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AQA GCSE Biology 9-1 > (Paper 1) 3.3 Disease: Treatment, Prevention, Cures > Flashcards

(Paper 1) 3.3 Disease: Treatment, Prevention, Cures Flashcards

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1
Q

What is a vaccine?

A

A dead or altered form of a pathogen introduced into the body to stimulate an immune response.

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2
Q

What part of the pathogen is used in a vaccine to trigger immunity?

A

The antigen.

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3
Q

What do white blood cells produce in response to antigens?

A

Complementary antibodies.

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4
Q

What is it called when a white blood cell engulfs and digests a pathogen?

A

Phagocytosis.

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5
Q

What happens during the primary immune response to a vaccine?

A

Antibody levels slowly increase, peak, and then fall over time.

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6
Q

What happens during the secondary immune response?

A

The body rapidly produces a large amount of antibodies, preventing illness.

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7
Q

Why is the secondary response quicker and stronger?

A

Because memory cells remain from the first exposure and recognise the antigen.

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8
Q

What is the benefit of vaccination?

A

It prepares the immune system to respond quickly to future infections and prevents disease.

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9
Q

What happens to an individual after vaccination?

A

They become immune to the specific disease.

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10
Q

What is herd immunity?

A

When a large proportion of the population is vaccinated, reducing the spread of a disease and protecting those not immune.

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11
Q

How does herd immunity protect unvaccinated people?

A

It makes it less likely they will come into contact with an infected person.

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12
Q

What happens if most of the population is not vaccinated?

A

Mass infection is likely, even if only a few are contagious.

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13
Q

What happens if some people are vaccinated and some are infected?

A

A mass infection can still occur, though some vaccinated people will remain healthy.

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14
Q

What happens if most people are vaccinated and a few are infected?

A

The disease does not spread widely – most of the population is protected.

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15
Q

What happens if the vaccination rate drops?

A

The risk of mass infection increases

Unvaccinated people are more likely to be exposed

Deaths from the disease may rise

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16
Q

Why is a high vaccination rate important?

A

It ensures herd immunity, protecting both vaccinated and unvaccinated individuals.

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17
Q

What do painkillers do?

A

They relieve symptoms (e.g. pain, fever) but do not kill pathogens.

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18
Q

Give two examples of common painkillers.

A

Paracetamol and aspirin

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19
Q

What is the immune system’s role when painkillers are used?

A

It still needs to fight the pathogen while symptoms are relieved.

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20
Q

What do antibiotics do?

A

They kill or stop the growth of bacteria.

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21
Q

Do antibiotics work against viruses?

A

No – they are only effective against bacterial infections.

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22
Q

Give two examples of antibiotics.

A

Penicillin and amoxicillin

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23
Q

How do antibiotics work?

A

They damage bacterial cells without harming host cells.

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24
Q

Who discovered penicillin and when?

A

Alexander Fleming, in 1928, from the Penicillium mould.

