer if there are complications:
Recurrent aspiration pneumonia
Unexplained apnoeas
Unexplained epileptic seizure-like events
Unexplained upper airway inflammation
Dental erosion with neurodisability
Recurrent acute otitis media

Treatment
Reassure
It is very common
Begins early (< 8 weeks) and may be frequent
It usually becomes less frequent with time
Treatment and investigation is not usually needed

 Review infant or child if: 
        Projectile regurgitation  
        Bile-stained vomit or haematemesis  
        New concerns (e.g. faltering growth, feeding difficulties)  
        Persistent, frequent regurgitation beyond the first year of life
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188
Q

What causes pyloric stenosis?

A

Caused by hypertrophy of the pyloric muscle causing a gastric outlet obstruction

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189
Q

Clinical features of pyloric stenosis

A

Presents at 2-8 weeks of age, irrespective of gestational age
4x more common in boys

Vomiting (increases in frequency and forcefulness over time, ultimately becoming projectile)
Hunger after vomiting (until dehydration leads to loss of interest in feeding)
Weight loss if presentation is delayed
Hypochloraemic metabolic alkalosis with low plasma sodium and potassium secondary to vomiting stomach contents

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190
Q

How is the diagnosis of pyloric stenosis made?

A
Gastric peristalsis may be seen as a wave moving from left to right across the abdomen
Pyloric mass (feels like an olive) is usually palpable in the RUQ
Ultrasound may be useful

NB: if the stomach is distended with air, it will need to be emptied using an NG tube to allow palpation

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191
Q

Management of pyloric stenosis

A

IV fluid resuscitation:
This is essential to correct the fluid and electrolyte disturbance before surgery
This should be provided at 1.5x maintenance rate with 5% dextrose and 0.45% saline

Definitive treatment is by performing a Ramstedt pyloromyotomy (dividing the hypertrophied muscle down to but not including the mucosa- can be open or laparoscopic)

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192
Q

Causes of crying of sudden-onset in infants

A
Infection (UTI, middle-ear, meningeal)
Pan from an unrecognised fracture
Oesophagitis
Testicular torsion
Severe nappy rash
Constipation
Teething
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193
Q

Pattern of symptoms in infant colic

A

Paroxysmal, inconsolable crying or screaming often accompanied by drawing up the knees and passage or excessive flatus takes place several times a day

NB: if severe and persistent, it may be due to a cows’ milk protein allergy

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194
Q

Management of infant colic

A

Reassure parents that colic is a common problem that should resolve by 6 months of age
Sources of information/support: NHS choices leaflet, health visitor (help with feeding techniques etc…)
Strategies to soothe a crying infant: holidng the baby, gentle motion, white noise
Encourage parents to look after themselves: get support form family and friends, meet other parents at a similar state (NCT), resting, putting the baby in a safe place to give yourself a time out

Insufficient evidence for Infacol and Colief, so do not recommend

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195
Q

What should always be checked in a child presenting with acute abominal pain?

A

Testes
Hernial orifices
Hip joints

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196
Q

What is the most common surgical cause of abdo pain in children?

A

Acute appendicitis (although it is v uncommon <3 years)

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197
Q

Symptoms of acute appendicitis

A

Anorexia
Vomiting
Abdominal pain (initially central and colicky (appendicular midgut colic), but then localising to right iliac fossa (from localised peritoneal inflammation))

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198
Q

Signs of acute appendicitis

A

Fever
Abdominal pain aggravated by movement
Persistent tenderness wit guarding in the RIF (McBurney’s point tenderness)- NB: with a retrocaecal appendix, localised guarding may be absent

Perforation can occur rapidly in children because their omentum is less well developed and fails to surround the appendix

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199
Q

Investigations for acute appendicitis

A

No laboratory investigation or imaging is consistently helpful in making a diagnosis
Neutrophilia is not always present on the blood count
WCC and organisms can be seen in the urine because the inflamed appendix may be adjacent to the ureter or the bladder
Ultrasound may support the clinical diagnosis and show complications (e.g. abscess, perforation, appendix mass)

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200
Q

Management of acute appendicitis

A
SURGICAL EMERGENCY
Patient should be nil-by-mouth from the time of diagnosis
IV fluids should be started
Requires immediate hospital admission
Treatment of choice is an appendicectomy
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201
Q

Define non-specific abdominal pain

A

Refers to abdominal pain that resolves within 24-48 hours

The pain is less severe than acute appendicitis
Often accompanied by an URTI with cervical lymphadenopathy
In some of these children, abdominal signs do not resolve and an appendicectomy is performed
Mesenteric adenitis is often diagnosed in these children as enlarged mesenteric lymph nodes are seen at laparoscopy with a normal appendix

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202
Q

What is intussusception?

A

Invagination of proximal bowel into a distal segment

Most commonly involves ileum passing into caecum through the ileocaecal valve

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203
Q

What is the peak age of presentation for intussusception?

A

3 months - 2 years

It is the most common cause of intestinal obstruction in infants after the neonatal period

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204
Q

What is the most serious complication of intussusception?

A

Stretching and constriction of the mesentery resulting in venous obstruction, causing engorgement and bleeding from the bowel mucosa, fluid loss, and, eventually, bowel perforation, peritonitis and gut necrosis

Requires prompt diagnosis, immediate fluid resuscitation and urgent reduction of the intussusception

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205
Q

Presentation of intussusception

A

Paroxysmal, severe colicky pain with pallor (during episodes, the child will become pale, especially around the mouth, and draw their legs up. There is recovery in between episodes, but the child may become lethargic)
Refusing feeds
Vomiting (may be bile-stained depending on the location of the intussusception)
Sausage-shaped mass is palpable in the abdomen
Redcurrant jelly stool is a late sign
Abdominal distension and shock (pooling of fluid in the gut, so IV fluid resuscitation is often necessary)

Viral infection leading to enlargement of Peyer’s patches may form the lead point of the intussusception
Other possible lead points include a Meckel’s diverticulum (more common >2 years)

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206
Q

Investigations for intussusception

A

X-ray may show distended bowel with no gas in the distal colon and rectum
Abdominal ultrasound is useful to confirm the diagnosis and check the response to treatment (target sign)

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207
Q

Management of intussusception

A

Unless there are signs of peritonitis, reduction by rectal air insufflation, with fluoroscopy guidance, by radiologist (successful 75% of the time- other 25 may need operation)

Clinically stable with no contraindications (peritonitis, perforation, hypovolaemic shock) to contrast enema reduction
Fluid resuscitation
Contrast enema (air or contrast liquid)
Broad-spectrum antibiotics (Clindamycin + gentamicin OR tazocin OR cefoxitin + vancomycin)
2nd line: surgical reduction with broad-spectrum antibiotics

If recurrent intussusception, consider investigating for a pathological lead point (e.g. Meckel’s diverticulum)

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208
Q

Presentation of Meckel’s diverticulum

A

Most cases are asymptomatic
May present with severe rectal bleeding (neither bright red nor true melaena), causing an acute drop in Hb
Intussusception
Volvulus
Meckel’s diverticulitis (mimics appendicitis)

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209
Q

Investigations for Meckel’s diverticulum

A

Technetium scan will demonstrate increased uptake by ectopic gastric mucosa in 70% of cases

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210
Q

Management of Meckel’s diverticulum

A

Asymptomatic= incidental imaging finding- no treatment required. Detected during surgery for other reasons- prophylactic excision

Symptomatic=
Bleeding - excision of diverticulum with blood trasnfusion (if haemodynamically stable)
Obstruction- excision of diverticulum and lysis of adhesions
Perforation/peritonitis- excision of diverticulum or small bowel segmental resection with perioperative antibiotics

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211
Q

Complications of malrotation

A

During rotation of the small bowel in foetal life, if the mesentery is not fixed at the duodenojejunal flexure or in the ileocaecal region, its base is shorter than normal and is predisposed to volvulus

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212
Q

What are Ladd bands?

A

Peritoneal bands that may cross the duodenum (often anteriorly)

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213
Q

Main presentations of malrotation

A

Obstruction
Obstruction with compromised blood supply

Obstruction with bilious vomiting is the usual presentation within the first few days of life, but it can occur later

If there are signs of vascular compromise, an urgent laparotomy is needed

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214
Q

A child presents with dark green vomiting- what do you do?

A

Urgent upper GI contrast study to assess intestinal rotation

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215
Q

Management of malrotation

A

Ladd procedure- detorting the bowel and surgical dividing the Ladd bands (the bowel is placed in the non-rotated position with the duodenojejunal flexure on the right and the caecum and appendix on the left- appendix is usually removed to avoid diagnostic confusion in case the child presents again with an acute abdomen)
Antibiotics (cefazolin)

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216
Q

Define recurrent abdominal pain

A

Pain sufficient to interrupt normal activities and lasts for at least 3 months

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217
Q

Presentation of recurrent abdominal pain

A

Pain is typically periumbilical and children are generally well

Constipation is a frequent cause of recurrent abdominal pain and should be excluded
May occur as a manifestation of stress
Vicious cycle of anxiety - parents demanding more invasive investigations etc. could worsen the perceived symptoms

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218
Q

Management of recurrent abdominal pain

A

Aim to identify any serious cause without subjecting the child to unnecessary investigations
Examination includes inspection of the perineum for anal fissures and checking the child’s growth
Urine MC+S is important as UTIs may cause pain without other signs
Abdominal US may be useful to exclude gallstones and pelvic ureteric junction obstruction
Coeliac antibodies and TFTs should be checked (although these are rare causes of recurrent abdominal pain)
IBS and functional dyspepsia are diagnoses of exclusion and should be explained simply to patients (e.g. “sometimes the insides of the intestines become so sensitive that some children can feel the food going around the bends”)

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219
Q

Long-term prognosis of recurrent abdominal pain

A

Around 50% rapidly become free of symptoms
IN around 25%, symptoms take months to resolve
In around 35%, symptoms continue or return in adulthood as migraine, IBS or functional dyspepsia

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220
Q

Clinical features of abdominal migraine

A

Often associated with abdominal pain and headaches
The pain is typically in the midline and is associated with vomiting and facial pallor
There is often a personal or family history of migraine
The history tends to describe long periods of no symptoms followed by a shorter period of non-specific abdominal pain and pallor, with or without vomiting

Treatment with anti-migraine medication could help

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221
Q

What may precipitate IBS symptoms?

A

Intra-abdominal infection

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222
Q

What is important to remember in IBS?

A

The disease has a significant psycho-social component (stress and anxiety)
There is often a positive family history
Some people with IBS will also have coeliac disease, so coeliac antibodies must always be tested

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223
Q

Symptoms of IBS

A

Non-specific abdominal pain (often periumbilical and relieved by defecation)
Explosive, loose or mucousy stool
Bloating
Feeling of incomplete defecation
Constipation (often alternating with loose or normal stools)

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224
Q

Management of IBS

A

Reassure
Encourage patient to identify sources of stress or anxiety in their lifestyle and any foods that may aggravate symptoms
Recommend adequate fluid intake

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225
Q

What is a strong predisposing factor to duodenal ulcers?

A

H. pylori

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226
Q

Although they are uncommon in children, duodenal ulcers should be considered in those with epigastric pain particularly if:

A

It wakes them up at night
Pain radiates to the back
History of peptic ulceration in a first-degree relative

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227
Q

How can nodular antral gastritis be identified?

A

H. pylori causes nodular antral gastritis, which may be associated with abdominal pain and nausea
It can be identified with gastric antral biopsies

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228
Q

Investigations for H.pylori infection

A

Gastric antral biopsies (if suspected nodular antral gastritis)
CLO test
C-13 breath test (H.pylori produces urease)
Stool antigen

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229
Q

Management of peptic ulceration

A

In children with suspected peptic ulceration, it should be treated with proton-pump inhibitors
If investigations suggest the presence of an H.pylori infection, eradication therapy should be given (amoxicillin AND metronidazole OR clarithromycin)
If they fail to respond to treatment, an upper GI endoscopy should be performed (if this is normal –> functional dyspepsia is diagnosed- a variant of IBS)

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230
Q

Non-specific symptoms of functional dyspepsia

A

As well as symptoms of peptic ulceration, children with functional dyspepsia will have other non-specific symptoms such as:

Early satiety
Bloating
Post-prandial vomiting
Delayed gastric emptying (due to gastric dysmotility)

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231
Q

What is eosinophilic oesophagitis?

A

An inflammatory condition affecting the oesophagus caused by activation of eosinophils within the mucosa and submucosa

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232
Q

Presentation of eosinophilic oesophagitis

A

Vomiting
Discomfort when swallowing or bolus dysphagia (when food gets stuck)

Asthma
Eczema
Hayfever

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233
Q

How is the diagnosis of eosinophilic oesophagitis made?

A

Endoscopy:
Linear furrows and trachealisation of the oesophagus may be seen (looks like the trachea with rings protruding into th elumen)
Microscopically, eosinophilic infiltration will be identified

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234
Q

Management of eosinophilic oesophagitis

A

Oral corticosteroids (fluticasone or viscous budesonide)

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235
Q

What is the most common causative organism for gastroenteritis in developed countries?

A

Rotavirus- particularly prevalent in winter and early spring

Bacterial causes are less common in developed countries but may be suggested by presence of blood in stools
Campylobacter jejuni is the most common cause of bacterial gastroenteritis in developed countries, and is often associated with severe abdominal pain

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236
Q

Shigella infection

A

Shigella and some salmonellae produce a dysenteric type of infection, with blood and pus in the stool, pain and tenesmus
Shigella infection may be accompanied by a high fever

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237
Q

Cholera and enterotoxigenic E.coli infection

A

Associated with profuse, rapidly dehydrating diarrhoea

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238
Q

What is the most serious complication of gastroenteritis?

A

Dehydration leading to shock

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239
Q

Which children are at increased risk of dehydration secondary to gastroenteritis?

A

Infants (especially low birthweight): great SA:volume ratio, higher basal fluid requirements, immature renal tubular reabsorption
If >/=6 diarrhoeal stools in the past 24 hours
If vomited >/=3 times in past 24 hours
If unable to tolerate extra fluids
If they have malnutrition

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240
Q

Management of gastroenteritis in children

A

Assess for features of dehydration and shock, features that may suggest an alternative diagnosis, and severity and possible cause of infection

Consider hospital admission

Give rehydration advice:
Maintenance volumes:
0-10kg= 100ml/kg
10-20kg= 1000ml + 50ml/kg for each kg over 10
20+ kg= 1500ml + 20ml/kg for each kg over 20kg

Modes of rehydration:
<5 years= 50ml/kg for fluid deficit replacement over 4 hours as well as maintenance with oral rehydration solution
5+ years= 200ml ORS after each loose stool

Perform stool sample analysis: if this reveals causative organism, seek specialist advice regarding antibiotic treatment

Give advice on preventing spread and follow-up

Notify local authority if a notifiable disease is diagnosed or suspected (e.g. cholera)

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241
Q

Red flag signs of dehydration

A
Appears unwell or deteriorating
Altered responsiveness e.g. lethargic, irritable
Sunken eyes
Tachycardia
Tachypnoea
Reduced skin turgor
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242
Q

What is the most accurate measure of dehydration?

A

Degree of weight loss during diarrhoeal illness:
No clinically detectable dehydration <5% BW loss
Clinical dehydration 5-10% loss of BW
Shock >10% loss of BW

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243
Q

What is a potential consequence of hyponatraemic dehydration?

A

When children with diarrhoeal illness drink a large amount of water –> hyponatraemic
This makes water move from the extracellular compartment into the intracellular compartment. The increase in intracellular volume leads to an increase in brain volume, which may result in seizures
The marked extracellular depletion leads to a greater degree of shock per unit of water loss

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244
Q

Causes of hypernatraemic dehydration

A

High insensible water loss (e.g. fever, or hot/dry environment)
Profuse, low sodium diarrhoea

More difficult to identify clinically, as signs of extracellular fluid depletion are less per unit of fluid loss

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245
Q

Potential consequences of hypernatraemic dehydration

A

Water is drawn out of the brain–> cerebral shrinkage, which may lead to jittery movements, increased muscle tone, hyperreflexia, altered consciousness, seizures, multiple small cerebral haemorrhages

Transient hyperglycaemia occurs in some patients, but this is self-correcting

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246
Q

When is a stool culture indicated for dehydration?

A
Child appears septic
Blood or mucus in stools
Child is immunocompromised
Recent foreign travel
Diarrhoea has not improved in 7 days
Diagnosis is uncertain

If antibiotics are started, a blood culture should be taken

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247
Q

Indications for IV fluids in dehydration

A

Shock
Deterioration
Persistent vomiting

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248
Q

Treating hypernatraemic dehydration

A

ORS
If IV fluids are required, a rapid reduction in plasma sodium concentration and osmolality will lead to a shift of water into the cerebral cells and may result in seizures and cerebral oedema, so reduction in plasma sodium should be slow- at least 48 hours, with regular measurement of plasma sodium

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249
Q

Why should antidiarrhoeals/antiemetics not be used in children

A

Ineffective
May prolong the excretion of bacteria in stools
Can be associated with side-effects
Adds unnecessarily to cost
Focus attention away from oral rehydration

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250
Q

Indications for antibiotics in dehydration

A

Suspected or confirmed sepsis
Extra-intestinal spread of bacterial infection
Salmonella gastroenteritis if <6 months
Malnourished or immunocompromised children
Specific bacterial or protozoal infections (e.g. C diff associated with pseudomembranous colitis, cholera, shigellosis, giardiasis)

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251
Q

Dehydration may lead to zinc deficiency

A

SO supplementation may be necessary

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252
Q

Postgastroenteritis syndrome

A

Occasionally, after an episode of gastroenteritis, the introduction of a normal diet results in a return of the watery diarrhoea
Oral rehydration therapy should be restarted

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253
Q

Manifestations of malabsorption

A

Abnormal stools
Poor weight gain or faltering growth (not all cases)
Specific nutrient deficiencies, either singly or in combination

True malabsorption stool is difficult to flush and has a potent smell

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254
Q

Define acrodermatitis enterohepatica

A

Autosomal recessive metabolic disorder characterised by tge malabsorption of zinc, which results in:
Diarrhoea
Inflammatory rash around the mouth and/or anus
Hair loss

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255
Q

Coeliac disease

A

Enteropathy in which the gliadin fraction of gluten in wheat, barely and rye provoke a damaging immunological response in the proximal small intestine–> massive increase in rate of migration of absorptive cells moving up the villi from the crypts, but this is insufficient to compensate for increased cell loss from villous tips–> villi become shorter and progressively absent–> flat mucosa

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256
Q

Age of presentation of coeliac disease

A

Depends on the age of introduction of gluten into the diet

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257
Q

Presentation of coeliac disease

A
Profound malabsorptive syndrome at 8-24 months of age after introduction of wheat into diet
Faltering growth
Abdominal distension
Buttock wasting
Abnormal stools
General irritability
Mild, non-specific GI symptoms
Anaemia
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258
Q

Investigations for coeliac disease

A

Anti-tTG antibodies
Endomysial antibodies
Duodenal biopsy (required to confirm diagnosis)
Catch up of growth following gluten withdrawal from the diet is also required to confirm diagnosis

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259
Q

Management of coeliac disease

A

All products containing wheat, rye and barley are removed from diet
Monitor body weight, height and BMI to assess for signs of malnutrition
Consider referral to dietician if there are problems with adhering to the diet
Arrange annual review
Non-adherence results in: micronutrient deficiency (especially osteopenia), small increased risk of bowel cancer (especially small bowel lymphoma)

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260
Q

Toddler’s diarrhoea (chronic non-specific diarrhoea)

A

Most common cause of persistent loose stools in preschool children

Stools vary in consistency, are sometimes well formed, sometimes explosive and loose

Affected children are well and thriving

In some cases, it might result from undiagnosed coeliac disease or excessive ingestion of fruit juice (especially apple juice)

Occasionally caused by temporary cows’ milk allergy after gastroenteritis

Once most probably causes have been excluded, most cases are probably a result of dysmotility of the gut (form of IBS) and fast-transit diarrhoea

These tend to improve with age

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261
Q

Which form of IBD is more common?

A

Crohns

Crohns can occur anywhere from mouth to anus, whereas in UC the inflammation is confined to the colon

262
Q

Manifestations of IBD

A

Poor general health
Growth restriction
Psychological

263
Q

Presentation of Crohns in children and adolescents

A
Growth failure
Puberty delayed
Abdo pain
Diarrhoea
Weight loss
Fever, lethargy (can present without GI symptoms, especially in older children)
Oral lesions or perianal skin tags
Uveitis
Arthralgia
Erythema nodosum

May be mistaken for psychological problems and can mimic anorexia nervosa

264
Q

Helpful biochemical markers to make diagnosis of Crohn’s

A

Raised inflammatory markers (platelet count, ESR, CRP)
Iron deficiency anaemia
Low serum albumin

265
Q

Complications of Crohn’s

A

Strictures and fistulae may develop

266
Q

Which part of the bowel does Crohn’s most commonly affect?

