Pancreatic, biliary tree, and salivary diseases Flashcards

1
Q

Describe the normal pancreas and it’s anatomical location

A
  • Lobulated organ situated posterior to the stomach and anterior to the thoracic spine and ribs
    • Retroperitoneal structure
    • Traverses abdomen from left to right infero-diagonally, with the tail situated immediately medial to the splenic hilum and the head sandwiched within the C-loop of the duodenum
    • Blood supply is dereived from branches of the superior pancreatoduodenal and splenic arteries off the celiac axis
    • And Inferior pancreatoduodenal artery off the SMA
    • Lies immediately anterior to SMV-PV confluence and SMA
    • Immediately inferior/anterior to splenic artery and vein
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2
Q

What do acinar cells produce?

A
  • A multitude of digestive pro-enzymes that are secreted across the apical cell membrane into a tiny ductule at the center of each acinus
    • Ductules coalesce into the larger exocrine duct system of the pancreas that ultimately leads to the main (ventral) duct and ampulla of Vater
    • In about 10% of people the dominant route of flow is dorsal duct and empties into minor papilla
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3
Q

Over 80% of the pancreas is what cell type?

A
  • 80% of pancreateic cells are epithelial in origin and comprise the acinar glands
    • Form the exocrine component and are of import in this first unit
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4
Q

What are the proteases secreted by the pancreas?

A
  • Trypsinogen
    • Chymotrypsinogen
    • Proelastase
    • Procarboxypeptidase A
    • Procarboxypeptidase B
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5
Q

What are the ‘other’ enzymes secreted by the pancreas?

A
  • Amylase
    • Deoxyribonuclease
    • Ribonuclease
    • Procolipase
    • Trypsin inhibitors
    • Monitor peptide
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6
Q

What are the lipases secreted by the pancreas?

A
  • Lipase
    • Lipase-related proteins
    • Prophospholipase A1, A2
    • Nonspecific esterase
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7
Q

Why are the bicarbonate and water secretions of the pancreas important?

A
  • They help move all the enzymes down to where they need to (flow is important, stasis is bad)
    • They also provide a high pH environment to discourage the activation of the zymogens
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8
Q

What is going on in acute pancreatitis?

A
  • Occurs when pancreatic enzymes are inappropriately and prematurely activated resulting in autolysis of the gland
    • May result in severe inflammation and/or necrosis of pancreatic tissue
    • Most commonly occurs when pancreatic duct becomes obstructed, resulting in stagnation of pancreas enzymes within the organ and activation of enzyme activation cascade
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9
Q

Why might alcohol intake precipitate pancreatitis?

A

• Direct toxic effect on pancreatic acinar cells
• Premature release and activation of trypsinogen and stagnant flow of pancreatic juice
*alcohol abuse will often result in pancreatitis (if it does) within 3-5 days of the binge

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10
Q

Some people do have premature enzyme activation, but what keeps this from being a problem normally?

A
  • Peristalsis of duct
    • Sphincer of oddi relaxation
    • Bicarbonate and water secretion and flow
    • Trypsin inhibitor function
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11
Q

What congential ductal abnormalities would you find obstructing the pancreatic outflow and thus being associated with pancreatitis?

A

• Pancreas divisum
• Annular pancreas
○ Usually these just increase the risk of alcohol use precipitating the event

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12
Q

Hyperlipidemia is associated with what pancreatic disease?

A

• Severe hyperlipidemia may precipitate acute pancreatitis for numerous reasons which remain poorly understood

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13
Q

What are the less common, but still testable causes of acute pancreatitis?

A
• Drug induced
		○ Thiazide diruetics
		○ Azathioprine
		○ Anti-retroviral drugs
	• Hypercalcemia
	• Infectious
		○ Mumps
		○ Coxsackievirus
	• Cystic fibrosis
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14
Q

What does the pancreas look like macroscopically and grossly in severe pancreatitis?

A
  • Lipase released from dying acinar cells breaks down fat, liberating free fatty acids that precipitate with calcium ad form insoluble soaps
    • Frank coagulation necrosis of the gland and/or hemorrhage into retroperitoneum
    • Microscopically, necrosis of pancreatic tissue is associated with intense infiltrates of neutrophils and apoptosis of epithelial cells
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15
Q

What diagnostic tests are performed with clinical suspicion of pancreatitis?

