Pain mgmt therapy pt 1 Flashcards

(70 cards)

1
Q

What is the max dose of Hydrocodone / APAP (Norco)?

A

1) One to two tablets (10 / 325 mg) PO Q 4-6° (not to exceed 12 tablets per day due to APAP)
2) Most people would only take one tablet four times per day as max

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

T/F: There’s no max dose of morphine

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

List the max doses of Tramadol

A

IR: 50 – 100 mg PO Q 4-6° (max of 400 mg / day)
ER: 100 mg PO Qday (max of 300 mg / day)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What’s the max dose of each opioid?

A

Mostly a patient-specific question
Be conservative with acute pain
Cancer & hospice patients may require very high doses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

1) List 2 types of adaptive pain
2) List 2 types of maladaptive or pathologic pain

A

1) Nociceptive or Inflammatory
2) Neuropathic or Centralized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Pain further classified as _______, ________, or _________ pain

A

acute, chronic or cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

List 3 groups of Endogenous Opioid Peptides

A

1) Endorphins
2) Enkephalins
3) Dynorphins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

List the 3 types of G-Protein Coupled Opiate Receptors

A

1) Miu (u)
2) K
3) Delta (o)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which two G-Protein Coupled Opiate Receptors are assoc with resp depression and miosis?

A

Miu (u) and K (less resp)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which G-Protein Coupled Opiate Receptor has the most classic Sx?

A

Miu (u)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Gaba has a ____________ feedback on brain

A

negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Opioid prescriptions:
1) May not exceed _____-days
2) No refills for _______– partial fills may occur – Rx is good for one year
3) Max of five refills for CV-CIII over 180-days – examples include what?

A

1) 30
2) CII
3) Tylenol #3/#4, Ultram, or Suboxone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

T/F: One exemption to the E-prescribing mandate is that the Rx may be issued when the prescriber determines that e-Rx would delay pt from getting Rx in a timely manner

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

1) Women can be charged with a ______________ if they illegally use narcotics during pregnancy and if the baby is harmed as a result
2) Providers who make the diagnosis of neonatal abstinence syndrome must report cases to the _________________

A

1) misdemeanor
2) Department of Health

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Any prescribers of opioids, benzodiazepines, barbiturates or carisoprodol, either alone, concurrently, or sequentially with any other opioids, benzodiazepines, barbiturates, or carisoprodol to patients who are in chronic, long-term drug therapy for ninety (90) days or longer ________ consider mandatory urine drug testing.

A

shall
-Legally, the word “shall” = “you will do this”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Must prescribe opioid overdose / reversal if prescribing opioid and:
(1) The prescription dosage for the patient is _____________ equivalents of an opioid medication per day;
(2) An opioid medication is prescribed concurrently with a prescription for a ________________

A

1) 50 or more morphine milligram
2) benzodiazepine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Non-pharmacologic Therapies for pain mgmt include what 5 things?

A

1) Exercise
2) Physical therapy
3) Diet: Anti-inflammatory or Elimination
4) Weight loss
5) Electroanalgesia: application of electrical stimulation to various areas that range from noninvasive to highly invasive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Electroanalgesia: List 3 examples from least to most invasive

A

1) Noninvasive: transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS) – CAN BE OTC
2) Minimally invasive: percutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (PENS)
3) Highly invasive: spinal cord stimulation (SCS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

CDC Guidelines (2022):
1) ________________ opioids are preferred over CR/LA opioid formulations when starting therapy.
2) Use the lowest effective dose of opioid possible (e.g, 5-10 MME/ day). Use caution at any dosage, and carefully reassess evidence of benefit versus risk when exceeding _______ MME/day and avoid increasing dose _______ MME/day without careful justification.

A

1) Immediate-release
2) ≥50; ≥90

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Opioid analgesia should be used for the shortest duration possible. In most cases, ______ days is sufficient for acute pain. More than 7 days will rarely be required for most acute pain indications.

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Careful evaluation of opioid overdose risk should be assessed frequently, and naloxone co-prescribed at opioid doses of________MME/day or when patients are exposed to concurrent opioid analgesia and ____________.

A

≥50; benzodiazepines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

T/F: Concurrent prescribing of opioid analgesics and benzodiazepines should be avoided when possible.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

When _________________ is recognized or suspected, clinicians should offer evidence-based treatment such as medication-assisted therapy (i.e., methadone or buprenorphine/naloxone) in combination with behavioral therapies.

A

Opioid Use Disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Are NSAIDS or APAP preferred for osteoarthritis & chronic back pain?