A

Distal ileum or proximal colon

267
Q

Investigations for Crohn’s disease

A

Upper GI endoscopy
Ileocolonoscopy
Small bowel imaging
May reveal narrowing, fissuring, mucosal irregularities and bowel wall thickening

Diagnosis based on endoscopic and histological findings on biopsy

268
Q

What is the histological hallmark of Crohn’s disease?

A

Presence of non-caseating epitheloid cell granulomata (though this is not idenitified in up to 30% at presentation)

269
Q

Treatment options for Crohn’s disease

A

Remission is induced with nutritional therapy: the normal diet is replaced by whole protein modular feeds (polymeric diet). Lasts 6-8 weeks. Effective in 75% of cases. Systemic steroids are required if this is ineffective.

Relapse is common:
Immunosuppressants (e.g. azathioprine, mercaptopurine, methotrexate) are almost always required to maintain remission.
Anti-TNF agents (e.g. infliximab, adalimumab) may be needed if conventional treatments fail.
Long-term supplemental enteral nutrition (eg. NG or gastrotomy feeds) may be needed to correct growth failure

Surgery is necessary for complications such as:
Obstruction
Fistulae
Abscess formation
Severe localised disease that is unresponsive to medical treatment

270
Q

Management of Crohn’s disease

A

Assess impact of symptoms on daily functioning (anxiety, depression)
Provide information on Crohn’s disease and offer sources of support (Crohn’s and Colitis UK)
Encourage stopping smoking (may reduce the risk of relapse)
Assess risk of osteoporosis

Medical Management
Steroids (prednisolone) may be used to induce and maintain remission
Immunosuppressive drugs (azathioprine, methotrexate)
Biologic therapies (e.g. infliximab)
Aminosalicylates (e.g. mesalazine)

Using these medical therapies requires monitoring of certain biochemical measures (e.g. ferritin, B12, calcium and vitamin D)
Educate about features of Crohn’s flare up (e.g. unintended weight loss)

NOTE: patients on immunosuppressive therapies should NOT have live vaccines. They are at increased risk of influenza and pneumococcal infection so should receive vaccines.

271
Q

What is ulcerative colitis?

A

Recurrent, inflammatory and ulcerating disease involving the mucosa of the colon

272
Q

Features of ulcerative colitis

A
Rectal bleeding
Diarrhoea
Weight loss
Colicky pain
Growth failure
Erythema nodosum
Enteric arthritis
273
Q

How is the diagnosis of UC made?

A

Endoscopy and histology:
Mucosal inflammation
Crypt damage (cryptitis, architectural distortion, abscesses, crypt loss)
Ulceration

90% of children have pancolitis (entire large intestine)

274
Q

Management of UC

A

Severity in children is assessed using the Paediatric Ulcerative Colitis Activity Index (PUCAI)
Severe > 65 points
Mild-Moderate - 10-64 points

Mild Proctitis or Proctosigmoiditis
Consider either oral or topical aminosalicylates or a combination of the two
If aminosalicylates are NOT tolerated or are contraindicated:
Topical corticosteroid or oral prednisolone

Mild Left-Sided and Extensive Ulcerative Colitis
Oral aminosalicylate
Consider adding topical aminosalicylate or oral beclometasone
If these are NOT tolerated, consider oral prednisolone

If there is no improvement 4 weeks after starting aminosalicylate therapy
Consider adding oral prednisolone
If this still does not produce an adequate response, consider adding oral tacrolimus
Biological agents such as infliximab, adalimumab and golimumab
Resistant disease may require surgery

Maintaining Remission
Aminosalicylates are mainly used for maintaining remission
Consider oral azathioprine or oral mercaptopurine if aminosalycilates are inadequate/frequent exacerbations requiring steroids

Severe fulminating disease - EMERGENCY
Assess likelihood of needing surgery
Increased likelihood of needing surgery if:
Stool frequency > 8 per day
Pyrexia
Tachycardia
AXR showing colonic dilatation
Low albumin, low haemoglobin, high platelets or CRP

    Offer IV corticosteroids to induce remission 
    Consider IV ciclosporin (if IV corticosteroids are contraindicated or ineffective)  

Surgical Treatment
Colectomy with an ileostomy or ileojejunal pouch

UC is associated with an increased risk of bowel cancer  
Regular colonoscopic screening performed after 10 years of diagnosis
275
Q

What can precipitate constipation?

A

Dehydration
Reduced fluid intake
Anal fissures
Anxiety

276
Q

Possible primary causes of constipation

A
Hirschsprung disease
Lower spinal cord abnormalities
Anorectal abnormalities
Hypothyroidism
Coeliac disease
Hypercalcaemia
277
Q

Red flag symptoms of constipation, and what they suggest

A

Failure to pass meconium within first 24 hours of life - Hirschsprung disease
Failure to thrive/growth failure - hypothryoidism, coeliac disease, other causes
Gross abdominal distension - Hirschsprung disease or other GI dysmotility
Abnormal lower limb neurology or deformity e.g. talipes, or secondary urinary incotninence - Lumbosacral pathology
Sacral dimple above natal cleft, over the spine: naevus, hairy patch, central pit, or discoloured skin - Spina bifida occulta
Abnormal appearance/position/patency of the anus - abnormal anorectal anatomy
Perianal bruising or multiple fissures - sexual abuse
Perianal fistulae, abscesses or fissures - Perianal Crohn’s disease

278
Q

Difference in presentation of acute and long-term constipation in children

A

Constipation arising acutely in young children (e.g. after an acute febrile illness) will usually resolve spontaneously or with the use of maintenance laxative therapy and fluids

In more long-standing constipation, the rectum becomes overdistended. with the subsequent loss of feeling the need to defecate

Involuntary soiling may occur

279
Q

Management of constipation

A

Exclude red flag symptoms
Reassure that underlying causes of constipation have been excluded
Laxatives - may have to be taken for several months
Check for faecal impaction - if present, recommend disimpaction regimen
Start maintenance laxative treatment if impaction is not present/has been treated
Advice behavioural interventions (scheduled toileting, bowel habit diary, reward system)
Diet and lifestyle advice (adequate fluid intake)
Follow up to assess adherence and response to treatment

Fluid requirements:
Infants 0–6 months of age: 700 mL, assumed to be from milk.
Babies 7–12 months of age: 800 mL from milk and complementary foods and beverages, of which 600 mL is assumed to be water from drinks.
Children 1–3 years of age: 1300 mL (900 mL from drinks).
Children 4–8 years of age: 1700 mL (1200 mL from drinks).
Children 9–13 years of age:
Boys — 2400 mL (1800 mL from drinks).
Girls — 2100 mL (1600 mL from drinks).
Young people 14–18 years of age:
Boys — 3300 mL (2600 mL from drinks).
Girls — 2300 mL (1800 mL from drinks).

Secondary behavioural problems are common

Initial Aim: evacuate the overloaded rectum completely
Achieved using a disimpaction regimen of stool softeners, initially with a macrogol laxative (e.g. polyethylene glycol 3350 + electrolytes (Movicol Paediatric Plain))
An escalating dose regimen is administered over 1-2 weeks or until impaction resolves
If unsuccessful: a stimulant laxative (e.g. senna or sodium picosulphate) may also be required
NOTE: if polyethylene glycol and electrolytes is not tolerated, an osmotic laxative (e.g. lactulose) can be used instead

Disimpaction must be followed by maintenance treatment to ensure ongoing regular, pain-free defecation
Polyethylene glycol with/without a stimulant laxative are the treatment of choice
Dose should be reduced over a period of months in response to an improvement in stool consistency and frequency

NOTE: dietary changes tend to have little effect in these situations (the addition of more fibre may make the stools larger and more difficult to pass)

Children can be encouraged to sit on the toilet after mealtimes to utilise the physiological gastrocolic reflex and improve the likelihood of success

Behavioural interventions (e.g. star chart) may be useful to aid motivation and keep a record

MAINSTAY OF TREATMENT:
Early, aggressive and prolonged use of laxative medication
Should allow the passage of a large, soft stool at least once a day
Emphasise that laxative use is safe, even in the long-term
Underuse is the most common cause of treatment failure

Occasionally, faecal retention may be so severe that evacuation is only possible using:
Enemas
Manual evacuation under anaesthetic

Learnt from Firms
It is quite common for neonates to not poo for up to 10 days because to begin with they are absorbing most of the milk and relatively little is going through

280
Q

Pathophysiology of Hirschsprung disease

A

Absence of ganglionic cells from the myenteric and submucosal plexuses of the large bowel–> narrow and contracted segment of the large bowel
The region of abnormal bowel will extend from the rectum for a variable distance proximally, and will end with a normally innervated, dilated colon

In 75% of cases, the lesion is confined to the rectosigmoid

281
Q

Presentation of Hirschsprungs

A

Failure to pass meconium within the first 24 hours of life
Later on, abdominal distension and bile-stained vomiting will develop
Rectal examination may reveal a narrowed segment and withdrawal of the examining finger often releases a gush of liquid stools and flatus

Occasionally, infants may present with severe, life-threateninig Hirschsprung enterocolitis during the first few weeks of life, sometimes due to C.difficile infection

In later childhood, Hirschsprung disease can present with chronic constipation, which is usually profound and associated with abdominal distension (child may also show signs of growth failure)

282
Q

How is Hirschsprung disease diagnosed?

A

Demonstration of absence of ganglion cells, along with the presence of large acetylcholinesterase-positive nerve trunks on a suction full thickness rectal biopsy

Anorectal manometry or barium studies may provide useful information about the length of the aganglionic segment

283
Q

Management of Hisrchsprung disease

A

Surgical - usually involves an initial colostomy followed by anastomosing normally innervated bowel to the anus (anorectal pull-through)

Initial management involves bowel irrigation

284
Q

How to measure body temperature in children

A

< 4 weeks of age: electronic thermometer in the axilla
4+ weeks to 5 years: electronic or chemical dot thermometer in the axilla OR infrared tympanic thermometer

Fever: >37.5 degrees

NB: axillary measurement tend to underestimate body temperatures by around 0.5 degrees

285
Q

Clinical features of neonatal sepsis

A
Fever or temperature instability or hypothermia
Poor feeding
Vomiting
Apnoea and bradycardia
Respiratory distress
Abdominal distension
Jaundice
Neutropenia
Hypo/Hyperglycaemia
Shock
Irritability
Seizures
Lethargy, drowsiness

Meningitis:
Tense or bulging fontanell
Head retraction (opisthotonos)

286
Q

Unless a clear cause of the fever is identified, neonates should undergo urgent investigation with a septic screen and broad-spectrum antibiotics given IMMEDIATELY
Septic screen:

A

Blood culture
FBC including differential WCC
Acute phase proteins (e.g. CRP)
Urine sample
If indicated:
- CXR
- LP
- Rapid antigen screen on blood/CSF/urine
- Meningococcal and pneumococcal PCR on blood/CSF
PCR for viruses in CSF (especially HSV and enteroviruses)

287
Q

Risk factors for infection

A

Illness of close contacts
Specific illness prevalent in the community
Lack of immunisations
Recent travel abroad (consider malaria, typhoid, and viral hepatitis)
Contact with animals (consider brucellosis, Q fever, HUS caused by E.coli O157)
Increased susceptibility from immunodeficiency
- THis may be secondary:
– Post-autosplenectomy in sickle cell disease
– Nephrotic syndrome –> increased susceptibility of encapsulated organisms (e.g. S. pneumoniae, H. influenzae and Salmonella species)
– Primary immunodeficiency (RARE)

288
Q

Red flag features of fever

A
Fever > 38 degrees if <3 months
Fever > 39 degrees if 3-6 months
Colour - pale, mottled
Reduced consciousness, neck stiffness, bulging fontanelle, status epilepticus, focal neurological signs, seizures
Significant respiratory distress
Bile-stained vomiting
Severe dehydration or shock
?rash
?focus for infection
289
Q

Management of the febrile child

A

Children who are NOT seriously ill can be managed at home with regular review by the parents as long as they are given clear instructions
Children who are very unwell require admission to the paediatric assessment unit, A&E or children’s ward
A septic screen should be requested
Parenteral antibiotics should be given to seriously unwell children
- < 1 month who has been discharged from hospital: 3rd generation cephalosporin (e.g. cefotaxime)
- Often ampicillin is added to cover Listeria infection
- 1+ months: high dose ceftriaxone
- Aciclovir may be given is herpes simplex encephalitis is suspected

MANAGEMENT (NICE Guidelines):
Assess for risk of serious underlying cause
Recommend paracetamol or ibuprofen for children with a temperature > 38 degrees who are distressed or unwell
- NOTE: do NOT give antipyretics if they are well or if you are trying to prevent a febrile convulsion
- IMPORTANT: do NOT give both drugs simultaneously. You may switch from one to the other if the first is ineffective

Advice for Parents:
Look for signs of dehydration (poor urine output, dry mouth, sunken anterior fontanelle)
Offer regular fluids
Dress the child appropriately for their surroundings
Check the child regularly
Keep the child away from nursery or school whilst the fever persists and notify the nursery or school of the illness

SAFETYNET - seek help if: 
Signs of dehydration  
Seizure  
Non-blanching rash 
Fever lasts > 5 days  
Child becoming generally unwell  
Distressed or concerned that they cannot look after the child
290
Q

Pathophysiology of bacterial meningitis

A

Bacterial infection of the meninges usually follows bacteraemia
Much of the damage to the meninges is inflicted by the host response to infection rather than the organism itself
Release of inflammatory mediators, recruitment of inflammatory cells and endothelial damage leads to cerebral oedema, raised ICP and decreased cerebral blood flow
Inflammatory responses below the meninges leads to a vasculopathy resulting in cerebral cortical infarction
fibrin deposits may block the resorption of CSF by the arachnoid villi leading to hydrocephalusm

291
Q

Most common causative organisms in paediatric meningitis

A

Neonatal-3months:
GBS
E.coli and other coliforms
Listeria monocytogenes

1 month-6 years:
Neisseria meningitidis
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Haemophilus influenzae

> 6 years:
Neisseria meningitidis
Streptococcus pneumoniae

292
Q

Clinical presentation of meningitis

A

The early signs and symptoms of meningitis are non-specific, especially in infants and young children
NB: neck stiffness may be seen in some children with tonsillitis and cervical lymphadenopathy

As children with meningitis may also have sepsis, signs like tachycardia, tachypnoea and hypotension should be explored

IMPORTANT: purpura in a febrile child of any age should be assumed to be due to meningococcal sepsis, even if the child does not seem particularly ill at the time

293
Q

Investigations for meningitis

A

Blood tests:

  • CRP
  • WCC
  • Blood culture
  • PCR to check for N. meningitidis

LP to obtain CSF to confirm the diagnosis, identify the causative organism and antibiotic sensitivites (confirm there are no clinical signs of raised ICP before LP)
If an LP is contraindicated, it should be postponed until the child’s condition has stabilised

In addition, rapid antigen screens can be carried out on urine and blood samples
Throat swabs should also be obtained for culture and PCR
A serological diagnosis can be made 4-6 weeks after the presenting illness if necessary

294
Q

Typical changes in CSF in meningitis or encephalitis, beyond the neonatal period

A
Bacterial meningitis:
Turbid CSF
Increased polymorphic WCCs
Raised protein
Decreased glucose
Viral meningitis:
Clear CSF
Increased lymphocytes (initially may be polymorphs)
Normal/raised protein
Normal/decreased glucose
TB meningitis:
Turbid/clear/viscous CSF
Increased lymphocytes
Greatly raised protein
Greatly reduced glucose
Encephalitis:
Clear CSF
Normal/raised lymphocytes
Normal/raised protein
Normal/decreased glucose
295
Q

Management of meningitis

A
Admit to hospital as emergency
Administer single dose of IM/IV benzylpenicillin (NB: check for penicillin allergy, in which case you might consider chloramphenicol and vancomycin)
Administer IV ceftriaxone:
- H. influenzae: 10 days
- S. pneumoniae: 14 days
- N. meningitidis: 7 days

Dexamethasone may be given if the following are seen on CSF analysis:

  • Frankly purulent CSF
  • CSF WBC >1000/microlitre
  • Raised CSF WBC + protein concentration > 1g/L
  • Bacteria on Gram stain
  • NB: steroids should not be used in meningococcal septicaemia

IV 0.9% saline may be required if there are signs of shock/dehydration (monitor fluid administration and urinary output)

Discharge and follow-up:
Discuss potential long-term effects and pattern of recovery
- Complications: hearing loss, orthopaedic complications, skin complications, psychosocial problems, neurological and developmental problems, renal failure
Offer formal audiological assessment
Consider testing for complement deficiency if they have had more than one episode of meningococcal disease or an episode caused by a serogroup other than the common ones

296
Q

Cerebral complications of bacterial meningitis

A

Hearing impairment:
Due to inflammatory damage to cochlear hair cells
ALL CHILDREN who have had meningitis should have an audiological assessment done promptly
Children with hearing impairment may benefit from hearing amplification or a cochlear implant

Local vasculitis:
May lead to cranial nerve palsies and other focal neuro signs

Local cerebral infarction:
May result in focal or multifocal seizures, which may result in epilepsy

Subdural effusion:
Particularly associated with H. influenzae and pneumococcal meningitis
Confirm by CT or MRI
Most resolve spontaneously

Hydrocephalus:
May result from impaired resorption of CSF (communicating) or blockage of CSF flow (non-communicating)

Cerebral abscess:
Will result in the child's clinical condition deteriorating with or without the emergence of signs of space-occupying lesion
Temperature will continue to fluctuate
Confirmed by cranial CT or MRI
Drainage of abscess required
297
Q

Bacterial meningitis prophylaxis

A

Prophylactic treatment with rifampicin or ciprofloxacin to eradicate nasopharyngeal carriage is given to ALL household contacts for meningococcal meningitis and H. influenzae infection
It is not given to the patient as 3rd generation cephalosporin will eradicate nasopharyngeal carriage anyway
Household contacts of patients with group C meningococcal meningitis should be vaccinated with meningococcal group C vaccine

298
Q

Partially treated bacterial meningitis

A

Children are often given oral antibiotics for non-specific febrile illness
If they have early meningitis, this treatment may lead to diagnostic problems
CSF will show markedly elevated white cells, but cultures will usually be negative
Rapid antigen screens and PCR are helpful

299
Q

Viral causes of meningitis

A

Enteroviruses
EBV
Adenoviruses
Mumps

300
Q

How is viral meningitis diagnosed?

A

Culture or PCR of CSF/stool/urine/nasopharyngeal aspirate/throat swabs
Serology

301
Q

Examples of atypical organisms causing ‘viral’ meningitis

A

Mycoplasma
Borellia burgdorferi (Lyme disease)
TB
Fungal infections

These uncommon organisms are particularly likely in children who are immunocompromised (e.g. immunodeficiency, chemotherapy)

Recurrent bacterial infections may occur in immunodeficient children or in those with structural abnormalities of the skull or meninges

Aseptic meningitis can occur in malignancy or autoimmune diseases

302
Q

What is the difference between encephalitis and meningitis?