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25
Why are multiple types of antibiotics needed?
Because different bacteria cause different diseases and respond to different antibiotics.
26
Why can’t antibiotics treat viral infections?
Because viruses reproduce inside host cells, making them hard to target without damaging the host.
27
Why is it difficult to develop antiviral drugs?
They risk damaging host cells and viruses mutate quickly.
28
What do antiviral drugs do?
They slow down viral development, but don’t usually cure the infection.
29
What is antibiotic resistance?
When bacteria are no longer killed by antibiotics that used to be effective.
30
Antibiotic resistance is a biological adaptation, where in bacteria is this adaptation stored?
In loops of additional DNA called plasmid DNA
31
What are superbugs?
Antibiotic-resistant bacteria that are hard to treat, e.g. MRSA.
32
What are the three main causes of antibiotic resistance?
Overuse of antibiotics Not completing the full course Use in farming
33
Why is it a problem to take antibiotics for viral infections?
Antibiotics don’t work on viruses and encourage unnecessary use, increasing resistance.
34
Why must patients complete the full course of antibiotics?
To ensure all bacteria are killed and to stop resistant bacteria surviving and reproducing.
35
How does using antibiotics in farming contribute to resistance?
Resistant bacteria can spread to humans, especially through the food chain.
36
Name four ways to reduce antibiotic resistance.
Only use antibiotics when necessary Treat specific bacteria with specific antibiotics Maintain high hygiene in hospitals Isolate patients with resistant infections
37
What role does hospital hygiene play in resistance control?
It prevents the spread of resistant bacteria between patients.
38
Why is there concern about the future of antibiotics?
Some bacteria may become resistant to all known antibiotics, making infections very hard to treat.
39
Why has the development of new antibiotics slowed down?
Scientists paused research, thinking antibiotics had solved bacterial diseases, but resistance is now a major concern.
40
How do bacteria reproduce?
By binary fission, a simple form of cell division.
41
How often can bacteria replicate under ideal conditions?
Approximately every 20 minutes.
42
What factors affect the rate of bacterial growth?
Temperature Nutrient availability Moisture Oxygen levels
43
What is a nutrient broth solution?
A liquid medium that provides carbohydrates, nitrogen, and minerals for bacterial growth.
44
What is an agar plate?
A solid growth medium created by pouring molten agar into sterile Petri dishes, which then set.
45
What do bacteria form when grown on an agar plate?
Individual colonies of the specific bacterium.
46
Why are agar plates and nutrient broths used in laboratories?
To culture (grow) bacteria under controlled conditions.
47
Why must bacterial cultures be kept uncontaminated?
To avoid competition from unwanted microbes To prevent the growth of pathogens To ensure valid results in experiments
48
What are contaminated cultures a problem for?
Experiments like testing the effectiveness of antibiotics or antimicrobial substances.
49
What is aseptic technique?
A method used to prevent contamination from unwanted microorganisms.
50
Why must Petri dishes and agar gel be sterilised before use?
To kill any bacteria already present.
51
How is an inoculating loop sterilised?
By heating it in a Bunsen burner flame.
52
Why must the lid of an agar preparation be replaced and the plate sealed with tape (but not fully)?
To prevent airborne contamination while still allowing oxygen in (prevents growth of harmful anaerobic bacteria).
53
Why are plates incubated at 25°C in schools?
To reduce the risk of growing harmful human pathogens.
54
What is used to apply the antibiotic or antiseptic to the plate?
Filter paper discs soaked in the solution
55
What does a clear zone (zone of inhibition) around a disc indicate?
That bacteria in that area were killed or could not reproduce.
56
Why should a control disc be used?
To ensure the results are due to the antimicrobial and not the paper or liquid used.
57
What affects the size of the zone of inhibition?
The concentration and effectiveness of the antimicrobial substance.
58
What is the zone of inhibition?
The clear area around an antibiotic or antiseptic disc where bacteria have not grown.
59
What does a larger zone of inhibition indicate?
A more effective antimicrobial substance.
60
What is the formula to calculate the area of the zone of inhibition?
Area = 3.14 x (radius x radius)
61
What value should be used for 𝜋 in the calculation?
Use 3.14, unless stated otherwise in the question.
62
How do you find the radius for the formula?
Measure the diameter, then divide by 2.
63
What is the area of a zone with a 10 mm diameter?
Radius = 10 ÷ 2 = 5 mm Area = 3.14 × 5² = 3.14 × 25 = 78.5 mm²
64
What is the area of a zone with a 14 mm diameter?
Radius = 14 ÷ 2 = 7 mm Area = 3.14 × 7² = 3.14 × 49 = 153.86 mm²
65
What is the area of a zone with a 20 mm diameter?
Radius = 20 ÷ 2 = 10 mm Area = 3.14 × 10² = 3.14 × 100 = 314 mm²
66
What is the area of a zone with a 16 mm diameter?
Radius = 16 ÷ 2 = 8 mm Area = 3.14 × 8² = 3.14 × 64 = 200.96 mm²
67
What is the area of a zone with a 12 mm diameter?
Radius = 12 ÷ 2 = 6 mm Area = 3.14 × 6² = 3.14 × 36 = 113.04 mm²
68
What is the area of a zone with a 18 mm diameter?
Radius = 18 ÷ 2 = 9 mm Area = 3.14 × 9² = 3.14 × 81 = 254.34 mm²
69
Where did many early drugs come from?
From plants and microorganisms found in nature.
70
What drug is made from foxglove plants?
Digitalis – used to treat heart conditions.
71
What is the modern version of willow bark extract used for pain relief?
Aspirin, originally derived from salicylic acid.
72
Why are most drugs now developed synthetically in labs?
To allow greater control, improved safety, and mass production.
73
What was thalidomide originally developed for?
As a sleeping pill, later used for morning sickness (wrongly and without proper testing).
74
What major side effect did thalidomide cause in unborn babies?
Severe limb deformities (short or missing arms and legs).
75
How many babies were affected globally by thalidomide?
Over 10,000.
76
What was the consequence of the thalidomide disaster?
The drug was banned Drug testing became more rigorous and regulated
77
Is thalidomide still used today?
Yes, but with strict regulation – used to treat leprosy and bone cancer.
78
What are the three main things drugs are tested for?
Safety Effectiveness (efficacy) Dosage
79
Why is safety important in drug testing?
To check for toxicity or harmful side effects.
80
What does effectiveness (efficacy) mean in drug testing?
How well the drug treats the disease or relieves symptoms.
81
Why is dosage tested?
To find the right concentration that is effective but not harmful.
82
What are the three main stages of drug testing?
Lab testing using cells and computer models Animal testing Clinical trials on humans
83
What is tested during the first (preclinical) stage?
Drugs are tested on computer models and human cells for efficacy and side effects.
84
What happens in the second stage of preclinical testing?
Drugs are tested on animals to monitor safety and toxicity.
85
Why is animal testing used?
To observe effects on the whole organism, including potential side effects.
86
What products is it illegal to test on animals in the UK?
Cosmetics and tobacco products.
87
What happens in clinical trials?
Drugs are tested on healthy volunteers and then on patients Low doses are used first The dosage is increased to find the optimum dose
88
What is a double-blind trial?
A clinical trial where neither the patient nor the doctor knows who is receiving the real drug and who is receiving the placebo.
89
Why are double-blind trials used?
To avoid bias in results from patients or researchers.
90
What is a placebo?
A substance that looks like the real drug but has no active ingredient, typically a pill made of sugar.
91
Why are placebos important in trials?
To compare the effect of the actual drug against no treatment and measure the true effect.
92
Why might placebos not be used in some trials?
It may be unethical to withhold treatment from seriously ill patients.
93
What happens after a drug passes all clinical trial stages?
It is submitted for regulatory approval by health authorities. In the UK, that authority is called MRHA. In the USA, that authority is the FDA. If a drug is approved by the FDA, that does not mean it is approved in the UK, and vice versa.
94
What do regulatory agencies check before approving a drug?
Safety Effectiveness Quality of production Trial results
95
Who ensures drugs are safe for public use in the UK?
The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA).

AQA GCSE Biology 9-1 (29 decks)

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