A

NSAIDs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
NSAIDs: 1) What is a downside? 2) When should you avoid it? Why?
1) Increased risks of cardiovascular outcomes and may affect renal function 2) Avoid during third trimester due to premature closure of ductus arteriosus; indomethacin or ibuprofen may be used within 14-days after birth to close patent ductus arteriosus
26
NSAIDs 1) ______________ is associated with least risk of GI bleed 2) _____________ is assoc. with greatest risk of GI bleed; blackbox warning: limit to use to five days
1) Meloxicam (Mobic) 2) Ketorolac (Toradol)
27
APAP is a safe first-line therapy, but may be hepatotoxic when daily doses exceed ____________mg
4000
28
Antidote to APAP is what?
Glutathione precursor N-acetylcysteine (Acetadote)
29
1) What is the MOA of capsaicin patches? 2) Diclofenac is an example of what group?
1) TRPV1 RA 2) NSAIDs
30
1) Lidocaine has what MOA? 2) Give 2 example of rubefacients
1) Sodium channel blocker 2) Menthol/ methyl salicylate + Trolamine salicylate cream 10%
31
What is important to note about: 1) Capsaicin cream (various) 2) Capsaicin cream 8% patch (Qutenza)
1) Continue scheduled use for 2-4 weeks for best results 2) Administer under supervision of provider; specific instructions in package; apply topical anesthetic first; monitor BP due to transient increase in BP during application
32
What is important to note about: 1) Diclofenac 1% gel (Voltaren) 2) Diclofenac epolamine 1.3% patch (Flector) 3) Diclofenac topical solution (Pennsaid)
1) Same BBBs as PO NSAIDs despite low systemic bioavail. (6%); use dosing card to measure amt 2) Systemic effects were <1% after 4 days of repeat dosing 3) Same BBBs as PO NSAIDs
33
What is important to note about: 1) Lidocaine gel/ointment/patch 2) Lidocaine 5% patch (Lidoderm)
1) Apply to intact skin only 2) May cut; severe hepatic impairment incr. risk of SEs; apply to intact skin only
34
What is important to note about: 1) Trolamine salicylate cream 10%
Do not apply to damaged skin
35
List 3 categories that can act as Co-analgesics for neuropathy and give examples of each
1) Anticonvulsants: Pregabalin (Lyrica) or gabapentin (Neurontin) 2) Tricyclic antidepressants (TCA): Nortriptyline or amitriptyline 3) Serotonin–norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRI): Duloxetine (Cymbalta) or venlafaxine (Effexor)
36
1) Give 2 important notes abt carbamazepine 2) Name an upside and downside of Oxcarbazepine
1) CYP inducer & Monitor CBC, LFTs and Na+ 2) Improved tolerability and less drug-to-drug interactions compared to carbamazepine – but more likely to cause hyponatremia
37
What has a risk of SJS if not titrated slowly?
Lamotrigine
38
Baclofen (Lioresal) (muscle relaxant): 1) MOA? 2) List 2 risks other than withdrawal
1) Related to GABA, works at spinal cord, inhibits polysynaptic and monosynaptic reflexes 2) Respiratory depression Requires renal dose adjustment
39
Carisoprodol (Soma) (muscle relaxant): 1) What is the MOA? 2) When can it cause resp. depression?
1) Centrally acting, changing interneuronal activity in descending reticular formation and spinal cord; Meprobamate (primary metabolite) leads to barbiturate effects at GABAA 2) Respiratory depression with opioids, benzodiazepines, or barbiturates
40
Cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril) (muscle relaxant) 1) Who should you avoid using it in? Why? 2) What kind of activity does it have? 3) Who should you use caution in?
1) Anticholinergic effects: avoid in patient with closed angle glaucoma 2) Serotonergic activity 3) Caution in patients with cardiac conduction/arrhythmias
41
Cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril) (muscle relaxant): 1) MOA? 2) Besides closed angle glaucoma, who should you avoid in? 3) Do you have renal dose adjustments?
1) Structurally related to TCAs, sedative effects, works at brainstem level, decreases excitability of alpha and gamma motor neurons 2) Avoid in elderly 3) No; hepatic dose adjustments
42
Methocarbamol (Robaxin): 1) What is the MOA? 2) What is a weird side effect? 3) Which meds can it cause resp depression with?
1) Unknown, sedative properties 2) Urine discoloration 3) Opioids, benzodiazepines, or barbiturates
43