A

In encephalitis, the inflammation is in the brain substance, although the meninges are often affected

303
Q

Potential causes of encephalitis

A

Direct invasion of the brain by neurotoxic virus (e.g. HSV)
Delayed brain swelling following a dysregulated neuroimmunological response to an antigen, usually a virus (post-infectious encephalopathy)e.g. following chickenpox
Slow virus infection, such as HIV or subacute sclerosing pan-encephalitis following measles

304
Q

Presentation of encephalitis

A

Most children will present with fever, altered consciousness and often seizures

Initially, it may be impossible to distinguish clinically between encephalitis and meningitis, so treatment for both should be started

305
Q

Most common causative organisms of encephalitis in the UK

A
Enteroviruses
Respiratory viruses (influenza viruses)
Herpes viruses (HSV, VZV, HHV-6)
306
Q

Common causative organisms of encephalitis across the world

A

Mycoplasma
Corellia burgdorferi (Lyme disease)
Bartonella henselae (cat scratch disease)
Rickettsial infections (e.g. Rocky mountain spotted fever)
Arboviruses

307
Q

Investigations for encephalitis in children

A

PCR is used to detect HSV in the CSF
HSV is a destructive infection so the EEG and CT/MRI may show focal changes

NB: these tests can be normal initially, so should be repeated if the child is not improving

Later confirmation of the diagnosis may be made from HSV antibody production in the CSF

308
Q

Management of encephalitis in children

A

Proven and suspected cases of HSV encephalitis should be treated with IV aciclovir for 3 weeks, as relapses ma occur after shorter courses
If untreated, the mortality rate is >70% and survivors usually have serious neurological sequelae

309
Q

Causative organisms of toxic shock syndrome

A

Toxin-producing S. aureus

Group A streptococci

310
Q

Clinical features of toxic shock syndrome

A

Fever > 39 degrees
Hypotension
Diffuse erythematous, macular rash

The toxin acts as a superantigen and can cause organ dysfunction:
Mucositis (conjunctiva, oral mucosa, genital mucosa)
GI dysfunction (vomiting/diarrhoea)
Renal impairment
Liver impairment
Clotting abnormalities and thrombocytopenia
CNS (altered consciousness)

NB: around 1-2 weeks after the onset of the illness, you will see desquamation of the palms, soles, fingers and toes

311
Q

Paediatric sepsis 6

A
High flow oxygen
IV access and take bloods
Give IV or IO antibiotics
Consider fluid resus 
Involve senior clinicians
Consider ionotropic support early
312
Q

Management of toxic shock syndrome

A

Intensive care support is required for patients in shock
Areas of infection should be surgically debrided
Antibiotics often used:
- 3rd generation cephalosporn (eg. ceftriaxone)
- Clindamycin: this acts on the bacterial ribosome to switch off toxin production
- IVIG: may be given to neutralise the circulating toxin

313
Q

Panton-Valentine leukocidin

A

This is produced by <2% of S.aureus strains
PVL-producing S.aureus causes recurrent skin and soft tissue infections
They can also cause necrotising fasciitis and a necrotising haemorrhagic pneumonia following an infleunza-like illness
These both carry a high mortality rate
In children, the procoagulant state induced by the toxin can cause venous thrombosis

314
Q

Presentation of necrotising fasciitis/cellulitis

A

Rare, severe subcutaneous infection
The area involved may enlarge rapidly, leaving poorly perfused necrotic areas of tissue at the centre
It is accompanied by severe pain and systemic illness and usually requires intensive care

315
Q

Causative organisms in necrotising fasciitis/cellulitis

A

Staph aureus
Group A streptococcus

NB: these can exist with or without a synergistic anaerobic organism (ie. it can be a mixed infection)

316
Q

Management of necrotising fasciitis/cellulitis

A

SURGICAL EMERGENCY
Debridement of all infected and devitalised tissues
IV fluids
Empirical IV antibiotics (vancomycin, linezolid, daptomycin, tedizolid phsophate, tazocin, meropenem, imipenem/cilasttatin, ertapenem)

IV antibiotics alone are not sufficient to treat this condition
Surgical intervention and debridement of necrotic tissue is necessary or the infection will continue to spread
Any clinical suspicion of necrotising fasciitis requires urgent surgical consultation
IVIG may also be given

317
Q

Clinical features of meningococcal septicaemia

A

Of the three main causes of bacterial meningitis, meningococcal septicaemia has the lowest-risk of long-term neurological sequelae with most survivors recovering fully

Often accompanied by a purpuric rash, which may start anywhere on the body and spread
The rash is characteristically non-blanching on palpation, irregular in size and outline, and may have a necrotic centre

318
Q

What is important to note with a paediatric purpuric rash?

A

ANY FEBRILE CHILD with a purpuric rash should be treated immediately with IM penicillin or IV 3rd generation cephalosporin before urgent admission to hospital

319
Q

What is the most common causative organism of meningococcal septicaemia?

A

After the inclusion of the meningococcus C vaccine in th eUK, most cases of meningococcal septicaemia are caused by group B meningococci

320
Q

Strep pneumoniae infection clinical features

A
Pharyngitis
Otitis media
Conjunctivitis
Sinusitis
Invasive disease (pneumonia, bacterial sepsis, meningitis): this mainly occurs in young infants as their immune system is weak against encapsulated organisms. It carries a high morbidity and mortality
321
Q

How should infants at risk of pneumococcal infection be managed?

A

Eg. hyposplenism

Daily prophylactic penicillin to prevent infection

322
Q

How do staphylococcus and group A streptococcus cause infections?

A

Usually caused by direct invasion of the organisms
They can also cause disease by releasing toxins which act as superantigens
- Normal antigens will stimulate only a small subset of T cells, which have a specific antigen receptor
- Whereas, superantigens bind to part of the TCR which is shared by many T cells
- This results in massive T cell proliferation and cytokine release

323
Q

Impetigo

A

A localised, highly contagious, staph or strep skin infection, most common in infants and young children, or in children with pre-existing skin disease (eg. eczema)
Lesions are usually found on the face, neck and hands
They begin as erythematous macules which become vesicular/pustular or even bullous
Rupture of the vesicles with exudation of fluid leads to honey-coloured crusted lesions
Infection readily spreads to adjacent areas and other parts of the body by autoinoculation of the infected exudate

324
Q

Management of impetigo

A

Advice
Leaflets from British Association of Dermatologists (BAD)
Reassure that impetigo usually heals without any scarring
Hygiene is important: wash areas with soapy water, wash hands after touching lesions, avoid scratching affected areas and keep nails short, avoid sharing towels/bathwater etc.
Children should avoid school until the lesions are dry and scabbed over
Arrange follow-up if no improvement after 7 days

Medical Treatment
Localised Infection = topical fusidic acid (3-4/day for 7 days)
Extensive Infection = oral flucloxacillin (4/day for 7 days)
Clarithromycin can be used if penicillin allergy
Bullous Infection = oral flucloxacillin or clarithromycin/erythromycin

If no improvement after 7 days
Review diagnosis
Check compliance with treatment and hygiene measures
Take a swab
Consider oral antibiotics if fusidic acid was initially used

IMPORTANT: affected children should NOT go to nursery or school until the lesions are dry

325
Q

Boils

A

Infections of hair follicles or sweat glands, usually caused by S. aureus

Recurrent boils may occur due to persistent nasal carriage in the child or the family acting as a reservoir for reinfection

Rarely, recurrent boils can be a feature of underlying immunodeficiency

326
Q

Treatment for boils

A

Systemic antibiotics and (occasionally) surgical incision

327
Q

Periorbital cellulitis

A

Characterised by fever with erythema, tenderness and oedema of the eyelid or other skin adjacent to the eye
Almost always unilateral
May follow trauma to the skin
In older children, it can spread from paranasal sinus infectino or dental abscess

328
Q

Management of periorbital cellulitis

A

Should be treated promptyl with IV antibiotics (e.g. high-dose ceftriaxone)
This is to prevent posterior spread of the infection which could cause orbital cellulitis
Incision and drainage of perio-ocular abscess may be required

329
Q

Orbital cellulitis

A

Characterised by proptosis, painful or limited ocular movement with/without reduced visual acuity
It can be complicated by abscess formation, meningitis or cavernous sinus thrombosis

CT/MRI should be performed to assess for posterior spread of infection

330
Q

What causes staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome?

A

An exfoliative staphylococcal toxin

It causes the separation of the epidermal skin through the granular cell layers

331
Q

Who is mainly affected by staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome?

A

Infants and young children

332
Q

Clinical features of staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome

A

Fever
Malaise
Purulent, crusting and localised infection around the eys, nose and mouth
Subsequent widespread erythema and tenderness of the skin
Nikolsky Sign: area of epidermis will separate on gentle pressure, leaving denuded areas of skin, which tend to heal without scarring

333
Q

Management of scalded skin syndrome

A

IV antibiotics (flucloxacillin)
Analgesia
Monitoring hydration and fluid balance

334
Q

Which virus is associated with Kaposi’s sarcoma?

A

HHV-8 in HIV-infected individuals)

335
Q

Hallmark of herpes viruses

A

After primary infection, latency is established and there is long-term persistence of the virus within the host (usually in a dormant state): this can be reactivated after certain stimuli

336
Q

How does HSV enter the body?

A

Through mucous membranes or skin

The site of primary infection may be associated with intense local mucosal damage

337
Q

Associated lesions with HSV infection

A

HSV1: lip and skin lesions
HSV2: genital lesions

NB: both viruses can cause both types of disease

338
Q

Management of herpes simplex viral infectino

A

Paracetamol or ibuprofen may be given to help with pain and fever
Aciclovir (DNA polymerase inhibitor) may be considered

Most herpes simplex infections are asymptomatic

339
Q

Gingivostomatitis

A

Most common form of primary HSV in children
Usually occurs in 10 months-3 years of age
Presents with vesicular lesions on the lips, gums and anterior surfaces of the tongue and hard palate
They usually progress to extensive, painful ulceration and bleeding
It is often accompanied by a high fever
The illness can persist for up to 2 weeks
Eating and drinking become painful, resulting in dehydration

340
Q

Management of gingivostomatitis

A

Symptomatic

Severe cases may require IV fluids and aciclovir

341
Q

Eczema herpeticum

A

Widespread vesicular lesions develop on eczematous skin

This can be complicated by secondary bacterial infection, which can then, in turn, result in septicaemia

342
Q

Herpetic whitlows

A

Painful, erythematous and oedematous white pustules on the site of broken skin (usually on fingers)
It is spread by autoinoculation form gingivostomatitis

343
Q

What problems can herpes infection cause in the eyes?

A

HSV can cause blepharitis or conjunctivitis
It can involve the cornea and cause dendritic ulceration
This can result in corneal scarring and loss of vision
ANY CHILD with herpetic lesions near of involving the eye require urgent ophthalmic assessment

344
Q

Neonatal HSV infection

A

May be focal (e.g. affecting the skin, eyes or encephalitis)
May be disseminated
High morbidity and mortality

345
Q

HSV infection in the immunocompromised host

A

May be severe
Cutaneous lesions can spread to involve adjacent sites (e.g. oesophagitis, proctitis)
Pneumonia and disseminated infections involving multiple organs are major complications

346
Q

Major complications of varicella zoster infection

A

Secondary Bacterial Infection
Mainly with staphylococci and group A streptococci
Can lead to toxic shock syndrome and necrotising fasciitis
Should be considered when there is onset of a new fever or persistent high fever after the first few days

Encephalitis
May be generalised
Usually occurs early in the illness
GOOD prognosis (as opposed to HSV encephalitis)
Characteristically causes a VZV-associated cerebellitis
The child becomes ataxic with cerebellar signs
This usually occurs around 1 week after the onset of the rash
Usually resolves within a month

Purpura Fulminans
Consequence of vasculitis in the skin and subcutaneous tissues
Best known in relation to meningococcal disease (purpuric rash)
Can lead to the loss of large areas of skin by necrosis
Rarely, after VZV infection, antiviral antibodies can cross-react and inactivate inhibitory coagulation factors (protein S and protein C), resulting in increased risk of clotting, which often manifests as a purpuric rash

If the patient is immunocompromised, primary VZV infection could result in severe progressive disseminated disease (up to 20% mortality)
Vesicular eruptions may become haemorrhagic

347
Q

Management of varicella zoster infection

A

Admit to hospital if there are serious complications (e.g. pneumonia, encephalitis, dehydration)
In immunocompetent adolescents and adults, consider oral aciclovir 800 mg 5/day for 7 days if they present within 24 hours of the onset of the rash of if the chickenpox is severe
This is NOT recommended for otherwise healthy children with chickenpox

ADVICE
Encourage adequate fluid intake
Dress appropriately to avoid overheating or shivering
Wear smooth, cotton fabrics
Keep nails short
Explain that the most infectious period is 1-2 days before the rash appears
Infectivity continues until all the lesions are dry and crusted over (usually ~5 days after onset of the rash)
During this time, patients should AVOID contact with:

        People who are immunocompromised 
        Pregnant women 
        Infants < 4 weeks  

    Children should be kept away from school until the vesicles have crusted over  
    Seek urgent medical advice if the condition deteriorates or they develop complications: 
        Bacterial superinfection - sudden high-grade pyrexia with erythema and tenderness around the original chickenpox lesions 
        Dehydration - e.g. reduced urine output, lethargy, cool peripheries  

Immunocompromised children
Should be treated with IV aciclovir
Oral valaciclovir may be substituted later on

Prevention in Immunocompromised Patients
Human varicella zoster immunoglobulin should be used in high-risk immunocompromised individuals with deficient T cell function following contact with chickenpox
NOTE: this protection is NOT absolute

348
Q

Shingles infection in children

A

UNCOMMON in children
Caused by reactivation of latent VZV
Characteristically causes a vesicular eruption in the dermatomal distribution of the sensory nerves
Most commonly affects the thoracic region
Recurrent or multi-dermatomal shingles is strongly associated with underlying immunocompromise (e.g. HIV infection)
NB: in immunocompromised patients, reactivation of the infection can also disseminate and cause severe disease

349
Q

What does EBV infection cause?

A

Infectious mononucleosis

350
Q

What is EBV involved in the pathogenesis of?

A

Burkitt lymphoma
Lymphoproliferative disease
Nasopharyngeal carcinoma

351
Q

How is EBV transmitted?

A

EBV has a tropism for B lymphocytes and epithelial cells of the oropharynx
It is transmitted by oral contact

352
Q

Clinical features of EBV infection

A

Most infections are subclinical
Older children (and sometimes younger children) may develop a syndrome with:
Fever
Malaise
Tonsilitis/pharyngitis (often severe enough to limit food and fluid intake)
Lymphadenopathy (prominent lymph nodes, often with diffuse lymphadenopathy elsewhere)
Petechiae of the soft palate
Splenomegaly
Hepatomegaly
Maculopapular rash
Jaundice

353
Q

How is EBV infection diagnosed?

A

Very clinical but can be supported by certain lab findings
Atypical lymphocytes (numerous large T cells)
Positive monospot test (detects the presence of heterophile antibodies- this test is often negative in young children with EBV)
Seroconversion with production of 3 anitbodies: Viral capsid antibodies (VCA) IgG and IgM, EB nuclear antigen (EBNA) antibodies

354
Q

Management of EBV infection

A

Paracetamol or ibuprofen to relieve pain and fever
Explain the expected course of the illness (2-3 week duration)
They dont need to avoid work or school but should do it depending on how they feel
Limit the spread of the disease
Avoid collision/contact sport
Corticosteroids may be considered if the airway is severely compromised (RARE)

Seek medical help if:
Stridor or respiratory difficulty
Difficulty swallowing fluids or signs of dehydration
Systemically very unwell
Abdominal pain (e.g. due to splenic rupture)

355
Q

Why should ampicillin and amoxicillin be avoided in EBV infection?

A

Can cause a florid maculopapular rash in children infected with EBV

356
Q

How is CMV usually transmitted?

A

Usually transmitted via saliva, genital secretion or breastmilk

357
Q

Clinical features of CMV infection

A

Causes mild or subclinical infection in normal paediatric and adult hosts
About 50% of adults show serological evidence of past infection
In the immunocompromised host and developing foetus (transmitted from the mother), CMV is an important pathogen that can cause considerable morbidity

CMV causes an mononucleosis-like syndrome:
Pharyngitis and lymphadenopathy are not as prominent as in EBV
Patients will have atypical lymphocytes on blood film
They will be heterophile antibody negative

In the immunocompromised host, CMV can cause:
Retinitis
Pneumonitis
Bone marrow failure
Encephalitis
Hepatitis
Oesophagitis
Enterocolitis
358
Q

Why is CMV-negative blood used for transfusions?

A

CMV is particularly important following bone marrow and organ transplantation
Transplant recipients are closely monitored for evidence of CMV reactivation by blood PCR
Antiviral prophylaxis may also be used

359
Q

Management of CMV infection

A

CMV is self-limiting

If necessary, CMV can be treated with:
IV ganciclovir
Oral valganciclovir
Foscarnet
NB: these all have serious side-effects
360
Q

Which is more prevalent out of HHV-6 and 7?

A

HHV6

Most children are infected by HHV6 or 7 by the age of 2 years, usually from the oral secretions of a family member

361
Q

Clinical features of HHV6/7 infection

A

These viruses classically cause exanthema subitum (aka roseola infantum):
This is characterised by high fever and malaise lasting a few days
This is followed by a generalised macular rash, which appears as the fever wanes
Many children will have the fever without the rash and many will have a subclinical infection
NB: this is often misdiagnosed as measles or rubella
NB: infants in the febrile stage may be given antibiotics, and when the exanthema subitum rash appears, they can be misdiagnosed with an allergy to anitbiotics

362
Q

Management of HHV-6/7 infections

A

The condition will resolve over a few days/ weeks
Paracetamol or ibuprofen for symptomatic relief
Advice to maintain adequate hydration
Explain risk of febrile seizures

363
Q

How can parvovirus B19 be transmitted?

A

Via respiratory secretions or by vertical transmission from mother to foetus
It can be transmitted via infected blood products

Outbreaks are more common in spring

364
Q

Clinical syndromes caused by parvovirus B19 infection

A

Asymptomatic infection:
About 65% of adults have anitbodies against HPV-B19

Erythema infectiosum:
Most common
It has a viraemic phase of fever, malaise, headache and myalgia
This is followed by a characteristic rash on the face (slapped-cheek), roughly a week later
This progresses into a maculopapular, lace-like rash on the trunk and limbs
Complications are rare in children
In adults, it can cause arthralgia and arthritis

Aplastic crisis:
MOST SERIOUS
Occurs in children with chronic haemolytic anaemias (e.g. sickle cell disease, thalassemia)

Foetal disease:
Can lead to foetal hydrops and death due to severe anaemia
Most infected foetuses will recover

365
Q

Management of erythema infectiosum

A

Paracetamol or ibuprofen and encourage adequate fluid intake

Secondary arthritis may be treated with ibuprofen

366
Q

Examples of enteroviruses

A

Coxsackie virus
Echoviruses
Polioviruses

367
Q

How are enteroviruses transmitted?

A

Primarily transmitted via the faeco-oral and respiratory droplet routes

Infections mainly occur in the summer and autumn

368
Q

Clinical syndromes causes by enteroviruses

A

Over 90% of infections are asymptomatic or cause non-specific febrile illness
It can sometimes cause a rash on the trunk that is blanching and consists of fine petechiae
The child is not usually systemically unwell

Hand, foot and moth disease:
Painful vesicular lesions on hands, feet , mouth and tongue
Systemic features are generally mild
Disease subsides within days

Herpangina:
Vesicular and ulcerated lesions on the soft palate and uvula leads to anorexia, painful swallowing and fever
Severe cases may require IV fluids and analgesia

Meningitis/encephalitis:
In developed countries, enteroviruses are the most common cause of viral meningitis
Most cases make a full recvoery

Pleurodynia (Bornholm disease):
An acute illness with fever, pleuritic chest pain and muscle tenderness
Recover within days

Myocarditis/pericarditis:
RARE
Children may present with chest pain and/or heart failure assocaited with a febrile illness and evidence or myocarditis on ECG

Enteroviral neonatal sepsis syndrome:
RARE
Occurs in the first few weeks of life
Results from transplacental/intrapartum infection of the infants
The symptoms are often sever, mimicking bacterial sepsis
Affected infants may present with hypotension and multiorgan failure
Intensive care support is required
There are no antiviral drugs that are effective against enteroviruses and the use of IVIG remains controversial

369
Q

Clinical features and complications of measles

A

Older children and adults tend to have more severe disease

Prodrome of fever
Malaise
Cough
Coryza
Koplik spots followed by maculopapular rash

Encephalitis:
RARE
Initial symptoms are headache, lethargy and irritability
Thus proceeds to seizures and coma
Up to 15% mortality
Serious long-term sequelae include: seizures, deafness, hemiplegia, severe learning difficulties

Subacute Sclerosing Panencephalitis (SSPE):
RARE but devastating
Occurs, on average, 7 years after measles infection
Caused by a variant of the measle virus that persists in the CNS
Present with loss of neurological function
This progresses, over several years, to dementia and death

Complications:
Otitis media
Bronchopneumonia
Laryngotracheobronchitis
Diarrhoea
370
Q

Management of measles infection

A

Immediately notify the local Health Protection Team
Advise that measles is a self-limiting disease but it is likely to cause unpleasant symptoms such as rash, fever, cough and conjunctivitis
Rest and drink plenty
Paracetamol or ibuprofen can be used for symptomatic relief
Stay away from school for at least 4 days after the development of the rash
Seek urgent medical advice if they develop complications such as SOB, uncontrolled fever, convulsions or altered consciousness
Encourage vaccinations once the acute episode has subsided
Find out the immunisation status of close contacts
Children should be isolated in hospital
In immunocompromised patients, ribavirin may be of use
Vitamin A is given in low-income countries

371
Q

Why does measles follow a protracted course with severe complications in low-income countries?

