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Phase 3a medicine > Paeds > Flashcards

Paeds Flashcards

1
Q

What are the common features of croup?

A
  1. stridor
  2. barking cough
  3. fever
  4. coryzal symptoms
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2
Q

How is croup treated?

A

Single dose of oral dexamethasone

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3
Q

When should children with croup be admitted? (3)

A

If moderate/severe:

  • frequent barking cough
  • audible stridor at rest
  • significant distress
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4
Q

When is the peak incidence of croup?

A

6 months - 3 years

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5
Q

How does necrotising enterocolitis present? (3)

A
  1. feeding intolerance
  2. abdominal distension
  3. bloody stools
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6
Q

How would you diagnose necrotising enterocolitis?

A

Abdominal X ray

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7
Q

What are the cardinal features of abdominal intussusception?

A
  1. paroxysmal abdo colic pain

2. red currant jelly stool

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8
Q

How is abdominal intussusception diagnosed?

A

Abdominal US

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9
Q

How does pyloric stenosis generally present?

A
  1. projectile vomiting typically 30mins after feed
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10
Q

At what age does pyloric stenosis typically present?

A

2-7 weeks

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11
Q

At what age does intussusception generally present?

A

6 months

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12
Q

What metabolic imbalance is associated with pyloric stenosis?

A
  1. hyponatraemia
  2. hypokalaemia
  3. hypochloraemic alkalosis
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13
Q

How is pyloric stenosis diagnosed?

A

Test feed

  • gastric peristalsis can be observed
  • olive shaped mass in RUQ palpable
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14
Q

What are the characteristics of fragile X syndrome? (4)

A
  1. learning difficulties
  2. macrocephaly
  3. long face
  4. macro-orchidism
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15
Q

What is the most common pathogen responsible for bronchiolitis?

A

Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV)

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16
Q

What are the key features of bronchiolitis?

A 
Coryzal symptoms preceding: 
1. dry cough 
wheezing 
2. breathlessness 
3. feeding difficulties
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17
Q

What is the management for bronchiolitis?

A

Mostly supportive

  • humidified oxygen if needed
  • nasogastric feeding if needed
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18
Q

What are the major risk factors for SIDS? (4)

A
  1. prone sleeping
  2. parental smoking
  3. hyperthermia
  4. prematurity
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19
Q

What are the characteristic features of measles?

A
  1. fever
  2. maculopapular rash
  3. koplik spots (white papules in mouth)
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20
Q

What is the most common complication of measles?

A

otitis media

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21
Q

What is the most frequent pathogen to cause chronic infection in CF patients?

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

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22
Q

How and when do patients with biliary atresia normally present?

A

In first few weeks of life:

  1. jaundice past 2 weeks
  2. dark urine/pale stools
  3. abnormal growth
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23
Q

What would the serum bilirubin show in a child with biliary atresua?

A

Raised conjugated bilirubin

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24
Q

What are the key lab features of ALL?

A
  1. anaemia
  2. neutropenia
  3. thrombocytopaenia
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25
Q

How does ALL present clinically? (4)

A
  1. pallor
  2. lethargy
  3. splenomegaly
  4. petechiae
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26
Q

At what ages are febrile seizures most common?

A

Between 6 months and 5 years

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27
Q

If a seizure is brief (less than 5 mins) and tonic-clonic what kind of seizure is it most likely to be?

A

Febrile convulsion

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28
Q

What may cause chicken pox to develop into necrotising fasciitis?

A

Secondary bacterial infection of lesions with Group A strep

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29
Q

When is jaundice in the newborn expected?

A
  1. Before 24 hours

2. After 2 weeks

30
Q

Give a cause of jaundice within 24 hours of birth

A

Rhesus haemolytic disease

31
Q

Which babies are more likely to be jaundiced?

A
  1. breast-fed

2. preterm

32
Q

Which organism is responsible for the whooping cough?

A

Bordetella Pertussis

33
Q

What are the diagnostic criteria for whooping cough?

A

Acute cough lasting 2 wks or more with one/more of:

  • paroxysmal cough
  • inspiratory whoop
  • post-tussive vomiting
  • undiagnosed apnoeic attacks
34
Q

In which condition would you expect to see loss of internal rotation of the leg in flexion?

A

Slipped capitol femoral epiphysis

35
Q

What is the most common cause of cyanotic congenital heart disease?

A

Tetralogy of Fallot

36
Q

What are the 4 characteristic features of tetralogy of fallot?

A
  1. ventricular septal defect
  2. right ventricular hypertrophy
  3. pulmonary stenosis
  4. overridding aorta
37
Q

How does tetralogy of fallot present? (2)

A
  1. cyanosis/collapse in first month of life

2. ejection systolic murmur at left sternal edge

38
Q

When should patients with bronchiolitis be referred to hospital? (3)

A
  1. RR over 60
  2. 50-75% of usual food/fluid intake
  3. clinical dehydration
39
Q

Give 3 causes of cyanotic congenital heart disease?