Tizanidine (Zanaflex): 1) What is the MOA? 2) What type of toxicity can it cause?
1) Centrally acting α-2 agonist, inhibits presynaptic motor neurons, decreases polysynaptic reflex and abnormal contraction of opposing muscle groups 2) Hepatotoxicity
44
List some other skeletal muscle relaxants
1) Metaxalone (Skelaxin) 2) Chlorzoxazone (Lorzone) 3) Orphenadrine (Norflex) 4) Dantrolene (Dantrium) -Indication: malignant hyperthermia
45
Generally use acute ______________ with skeletal muscle relaxants
monotherapy
46
Real world exceptions to the general monotherapy with skeletal muscle relaxants are?
1) Patient with severe multiple sclerosis 2) Patients in pain management using multimodal therapy
47
_____________ formulations cannot easily be switched via mcg per mcg
Fentanyl
48
What are 4 side effects of opioids?
1) Resp. depression 2) Tolerance 3) Dependence 4) Addiction
49
Respiratory depression with opioids is caused by what?
Decreased response to carbon dioxide in the respiratory center
50
How do you Tx constipation with opioids?
1) Short-term opioids = fluids, fiber, or Colace 2) Long-term = add stimulating laxative (e.g., bisacodyl)
51
_____________ is an increased sensitivity to pain that may develop over time with opioids
Hyperalgesia
52
What are some dosage forms of morophine?
Capsule, injection, solution, tablet
53
Codeine (Tylenol #3 or #4 w/ APAP; Robitussin AC w/ guafenesin): 1) What is the metabolism? Is it a prodrug? Explain 2) How is it eliminated? When should you avoid it?
1) CYP2D6 metabolism: prodrug converted into morphine 2) Renally eliminated; avoid with renal impairment
54
Oxycodone (Percocet w/ APAP - Xtampza - Oxycontin): 1) What is it metabolized by? Is it a prodrug? 2) What is the BBB?
1) CYP3A4 / CYP2D6: CYP2D6 converts oxycodone to oxymorphone 2) Initiating CYP3A4 inhibitors or stopping CYP3A4 inducers
55
Xtampza is formulated to slightly underdose when converting from what?
Percocet 10 / 325 mg
56
Xtampza 18 mg PO BID is equal to what?
Percocet 10 / 325 mg PO QID
57
Hydrocodone (Norco w/ APAP - Hysingla - Zohydro): __________ converts hydrocodone to hydromorphone
CYP2D6
58
Conversion from hydrocodone/APAP to hydrocodone: 1) What do you do for Hysingla ER? 2) What abt Zohydro ER?
1) Initiate with the total daily dose of oral hydrocodone (mg/day) administered once daily 2) Initiate with the total daily dose of oral hydrocodone (mg/day) divided in half for administration every 12 hours
59
Hair should be clipped (not shaved) at the site of application of what patches?
Fentanyl
60
Equianalgesic dose of __________________ may decrease with higher doses of the comparator opioid
methadone
61
Opioids – Agonist/Antagonist Derivatives: Why do they have less respiratory depression?
1) Analgesic activity at kappa 2) Block or partial antagonism at mu
62
When can you use PRN pain meds?
PRN can be used once pain decreases Also good for intermittent or sporadic pain
63
Opioid agonists: 1) What is the mode of administration of Butorphanol (Stadol)? What is it used for? 2) What caution should you have for Tapentadol (Nucynta)? 3) What can you use Nalbuphine (Nubain) for?
1) Intra-nasal spray; used for headaches 2) For seizures 3) Treatment of mu agonist pruritis
64
Buprenorphine (Suboxone / Subutex): Explain Suboxone
Sublingual Naloxone is an abuse deterrent Naloxone may precipitate withdrawal in patients with opioid dependence
65
How do you Tx acute pain?
Scheduled medications for acute pain Titrate up or down depending on the patient
66
What route for opioids is preferred? What is the onset?
Oral route preferred Analgesic onset ~45 min, peak effect 1-2 hours
67
How do you Tx chronic pain?
Scheduled doses with breakthrough PRN doses available
68
In general….When switching to a new opioid, reduce the initial daily calculated equianalgesic dose of the new opioid by 25% to 50% to adjust for what?
lack of complete mu receptor cross-tolerance
69
In general… When d/c opioids, reduce dose by ____% (slow) per week or up to _________% (rapid) per week
10%; 25-50%
70
When d/c opioids: 1) Consider ____% reduction per week if patient overdosed 2) Opioid withdrawal during pregnancy has been associated with what 2 things?
1) 50% 2) spontaneous abortion and premature labor