A

Malnutrition and vitamin A deficiency leads to impaired cell-mediated immunity

372
Q

How is mumps transmitted?

A

Spread by droplet infection to the respiratory tract where the virus replicates within epithelial cells
The virus gains access to the parotid glands before further dissemination to other tissues

373
Q

Clinical features of mumps

A

Incubation period: 15-24 days
The disease begins with a fever, malaise and parotitis (this may be initially unilateral, but it will eventually become bilateral after a few days)
In up to 300%, infection will be subclinical
Parotitis is uncomfortable, and children may complain of earache or pain when eating/drinking
Examination of the parotid duct may show redness and swelling
The fever usually subsides after 3-4 days
Plasma amylase levels are usually elevated due to parotid inflammation
When associated with abdo pain, consider pancreatic involvement
Infectivity lasts for up to 7 days after the onset of parotid swelling
The illness is usually mild and self-limiting
Hearing loss can rarely follow mumps, but is usually unilateral and transient

374
Q

Management of mumps

A

Notify the local Health Protection Unit
Diagnosis is usually confirmed using an oral swab
Advise that it is a self-limiting condition
Advise patient to rest and take in adequate fluids
Paracetamol and ibuprofen can be used for symptomatic relief
Stay away from school for 5 days after development of parotitis
Consider follow-up 1 week after the onset of parotitis
Advise patient/parents to seek help if they experience symptoms suggestive of meningitis or epididymo-orhcitis
Find out immunisation status of close contacts and tell them to watch out for symptoms of mumps

375
Q

Complications of mumps

A

Viral meningitis and encephalitis:
Lymphocytes will be seen in the CSF in about 50% of cases
Typical meningeal signs are only seen in 10%

Orchitis:
MOST FEARED complications
Usually unilateral
Infertility is unusual after mumps orchitis

Hearing loss

376
Q

How is rubella transmitted?

A

Respiratory route

377
Q

Clinical features of rubella infection

A

May have a prodrome of low-grade fever or no symptoms at all
A maculopapular rash is often the first sign of infection: it tends to initially appear on the face and spread centrifugally to cover the whole body. Fades in 3-5 days
Lymphadenopathy, particularly suboccipital and postauricular nodes

378
Q

Complications of rubella infection

A

Complications are rare in children

Arthritis
Encephalitis
Thrombocytopenia
Myocarditis

379
Q

Management of rubella

A

Contact the local Health Protection Unit
Diagnosed using an oral fluid sample
Advise that it is a self-limiting disease
Rest and take in adequate fluids
Consider admitting if there is a serious complication such as haemorrhagic complications (caused by thrombocytopenia) or encephalitis

380
Q

Management of rubella

A

Contact the local Health Protection Unit
Diagnosed using an oral fluid sample
Advise that it is a self-limiting disease
Rest and take in adequate fluids
Consider admitting if there is a serious complication such as haemorrhagic complications (caused by thrombocytopenia) or encephalitis

381
Q

What age group is usually affected by Kawasaki disease?

A

6 months to 4 years

Young infants tend to be more severely affected and are more likely to have incomplete symptoms (ie. not the full list of cardinal features)

382
Q

Cardinal features of Kawasaki disease

A

CRASH and burn

Conjunctivitis
Rash
Adenopathy (usually cervical)
Strawberry tongue
Hand - swelling or erythema on the hands and feet
Burn - fever (usually difficult to control)

383
Q

Non-cardinal features of Kawasaki disease

A

High inflammatory markers with a platelet count that rises int eh 2nd week of the illness

384
Q

Complications of Kawasaki disease

A

Coronary arteries ar affected in about 1/3 children within the first 6 weeks of the illness
This can lead to aneurysms which can be detected on echocardiography
Subsequent narrowing of the vessels due to scarring can lead to myocardial ischaemia and sudden death

385
Q

Management of Kawasaki disease

A

IVIG
High-dose aspirin (reduced thrombosis risk)
Other treatment options include corticosteroids, infliximab and plasma exchange
Children with giant coronary artery aneurysms may require long-term warfarin and close follow-up
Patients should, therefore, have a cardiovascular risk assessment
Children with persistent inflammation and fever may require corticosteroids, infliximab or ciclosporin

386
Q

Clinical features of TB infection

A

Clinical features are often non-specific:
Prolonged fever
Malaise
Anorexia
Weight loss
Focal signs of infection (e.g. lymph node swelling)
Extra-pulmonary disease is relatively uncommon (e.g. TB lymphadenitis, osteoarticular TB, genitourinary TB, TB meningitis)

387
Q

How to diagnose TB in children

A

Sputum samples are unobtainable in children < 8 years old
As children usually swallow sputum, gastric washings on 3 consecutive mornings can be used to identify M. tuberculosis using Ziehl-Nielsen stains or auramine stains and mycobacterial cultures (this is obtained by passing an NG tube and washing out secretions in the stomach with saline)

PCR-based methods are increasingly used in parallel with mycobacterial cultures but these methods provide limited information about drug resistance

Tuberculin Skin Test (TST)
This is done by injecting purified protein derivative intradermally into the forearm and observing 48-72 hours later and measuring the induration in millimetres
NOTE: PPD is a mixture of proteins, some of which are expressed by M. tuberculosis and the BCG, so a positive test result may be because of past BCG vaccination rather than latent TB
Originally, previous vaccination was taken into account when interpreting the TST result
NEW GUIDELINES: state that an induration of > 5 mm should be considered to be POSITIVE regardless of prior BCG vaccination

Interferon-Gamma Release Assay (IGRAs)
New blood-based test
Assesses the response of T cells to in vitro stimulation with a small number of antigens that are expressed by M. tuberculosis but NOT BCG
Therefore, a positive result will indicate TB infection rather than BCG
HOWEVER, a negative result does NOT reliably rule out TB infection
IMPORTANT: neither the IGRA or the TST can reliably distinguish between latent TB and active TB
NOTE: with advanced immunocompromise (e.g. HIV) both TST and IGRA can produce false negatives
BEWARE: do NOT attempt to diagnose TB based on CXR alone in HIV patients because lymphoid interstitial pneumonitis can have a similar appearance and occur in 20% of HIV-infected children

All individuals with TB should be tested for HIV and vice versa

388
Q

Management of TB infection

A

Arrange hospital admission if the patient has suspected active TB and is unwell
If hospital admission is not needed, arrange urgent referral to specialist TB service
It is a notifiable disease

Medical management:
Riafmpicin+ Isoniazid = 6 months
Pyrazanamide + Ethambutol - first 2 months
In adolescents, pyridoxine (vitamin B6) is given weekly to prevent peripheral neuropathy due to isoniazid
In tuberculous meningitis, dexamethasone is given initially to reduce the risk of long-term sequelae
IMPORTANT: asymptomatic children who are Mantoux or IGRA positive (ie. latently infected) should also be treated as it will decrease the risk of reactivation later in life

389
Q

Nontuberculous mycobacterial infections

A

There are several in the environment
Immunocompetent individuals rarely get affected by these organisms

May occasionally cause persistent lymphadenitis in young children
TREATMENT: complete lymph node excision or watchful waiting (in most cases, spontaneous resolution occurs)

NOTE: these organisms are transmitted by soil and water so NO contact tracing is needed

It can cause disseminated infection in immunocompromised individuals
Mycobacterium avium intracellulare infections are particularly common in patients with advanced HIV
These infections do NOT respond to conventional anti-TB treatment
Patients with cystic fibrosis are particularly susceptible to these infections

390
Q

Nontuberculous mycobacterial infections

A

There are several in the environment
Immunocompetent individuals rarely get affected by these organisms

May occasionally cause persistent lymphadenitis in young children
TREATMENT: complete lymph node excision or watchful waiting (in most cases, spontaneous resolution occurs)

NOTE: these organisms are transmitted by soil and water so NO contact tracing is needed

It can cause disseminated infection in immunocompromised individuals
Mycobacterium avium intracellulare infections are particularly common in patients with advanced HIV
These infections do NOT respond to conventional anti-TB treatment
Patients with cystic fibrosis are particularly susceptible to these infections

391
Q

A child is HIV positive. Where is it most likely that this child is located geographically?

A

Sub-Saharan Africa

392
Q

What is the main route of HIV transmission in children?

A

MOther-to-child transmission:
Intrauterine (during pregnancy)
Intrapartum (at delivery)
Postpartum (through breastfeeding)

Uncommon routes of transmission to children include infected blood products, contaminated needles and sexual abuse

393
Q

Diagnosis of HIV in children

A

Children > 18 months: detect antibodies against the virus

Children <18 months: who are born to infected mothers will have transplacental maternal IgG HIV antibodies, so a positive antibody test will confirm HIV exposure but not infection:
The most sensitive test in this age group is HIV RNA PCR
ALL babies born to HIV-infected mothers should be tested, irrespective of whether they are symptomatic or not

394
Q

Clinical features of HIV infection in children

A

Some HIV-infected infants will progress rapidly to symptomatic disease and AIDS within the first year of life
Others will remain asymptomatic for months or years before manifesting clinical features

Presentation depends on the degree of immunocompromise:
Mild= lymphadenopathy or parotid enlargement
Moderate= recurrent bacterial infections, candidiasis, chronic diarrhoea, lymphocytic interstitial pneumonitis
Severe: PCP, severe growth faltering, encephalopathy, malignancy (RARE)

IMPORTANT: an unusual constellation or symptoms (especially infectious) should make you consider HIV

395
Q

Reducing vertical transmission of HIV

A

Mothers with a high viral load are more likely to transmit HIV to their infant
Avoidance of breastfeeding also reduces transmission

IN high-income countries, perinatal transmission of HIV is <1% due to:
Use of effective ART during pregnancy and intrapartum to achieve an undetectable maternal viral load at delivery
Post-exposure prophylaxis given to infant
Avoidance of breastfeeding
Active management of labour/delivery to avoid prolonged rupture of the membranes and unnecessary instrumentation
Pre-labour C-section if the mother’s viral load is detectable close to the due date

396
Q

Reducing vertical transmission of HIV

A

Mothers with a high viral load are more likely to transmit HIV to their infant
Avoidance of breastfeeding also reduces transmission

IN high-income countries, perinatal transmission of HIV is <1% due to:
Use of effective ART during pregnancy and intrapartum to achieve an undetectable maternal viral load at delivery
Post-exposure prophylaxis given to infant
Avoidance of breastfeeding
Active management of labour/delivery to avoid prolonged rupture of the membranes and unnecessary instrumentation
Pre-labour C-section if the mother’s viral load is detectable close to the due date

397
Q

What organism causes Lyme disease?

A

Spirochaete Borrelia burgdorferi

398
Q

Clinical features of Lyme disease

A

Incubation period: 4-20 days

Erythematous macule at the site of the tick bite enlarges to cause erythema migrans (descrubed as a painless, red expanding leison with a bright red outer spreading edge)

Early features:
Fever (fluctuate over several weeks and resolve)
Headache
Malaise
Myalgia
Arthralgia
Lymphadenopathy
NB: dissemination of infection early is rare but can lead to cranial nerve palsies, meningitis, arthritis or carditis

Late features (weeks or months after initial infection):
Neurological (meningoencephalitis, cranial and peripheral neuropathies)
Cardiac (myocarditis, heart block)
Joint (varies from brief migratory myalgia to acute asymmetric monoarthritis and oligoarthritis of the large joints) - occurs in 50% of patients; recurrent attacks of arthritis are common; chronic erosive joint disease can occur months/years after the initial attack in 10% of cases

399
Q

Clinical features of Lyme disease

A

Incubation period: 4-20 days

Erythematous macule at the site of the tick bite enlarges to cause erythema migrans (descrubed as a painless, red expanding leison with a bright red outer spreading edge)

Early features:
Fever (fluctuate over several weeks and resolve)
Headache
Malaise
Myalgia
Arthralgia
Lymphadenopathy
NB: dissemination of infection early is rare but can lead to cranial nerve palsies, meningitis, arthritis or carditis

Late features (weeks or months after initial infection):
Neurological (meningoencephalitis, cranial and peripheral neuropathies)
Cardiac (myocarditis, heart block)
Joint (varies from brief migratory myalgia to acute asymmetric monoarthritis and oligoarthritis of the large joints) - occurs in 50% of patients; recurrent attacks of arthritis are common; chronic erosive joint disease can occur months/years after the initial attack in 10% of cases

400
Q

Diagnosis of Lyme disease

A

Based on clinical and epidemiological features and serology
Isolation of the organism is difficult
If Lyme disease is suspected without erythema migrans, offer an ELISA for Lyme disease
If the ELISA is positive, perform an immunoblot test
If immunoblot is positive, start treatment with oral antibiotics

401
Q

Management of Lyme disease

A

1st line: Doxycycline
2nd line: Amoxicillin
3rd line: Azithromycin
IV ceftriaxone is needed for carditis or neurological disease

Advice:
Explain that it is a bacterial infection treated with antibiotics but it can take some time (around a month) to get better
Some people can have a Jarish-Herxheimer reaction (antibiotics cause lysis of bacterial membranes leading to the release of toxins causing symptoms to worsen)
Lyme disease does not give lifelong immunity

402
Q

What does the 6 in 1 vaccine contain?

A
Diptheria
Tetanus
Pertusis
Polio
Hib
Hep B
403
Q

When is the 6 in 1 vaccine given?

A

2 months
3 months
4 months

404
Q

When is the pneumococcal conjuate vaccine (PCV13) given?

A

2 months
4 months
12 months

405
Q

When is the meningococcal B vaccine given:

A

2 months
4 months
12 months

406
Q

When is the rotavirus vaccine given?

A

2 months

3 months

407
Q

When is the booster Hib and MenC vaccine given?

A

1 year

408
Q

When is the MMR vaccine given?

A

1 year

3 years 4 months

409
Q

When is the HPV vaccine given to girls?

A

12-13 years

410
Q

When is the meningococcal ACWY conjugate vaccine given?

A

14 years

411
Q

What are the potential complications and contraindications to vaccination?

A

Swelling and discomfort at the injection site with mild fever and malaise
Anaphylaxis can occur but this is very rare
Live vaccines should not be given to immunocompromised children (except HIV-positive children on ART)
Vaccination should be postponed if the child has an acute illness

412
Q

Presenting features of immunodeficiency

A

Recurrent (proven) bacterial infection
Severe infections (e.g. meningitis, osteomyelitis, pneumonia)
Infections that present atypically, are unusually severe or chronic or fail to respond to regular treatment
Infections caused by an unexpected or opportunistic pathogen or a pathogen that the child has been immunised against
Severe or long-lasting warts, generalised molluscum contagiosum
Extensive candidiasis
Complications following live vaccinations (disseminated BCG)
Abscesses of internal organs; recurrent skin abscesses
Prolonged or recurrent diarrhoea (often combined with faltering growth)

413
Q

Management of immunodeficiency in children

A

Antimicrobial prophylaxis
- For T-cell and neutrophil defects:
Co-trimoxazole to prevent PCP
Itraconazole or fluconazole to prevent other fungal infections
- For B-cell defects:
Antibiotic prophylaxis (e.g. azithromycin) to prevent recurrent bacterial infections

Antibiotic treatment
Prompt treatment of infections
Longer courses
Low threshold for IV therapy

Screening for end-organ disease
E.g. CT scan in children with antibody deficiency to detect bronchiectasis

Immunoglobulin replacement therapy
For children with antibody deficiency

Bone marrow transplantation
E.g. for SCID, chronic granulomatous disease

Gene therapy

414
Q

IgE mediated reactions have a characteristic clinical course

A

Early phase: occurring within minutes of exposure to the allergen, caused by release of histamine and other mediators from mast cells. Causes urticaria, angioedema, sneezing, vomiting,bronchospasm and/or cardiovascular shock

Late phase: may occur after 4-6 hours, especially in reacitons to inhalant allergens. This causes nasal congestion in the upper airway, and cough and bronchospasm in the lower airway

Non-IgE allergic immune responses have a delayed onset of symptoms and a more varied clinical course

415
Q

Define hypersensitivity

A

Objectively reproducible symptoms or signs following exposure to a defined stimulus (e.g. food, drug, pollen) at a dose that is usually tolerated by most people

416
Q

Define allergy

A

A hypersensititivity reaciton initiated by specific immunological mechanisms. This can be IgE-mediated (e.g. peanut allergy) or non-IgE mediated (e.g. coeliac disease)

417
Q

Define atopy

A

A personal and.or familial tendency to produce IgE antibodies in response to ordinary exposures to potential allergens, usually proteins. Strongly associted with asthma, allergic rhinitis, and conjunctivitis, eczema and food allergy

418
Q

Define anaphylaxis

A

A serious allergic reaction with bronchial, laryngeal and cardiovascular involvement that is rapid in onset and may cause death

419
Q

Allergic children will develop individual allergic disorders at different ages:

A

INFANCY
Eczema
Food allergy

PRIMARY SCHOOL YEARS
Allergic rhinitis
Conjunctivitis
Asthma

The progression of allergic diseases from an initial diagnosis or, for example, eczema in infancy is called the ‘allergic march’

420
Q

Clinical features of allergy seen on examination

A

Mouth breathing + history of snoring or obstructive sleep apnoea
Allergic salute (rubbing the nose upwards - may be due to nose being itchy)
Pale and swollen inferior nasal turbinates
Hyperinfalted chest or Harrison sulci from chronic undertreated asthma
Atopic eczema affecting the limb flexures
Allergic conjunctivitis: may be prominent creases (Denne-Morgan folds), may be blue-grey discolouration below the lower eyelids
Growth should be checked: in patients with food alleergy, where dietary restriction of malabsorption can lead to nutritional compromise. In patients being treated with high-dose corticosteroids

421
Q

In what population should food allergy be considered?

A

Food allergy should be considered in any children who do not respons adequately to treatment for:
Atopic eczema
GORD
Chronic GI symptoms

422
Q

Management of allergic disease

A

Certain allergic diseases can be managed by specialists and GPs, however, because allergic diseases can co-exist, it should be considered a systemic disease
Paediatricians should help with trigger avoidance and manage children with severe disease

Specific allergen immunotherapy can be used to treat:
Allergic rhinitis and conjunctivitis
Insect stings
Anaphylaxis
Asthma

During immunotherapy, solutions of an allergen to which the patient is allergic are injected SC or sublingulally on a regular basis for 3-5 years, with the aim of developing immune tolerance
It can provide protection for many years
It has a risk of inducing anaphylaxis so must be done under specialist supervision

423
Q

How is a food allergy mediated?

A

A food allergy occurs when a pathological immune response is mounted against a specific food protein
It is usually IgE mediated

424
Q

What is food intolerance?

A

A non-immunological hypersensitivity reaction to a specific food

425
Q

Presentation of food allergy

A

Varies depending on age:
Infants: most common causes are milk, eggs and peanut
Older children: peanut, tree nut, fish, shellfish

426
Q

What causes secondary food allergy?

A

Usually due to cross-reactivity between proteins present in fresh fruits/vegetable/nuts and those present in pollens
E.g. a child who can eat apples may develop an allergy to apples when they are older if they develop an allergy to birch tree pollen, which has a very similar protein
This is called pollen food allergy syndrome and can cause mild allergic reactions (e.g. itchy mouth)

427
Q

Clinical features of food allergy

A

IgE mediated food allergy will present with a history of alergic symptoms varying from urticaria to facial swelling to anaphylaxis
This usually occurs 10-15 minutes after ingestion of a food

Non-IgE mediated food allergy usually presents with diarrhoea, vomiting, abdominal pain and sometimes faltering growth

  • Colic or eczema may also be present
  • It may present with blood in the stools due to proctitis in the first few weeks of life or severe repetitive vomiting which can result in shock (food protein-induced enterocolitis syndrome)
428
Q

How is food allergy diagnosed?

A

Clinical history is key
For IgE mediated food allergy, skin-prick tests are the most useful confirmatory test

Patch testing - identify allergens that cause reactions through delayed contact hypersensitivity where T cells play a major role (the allergenic extract is held against the skin for 48 hours)

Measurement of IgE antibodies in the blood is also useful

Non-IgE mediated food allergies are harder to diagnose - more reliant on clinical history and examination
Endoscopy and intestinal biopsy are sometimes performed when indicated
The diagnosis of non-IgE mediated food allergy is supported by the presence of eosinophilic infiltrates

429
Q

What is the gold standard investigation for both IgE and non-IgE-mediated food allergy?