A
  1. Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF)
  2. Transposition of the Great Arteries (TGA)
  3. Tricuspid atresia
40
Q

What is the initial management of suspected cyanotic congenital heart disease?

A
  1. supportive care

2. prostaglandin E1

41
Q

What is the most common cause of gastroenteritis in children?

A

Rotavirus

42
Q

When is Meningitis B vaccine given?

A

2, 4 and 12 months

43
Q

How does cystic fibrosis typically present in children? (3)

A
  1. neonate = meconium ileus
  2. recurrent chest infections
  3. malabsorption (steatorroeah/failure to thrive)
44
Q

Give 4 features of cystic fibrosis besides lung/GI tract

A
  1. short stature
  2. diabetes mellitus
  3. delayed puberty
  4. infertility/subfertility
45
Q

Which lab test diagnoses whooping cough?

A

Per nasal swab culture

46
Q

What is the Kocher criteria used for?

A

To determine the likelihood of a child having septic arthritis

47
Q

Which parameters are used in Kocher’s criteria? (4)

A
  1. non-weight bearing
  2. fever >38.5
  3. WCC >12
  4. ESR >40
48
Q

How does chickenpox normally present? (3)

A
  1. fever initially
  2. itchy rash starting on head/trunk before spreading
  3. mildly systemically unwell
49
Q

How does the rash of chickenpox normally change?

A

macular -> papular -> vesicular

50
Q

How does measles initially present? (prodrome/rash)

A

Prodrome:

  • irritable
  • conjunctivitis
  • fever

Rash:
- discrete maculopapular rash starts behind ears

51
Q

How does measles develop after the initial stages? (2)

A
  1. Kolpik spots on buccal mucosa

2. rash spreads to whole body and becomes confluent and blotchy.

52
Q

What are the key features of rubella? (rash/lymph nodes)

A
  1. pink maculopapular rash starting on face, before spreading to whole body, rash fades by 3-5 day
  2. lymphadenopathy: suboccipital and postauricular
53
Q

What are the two other terms used to describe erythema infectiosum?

A
  1. fifth disease

2. slapped-cheek syndrome

54
Q

Which organism is responsible for erythema infectiosum?

A

Parvovirus B19

55
Q

What causes Scarlet fever?

A

Reaction to erythrogenic toxins produced by group A haemolytic streptococci

56
Q

What are the key features of scarlet fever? (5)

A
  1. fever
  2. malaise
  3. tonsilitis
  4. ‘strawberry tongue’
  5. fine punctate erythema rash sparing area around mouth
57
Q

What does infection of the coxsackie A16 virus cause in children?

A

Hand, foot and mouth disease

58
Q

What are the key features of hand, foot and mouth disease?

A
  1. mild systemic upset
  2. sore throat
  3. fever
  4. vesicles in mouth and on palms/soles of feet
59
Q

What is the first sign of puberty in boys?

A

Testicular growth

60
Q

What is the first sign of puberty in girls?

A

Breast development

61
Q

What is a potential complication of Kawasaki disease?

A

Coronary artery aneurysm

62
Q

What are the criteria for diagnosing Kawasaki disease? (7)

A
  1. fever > 5 days
  2. 4 other features of:
    - non-purulent conjunctivitis
    - red mucous membranes
    - cervical lymphadenopathy
    - rash
    - peeling fingers/toes
    - red oedematous palms/soles
63
Q

What is the management of Kawasaki disease?

A
  1. IV immunoglobulin

2. High dose aspirin

64
Q

Which vaccines do you get between ages 3-4? (2)

A
  1. 4 in 1 pre school booster (diptheria/tetanus/whooping cough/polio)
  2. MMR
65
Q

At what ages do you get your 6-1 vaccine?

A

2 months, 3 months, 4 months

66
Q

What is in your 6-1 vaccine?

A
  1. diptheria
  2. tetanus
  3. whooping cough
  4. polio
  5. Hib
  6. hepatitis B
67
Q

When do you get your oral rotavirus vaccine?

A

3 months

68
Q

What is the most common presentation of neonatal sepsis?

A

Respiratory distress

69
Q

What are the key features of patent ductus arteriosus?

A
  1. L subclavicular thrill
  2. continuous ‘machinery’ murmur
  3. large volume, bounding, collapsing pulse
  4. heaving apex beat
70
Q

How is patent ductus arteriosus managed?

A

Indomethacin given to neonate postnatally

71
Q

Which structural abnormality causes patent ductus arteriosus?

A

Failure of ductus arteriosus between pulmonary trunk and descending aorta to close

Phase 3a medicine (6 decks)

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