A

• Blood test
○ Serum level of amylase and lipase
○ Elevated greater than 3 times the upper limit of normal
• Lipase more specific for pancreatitis and equally to slightly more sensitive than serum amylase
○ Rises 1-2 hours and decreases over following week
• Serum amylase rises and falls within 24-48 hours but its specificity is imperfect
○ Mumps, sjorgrens, penetrating peptic ulcer, intestinal trauma or ischemia, ectopic pregnancy
○ All these can confuse the findings

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16
Q

What imaging modalities can be used to help confirm the diagnosis of pancreatitis?

A

• Ultrasound and CT
• Ultrasound is cheaper and 90% accurate at detecting gallstones
○ BUT not great at looking at pancreas and ducts
• Contrast CT in severe cases or questionable situations
○ Shows inflammatory changes within and surrounding the pancreas-
§ gland edema, fat stranding, fluid accumulation
○ Can sometimes show the tumor cause
○ Certainly good for hemorrhage

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17
Q

What is ERCP?

A

Endoscopic retrograde cholangio-pancreatography (ERCP) is a diagnostic test to examine:

the duodenum (the first portion of the small intestine),
the papilla of Vater (a small nipple-like structure with openings leading to the bile ducts and the pancreatic duct),
the bile ducts, and
the gallbladder and the pancreatic duct.

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18
Q

How is acute pancreatitis treated?

A

• Hospital admission just in case things go south
• NPO status
• IV pain meds
• Time
○ Lame, yes, but majority of uncomplicated acute pancreatitis will improve with these supportive measures alone
• MUST avoid alcohol to prevent disease recurrence or progression to chronic pancreatitis
• Cholecystectomy later to remove source of obstruction
○ Otherwise healthy patients
• Stone removal by ERCP
• Can also be done surgically but that’s more messy

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19
Q

Describe (general) the disease state of chronic pancreatitis

A

• Condition that develops after repeated bouts of acute pancreatitis
• Commonly occurs as a result of chronic alcohol abuse
• Macrospic
○ Characterized by replacement of healthy pancreatic tissue by hard fibrous tissue
○ There may be atrophy of the gland as well
• Pancrease juice may become viscous, and calcifications/stones may devleop within duct if these clumps of protein precipitate with calcium salts
• Microscopic
○ Broad bands of scar tissue replace lost lobular tissue
○ Can show presence of lymphocytes and plasma cells
• There is usually sparing of islet cells
• Fibrous tissue can cause strictures of duct
• Calcified stones can precipitate obstruction
• Malabsorption, pain, malnutrition

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20
Q

What is the most common cause of CP in the west?

A
  • CP = chronic pancreatitis
    • Chronic alcohol abuse
    • Cigarette smoking also contributed to fibrosis, and particularly in alcoholics
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21
Q

What are the inherited conditions that predispose people to chronic pancreatitis?

A
• CFTR mutations
	• Trypsinogen gene mutations
		○ PRSS
	• Trypsin inhibitor mutations
		○ SPINK
	• Familial hypertriglyceridemia
	• Equatorial countries - idiopathic variant that has extensive calcifications, called tropical pancreatitis
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22
Q

Why do pancreatic stellate cells have an important role in chronic pancreatitis?

A
  • They, when stimulated, proliferate and transform into collagen-synthesizing cells
    • Can contribute to the ductal obstruction
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23
Q

Fat malabsorption is a marker of what degree of pancreatic damage?

A
  • 90% of the organ is destroyed before fat malabsorption is seen
    • 95% for carbs and proteins because trypsin and amylase are produced elsewhere as well
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24
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of chronic pancreatitis?

A
  • Steatorrhea is important finding
    • Epigastic pain that radiates directly to back
    • Can just present as back pain alone
    • Pain will wax and wane but never truly disappear
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25
Q

What is steatorrhea

A
  • Fatty diarrhea
    • Frequent, oily, foul-smelling, and/or buoyant stools
    • Increased flatulence and weight loss
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26
Q

What might patients with chronic pancreatitis have B12 deficiency?

A
  • Pancreatic proteases are required to cleave the R-protien-cobalamin complex
    • This allows for intrinsic factor to bond to B12
    • Thus, pancreatic duct obstruction or atrophy will result in a loss of B12 binding to IF, and thus a malabsorption of B12
    • Eventually causes macrocytic anemia
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27
Q

Why might bleeding diathesis develop in chronic pancreatitis?