A

Exclusion of the relevant food under the dietician’s supervision

  • This is followed by a double-blind placebo-controlled food challenge, which involves the child being subjected to increasing amounts of the food or placebo
  • It should be performed at hospital with full resuscitation facilities available
430
Q

Management of food allergy

A

Avoidance of relevant food
Educating the child and family about how to manage an allergic attack (allergy action plan)
Provide written self-management plans and training
Mild reactions (no cardiorespiratory symptoms) are treated with non-sedating antihistamines
Severe reactions (with cardiovascular, laryngeal or bronchial involvement) require IM adrenaline (may be given by autoinjector (EpiPen))
Food allergy to cow’s milk and egg often resolves in early childhood, so gradual reintroduction may be possible
Food allergy to nuts and seafood usually persist through to adulthood

431
Q

Define cow’s milk protein allergy

A

Abnormal reaction by the body’s immune system to a protein found in cows’ milk

432
Q

How is cows’ milk prtein allergy classified?

A

IgE-mediated = immediate reaction

Non-IgE mediated = delayed reaction

433
Q

Presentation of cows’ milk protein allergy

A

GI symptoms: vomiting, abdo pain, blood in stools, diarrhoea
Skin symptoms: hives, eczema
Babies: wheezing, irritability, facial swelling, poor growth

434
Q

Management of cows’ milk protein allergy

A

Consider referral to secondary care for a skin prick and/or specific IgE antibody blood test

Implement strict cows’ milk elimination diet for at least 6 months or until the child is 9-12 months
- Breastfed babies: advise mother to exclude cows’ milk protein from her diet. Consider prescribing daily supplement of 1000mg of calcium and 10mcg of vitamin D
- Formula-fed babies: advise replacement of cows’ milk-based formula with hypoallergenic infant formula (e.g. extensively hydrolysed formula or amino acid formula)
Weaned infants/older children: exclude cows’ milk protein from diet

Offer nutritional counselling with a paediatric dietician
Regularly monitor growth
Re-evaluate the child to assess for tolerance to cows’ milk protein (every 6-12 months) - this involves re-introducing cows’ milk protein into the diet
- If tolerance is established, greater exposure of less processed milk is advised following a ‘Milk Ladder’

SUPPORT: British Dietetic Association has produced a useful tact sheet

435
Q

How is rhinoconjunctivitis classified?

A

Classified based on pattern and severity of symptoms:
Pattern= intermittent or persistent
Severity = mild, moderate or severe

It can also be classfiied as seasonal or perennial

436
Q

How else can rhinoconjunctivitis present?

A

With a cough due to post-nasal drip or chronically blocked nose leading to sleep disturbance

437
Q

Management of rhinoconjunctivitis

A

Assess for symptoms of asthma
Try to identify the most likely causative allergen
Look for signs of chronic nasal congestion (e.g. mouth breathing, cough, halitosis)
Examine the nose for nasal polyps, deviated nasal septum, mucosal swelling or depressed or widened nasal bridge

For those who want ‘as required’ treatment for occasional symptoms:
If aged 2-5 or preference for oral treatment= oral antihistamine (e.g. cetirizine)
All others= intranasal azelastine (antihistamine)

For those who want preventative treatment for frequent symptoms:
Avoid the causative agent
If main issue is nasal blockage or nasal polyps = intranasal corticosteroid (e.g. beclomethasone)
If main issue is sneezing or nasal discharge = oral anthistamine or intranasal corticosteroid

For people requiring rapid relief whilst waiting for preventive treatment to take effect:
Intranasal corticosteroids for up to 7 days
Consider adding oral anithistamine
If symptoms are severe and/or impairing quality oflife, prescribe a 5-10 day course of prednisolone

438
Q

How does urticaria present?

A

Presents as hives or redness and results from local vasodilation and increased permeability of capillaries and venules
This is dependent on activation of skin mast cells, leading to the release of various mediators including histamines
It is itchy

439
Q

What can cause urticaria?

A
Viral infection (rash lasts for days)
Allergen exposure (rash lasts for hours)
440
Q

What is angioedema?

A

Urticaria involving deeper tissues to produce swelling (angioedema), especially of the lips and soft tissues around the eyes

441
Q

What is the main risk of urticaria?

A

When allergy has caused urticaria, there is a risk of anpahylaxis

442
Q

Chronic urticaria (>6 weeks)

A

Usually non-allergic

443
Q

Management of urticaria and angioedema

A

Identify and manage underlying triggers
Symptoms diaries can be useful
Consider assessing severity using a tool such as Urticaria Activity Score (UAS7)
Advise that urticaria is likely to be self-limiting
If symptomatic:
-Offer non-sedating antihistamine (e.g. cetirizine) for up to 6 weeks
- If severe offer a short course of oral corticosteroid
- If symptoms improve, consider giving treatment to take as required (if there were to be future episodes) or daily antihistamines for 3-6 months if symptoms are likely to be persistent

Consider referring to a dermatologist
In refractory cases, leukotriene receptor antagonists or anti-IgE antibody (omalizumab) may be used

444
Q

Why are a lot of children who have been labelled as drug-allergic not truly allergic?

A

Viral illness may cause a delayed rash, before which antibiotics are often erroneously given to the child

(Allergy to antibiotics is common in children)

445
Q

What are the two main causes of insect sting hypersensitivity?

A

Bee and wasp stings

446
Q

Severity of insect stings hypersensitivity

A

Mild: local swelling
Moderate: generalised urticaria
Severe: symptoms with wheeze or shock

Those who have suffered from a severe reaction should be offered an EpiPen and allergen immunotherapy

447
Q

Features of respiratory distress in infants

A
Moderate:
Tachypnoea
Tachycardia
Nasal flaring
Use of accessory respiratory muscles
Intercostal and subcostal recession
Head retraction
Inability to feed

Severe:
Cyanosis
Tiring because of increased work of breathing
Reduced conscious level
Oxygen saturation <92% despite oxygen therapy (NB: monitoring oxygen saturation is useful to detect hypoxaemia and to titrate the amount of additional oxygen required)

448
Q

Which children are at high risk of respiratory failure?

A

Ex-preterm infants with bronchopulmonary dysplasia
Haemodynamically significant congenital heart disease or disorders causing muscle weakness
CF
Immunodeficiency

449
Q

What causes stridor?

A

Caused by extrathoracic airway narrowing

Predominantly inspiratory

450
Q

What causes wheeze?

A

Caused by intrathoracic airway narrowing

Predominantly expiratory

451
Q

What is stertor?

A

A rough inspiratory noise caused by variable partial upper airway obstruction (snoring)

452
Q

What conditions are encompassed within the term ‘URTI’?

A

COmmon cold (coryza)
Sore throat (pharyngitis, including tonsilitis)
Acute otitis media
Sinusitis (relatively uncommon)

453
Q

Complications of URTIs

A

Difficulty feeding in infants because their noses are blocked
Febrile seizures
Acute exacerbations of asthma

454
Q

Most common causative organisms of coryza

A

Mostly viruses:
Rhinoviruses
Coronaviruses
RSV

455
Q

Management of common cold

A

Reassure that the common cold is self-limiting
Symptoms may peak after 2-3 days and they will typically resolve within 2 weeks
Encourage rest, adequate fluid intake and a healthy diet
Encourage the use of paracetamol or ibuprofen for symptomatic relief

456
Q

Causative organisms of pharyngitis

A
Usually due to a viral infeciton:
Adenoviruses
Enteroviruses
Rhinoviruses
IN older children, group A b-haemolytic streptococcus is common

The pharynx and soft palate become inflamed and local lymph nodes are enlarged and tender

457
Q

What is the difference between tonsilitis and pharyngitis?

A

Tonsilitis is a form of pharyngitis characterised by intense inflammation of the tonsil, often with purulent exudate

458
Q

Common causes of tonsilitis

A

Group A b-haemolytic streptococci

EBV

459
Q

How to distinguish between bacterial and viral tonsilitis?

A

It is difficult to distinguish clinically between bacterial and viral tonsilitis
However, marked constitutional disturbance (e.g. headache, apathy, abdominal pain, white tonsillar exudate and cervical lymphadenopathy) is more common with bacterial infection

460
Q

Management of pharyngitis

A

Arrange hospital admission if:
Difficulty breathing
Clinical dehydration
Peri-tonsillar abscess or cellulitis
Signs of marked systemic illness or sepsis
A suspected rare cause (e.g. Kawasaki disease, diphtheria)

Specific cases to look out for:
DMARDs- could cause immunodeficiency
Carbimazole - can cause idiosyncratic neutropenia
NB: take urgent FBC in both cases

If bacterial tonsilitis is confirmed using rapid anitgen testing:
Phenoxymethylpenicillin
If penicillin allergy: clarithromycin

ADVICE:
Adequate fluid intake
Paracetamol or ibuprofen when necessary
Salt water gargling, lozenges or anaesthetic sprays (e.g. Difflam) may provide temporary relief of throat pain
Children can return to school after fever has resolved and they are no longer feeling unwell and/or after taking antibiotics for 24 hours
Patients with recurrent tonsilitis may require referral to ENT

To eradicate the organism completely, 10 days of antibiotic treatment is required for pharyngitis and tonsilitis
Rarely, children may be admitted to hospital for IV fluids and analgesia if they are unable to swallow solids or liquids

461
Q

Why should amoxicillin be avoided in tonsilitis?

A

It may cause widespread maculopapular rash if the tonsitlitis is due to infectious mononucleosis

462
Q

What causes Scarlet Fever?

A

Group A streptococcal infection

463
Q

Presentation of Scarlet Fever

A

Fever usually precedes the presence of headache and tonsilitis by 2-3 days
Appearance of rash is variable
The typical rash will be sandpaper-like maculopapular rash with flushed cheeks and perioral sparing
The tongue is often white and coated and may be sore or swollen

464
Q

Management of Scarlet Fever

A

Antibiotics

  • Phenoxymethylpenicillin (penicillin V) 4/day for 10 days
  • Azithromycin (if penicillin allergy)

Paracetamol or ibuprofen can be given for symptomatic relief
Scarlet Fever is a notifiable disease so let PHE centre know
Symptoms should settle down after 1 week
Stay away from nursery/school for 24 hours after starting antibiotics
This is needed to prevent complications such as acute glomerulonephritis and rheumatic fever

465
Q

Complciations of Scarlet Fever

A

Suppurative: otitis media, throat infection/abscess, acute sinusitis/mastoiditis, streptococcal pneumonia, meningitis, endocarditis, osteomyelitis, necrotising fasciitis, toxic shock syndrome

Non-suppurative (autoimmune): rheumatic fever (arthritis, carditis, erythema marginatum), streptococal glomerulonephritis

466
Q

Why are infants and young children more prone to acute otitis media?

A

Short, horizontal, poorly functioning Eustachian tubes

467
Q

Presentation of acute otitis media

A

Ear pain and fever

NB: every child with a fever must have their tympanic membrane examined

In acute otitis media, the tympanic membrane is bright red and bulging with loss of the normal light reflex
Occasionally, the tympanic membrane can perforate and pus can become visible in the external canal

468
Q

Causative organisms of otitis media

A
RSV
Rhinovirus
Pneumococcus
H. influenzae
Moraxella catarrhalis
469
Q

Complications of otitis media

A

Mastoiditis

Meningitis

470
Q

Management of acute otitis media

A

Admit if:
Severe systemic infection
Complications (e.g. meningitis, mastoiditis, facial nerve palsy)
Children < 3 months with a temperature >38 degrees

ADVICE:
Advise that the usual course of acute otitis media is about 3 days but can last up to 1 week
Advise regular doses of paracetamol or ibuprofen for pain
There is no evidence to support the use of decongestants or antihistamines

Medical management:
- No antibiotic prescription: most cases will resolve spontaneously. Advise to seek help if the symptoms have not improved after 3 days or if the child deteriorates clinically
- Back-up antibiotic prescription - advise that the antibiotic is NOT needed immediately but should be used if symptoms have not improved after 3 days or if they have worsened significantly at any time
- Immediate antibiotic prescription - seek medical help if the symptoms worsen rapidly or the patient becomes systemically unwel (Amoxicillin 5-7 days as first line; clarithromycin or erythromycin can be used if penicillin allergy)
NB: antibiotics marginally reduce the duration of pain but have no effect on the risk of hearing loss

471
Q

Glue ear

A

Otitis media with effusion, resulting from recurrent ear infections

472
Q

Clinical features of glue ear

A

Children are usually asymptomatic except for possible reduced hearing
The eardrum is dull and retracted, often with a fluid level visible
This is common in 2-7 year olds
Usually resolves spontaneously
It may cause conductive hearing loss (most common cause in children)
- This can interfere with normal speech development and result in learning difficulties

In these children, ventilation tubes (grommets) are often inserted

  • The benefits do not last longer than 12 months
  • If problems recur after the extrusion of the grommet, reinsertion of grommets with adjuvant adenoidectomy is often advocated
473
Q

What type of organism usually causes sinusitis?

A

Viral URTI (occasionally may get secondary bacterial infection)

474
Q

WHy are the frontal sinuses rarely affected in paediatric sinsusitis?

A

The frontal sinuses do not develop until late childhood

475
Q

Management of sinusitis

A

Refer to hospital if there are symptoms and signs of:
Severe systemic infeciton
Intraorbital or periorbital problems (e.g. periorbital cellulitis, displaced eyeball, double vision)
Intracranial complications (e.g. features of meningitis)

Symptoms lasting < 10 days:
Do not offer an antbiotic
ADVISE:
- Acute sinusitis is usually caused by a virus and takes 2-3 weeks to resolve (it can be complicated by a bacterial infection)
- Symptoms, such as fever, can be managed using paracetamol or ibuprofen
- Some may find some relief using nasal saline or nasal decongestants
- Medical advice should be sought if symptoms worsen rapidly, or if they do not improve in 3 weeks or become systemically unwell

Symptoms lasting > 10 days

  • Consider high-dose nasal corticosteroid for 14 days for adults and children > 12 years old (e.g. mometasone)
  • > may improve symptoms but unlikely to affect duration of illness
  • > Could cause systemic side-effects
  • Consider NO antitbiotic prescription or back-up prescription
  • > antibiotics are unlikely to change the course of the illness
  • > the back up prescription should be used if symptoms get considerably worse or if it still has not improved by 7 days
  • > 1st line: phenoxymethylpenicillin (clarithromycin if penicillin allergy)
  • > 2nd line: co-amoxiclav
  • Advise patients to seek medical advice if they develop complciations or their symptoms do not improve/worsen (consider alternative diagnoses such as dental infection)- NHS Choices information on sinusitis
476
Q

Indications for tonsillectomy

A
Recurrent severe tonsilitis
Peritonsillar abscess (quinsy)
Obstructive sleep apnoea (adenoids will also be removed)
477
Q

Indications for removal of both adneoids and tonsils

A

Recurrent otitis media with effusion with hearing loss

Obstructive sleep apnoea

478
Q

Causes of acute stridor

A

COMMON: croup (viral laryngotracheobronchitis)
- Mucosal inflammation and swelling can rapidly cause life-threatening obstruction of the airway in young children

RARE:
Epiglottitis
Bacterial tracheitis
Laryngeal or oesophageal foreign body
Allergic laryngeal angioedema
Inhalaiton of smoke and hot fumes in fires
Trauma to the throat
Retropharyngeal abscess
Hypocalcaemia
Severe lymph node swelling (TB, infectious mononucleosis, malginancy)
Measles
Diphtheria
Psychological (vocal cord dysfunction)
479
Q

Severity of obstruction can be assessed clinically from the characteristics of the stridor:

A

None
Only on crying
At rest
Biphasic

It can also be assessed based on the degree of chest retraction:
None
Only on crying
At rest

480
Q

What can severe upper airway obstruction lead to?

A

Tachypnoea
Tachycardia
Agitation

VERY SEVERE: central cyanosis, drooling, reduced level of consciousness

481
Q

What is the best measure of hypoxaemia?

A

Oxygen saturation by pulse oximetry

482
Q

Why should examination of the throat be avoided in a child with upper airway obstruction?

A

Total obstruction of the upper airway can be precipitated by examination of the throat using a spatula, so you should avoid examining the throat of a child with upper airway obstruction unless full resuscitation equipment and personnel are on hand
(lying the child down or performing a lateral neck X-ray should also be avoided)

483
Q

Causative pathogens of croup

A

Most common are parainfluenza viruses

Other viruses:
Rhinovirus
RSV
Inluenza

484
Q

What is the peak age range affected by croup?

A

1-2 years

age range affected: 6 months - 6 years

485
Q

Clinical features of croup

A

Coryza and fever followed by:
Hoarseness due to inflammation of the vocal cords
A barking cough, like a sea lion, due to tracheal oedema and collapse
Harsh stridor
Variable degree of breathing difficulty with chest retraction

Symptoms often start, and are worse, at night

486
Q

Management of croup

A

NB: if upper airway obstruction if mild then the stridor and chest recession will disapper when the child is at rest, so can be managed at home
Children <12 months old have a low threshold for hospital admission

Categorise the severity:
Mild: seal-like barking cough but no stridor or sternal/intercostal recession at rest
Moderate: seal-like barking cough with stridor and sternal recession at rest, no agitation and lethargy
Severe: seal-like barking cough with stridor and sternal/intercostal recession associated with agitation or lethargy
Impending respiratory failure: increasing upper airway obstruction, sternal/intercotal recession, asynchronous chest wall and abdominal movement, fatigue, cyanosis/pallor, reduced consciousness, respiratory rate > 70
IMPORTANT: admit all children with croup that is worse than mild

If hospital admission is not required: single dose of oral dexamethasone (0.15mg/kg) to be taken immediately

ADVICE:
Advise that croup normally resolves after 48 hours
Advise to seek medical attention if stridor continues, skin between ribs is pulling in, if the child is restless or agitated
Advise to call an ambulance if very pale, blue or grey for more than a few seconds, unusually sleepy or unresponsive, having a lot of trouble breathing pr generally unwell
Paracetamol or ibuprofen can be used if the child has a fever and is distressed
Advise good fluid intake
Advise parents to check the child regularly at night

Croup causing chest recession at rest:
Oral dexamethasone OR oral prednisolone OR nebulised steroids (budesonide)
These will reduce the severity and duration of croup and reduce the need for hospitalisaiton

Severe upper airways obstruction:
Nebulised adrenaline with oxygen by face mask (causes rapid but transient improvement)
Children should be closely monitored

487
Q

Why is epiglottitis a life-threatening emergency?

A

Intense swelling of the epiglottitis and surrounding tissues associated with septicaemia
It is an emergency because of the high risk of respiratory obstruction

488
Q

What organism causes epiglottitis?

A

H. influenzae type b (Hib)

489
Q

What is the main age group affected by epiglottitis?

A

1-6 years

NB: massively reduced incidence since introduction of Hib vaccine

490
Q

Clinical features of acute epiglottitis

A

Very acute:
High fever in a very ill, toxic-looking child
An intensely painful throat that prevents the child from speaking or swallowing; saliva drools down the chin
Soft inspiratory stridor and rapidly increasing respiratory difficulty over hours
The child sitting immobile, upright, with an open mouth to optimise airway

491
Q

What is the key difference between epiglottitis and viral croup?

A

Cough is not a feature of acute epiglottitis, unlike viral croup

492
Q

Management of acute epiglottitis

A

If acute epiglottitis is suspected, urgent hospital admission and treatment are required
The child should be transferred to the intensive care unit
Secure the airway and give supplemental oxygen
Take a blood culture
Start IV antibiotics (e.g. cefuroxime)
In some patients, steroids and adrenaline may be used
With appropriate treatment, most children will recover completely within 2-3 days
As with other serious H.infleunzae infections, prophylaxis with rifampicin is offered to close household contacts

493
Q

What organism causes bacterial tracheitis (pseudomembranous croup)

A

RARE but dangerous

S.aureus

Similar presentation to croup in that the child will have a high fever, appear very ill and have rapidly progressive airways obstruction with copious thick airway secretions

494
Q

Management of bacteria tracheitis

A

IV antibiotics and intubation and ventilation if required

495
Q

What are the causes of wheeze?

A

Acute wheeze is due to parital obstruction of the intrathoracic airways
This can be form mucosal inflammation and swelling (e.g. bronchiolitis)
It can also be due to bronchoconstriction (e.g. asthma, mechanical obstruction)

496
Q

What is the peak incidence age of bronchiolitis?

A

1-9 months

497
Q

What is the most common causative organism for bronchiolitis?

A

RSV

Remainder of the cases are due to parainfluenza, rhinovirus, adenovirus, influenza virus and human metapneumoniavirus

498
Q

Symptoms of bronchiolitis

A

Coryzal symptoms preceding a dry cough and increasing breathlessness
Feeding difficulty due to increasing dyspnoea
Recurrent apnoea (SERIOUS complication)

499
Q

Which infants are at high risk of bronchiolitis?

A

Infants born prematurely who develop bronchopulmonary dysplasia or with underlying lung disease (e.g. CF) or congenital heart disease

500
Q

Signs of bronchiolitis

A
Dry wheezy cough
Tachypnoea and tachycardia
Subcostal and intercostal recession
Hyperinflation of the chest
Fine end-inspiratory crackles
High-pitched wheezes (expiratory>inspiratory)
501
Q

Investigations for bronchiolitis

A
Pulse oximetry (should be performed on all children with suspected bronchiolitis)
CXR or blood gases are ONLY recommended if respiratory failure is suspected
Hospital admission needed if:
Apnoea
Persistent oxygen saturation <90% on air
Inadequate oral fluid intake (50-75% of usual volume)
Severe respiratory distress:
- Grunting
- Marked chest recession
- Respiratory rate > 70 breaths a minute
502
Q

Management of bronchiolitis

A

Humidified oxygen supplementation if saturation is persistently <92%
Consider CPAP if impending respiratory failure
Consider upper airway suction if there is evidence of increased airway secretions (this should definitely be performed if they are presenting with apnoea)
Give fluids by nasogastric or orogastric tube if they cannot take enough by mouth
Supportive
IMPORTANT: RSV is highly infectious, so infection control measures are needed to prevent cross-infection
Most infants will recover within 2 weeks
RARELY, the illness may cause permanent damage to the airways (bronchiolitis obliterans)

503
Q

Preventative measures against bronchiolitis

A

Palivizumab (monoclonal antibody against RSV) reduces the number of admissions in high-risk preterm infants

504
Q

Three patterns of wheezing

A

Viral episodic wheezing (wheeze only in response to viral infections)
Multiple trigger wheeze (wheeze in response to multiple triggers and is more likely to develop into asthma over time)
Asthma

505
Q

What is thought to be the cause of viral episodic wheezing/

A

Thought to result from small airways being more likely to narrow and obstruct due to inflammation and aberrant immune responses to viral infection

506
Q

Risk factors for viral episodic wheeze

A

Maternal smoking during and/or after pregnancy

Prematurity

507
Q

Management of viral episodic wheeze

A

Prescribe a salbutamol inhaler
A spacer should be used (improves delivery of the drug)
Encourage parents who are smokers to stop

Instructions:
Check expiry date of inhaler
Shake it
Insert it into the end of the spacer
Administer one puff into the spacer
Then ask the child to breathes slowly and deeply through the mouthpiece for 5-10 breaths (10 breaths in children <2 years)
NB: if the spacer makes a whistling sound, it means they are breathing too quickly
The spacer should be cleaned once per month using warm soapy water

Dosing:
When the child is wheezy/breathless, give them up to 10 puffs of salbutamol with the spacer up to every 4 hours

Safety net:
If they do not respond or improve after 10 puffs or they need it again, seek help
If your child continues to be wheezy/breathless 48 hours after being discharged from hospital, seek help
If they experience symptoms in between viral illness (interval symptoms) they are at increased risk of having asthma

If the salbutamol inhaler is ineffective, intermittent LTRA or intermittent ICS or both may be considered

508
Q

Atopic asthma is strongly associated with:

A

Eczema
Rhinoconjunctivitis
Food allergy

509
Q

Clinical features of multiple trigger wheeze/ashtma

A

Asthma should be suspected in any child with wheezing on more than one occasion
Wheezing should be described as “a whistling in the chest when your child breaths out”
On auscultation, an asthmatic wheeze is a polyphonic noise coming from the airways, due to the presence of many airways of different sizes

Symptoms worsen at night and in the early morning
Symptoms that have non-viral triggers
Interval symptoms (ie. symptoms between acute exacerbations)
Personal or family history of atopic disease
Positive response to asthma therapy

Long-standing asthma may cause hyperinflation of the chest and generalised polyphonic expiratory wheeze with a prolonged expiratory phase
Onset of the disease in early childhood can result in Harrison sulci (depressions at the base of the thorax associated with the muscular insertion of the diaphragm)

510
Q

Investigations for asthma

A

If < 5 years old, the diagnosis is clinical
If > 5 years old, offer/consider
- Spirometry: FEV1/FVC < 70% of expected is a positive result
- Bronchodilator reversibility: consider in children with a positive spirometry result. An imporovement in FEV1 of > 12% if considered positive.
- Peak expiratory flow variability: consider peak flow monitoring for 2-4 weeks in children if there is diagnostic uncertainty
- FeNO test: consider if there is diagnostic uncertainty after initial assessment. A level >35 ppb is considered a positive test (this is a measure of airway inflammation)

Skin-prick testing for common allergens may be performed (helps identify triggers and demonstrate atopy)

511
Q

Medical management of asthma in children < 5 years of age

A

1) Offer a SABA (e.g. salbutamol) as a reliever therapy
2) consider an 8-week trial of paediatrics moderate dose ICS in children with: symptoms at presentation that clearly indicate the need for maintenance therapy (e.g. asthma-related symptoms > 3 times per week), or suspected asthma that is uncontrolled by SABA alone
3) After 8 weeks, stop ICS treatment and continue to monitor the child’s symptoms:
- If symptoms did not resolve, consider an alternative diagnosis
- If symptoms resolved but then recurred within 4 weeks of stopping ICS, restart paedaitrics ICSM low dose as first line
- If symptoms resolved but recurred beyond 4 weeks after stopping ICS, repeat the 8-week trial of paediatric moderate dose ICS
4) if suspected asthma is uncontrolled on paediatric low dose ICS as maintenance therapy, consider an LTRA (e.g. montelukast) in addition to the ICS
5) if still uncontrolled despite the preceding steps, stop the LTRA and refer the child to a healthcare professional with expertise in asthma

512
Q

Contraindications for LP

A

Raised ICP
Coagulopathy
Infection at site of LP
Meningococcal septicaemia

513
Q

Paediatric sepsis 6

A
Give high flow oxygen
Obtain IV/IO access and take blood cultures (and blood gas, lactate, glucose)
Give IV/IO antibiotics 
Consider fluid resuscitation
Involve senior clinicians early
Consider ionotropic support early
514
Q

Medical management of asthma in children aged 5-16 years

A

1) SABA (e.g. salbutamol) to be used as a reliever
2) Offer paediatric low dose ICS as first-line maintenance therapy to children with symptoms at presentation that clearly indicate the need for maintenance therapy (e.g. asthma-related symptoms > 3 times per week), or suspected asthma that is uncontrolled by SABA alone
3) Consider an LTRA in addition to the ICS and review in 4-8 weeks
4) Consider stopping the LTRA and starting a LABA
5) Consider changing the ICS and LABA maintenance therapy to a MART regimen, with a paediatric low maintenance ICS dose
6) Consider increasing ICS to a paediatric moderate maintenance dose
7) Refer to specialist care (they may consider using paediatric high dose ICS or a trial of an additional drug (e.g theophylline)

515
Q

Non-Pharmacological aspects of asthma management

A

Assess patient’s baseline asthma status (can be done using Asthma Control Questionnaire or a lung function test (e.g. spirometry))

Provide self-management education and a personalised asthma action plan (available from Asthma UK)

Ensure child is up to date with routine immunisations

Provide information about sources of support (Asthma UK)

Advise about trigger avoidance (specific allergens, smoke, beta-blockers, NSAIDs)

NOTE: parents should be advised to stop smoking

Assess for the presence of anxiety and depression

Ensure that the patient has their own peak flow meter

Explain how to use inhalers

516
Q

Other therapies for asthma

A

In severe persistent asthma that is unresponsive to conventional treatment, oral prednisolone (given on alternate days) may be used

Anti-IgE therapy (omalizumab) is an injectable monoclonal antibody that acts against IgE (mediator of allergy)

Antihistamines and nasal steroids may be useful in the treatment of allergic rhinitis

517
Q

Define complete control of asthma

A

Absence of daytime or night-time symptoms, no limit on activities (including exercise), no need for reliever use, normal lung function and no exacerbations (need for hospitalisation or oral steroids) in the previous six months

518
Q

At review for asthma….

A

Confirm adherence to medication
Review inhaler technique
Review if treatment needs to be changed
Ask about occupational asthma and triggers

519
Q

Bronchodilator therapy for asthma

A

Inhaled beta-2 agonists are the most commonly used and most effective bronchodilator

SABAs (e.g. salbutamol, terbutaline) have a rapid onset of action (maximum effects after 10-15 mins):
Furthermore, they are effective for 2-4 hours and have few side-effects
SABAs are used as required (PRN)

LABAs (e.g. salmeterol, formoterol): 
Effective for 12 hours  
NOT used in acute asthma  
Should NOT be used without an inhaled corticosteroid 
Useful in exercise-induced asthma  

Ipratropium bromide:
Anticholinergic bronchodilator
Sometimes given to young infants if other bronchodilators are ineffective or to treat severe acute asthma

520
Q

Preventer therapy for asthma

A

Inhaled Corticosteroids:
Most effective prophylactic therapy
They decrease airway inflammation leading to reduced symptoms, decreased frequency of asthma exacerbations and reduced bronchial hyperactivity
They are often used in conjunction with an inhaled LABA or leukotriene receptor antagonist
If used at low-doses, there are no serious side effects
NOTE: it can cause a mild reduction in height velocity, however this is followed by catch-up growth in later childhood

Possible systemic side-effects with high-dose use:
Impaired growth
Adrenal suppression
Altered bone metabolism

To avoid these side-effect, very low doses should be used

Add-on Therapy

1st choice add-on therapy in:
Children > 5 years = LABA
Children < 5 years = leukotriene receptor antagonist (e.g. montelukast)
NOTE: LRAs may also be used in older children if LABA fails to control symptoms

Alternative add-on: slow-release oral theophylline
NOTE: this has a high incidence of side-effects( e.g. vomiting, insomnia, headaches, poor concentration)

521
Q

Criteria for hospital admission for acute asthma

A

If, after high-dose inhaled bronchodilator therapy, the child is still:
Not responded adequately clinically (ie. persisting breathlessness, tachypnoea)
Becoming exhausted
Still have a marked reduction in predicted peak flow rate or FEV1 (<50%)

The child should be admitted

522
Q

How to determine severity of acute asthma

A
  • Moderate= PEFR 50-75%, Normal speech
  • Severe = PEFR 33-50%,
    RR >25 (>12 years), RR > 30 (5-12 years), RR>40 (2-5 years)
    HR >110 (>12 years), HR > 125 (5-12 years), HR > 140 (2-5 years)
    Inability to complete sentences in one breath
    Accessory muscle use
    Inability to feed
    SpO2 > 92%
  • Life-threatening = PEFR <33%
    SpO2 < 92%
    Altered consciousness
    Exhaustion
    Cardiac arrhythmia
    Hypotension
    Cyanosis
    Poor respiratory effort
    Silent chest
523
Q

Management of acute asthma where hospital admission is required

A
Determine the severity of asthma:
Examine the patient
Measure peak flow if possible
Measure oxygen saturation
Measure pulse rate and respiratory rate
Assess for signs of exhaustion, cyanosis and increased respiratory effort

Admit everyone with severe or life-threatening asthma

Management whilst awaiting admission to hospital:
Give supplemental oxygen to all hypoxic patients (Use Venturi mask or nasal cannulae; Adjust flow rate to maintain sats 94-98%)
Treat with SABA:
- Life-threatening asthma: nebulised salbutamol (ideally should be oxygen-driven= 5mg if>5 years, 2.5mg if 2-5 years)- if a nebuliser is unavailable, use a pressurised MDI with a large volume spacer

If the SABA was ineffective, consider ipratropium bromide (30-40 mg if >5 years, 20 mg if 2-5 years, 10 mg if < 2 years)
Monitor PEFR and oxygen saturation

Follow-up: Follow up within 2 working days of discharge

524
Q

Managing acute asthma if hospital admission is NOT required

A

Use SABA with a large-volume spacer to relieve acute symptoms

  • 1 puff ever 30-60 seconds up to 10 puffs
  • 5 tidal breaths should be taken per puff

Prescribe a short course of oral prednisolone (3-7 days)
Consider antibiotics if there is clinical suspicion of bacterial infection
Once symptoms have subsided, advise patient to return to using their SABA PRN up to 4 times a day, not exceeding 4-hourly

The dose of ICS does not need to be altered and ICS should not be used as an alternative for oral prednisolone

Advise patients to monitor PEFR and to seek help if symptoms worsen/PEFR decreases
Consider initiating motelukast in children > 2 years

Follow-up within 48 hours of presentation

525
Q

Other potential therapies for acute asthma

A

Magnesium sulphate has few side-effects and is considered the first choice IV agent

Aminophylline needs to be infused slowly, as rapid infusion can cause seizures, sever vomiting and fatal cardiac arrhytmias

IV salbutamol

Antibiotics if there is clinical suspicion of bacterial infection

NB: ECG should be monitored and blood electrolytes checked when using aminophylline and salbutamol

526
Q

Patient education after an episode of acute asthma

A

Before discharge, the following should be reviewed with the child and family:
When drugs should be used (regularly or PRN)
How to use the drug (inhaler technique)
What each drug does (relief vs prevention)
How often and how much can be used (frequency and dosage)
What to do if asthma worsens (a written personalised asthma management action plan should be compiled)

Inform the parents and child about features of poorly controlled asthma (e.g. cough, wheeze, breathlessness, difficulty walking/talking/sleeping, decreasing relief from bronchodilators)

Measurement of peak flow at home will allow earlier recognition of deteriorating asthma

527
Q

Periodic assessment of the child with asthma

A

Growth and nutrition

Peak flow/spirometry

Chest for:
Hyperinflation
Harrison’s sulcus
Wheeze

Are there other allergic disorders?
Allergic rhinitis
Eczema, etc.

If there is: 
Sputum 
Finger clubbing 
Growth failure 
— If present, other causes should 
be sought 
Monitor: 
Peak flow diary 
Severity and frequency of 
symptoms 
Exercise tolerance 
Interference with life, 
time off school 
Is sleep disturbed? 
Use of preventer and reliever 
medication — are they 
appropriate? 
Inhaler technique 
Consider triggers: 
Allergic rhinitis needing 
treatment? 
Allergens - animal dander, etc. 
Stress
528
Q

Atypical causes of acute wheeing

A

Atypical pneumonia: Mycoplasma, Chlamydia and adenovirus pneumonia can cause wheezing

Foreign body inhalation:
Abrupt onset cough followed by wheeze in a previously well child is suggestive of foreign body inhalation
CXR performed during expiration will show persistent hyperinflation of the lung distal to the obstruction
Eventually, airway swelling causes complete obstruction and lobar collapse is seen

Anaphylaxis:
Suspect if acute urticaria, facial swelling, stridor or previous reaction to allergen

529
Q

Management of foreign body inhalation

A
Conscious: 
Encourage coughing 
External manoeuvres 
Back blows 
Chest thrusts for infants  
Abdominal thrusts (Heimlich) 
- NOTE: these should NOT be done on infants and very young children  

Removal of foreign body

  • Flexible bronchoscopy OR rigid bronchoscopy
  • > Rigid bronchoscopy is preferred in cases of stridor, asphyxia, radio-opaque object seen on CXR, a history of foreign body aspiration associated with unilateral decreased breath sounds, localising wheeze, obstructive hyper-inflation or atelectasis
  • > In all other cases, flexible bronchoscopy should be performed to confirm the diagnosis
  • 2nd line: surgery, thoracotomy

Unconscious:
Secure the airway IMMEDIATELY (endotracheal intubation)
- Unless the foreign body can be seen and removed from the upper airway
Removal of foreign body (as above)

530
Q

Presentation of whooping cough

A

A week of coryza (catarrhal phase)
Followed by the development of a characteristic paroxysmal or spasmodic cough followed by a characteristic inspiratory whoop (paroxysmal phase)
Spasms of cough are often worse at night and may cause vomiting
During the paroxysm, the child goes red or blue in the face and mucus flows from the nose and mouth
NB: the whoop may not be present in infants
Nosebleeds and sunconjunctival haemorrhages can occur after vigorous coughing
The paroxysmal phase can last up to 3 months
The symptoms will eventually decrease (convalescent phase)

531
Q

Complications of whooping cough

A

Pneumonia
Seizures
Bronchiectasis

NB: infants and young children suffering from severe spasms of cough or cyanotic attacks should be admitted to hospital and isolated from other children

532
Q

Investigations for whooping cough

A

Organism can be identified from culture of a perinasal swab
PCR is more sensitive
Serology
There is marked lymphocytosis

533
Q

Management of whooping cough

A

Admit if:
<6 months or acutely unwell
Significant breathing difficulties (e.g. apnoea, severe paroxysms, cyanosis)
Significant complications (e.g. seizures, pneumonia)
- inform the hospital about need to isolate

Pharmacological treatment - if admission is not needed, prescribe an antibiotic if the onset of the cough is within 21 days (macrolide antibiotic is firs-line)
- < 1 month = clarithromycin
1+ months/non-pregnant adult = azithromycin
Pregnant adult = erythromycin (recommended from 36 weeks gestation to reduce risk of transmission to the newborn)
- Co-amoxiclav can be used if macrolides are contraindicated or not tolerated (however, this is not allowed in pregnant adults or babies < 6 weeks)

Advice:
Advise rest, adequate fluid intake and the use of paracetamol or ibuprofen for symptomatic relief
Inform the parents that, despite antibiotic treatment, the disease is likely to cause a protracted non-infectious cough that may take weeks to resolve
Advise that children should avoid nursery until 48 hours of appropriate antibiotic treatment has been completed or until 21 days after the onset of the cough if it was not treated
Once the acute illness has been dealt with, advise parents to complete any outstanding immunisations

Siblings, parents and school contacts may have developed a similar cough, and close contacts should receive macrolide prophylaxis
Immunisation reduces the risk of developing pertussis but does not provide absolute protection
Re-immunisation of mothers during pregnancy reduces the risk of pertussis in her infant during the first few months of life (this is when it is particularly dangerous)

534
Q

Causes of persistent/recurrent cough

A

Most commonly caused by a series of respiratory tract infections

Other causes:
Following specific respiratory infections (e.g. pertussis, RSV, Mycoplasma)
Asthma
Persistent lobar collapse following pneumonia
Suppurative lung diseases (e.g. cystic fibrosis, ciliary dyskinesia, immune deficiency)
Recurrent aspiration (with or without GORD)
Persistent bacterial bronchitis
Inhaled foreign body
Cigarette smoking (active or passive)
Tuberculosis
Habit cough
Airway anomalies (e.g. tracheo-bronchomalacia, tracheo-oesophageal fistula)

535
Q

When should a cough be considered persistent?

A

A cough that lasts more than 8 weeks or one that has not improved after 3-4 weeks should be considered persistent in the absence of a recurrent URTI

NB: in any child with a severe, persistent cough, TB should be considered

536
Q

What is the most common causative organism of pneumonia in children?