A

• A result of fat-soluble vitamin malabsorption, specifically vitamin K

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28
Q

What diagnostic tests for chronic pancreatitis are available?

A

• History and physical can be highly suggestive
• Plain x-ray of abdomen can show calcifications scattered over epigastrium in severe calcific disease
• Rapid fat stool stain
○ Sudan stain, qualitiative
• Definitive is 72-hour quantitative stool collection for fat analysis
○ High fat diet of over 100g of fat/day
○ 72 hour stool collection should who over 10-20% fecal fat excretion or 50 g of fat

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29
Q

Pancreatic cancer is a major US killer. From what cells does this cancer arrive?

A
  • Vast majority (90-95%) arise from ductal epithelial cells
    • Remaining come from acinar cells
    • Both carry a bad prognosis
    • Cancer usually forms primitive, mucin-positive, gland-like structures
    • Cells elicit a strong, fibrotic reaction known as desmoplasia, texture very hard and cancer cells less permeable to chemotherapy drugs
    • Often have microscopic tumor tendrils that are not seen by imaging
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30
Q

What are the much more rare pancreatic tumors?

A
• Mucinous cystadenocarcinomas
	• Intraductal papillary mucinous tumors
		○ IPMTs
	• Arise from cystic lesions in pancreas and much less common than ductal adenocarcinoma
	• More favorable prognosis
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31
Q

What are the risk factors for pancreatic adenocarcinoma?

A
• Positive family history
	• Tobacco abuse
	• Chronic pancreatitis
	• Obesity
	• Ocassionally a genetic syndorme
		○ Peutz-Jeghers
		○ Von Hippel-Lindau
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32
Q

What is tousseau’s syndrome?

A
  • Associated with pancreatic adenocarcinoma

* Hypercoagulable state associated with neoplasm and decrease in physical activity

33
Q

What imaging studies can result in dx of pancreatic adenocarcinoma?

A

• Contrast abdominal CT scan
○ 80-90% sensitivity
○ Shows pancreas, bile ducts and pancreatic duct very well
○ Also decent for detecting distant metastasis
• Ultrasound
○ Less accurate because of fat and air surrounding pancreas

34
Q

What imaging studies can result in dx of pancreatic adenocarcinoma?

A

• Contrast abdominal CT scan
○ 80-90% sensitivity
○ Shows pancreas, bile ducts and pancreatic duct very well
○ Also decent for detecting distant metastasis
• Ultrasound
○ Less accurate because of fat and air surrounding pancreas
• Biopsy or fine-needle aspiration
○ FNA = fine needle aspiration
• Endoscopic ultrasound is the up and coming modality
• Also helps with pre-op tumor staging as it shows borders and lymph nodes in the region very well

35
Q

Insulinomas, glucoagonomas, gastrinomas, VIPomas and somatistatinomas all have what in common?

A

• They are neuroendocrine tumors that secrete a given hormone in excess that forms a particular clinical picture
*found by imaging and by fine needle aspiration

36
Q

What might glucoagonomas cause?

A
  • Hyperglycemia
    • Deiabetes
    • Weight loss
    • Diarrhea
37
Q

What might somatistatinomas cause?

A
• These are rare
	• Weight loss
	• Malabsorption
	• Acalculous cholecystitis
		○ Decreasing GI motility and exocrine secretion
38
Q

What might VIPomas cause?

A

• Severe, chronic, secretory type diarrhea with hypokalemia and weight loss

39
Q

What might gastrinomas cause?

A
  • GERD or peptic ulcers
    • Diarrhea
    • Fat malabsorption
40
Q

Why is surgery recommended for anybody with an NET that can handle the surgery?

A
  • NET = neuroendocrine tumor
    • These cannot be graded/staged for metastatic nature by histology
    • You can only watch them as they invade
    • Thus, get them out. Not all have the worst metastatic abilities, but glucagonoma and somatistatinoma are almost always malignant
41
Q

How do you treat autoimmune pancreatitis?

A

• 6 week course of PO corticosteroids
○ Prompt and effective
• Jaundice and pruritis (itchy) patients may benefit from ERCP with placement of a temporary biliary stent.
• Immunomodulators can be used…but that’s a case by case basis and in refractory cases

42
Q

What studies are done to show autimmune pancreatitis?