A

Viruses in younger children, bacteria in older children

Newborn:
Organisms from the mother’s genital tract
Particularly group B streptococcus
Other causes include Gram-negative enterococci and bacilli

Infants and Young Children:
Respiratory viruses (particularly RSV)
Bacterial causes include S. pneumoniae and H. influenzae
Other, less common, causes include Bordatella pertussis or Chlamydia trachomatis
Staphylococcus aureus is a RARE but SERIOUS cause of pneumonia

Children > 5 years:
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Chlamydia pneumoniae

AT ALL AGES, Mycobacterium tuberculosis should be considered

537
Q

Clinical features of pneumonia

A
Fever
Cough
Rapid breathing
Lethargy
Poor feeding
Unwell child
NB: localised chest, abdominal or neck pain is a feature of pleural irritation and suggests bacterial infection

Tachypnoea
Nasal flaring
Chest indrawing
Increased respiratory rate is the most sensitive clinical sign of pneumonia in children
O2 sats may be decreased
(in young children, the classical pneumonia signs of consolidation with dullness on percussion, decreased breath sound and bronchial breathing are often absent)

538
Q

Investigations for pneumonia

A

CXR may confirm the diagnosis, but cannot distinguish between bacterial and viral
A pleural effusion may be seen in some patients
Some of these effusions may develop into empyema

539
Q

Management of pneumonia

A

Determine severity:
Measure temperature
Examine chest
Record BP, HR and RR
Note the degree of agitation and consciousness
Note signs of exhaustion, cyanosis and accessory muscle use
Assess hydration status (capillary refill, examining skin turgor, dry mucous membranes and urine output)

Immediately REFER for hospital admission if:
Persistent SpO2 < 92% on air
Grunting, marked chest recession, RR > 60/min
Cyanosis
Child looks seriously unwell, does not wake, or does not stay awake if roused or does not respond to normal social cues
Temperature > 38 degrees in a child < 3 months
Consider admission if: dehydration, decreased activity, nasal flaring, predisposing diseases (e.g. chronic lung disease)
Whilst awaiting hospital admission give controlled supplemental oxygen if SpO2 < 92%

If hospital admission is NOT needed:
Most children can be managed at home
Prescribe antibiotics
- IMPORTANT: all children with a clinical diagnosis of pneumonia should receive antibiotics because bacterial and viral pneumonia cannot be reliably distinguished from each other
- NOTE: children < 2 yrs presenting with mild respiratory tract symptoms do NOT usually have pneumonia and do not usually require antibiotics
- AMOXICILLIN is first-line for 7-14 days
- Alternatives: co-amoxiclav, cefaclor or macrolides (e.g. erythromycin)
- Macrolides can be added at any stage if there is no response to first-line treatment

Advice:
Paracetamol or ibuprofen if the child is distressed by the fever (should NOT be given simultaneously but may be interchanged)
Advise adequate fluid intake
Advise parents not to smoke at home
Check on the child regularly through day and night
Seek medical advice if they are unable to cope or the child’s condition deteriorates (e.g. signs of increased respiratory effort/distress, reduced fluid intake, reduced responsiveness, worsening or unresolving fever)

Small effusions may occur in some children but most will resolve with appropriate antibiotics
However, a persistent fever despite 48 hours of antibiotics suggests a pleural collection that required drainage (with ultrasound guidance)
NOTE: patients with evidence of lobar collapse or atelectasis should have a repeat CXR after 4-6 weeks to check whether the lung fields look normal

540
Q

Common causative organisms of chronic lung infection in children

A

H. infleunzae
Moraxella catarrhalis

May be a precursor to bronchiectasis

Bacterial growth from the sputum or bronchial lavage will confirm the diagnosis

541
Q

Management of persistent bacterial bronchitis

A

Persistent bacterial bronchitis, where there is persistent inflammation of the lower airways due to chronic infection, is an increasingly recognised cause of chronic wet cough in children

High-dose anitbiotics (e.g. co-amoxiclav)
Physiotherapy

542
Q

Bronchiectasis is an important cause of persistent wet cough

A

It can be generalised or restricted to a lobe

Generalised bronchiectasis can be due to: 
Cystic fibrosis  
Primary ciliary dyskinesia 
Immunodeficiency  
Chronic aspiration  

Focal bronchiectasis can be caused by:
Previous severe pneumonia
Congenital lung abnormality
Obstruction by a foreign body

543
Q

What is the best investigation to identify bronchiectasis?

A

Chest CT

Bronchoscopy may be used in focal bronchiectasis to exclude a structural cause

544
Q

Management of bronchiectasis

A

Exercise and improved nutrition

Airway clearance therapy (postural drainage, percussion, vibration, use of oscillatory devices)

Inhaled bronchodilator (e.g. salbutamol)

Inhaled hyperosmolar agent (e.g. hypertonic saline)

Long-term oral macrolide (azithromycin)

Lung transplantation or resection of the bronchiectatic areas

545
Q

Pathophysiology of CF

A

CF is a multisystem disorder resulting from abnormal ion transport across epithelial cell membranes

This leads to a reduction in the airway surface liquid layer and impaired ciliary function and retention of mucopurulent secretions

This will, in turn, result in infection by Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Defective CFTR also leads to dysregulation of inflammation and defence against infection

In the intestines, thick viscid meconium is produced, leading to meconium ileus in 10-20% of infants

Meconium ileus is when an inspissated meconium causes intestinal obstruction

This presents with vomiting, abdominal distension and failure to pass meconium in the first few days of life

Surgery is usually required, but gastrografin enema may relieve the obstruction

Pancreatic ducts can also get blocked by thick secretions leading to pancreatic enzyme deficiency and malabsorption

Abnormal function of sweat glands leads to excessive sodium and chloride concentrations in the sweat

546
Q

Clinical features of CF

A

ALL NEWBORN INFANTS born in the UK are screened for CF
Immunoreactive trypsinogen (IRT) is raised in newborn infants with CF and is measured in the routine heel-prick test
- Samples with a raised IRT will be screened for common CF gene mutations
- Infants with two mutations will have a sweat test to confirm the diagnosis

MOST CHILDREN are identified through screening
However, some may present clinically with different features depending on age:

Newborn:
Diagnosed though newborn screening
Meconium ileus

Infancy: 
Prolonged neonatal jaundice  
Growth faltering  
Recurrent chest infections  
Malabsorption, steatorrhoea  
Young Child: 
Bronchiectasis  
Rectal prolapse  
Nasal polyp  
Sinusitis  

Older Child and Adolescent:
Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis
Diabetes mellitus
Cirrhosis and portal hypertension
Distal intestinal obstruction (meconium ileus equivalent)
Pneumothorax or recurrent haemoptysis
Sterility in males

Chronic infection can also occur with specific bacteria - initially S. aureus with H. influenzae and subsequently with P. aeruginosa or Burkholderia species
This will lead to damage to the bronchial wall, bronchiectasis and abscess formation
The child will have a persistent, wet cough, productive of purulent sputum

EXAMINATION:
Hyperinflation of the chest due to air trapping
Coarse inspiratory crackles
Expiratory wheeze
Finger clubbing (with established disease)
95% will die of respiratory failure

90% of children with CF will have pancreatic exocrine insufficiency
This result in maldigestion and malabsorption
If untreated, this can lead to faltering growth
It also causes frequent large, pale and greasy stools (steatorrhoea)
Pancreatic insufficiency can be diagnosed by demonstrating low faecal elastase

547
Q

Complications of CF

A
Underweight
Meconium ileus
Fat-soluble vitamin deficiency
DIOS
Male infertility
Upper airway complications (e.g. nasal polyps)
Chronic liver disease
Diabetes
Reduced BMD
548
Q

How is CF diagnosed?

A

CF can be diagnosed based on:
Positive test result in people with no symptoms, for example infant screening (blood spot immunoreactive trypsin test) followed by sweat and gene tests for confirmation
Clinical manifestations, supported by sweat or gene test results for confirmation
Clinical manifestations alone (RARE)

In CF, the concentration of chloride in sweat is markedly elevated
60-125 mmol/L in CF
10-40 mmol/L in normal children

Sweating is stimulated by applying a low-voltage current to pilocarpine applied to the skin
NOTE: diagnostic errors are common if an inadequate volume of sweat is collected
Confirmation of the diagnosis can be made by testing for gene abnormalities in the CFTR

549
Q

Management of CF

A

Service Configuration:
Care should be provided by a specialist cystic fibrosis multidisciplinary team based at a specialist cystic fibrosis centre

Patients should have annual review of their condition AND at least one other review per year by the specialist cystic fibrosis MDT, in addition to reviews by local paediatric teams

Members of the MDT (all should be specialists in CF): 
Paediatrician 
Nurses  
Physiotherapists  
Dieticians  
Pharmacists  
Clinical psychologists  
Social worker (provide support for people with CF and their families regarding employment, education, help adjusting to the condition, benefits, respite care)  

RESPIRATORY Management:
Pulmonary Monitoring
- Review CHILDREN every 8 weeks
- Review ADULTS every 3 months

At each review:
Perform a clinical assessment (including history, physical examination and exploration of medication adherence)
Measure SpO2
Take respiratory secretion samples for investigation
Spirometry

Airway Clearance Techniques:
Offer training for parents and carers (involve physiotherapist)
These techniques should be done at least twice per day
Regularly assess effectiveness and technique
Consider non-invasive ventilation in patients who are unable to sufficiently clear their airways using conventional techniques

Mucoactive Agents:
Offer in patients with CF who have clinical evidence of lung disease
First-line: rhDNase
If clinical response with rhDNase is inadequate, consider BOTH rhDNase AND hypertonic saline
Consider mannitol dry powder inhalation for children who cannot use the above agents

New Agents:
Lumacaftor and Ivacaftor are new agents known as potentiators and correctors that may be effective in treating CF caused by the F508 mutation
Regular exercise is beneficial and should be encouraged

INFECTION Management: 
Common infections in CF patients: 
Staphylococcus aureus 
Pseudomonas aeruginosa 
Burkholderia cepacia complex 
Haemophilus influenzae 
Non-tuberculous mycobacteria  
Aspergillus fumigatus 

Often, continuous prophylactic antibiotics (usually flucloxacillin) are recommended , with additional rescue oral antibiotics for any increase in respiratory symptoms or decline in lung function
Persistent symptoms require prompt and vigorous IV therapy to limit lung damage, usually given for 14 days via a PIC line
Chronic Pseudomonas infection is associated with a more rapid decline in lung function
- This can be slowed by the use of daily nebulised anti-pseudomonal antibiotics
Regular azithromycin (macrolide) decreases respiratory exacerbations, probably due to an immunomodulatory effect
Bilateral sequential lung transplantation is the only therapeutic option for end-stage CF lung disease

NUTRITIONAL Management:
Oral enteric-coated pancreatic replacement therapy (with meals and snacks to account for pancreatic insufficiency)
High-calorie diet (recommended intake is 150% of normal)
To achieve this, overnight feeding via a gastrostomy may be used
Most patients need fat-soluble vitamin supplements

PSYCHOLOGICAL Management:
Review the mental health and wellbeing of the patient and their family members
Support: Cystic Fibrosis Trust

TEENAGERS and ADULTS Management:
As the life expectancy of CF has increased, other complications have come to the forefront
Diabetes mellitus is increasingly common due to decreasing pancreatic endocrine function
About 1/3 of adolescent patients will have evidence of liver disease, with hepatomegaly on liver palpation, abnormal LFTs or an abnormal ultrasound
Regular ursodeoxycholic acid to improve flow of bile may be useful
RARELY, the liver disease could progress to cirrhosis, portal hypertension and liver failure
Liver transplant may be necessary
Distal Intestinal Obstruction Syndrome (DIOS):
- Viscid mucofaeculent material obstructs the bowel
- Usually cleared by a combination of oral laxatives
As the disease progresses in adolescents and adults, there may be an increase in chest infections, as well as complications such as pneumothorax and life-threatening haemoptysis
Females have normal fertility and should be able to tolerate pregnancy well
Males are virtually always infertile but can father children through intracytoplasmic sperm injection
The psychological impact of this disease is immense, so the CF team should provide emotional and psychological support

550
Q

Recent developments in the treatment of CF

A
The development of CFTR potentiators (ivacaftor) and CFTR correctors (Lumicaftor) have potential to improve outcomes in CF
Potentiators help restore function of CFTR in class III and IV mutations
Correctors partially restory CFTR numbers in class II defects
551
Q

What causes PCD?

A

Congential abnormality in the structure or function of cilia lining the respiratory tract, resulting in impaired mucociliary clearance

Affected children will have recurrent infections of the upper and lower respiratory tracts which, if untreated, can lead to severe bronchiectasis

552
Q

PCD manifestations

A

Recurrent productive cough
Purulent nasal discharge
Chronic ear infections

50% of PCD patients will have dextrocardia and situs inversus (Kartagener syndrome)

553
Q

How is the diagnosis of PCD made?

A

Diagnosis is reached following examination of the structure and function of cilia from the nasal epithelial cells brushed from the nose

554
Q

Management of PCD

A

Daily physiotherapy
Proactive treatment of infections with antibiotics
Appropriate ENT follow-up

555
Q

Different types of immunodeficiency predispose to different lung infections?

A

IgG deficiency –> polysaccharide-capsulated bacteria (e.g. S. pneumoniae)

Cell-mediated immunodeficiencies –> opportunistic infections (e.g. Pneumocystis jirovecii and fungi)

Neutrophil-killing defects –> staphylococcal infection

556
Q

Sleep-disordered breathing

A

During REM sleep, the control of breathing becomes unstable and relaxation of voluntary muscles in the upper airway and chest make upper airway collapse likely

557
Q

Sleep disordered breathing can occur due to:

A

Airway obstruction
Central hypoventilation
Or a combination of both

558
Q

Key aspects of sleep-disordered breathing

A

Loud snoring
Pauses in breathing (apnoea)
Restlessness
Disturbed sleep

559
Q

Obstructive sleep apnoea leads to:

A

Excessive daytime sleepiness or hyperactivity
Learning and behaviour problems
Faltering growth
Pulmonary hypertension (in severe cases)

560
Q

What is the most common cause of childhood obstructive sleep apnoea?

A

Adenotonsillar hypertrophy

561
Q

Some diseases can predispose to sleep disordered breathing:

A

Neuromuscular disease (e.g. Duchenne muscular dystrophy)
Craniofacial abnormalities (e.g. Pierre Robin sequence)
Dystonia of upper airway muscles (e.g. cerebral palsy)
Severe obesity
Down syndrome (causes anatomical upper airway restriction as well as hypotonia meaning that these patients are at particular risk)

562
Q

Investigations for sleep-disordered breathing

A

Overnight pulse oximetry (most basic assessment that can be performed at home - allows quantification of the frequency and severity of periods of desaturation)
Polysomnography is required for more complex cases (this should monitor heart rate, respiratory effort, airflow, CO2 measurement and video recording)

563
Q

Management of sleep-disordered breathing

A

Children with adenotonsillar hypertrophy may need adenotonsillectomy which usually causes a dramatic improvement in symptoms
Other children may benefit from CPAP or BiPAP to maintain their upper airway at night

NB: congential central hypoventilation syndrome is a rare condition resulting in disordered central control of breathing as well as autonomic dysfunction

564
Q

What is vernix caseosa?

A

At birth, the skin is covered by a chalky-white greasy coat, called the vernix caseosa

565
Q

What is bullous impetigo?

A

Uncommon but potentially serious blistering form of impetigo

566
Q

What most commonly caused bullous impetigo?

A

S. aureus

Treated with systemic antibiotics (e.g. flucloxacillin)

567
Q

What are melanocytic naevi?

A

Moles
Large congenital naevi are benign but can be disfiguring

Melanocytic naevi becomes increasingly common as children get older

568
Q

Risk factors for melanoma

A

Positive family history
Having large numbers of melanocytic naevi
Fair skin
Repeated episodes of sunburn
Living in a hot climate with chronic skin exposure to the sun

569
Q

What causes albinism?

A

Due to a defect in biosynthesis and distribution of melanin

570
Q

How can albinism be classified?

A

Oculocutaneous
Ocular
Partial

571
Q

The lack of pigment in the iris, retina, eyelids and eyebrows results in….

A

Failure to develop a fixation reflex

572
Q

What visual side effects are there to albinism?

A

Failure to develop fixation reflex
Pendulum nystagmus
Photophobia (causes constant frowning)

Albinism is an important cause of severe visual impairment

573
Q

Management of albinism

A

Correction of refractive errors and tinted contact lenses may be helpful
Their pale skin is prone to sunburn and skin cancer, so hats should be worn and high-factor sun cream should be applied

574
Q

What is the difference between autosomal dominant and autosomal recessive variants of epidermolysis bullosa?

A

RARE group of genetic conditions characterised by blistering of the skin and mucous membranes

Autosomal dominant variants are milder and autosomal recessive variants may be severe or fatal

575
Q

What can cause blistering in epidermolysis bullosa?

A

Can occur spontaneously or following minor trauma

576
Q

Potential complication of epidermolysis bullosa

A

In severe cases, the fingers and toes may become fused and contractures of the limbs develop from repeated blistering and healing

577
Q

Management of epidermolysis bullosa

A

Based on avoiding minor injury and treating secondary infection

578
Q

Mucous membrane involvement in epidermolysis bullosa may result in…

A

Oral ulceration and stenosis from oesophageal erosions

579
Q

What is collodion baby?

A

Rare manifestation of the inherited ichthyoses (a group of conditions in which the skin is dry and scaly)

580
Q

Presentation of collodion baby

A

Infants are born with a taut, shiny, parchment-like or collodion-like membrane

581
Q

What is the risk with collodion baby?

A

There is a risk of dehydration

582
Q

Management of collodion baby

A

Emollients are applied to moisturise and soften the skin

583
Q

Causes of nappy rash

A
Common:
Irritant (contact) dermatitis (most common)
Infantile seborrheic dermatitis
Candida infection
Atopic eczema

Rare:
Acrodermatitis enterohepatica
Langerhans cell histiocytosis
Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome

584
Q

Causes of irritant dermatitis –> nappy rash

A

THis can occur if the nappy is not changed frequently but it can also happen even with regular cleaning of the nappy area
It tends to be due to the irritant effects of urine on the skin of susceptible infants
The flexures tend to be spared in irritant dermatitis causing nappy rash (this distinguishes it from other causes of nappy rash)
The rash is erythematous and may have a scalded appearance

585
Q

Management of irritant dermatitis nappy rash

A

Mild cases respond to the use of protective emollient

More severe cases may require topical corticosteroids

586
Q

How does Candida infective nappy rash differ in presentation from irritant dermatitis?

A

It includes the flexures and may cause satellite lesions

587
Q

Management of Candida infection nappy rash

A

Topical antifungal agent

588
Q

General management of nappy rash

A

Advise the parents/carers about self-management strategies:
Consider using a nappy with high absorbency and ensure that it fits properly
Leave nappy off as much as possible to help skin drying of the nappy area
Clean the skin and change the nappy every 3-4 hours or as soon as possible after wetting/soiling, to reduce skin exposure to urine and faeces
Use water, or fragrance-free or alcohol-free baby wipes
Dry gently after cleaning
Bath the child daily
Do NOT use soap, bubble bath, lotions or talcum powder
ADVICE: NHS choices leaflet on nappy rash

If mild erythema and the child is asymptomatic
Advise on the use of barrier preparation to protect the skin (available OTC)
Apply thinly at each nappy change
Options: Zinc and Castor oil ointment BP, Metanium ointment, white soft paraffin BP ointment

If the rash appears inflamed and is causing discomfort
If > 1 month = hydrocortisone 1% cream OD (max 7 days)

If the rash persists and CANDIDAL INFECTION is suspected or confirmed on swab
Advise against the use of barrier protection
Prescribe topical imidazole cream (e.g. clotrimazole, econazole, miconazole)
Frequency depends on preparation used

If the rash persists or BACTERIAL INFECTION is suspected or confirmed on swab
Prescribe oral flucloxacillin for 7 days
If penicillin allergy: clarithromycin (7 days)

Arrange to review the child

589
Q

When and how does infantile seborrhoeic dermatitis tend to present?

A

Tends to present in the first 3 months of life

It tends to start on the scalp as an erythematous scaly eruption
The scales form a thick yellow adherent layer, commonly called cradle cap
The rash may spread to the face and then extend to the flexures and nappy area
Unlike atopic eczema, this rash is not itchy and the child does not seem to be bothered by it

590
Q

What is infantile seborrhoeic dermatitis associated with?

A

It is associated with a subsequent risk of developing atopic eczema

591
Q

Management of infantile seborrhoeic dermatitis

A

Reassure the parents (it is NOT a serious condition)

It will spontaneously resolve over a few weeks/months

If scalp is affected, advise:
Regular washing of the scalp with baby shampoo, followed by gentle brushing with a soft brush to loosen scales and improve the condition of the skin
Softening the scales with baby oil first, followed by gentle brushing, then washing off with baby shampoo
Soaking the crusts overnight with white petroleum jelly or slightly warmed vegetable/olive oil, and shampooing in the morning
Emulsifying ointment can be used if these measures don’t work

If conservative measures are ineffective, prescribe topical imidazole cream (e.g. clotrimazol, econazole, meconazole)
Use 2-3 times per day (depending on preparation) until symptoms disappear
Consider specialist advice if it lasts > 4 weeks
If other areas of skin are affected, advise bathing the infant at least once per day using an emollient as a soap substitute

592
Q

How is atopic eczema diagnosed?