A
  • Serum IgG-4 is elevated in about 80% of patients
    • Imaging shows an enlarged pancreas with decreased enhancement and loss of the lobular contour
    • ERCP will show narrowed pancreatic duct and sometimes a bile duct stricture
    • EUS-guided or percutaneous biopsy of the pancreas and IgG-4 staining can be definitive dx modality
43
Q

What does a patient with AIP usually look like?

A

• NOT your typical chronic pancreatitis patient
• No alcohol abuse usually
• 45-70 year old males
• No history of pancreatitis at all, not even acute
• Present with chronic epigastric or diffuse abdominal pain and nearly half also develop cholestasis
○ Jaundice, dark urine, itching
• Associated with other auto-inflammatory diseases like RA, IBS, lupus or sjorgren’s syndrome

44
Q

What immune-associated factors and cells are implicated in the disease process of autoimmune pancreatitis?

A

• AIP = autoimmune pancreatitis
• IgG-4 and plasma cells and lymphocytes infiltrate the pancreas and its vessels
• Results in localized or diffuse enlargement of pancreatic parenchyma and narrowing of pancreatic duct and/or bile duct
• YOU WILL NOT FIND
○ Glandular atrophy, ductal dilation, calcifications and steatorrhea are features of chonic pancreatitis but NOT features of AIP

45
Q

What does the gallbladder normally do?

A

• Storage place for bile, so that it can be released in higher amounts when the diet calls for it
• Bile is a yellow liquid with amphopathic properties that contributes to excretion of various compounds
○ Cholesterol, copper, medications
• Also helps with lipid digestion within the small bowel
• Contains water, bile acids, cholesterol, phospholipids, lecithin, electrolytes
• Bile acids are main active ingredient in bile and contribute the most to lipid digestion

46
Q

What are the constituents of bile?

A
  • cholesterol, phospholipids, lecithin, electrolytes

* Bile acids are main active ingredient in bile and contribute the most to lipid digestion

47
Q

Describe the pathway of bile formation and movement into the gall bladder

A
  • Made by hepatocytes and secreted into the cannaliculi
    • Drain into peripheral intrahepatic bile ducts
    • Intrahepatic bile ducts coalesce into the right and left hepatic ducts, which fuse to form the common hepatic duct
48
Q

Describe the gall bladder during both fasting and fed states.

A

• Fasting
○ Vagal tone and CCK levels are decreased
○ Sphincter of Oddi is closed
○ Gallbladder and bile duct peristalsis are inhibited
○ Secretions of bile from liver hit the sphincter and retrograde flux into gallbladder for storage
• Fed
○ Vagal tone and CCK levels are increased
○ Sphincter of Oddi is openend and the gall bladder and bile duct peristaltic movements are increased
○ Results in flow from gallbladder into the duodenum through cystic duct

49
Q

What happens to the bile while it sits in the gallbladder?

A
  • There is constant transport of sodium from the lumen of the gallbladder into the bloodstream
    • Water will follow this passively
    • End result here is concentration of the bile
50
Q

What are the risk factors for generation of cholesterol stones?

A
  • Obesity
    • Rapid weight gain or loss
    • Female gender
    • Age over 30
    • Latin American or Native American ethnicity
    • Estrogen/contraceptive use
51
Q

What is the process behind gallstone formation?

A

• There has to be supersaturation
○ Can be from too little water or too much cholesterol
○ Could be both processes as well
• Supersaturation of bile with cholesterol first results in formation of cholesterol crystals
○ Microlithiasis
• Eventually clinically significant stones can develop
• Numerous factors contribute:
○ Stasis in gallbladder or bile duct, hereditary mutations in cholesterol chain structure, inflammation of gallbladder

52
Q

What are the different types of gallstones?

A

• 3 different types
○ Cholesterol, brown and pigment
• Cholesterol stones
○ Cholesterol, bile acids, phospholipids and lecithin
○ White or yellow, soft and greasy
• Pigment stones
○ More common in asians
○ Predominantly of calcium bilirubinate salts which coalesce around a mucin nidus
○ Come from increased concentrations of bilirubin in bile
§ Hemolytic states like sickle cell anemia
○ Can develop in gallbladder OR straight into cystic duct
○ Think about the parastic infections like clonorchis that can result in cholangitis and stasis
§ Endemic in Asia so these stones are more common in asia
• Brown stones
○ Hybrid of cholesterol and pigment stone crystals
○ Develop de novo within bile duct as a result of infection in patients with prostheses
§ Tubes or stents
○ Can develop due to a downstream obstruction

53
Q

What is the best diagnostic study (at least initially) for gallstones?

A
  • Abdominal ultrasound
    • Over 90% accurate for gallbladder stones or cholecystitis
    • Good for seeing bile duct diameter, and possible ductal dilation
    • Not as good for seeing stones in the bile duct itself
54
Q

How might you treat a bile duct obstruction?

A

• ERCP
• Retrograde cholangiopancreatography
• Essentially a scope, and they can protrude needles from it for biopsies or minor surgeries
• Can remove stones or place stents during procedure
• Less invasive
○ Potential risk of pancreatitis

55
Q

What is biliary colic?

A

• Occludes the gallbladder intermittently
• Usually when patient consumes a meal (particularly fatty meal b/c of CCK release)
• Dull or crampy pain in the epigastrium or upper right upper quadrant which occurs within an hour of eating and resolves spontaneously
○ Typically within 3-5 hours
○ Has to do with time for hormone to go down or stone to move

56
Q

What is acute cholecystitis?

A

• Stone has compacted the bile duct and now there is a bacterial superinfection of gallbladder
• Severe inflammation and/or ischemia of the gallbladder, usually associated with infection
• Symptoms
○ Severe RUQ pain
○ Radiation to right flank or shoulder
○ Focal tenderness to deep palpation of the RUQ and palpation during expiration
○ Murphy’s sign - strongly suggestive of cholecystitis

57
Q

What is the treatment paradigm for acute cholecystitis

A

• Similar to acute pancreatitis
• Hospitalization for pain, but not much else
• IV fluids
• NPO for gallbladder rest
• IV antibiotics (is this controversial too?)
• Pain mediations
○ Cholecystectomy is treatment of choice for all surgical candidates within 1-2 weeks of event

58
Q

What serum tests will be affected by acute cholecystitis?

A

• Neither cholecystitis or gallbladder stones will significantly elevate liver enzymes
• Exception - Mirizzi’s syndrome
○ Stone lodged in cystic duct causes severe, localized edema and inflammation to develop in the region
○ Leads to benign obstructino of common bile duct or common hepatic duct
○ The other way this can happen is a very fat and enflamed gallbladder physically pushing on the ducts and obstructing them
• Treatment is cholecystectomy

59
Q

What is acalculous cholecystitis?

A

• Similar to stone-caused or calculous cholecystitis, but it’s an ischemic process not an obstructive process
• Vasculitis (polyarteritis nodosa)
• Hypoperfusion event
○ DIC, sepsis, MI, burns, severe trauma and blood loss, etc.

60
Q

What does choledocholithiasis mean?

A

• Gallstones migrating past cystic duct into common bile duct
• If they get lodged in or before the ampulla of vater they can cause
○ Ascending cholangitis and/or acute pancreatitis
What does RUQ pain, jaundice and dark urine suggest to you?
• This constellation of symptoms looks like choledocholithiasis

61
Q

What is the treatment for ascending cholangitis?

A
  • Remember charcot’s triad and reynold’s pentad
    • Admission to hospital and IV antibiotics
    • Urgent ERCP with stone extraction or stent replacement is necessary often
62
Q

Chorcot’s triad can progress to Reynold’s pentad which is…?

A
  • Triad + hypotension and confusion
    • Fever
    • Pain
    • Jaundice
    • Hypotension
    • Confusion
63
Q

What is Charcot’s triad?

A
  • Indicative of ascending cholangitis
    • RUQ pain
    • Jaundice
    • Fever
64
Q

What is up with gallbladder cancer?

A
  • Adenocarcinoma is the only one we talked about
    • Risk factors are gallstones and chronic cholecystitis
    • Infection with liver flukes (parasites) may also cause recurrent cholecystitis and chronic cholecystitis enough to present a risk factor
    • Poor survival rate as this is usually caught pretty late in the disease process
    • If cancer causes obstruction it can be diagnosed sooner on cholecystectomy
    • Gallblader cancers are also similar to pancreatic carcinomas as they produce thick stroma connective tissue
65
Q

What is primary sclerosing chlangitis?

A
  • PSC = primary sclerosing cholangitis
    • Remember UC predisposes you to this
    • Predominantly affects caucasian males 30-60
    • Gallbladder is usually spared
    • Lots of strictures through the biliary tree
    • Higher risk of developing cholangiocarcinoma
66
Q

What are gray/white colored stools called?