A

Clinical diagnosis

NB: if the disease is unusually severe, atypical or associated with unusual infections or faltering growth, an immune deficiency should be excluded

593
Q

Clinical features of atopic eczema

A

Itching (pruritus) is the main symptom at all ages

  • This leads to scratching and exacerbation of the rash
  • Excoriated areas become erythematous, weeping and crusted

Distribution of the eruption changes with age
Atopic skin is usually dry
Prolonged scratching and rubbing can lead to lichenification (accentuation of normal skin markings)

594
Q

Complications of atopic eczema

A

Causes of exacerbations of asthma:
Bacterial infection (usually Staphylococcus or Streptococcus)
- Staphylococcus aureus, in particular, thrives on atopic skin and releases superantigens, which seem to worsen eczema

Viral infection
- HSV infection, although rare, is potentially very serious because it can spread rapidly on atopic skin causing an extensive vesicular reaction called eczema herpeticum

Ingestion of an allergen (e.g egg)

Contact with an irritant or allergen

Environment (heat, humidity)

Change or reduction in medication

Psychological stress

Unexplained

Regional lymphadenopathy is common in active eczema and resolves when the skin improves

595
Q

How to assess the severity of eczema

A

CLEAR - normal skin with no evidence of active eczema

MILD - areas of dry skin and infrequent itching  

MODERATE - areas of dry skin, frequent itching and redness (with/without excoriation and localised skin thickening)  

SEVERE - widespread areas of dry skin, incessant itching and redness (with/without excoriation and localised skin thickening)  

INFECTED - eczema is weeping, crusting or there are pustules with fever and malaise  

IMPORTANT: remember to assess the psychological impact of eczema on the child  

    Consider using questionnaires such as the Children's Dermatology Life Quality Index (CDLQI)
596
Q

Management of mild eczema

A

Prescribe generous amounts of emollients and recommend frequent and liberal use

Consider prescribing a mild corticosteroid (e.g. hydrocortisone 1%)  for areas of red skin  

    This should be continued for 48 hours after the flare has been controlled  

Routine follow-up is not normally necessary  

Refer for a routine dermatology appointment if the diagnosis is uncertain, current management has failed to control eczema, there is facial eczema or there is a recurrent secondary infection
597
Q

Management of moderate eczema

A

(emollients are used in all types of eczema)

    Prescribe a moderately potent topical steroid: betamethasone valerate 0.025% or clobetasone butyrate 0.05% 

    Treatment should be continued for 48 hours after the flare has been controlled  

    If there is severe itching or urticaria, consider prescribing a 1-month trial of a non-sedating antihistamine (e.g. cetirizine, loratidine, fexofenadine)  

    Consider prescribing a maintenance regimen of topical corticosteroids to control areas of skin prone to frequent flares (not face, genitals or axillae)  

    2nd line: topical calcineurin inhibitors (e.g. tacrolimus) - only prescribed by a specialist  

    Review regularly if the child is young and using a large amount of topical corticosteroids
598
Q

Management of severe eczema

A

(emollients are used in all types of eczema)

Prescribe a potent corticosteroid: betamethasone valerate 0.1% to be used on inflamed areas  
    - For delicate areas of inflamed skin (e.g. face and flexures) use a moderate potency steroid  

Occlusive dressings or dry bandages may be useful  

Consider non-sedating antihistamine if there is severe itching  

If the itching is affecting sleep, consider using a sedating antihistamine (e.g. chlorphenamine)  

If there is SEVERE, extensive eczema causing psychological distress, consider a course of oral corticosteroids 

Prescribe a maintenance regimen of topical corticosteroids
599
Q

Management of infected eczema

A

Swab the infected skin

1st line: flucloxacillin (erythromycin or clarithromycin if penicillin allergy)
If the area of infection is localised, topical antibiotics should be effective
NB: these should not be used for linger than 2 weeks

600
Q

Advice for parents with children with eczema

A

Explain the symptoms and signs of eczema herpeticum and infected eczema
Explain that in many children, eczema improves over time but not all children will grow out of it
Children with atopic eczema may develop asthma, hay fever and allergies
Advise frequent and liberal use of emollients even when the skin is clear
Advise avoidance of triggers (e.g. types of clothes, detergents, soaps, animals)
Avoid scratching if possible (keep nails short, use anti-scratch mittens in infants)

Information and Support

  • Itchywheezysneezy.co.uk - excellent website demonstrating how to apply emollients
  • British Association of Dermatologists (BAD) - has an information leaflet on atopic eczema
  • National Eczema Society - has fact sheets

Dietary elimination:
Food allergy should be suspected in young children with moderate/severe, particularly if associated with gut dysmotility (colic, vomiting, altered bowel habit) or faltering growth
Eggs and cows’ milk are the most common allergens resulting in eczema
Allergen specific IgE antibodies in the blood and skin-prick may be helpful
Dietary elimination for 4-6 weeks may be necessary to detect a response

601
Q

How can eczema herpeticum be treated?

A

Eczema herpeticum is acute and often widespread

It is treated with systemic aciclovir

602
Q

What organism causes viral warts?

A

HPV

603
Q

Where are viral warts most often found?

A

Fingers and soles (verrucae)

604
Q

Indications for treatment of viral warts

A

Most will disappear spontaneously over a few months

Treatment is only indicated if the lesions are painful or causing cosmetic problems

605
Q

Removal of viral warts

A

Daily administration of proprietary salicylic acid or lactic acid paint or glutaraldehyde lotion can be useful

Cryotherapy with liquid nitrogen is effective but can be painful (should only be used in older children)

606
Q

What organism causes molluscum contagiosum

A

Poxvirus

607
Q

How does molluscum contagiosum present?

A

The lesions are small, skin-coloured, pearly papules with central umbilication
They may be single but are often multiple

608
Q

Management of molluscum contagiosum

A

Topical antibiotics may be used to prevent or treat secondary bacterial infection

Does NOT require treatment if immunocompetent (it is self-limiting)
Spontaneous resolution usually occurs within 18 months
Advise against squeezing mollusca to avoid the spread of infectious material and reducing risk of super-infections
Avoid sharing towels, clothing and baths with uninfected people
If eczema or infection develops arounds the lesions, treat appropriately (e.g. emollients and steroids or antibiotics)
Chemical or physical destruction may be done by a specialist

609
Q

What is a kerion?

A

A severely inflamed pustular ringworm patch is called a kerion

610
Q

How is tinea capitis (scalp ringwom) sometimes acquired?

A

From dogs and cats

Causes scaling and patchy alopecia with broken hairs

611
Q

How is ringworm diagnosed?

A

Rapid diagnosis can be made from microscopic examination of skin scrapings for fungal hyphae
Definitive identification of the fungus is by culture

612
Q

Management of ringworm

A

Mild infections are treated with topical antifungals

More severe infections will require systemic antifungals

Tinea Capitis
Systemic antifungal therapy (e.g. griseofulvin or terbinafine)
2nd line: itraconazole or fluconazole
Topical antifungal shampoo is recommended in some patients (e.g. selenium sulfide or ketoconazole topical)

Tinea Faciale, Tinea Corporis, Tinea Cruris or Tinea Pedis
Topical antifungal (e.g. terbinafine, naftifine, butenafine)
Topical aluminium acetate (in some)

NOTE: any animal source of the infection will also need treatment

613
Q

What causes scabies?

A

Infestation of the mite Sarcoptes scabiei- it burows along the stratum corneum

614
Q

Clinical features of scabies

A

Severe itching occurs 2-6 weeks after infestations and is worse in warm conditions and at night
In older children, burrows, papules and vesicles involve the skin between the fingers and toes, axillae, flexor aspects of the wrists, belt line and around the nipples, penis and buttocks
In infants and young children, distributionoften includes the palms, soles and trunk

615
Q

How is scabies diagnosed?

A

Clinically

Burrows are pathomnemonic of scabies but may be hard to identify because of secondary infection due to scratching
The diagnosis can be confirmed by microscopic examination of skin scrapings to identify mite, eggs and mite faeces

616
Q

Complications of scabies

A

Excoriation can lead to secondary eczematous or urticarial reaction which masks the true diagnosis
Secondary bacterial infection is common

617
Q

Management of scabies

A

Prescribe a topical insecticide (permethrin 5% cream)
2nd line: malathion aqueous 0.5% (if permethrin is contraindicated/not tolerated)
The product should be applied to the whole body from the chin and ears downwards
Particular attention should be paid to areas in between the fingers and under the nails
It should be applied to cool, dry skin and allowed to dry before the patient dresses
Permethrin should be washed off after 8-12 hours (malathion should be washed off after 24 hours)
A second application is required, 1 week after the first application

ADVICE
Members of the household and other close contacts should be treated
The bedding, clothing and towels of the patient (and any potentially infected contacts) should be decontaminated by washing at a high temperature and drying in a hot dryer
Patients whose symptoms persist 2-4 weeks after the last treatment application should be advised to retreat
Treat post-scabietic itch with crotamiton 10% cream (or topical hydrocortisone)
Night-time sedative anti-histamine (e.g. chlorphenamine) may help reduce itching and improve sleep

In babies, the face and scalp should be included but avoiding the eyes

Alternative: benzyl benzoate emulsion can be applied below the neck and left on for 12 hours but it smells bad and has irritant action

Special Cases
If crusted scabies, seek specialist advice
Seek specialist advice if < 2 months old

618
Q

Presentation of peidculosis capitis

A

Itching of the scalp and nape of the neck
Live lice may be idenitified on the scalp or nits on hairs (nits are empty egg cases that are seen on hairs)

There may be secondary bacterial infection, sometimes leading to misdiagnosis of impetigo

Suboccipital lymphadenopathy is common

619
Q

Management of pediculosis

A

Dimeticone 4% lotion or aqueous solution 0.5% is rubbed into the hair and scalp and left on overnight and the hair is shampooed the following morning
Treatment should be repeated a week later
Wet combing with a fine-tooth comb to remove lice every 3-4 days for 2 weeks is useful and safe

620
Q

What can trigger guttate psoriasis in children?

A

Streptococcal or viral sore throat or ear infection

621
Q

How does guttate psoriasis present?

A

Lesions are small, raindrop-like, round or oval erythematous scaly patches on the trunk and upper limbs

An attack usually resolves over 3-4 months
Most will get a recurrence in the next 3-5 years
Chronic psoriasis with plaques or annular lesions is less common in children

622
Q

Treatment of guttate psoriasis

A

Bland ointments

  • NB: coal tar preparations are useful for plaque psoriasis in > 6 years
  • Dithranol preparations are very effective in resistant plaque psoriasis
  • Calcipotriol, a vitamin D analogue, is ueful for plaque psoriasis in > 6 years
623
Q

Complications of psoriasis

A

Occasionally, children with chronic psoriasis will develop psoriatic arthritis

624
Q

Presentation of pityriasis rosea

A

An acute, benign, self-limiting condition
Usually begins with a single round or oval scaly macule, called a herald patch (usually 2-5 cm in diameter and seen on the trunk, upper arm, neck or thigh. After a few days, several small dull pink macules develop on the trunk, upper arms and thighs).
The rash tends to follow the line of the ribs posteriorly, described as a fir tree pattern
The lesions can be itchy

625
Q

Treatment of pityriasis rosea

A

No treatment is required and the rash resolves within 4-6 weeks

626
Q

Presentation of alopecia areata

A

Hailress, single or multiple, non-inflamed smooth areas of skin, usually over the scalp
Remnants of broken off hairs may be visible as exclamation mark hairs (these can be seen at the edge or active patches of hair fall)

Regrowth often occurs after 6-12 months

627
Q

Presentation of granuloma annulare

A

Lesions are typically ringed (annular) with a raised fledh-soloured non-scaling edge (unlike ringworm which is scaling)
Usually found over the bony prominences, especially on the hands and feet
Lesions may be single or multiple and tend to be 1-3cm in diameter
They disappear spontaneously but may take years to do so

628
Q

Pathophysiology of acne vulgaris

A

May begin 1-2 years before the onset of puberty following androgenic stimulation of the sebaceous glands and an increased sebum excretion rate
Obstruction to the flow of sebum in the sebaceous follicles initiates the process of acne

629
Q

Presentation of acne vulgaris

A

Initially, there will be open comedones (blakheads) or closed comedones (white heads), which can progress to papules, pustules, nodules and cysts
More severe cystic and nodular lesions can cause scarring

630
Q

Exacerbating factors for acne vulgaris

A

Menstruation and emotional stress can cause exacerbations

631
Q

Advice for acne

A

Avoid over-cleaning the skin (may cause dryness and irritation - twice daily washing with gentle soap is adequate)
If make-up, emollients and cleansers are used, non-comedogenic preparations are recommended with a pH close to the skin
Avoid picking and squeezing scars to due to risk of scarring
Treatments are effective but may take a while to work (up to 8 weeks) and may initially irritate the skin
Maintain a healthy diet

Support and information:
NHS Choices leaflet
British Association of Dermatologists

632
Q

Management of mild to moderate acne

A
Consider a single topical treatment:
Benzoyl peroxide
Benzoyl peroxide + clindamycin (Duac)
Adapalene (topicla retinoid)
- Contraindicated in breastfeeding and pregnancy
Azelaic acid 

Creams and lotions are preferable in patients with dry skin

633
Q

Management of moderate acne not responding to topical treatments

A

Consider oral antibiotics: (for a maximum of 3 months)
Lymecycline
Doxycyline
NB: a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide should always be co-prescribed with oral antibiotics to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance developing

Change to an alternative antibiotic if no improvement after 3 months
If not responding after 2 courses of antibiotics or if they are scarring, refer to dermatology for consideration of treatment with isotretinoin (Roaccutane)
COCP in combination with topical agents can be used as an alternative to systemic antibiotics in girls (NB: progesterone only contraceptives or rogestin implants with androgenic activity may worsen acne)

634
Q

When should acne be referred to a specialist?

A

Severe variant (e.g. acne conglobata or acne fulminans)
Severe acne with scarring or risk of scarring
Multiple treatments have failed
Significant psychological distress
Diagnostic uncertainty

635
Q

Follow-up for acne vulgaris

A

Review each treatment step at 8-12 weeks

  • If there is adequate response, continue treatment for at least 12 weeks
  • If acne has cleared or almost cleared - consider maintenance therapy with topical retinoids or azelaic acid
  • If there if no response, consider adherence to treatment, adverse effects, progression to more severe acne and discuss the next steps in management
636
Q

Examples of rashes associated with systemic disease

A

Facial rash in SLE or dermatomyositis

Purpura over the buttocks, lower limbs and elbows in HSP

Erythema nodosum and erythema multforme are both associated with systemic disorders

Stevens-Johnson syndrome is a severe bullous form of erythema multiforme involving the mucous membranes

  • Often starts with URTI
  • Eye involvment may include conjunctivitis, corneal ulceration and uveitis
  • It can be caused by drug sensitivity (particularly anti-epileptics)
637
Q

Urticaria is chaarcterised by…

A

Flesh-coloured wheals

638
Q

What is papular urticaria?

A

A delayed hypersensitivity reaction most commonly seen on the legs, following a bite from a flea, bedbug, animal or bird mite

639
Q

Hereditary angioedema

A

Rare autosomal disorder caused by deficiency or dysfunction of C1-esterase inhibitor
There is no urticaria, but subcutaneous swellings occur, often accompanied by abdominal pain
Usually triggered by physical trauma or psychological stress
Episodes develop over a few hours and subside over a few days
Angioedema may cause respiratory obstruction
Treated with a purified preparation of the inhibitor

640
Q

Most common congenital heart lesions

A

Left-to-right shunts (breathless):
Ventricular septal defect
Persistent arterial duct
Atrial septal defect

Right-to-left shunts (blue):
Tetralogy of Fallot
Transposition of the great arteries

Common mixing (breathless and blue):  
Atrioventricular septal defect (complete) 

Outflow obstruction in a well child (asymptomatic with a murmur):
Pulmonary stenosis
Aortic stenosis

Outflow obstruction in a sick neonate (collapsed with shock):
Coarctation of the aorta

641
Q

Circulatory changes at birth

A

In the foetus, the left atrial pressure is LOW because relatively little blood returns from the lungs
The pressure in the right atrium is higher than the left, as it receives all the systemic venous return including blood from the placenta
The flap valve of the foramen ovale is held open, so blood can flow across the atrial septum into the left atrium and then the left ventricle, before being pumped to the rest of the body
With the first breaths, resistance to pulmonary blood flow falls and the volume of blood flowing through the lungs increases six-fold
This leads to a rise in left atrial pressure
At the same time, the volume of blood returning to the right atrium will fall as the placenta is excluded from the circulation
The change in the pressure differences causes the flap valve of the foramen ovale to close
The ductus arteriosus, which connects the pulmonary artery to the aorta in foetal life, will close within the first few hours or days

Some babies with congenital heart lesions rely on the blood flow through the duct (duct-dependent circulation)
- So, their clinical condition will deteriorate dramatically when the duct closes (usually around 1-2 days)

642
Q

Presentation of congenital heart disease

A
Antenatal cardiac ultrasound diagnosis
Detection of a heart murmur
Heart failure
Shock
Cyanosis
643
Q

Antenatal diagnosis of congenital heart disease

A

Checking the foetal heart is a routine part of the foetal anomaly scan

  • Performed between 18-20 weeks’ gestation
  • Leads to diagnosis of 70% of infants requiring surgery in the first 6 months

If an abnormality is detected, a paediatric cardiologist will perform detailed foetal echocardiography

Children at increased risk (e.g. Down’s syndrome, previous congenital heart conditions in the family) are also checked

Depending on the diagnosis, some choose termination

644
Q

What is an innocent murmur?

A

Vast majority of children with murmurs have a normal heart

This is called an innocent murmur which can be heard at some point inn almost 30% of children

645
Q

Hallmarks of an innocent ejection murmur (innoSent)

A

ASymptomatic
Soft blowing murmur
Systolic murmur only, not diastolic
Let Sternal edge

Normal heart sounds with no added sounds
No parasternal thrill
No radiation

NB: innocent of flow murmurs are often heard best during a febrile illness or anaemia, due to increased cardiac output, so it is important to examine a child with a murmur when these other illnesses have been corrected

646
Q

What investigations may help distinguish between innocent and pathological murmurs?

A

CXR

ECG

647
Q

Why do many newborns with potential shunts not have any symptoms or murmur at birth?

A

Pulmonary vascular resistance is still high

Conditions like VSD and ductus arteriosus may only become apparent at several weeks of age, when the pulmonary resistance falls

648
Q

Clinical features of heart failure

A

Breathlessness (particularly on feeding or exertion)
Sweating
Poor feeding
Recurrent chest infections

Poor weight gain or faltering growth
Tachypnoea
Tachycardia
Heart murmur, gallop rhythm
Hepatomegaly
Cool peripheries
649
Q

Causes of heart failure

A

Neonates- obstructed (duct-dependent) systemic circulation:

  • Hypoplastic left heart syndrome
  • Critical aortic valve stenosis
  • Severe coarctation of the aorta
  • Interruption of the aortic arch

Infants- high pulmonary blood flow

  • VSD
  • Atrioventricular septal defect
  • Large persistent ductus arteriosus

Older children and adolescents - right or left heart failure

  • Eisenmenger syndrome (right heart failure only)
  • Rheumatic heart disease
  • Cardiomyopathy

IN the first week of life, heart failure tends to result from left heart obstruction (e.g. coarctation of the aorta)
If the obstruction is very severe, arterial perfusion may be mainly RIGHT-to-LEFT flow of blood via the arterial duct (duct-dependent systemic circulation)
Closure of the duct rapidly leads to severe acidosis, collapse and DEATH (unless duct patency is restored)

AFTER the first week of life, progressive heart failure is most likely due to left-to-right shunt
Over the subsequent weeks, as pulmonary vascular resistance falls, there is a progressive increase in LEFT-to-RIGHT shunt and increasing pulmonary flow
The symptoms of heart failure will typically increase up to the age of 3 months, but then improve as the pulmonary vascular resistance rises in response to the LEFT-to-RIGHT shunt
If this is left untreated, children will develop Eisenmenger syndrome

650
Q

Eisenmenger syndrome

A

A process in which long-standing Left-to-right shunt (caused by congenital heart defect) causes pulmonary hypertension and eventual reversal of the shunt into a cyanotic Right-to-left shunt
This causes cyanosis
If Eisenmenger syndrome develops, the only option is heart-lung transplant

651
Q

Management of heart failure

A
Aims: 
Reduce preload 
- Using diuretics (e.g. furosemide) or, more rarely, venous dilators (e.g. nitroglycerin) 
Enhance cardiac contractility  
- Using IV agents (e.g. dopamine) 
- Other options: digoxin, dobutamine, adrenaline, milrinone 
Reduce afterload  
- Oral ACE inhibitors  
- IV agents (e.g. hydralazine, nitroprusside, alprostadil) 
Improving oxygen delivery 
- Beta-blockers (e.g. carvedilol)   
Enhancing nutrition  

If heart failure is thought to be due to a cardiac malformation:
If cyanotic –> Prostaglandin infusion
- This maintains a PDA in duct-dependent cyanotic heart disease and buys time before surgical correction can be performed
Echocardiography to identify the underlying structural defect is necessaryt

652
Q

Persistent cyanosis in an otherwise well infant is a sign of what?

A

Structural heart disease