A
  • Acholic

* Absence of bilirubin in the stools

67
Q

In a patient that has already had a cholecystectomy and they are still having symptoms of biliary colic, what are you thinking?

A

Sphincter of Oddi problems

  • there can be a dysfunction of the sphincter of oddi that keeps it spasming and not allowing bile to flow through
  • can cause ascending cholangitis in really bad cases, even in a patient with absolutely no way to form gall stones
68
Q

What are the 8 salivary gland diseases covered in our notes?

A
  • Mumps
    • CMV sialadenitis
    • Bacterial Sialadenitis
    • Sarcoidosis
    • Sjorgren’s Syndrome
    • Salivary Lymphoepithelial Lesion
    • Xerostomia (dry mouth)
    • Halitosis
69
Q

Because salivary glands are ductal tissue, what disease are they predisposed to?

A
  • Ductal neopslams

* Adenoma or adenocarcinoma

70
Q

What is pleomorphic adenoma?

A

• Salivary neoplasm discussion here
• Diverse microscopic pattern is characteristic
• Islands of cuboidal cells arranged in ductlike structures is a common finding
• Loose chondromyxoid stroma, connective tissue, cartilage and even osseous tissue
○ Thus pleomorphic
• Typically encapsulated
○ Tumor islands may be found within fibrous capsule

71
Q

What’s up with Warthin’s tumor?

A
  • Benign papillary cystadenoma lymphomatosum
    • Second most common benign tumor of parotid gland
    • 2-10% of all parotid gland tumors
    • Bilateral in 10% of cases
    • Mucoid brown fluid in FNA (fine needle aspiration)
72
Q

What two components need be present to diagnose warthin’s tumor?

A

• Lymphoid and epithelial components
• Epithelial - papillary fronds with two layers of oncocytic epithelial cells
○ Cytoplasm pink b/c lots of mitochondria
○ Occasionally looks like squamous metaplasia, and often confused for SCC
• Lymphoid component
○ Occasional germinal centers are seen
○ Lymphoid tissue forms core or papillary structures
○ This is more present than the epithelial or oncocytic component

73
Q

Besides pleomorphic adenoma, what else can be found in the mouth?

A

• Monomorphic adenoma, usually salivary gland presence
• Composed of uniform basaloid epithelial cells with monomorphous pattern
• Absence of the many different types of stromal cells
• Much more uniform in appearance, ducts surrounded by stroma
*important because they have a malignant potential. Still not majority, but something to be aware of

74
Q

What are the malignant neoplasms associated with salivary glands in order of frequency?

A
• Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
	• Polymorphous low grade adenocarcinoma
	• Adenoid cystic carcinoma
	• Clear cell carcinoma
	• Acinic cell carcinoma (most common)
		○ No glycogen, fat and mucin
		○ 3% malignant and bilateral)
75
Q

What is the most common malignant neoplasm with the salivary gland?

A

• Acinic cell carcinoma (most common)
○ No glycogen, fat and mucin
○ 3% malignant and bilateral)

76
Q

A patient has a bump around where the salivary glands are. What items in their history and physical would make you concerned for malignancy?

A
  • Induration/hardness of lump
    • Fixed to overlying skin or mucosa
    • Ulceration of skin or mucosa
    • Rapid growth
    • Short duration
    • Pain (usually out of proportion)
    • Facial nerve palsy
77
Q

Swiss cheese pattern is a buzz word for what condition?

A
  • Adenoid cystic carcinoma
    • Salivary gland neoplsm
    • Second most common salivary gland neoplasm
    • Submandibular, sublingual and minor glands
78
Q

you see on histology a gland filled with a thick substance. What are you thinking?

A

Mucoid Adenocarcinoma.

*either high or low grade depending on how well circumscribed the tumor is

79
Q

What are the exocrine pancreatic cancers in descending order of frequency that we discussed?

A
• Adenocarcinoma (ductal)
		○ 90% of all pancreatic cancer starts in the duct
	• Adenosquamous carcinoma
		○ Glands flatten out as they grow
	• Intraductal papillary-mucinous neoplasm
		○ Finger-like projections into duct
		○ Prelude to malignancy
	• RARE
		○ Mucinous cystadenocarcinoma
			§ Spongy cystic tumor
		○ Pancreatoblastoma
			§ KIDS, suspect in infancy
		○ Acinar cell carcinoma
			§ Look for too much lipase chronically due to overproduction by tumor