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Ugc NET > paper 2 unit 7 > Flashcards

paper 2 unit 7 Flashcards

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1
Q

In Bandura’s social learning theory, what is the primary mechanism by which children acquire new behaviors?

A

Observational learning

Children learn by observing and imitating models (e.g., Bobo doll experiment).

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2
Q

Which component of Vygotsky’s theory refers to the difference between what a learner can do independently and with guidance?

A

Zone of Proximal Development (ZPD)

ZPD emphasizes the importance of social interaction and scaffolding in learning.

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3
Q

A child’s development is influenced by their parent’s workplace policies. This is an example of which system in Bronfenbrenner’s ecological theory?

A

Exosystem

The exosystem includes settings that indirectly affect development (e.g., parent’s workplace).

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4
Q

During which prenatal stage is the developing organism most vulnerable to teratogens?

A

Embryonic stage (3-8 weeks)

Major organs and structures form during this stage, making it highly sensitive to damage.

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5
Q

What is the primary reason newborns show a preference for their mother’s voice?

A

Prenatal auditory exposure

Fetuses can hear and remember sounds (like their mother’s voice) during the last trimester.

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6
Q

A 2-year-old says ‘Want cookie!’ This two-word utterance is an example of:

A

Telegraphic speech

Telegraphic speech omits grammatical markers but conveys meaning (characteristic of toddler language).

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7
Q

Infants typically gain control of their shoulders before their fingers. This demonstrates which developmental principle?

A

Proximodistal development

Development proceeds from the center of the body outward to the extremities.

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8
Q

How does Bronfenbrenner’s chronosystem differ from his other ecological systems?

A

It incorporates the dimension of time

The chronosystem accounts for how changes over time (e.g., historical events, aging) impact development.

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9
Q

Which nutrient deficiency during pregnancy is most strongly associated with neural tube defects?

A

Folic acid

Adequate folic acid intake before and during early pregnancy helps prevent spina bifida.

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10
Q

Two toddlers playing side-by-side with similar toys but not interacting are demonstrating:

A

Parallel play

Parallel play is common in early childhood and precedes more social forms of play.

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11
Q

According to Bandura, what determines whether an observed behavior is likely to be imitated?

A

Attention, retention, reproduction, and motivation

Bandura’s four conditions for observational learning to occur.

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12
Q

Which of Vygotsky’s concepts refers to temporary support that helps a learner accomplish a task?

A

Scaffolding

Scaffolding is adjusted based on the learner’s needs and gradually removed as competence increases.

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13
Q

A child’s microsystem according to Bronfenbrenner includes:

A

Immediate environments like family and school

The microsystem consists of settings where the child directly participates.

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14
Q

Which principle explains why infants can lift their heads before they can walk?

A

Cephalocaudal development

Development proceeds from the head downward to the rest of the body.

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15
Q

What is the primary function of the placenta during prenatal development?

A

Exchange of nutrients and waste between mother and fetus

The placenta acts as a life-support system throughout pregnancy.

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16
Q

Which reflex helps a newborn find a nipple for feeding?

A

Rooting reflex

The rooting reflex is triggered by touching the baby’s cheek and helps with breastfeeding.

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17
Q

A 3-year-old who believes everyone sees the world exactly as they do is demonstrating:

A

Egocentrism

Characteristic of Piaget’s preoperational stage of cognitive development.

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18
Q

Which of Erikson’s psychosocial stages occurs during infancy?

A

Trust vs. mistrust

Infants learn whether their needs will be met consistently by caregivers.

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19
Q

According to Piaget, what is the hallmark of the sensorimotor stage?

A

Learning through senses and actions

Infants explore the world primarily through sensory experiences and motor movements.

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20
Q

Which parenting style is characterized by high responsiveness and high demands?

A

Authoritative

Authoritative parenting is associated with positive child outcomes.

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21
Q

What is the primary focus of information processing theories of development?

A

How children perceive, remember, and use information

Emphasizes mental processes similar to computer operations.

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22
Q

Which type of play is most characteristic of preschool-aged children?

A

Associative play

Children engage in similar activities and interact but without strict organization.

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23
Q

According to Kohlberg, at which stage is moral reasoning based on obedience and punishment?

A

Preconventional level (Stage 1)

Moral decisions are based on avoiding punishment in this earliest stage.

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24
Q

Which principle states that development proceeds from general to specific responses?

A

Principle of hierarchical integration

Simple skills develop first and are combined into more complex ones.

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25
What is the primary developmental task of adolescence according to Erikson?
Identity vs. role confusion ## Footnote Teens explore who they are and develop a sense of self.
26
Which gland is primarily responsible for releasing growth hormones?
Pituitary gland ## Footnote Often called the 'master gland' because it regulates other endocrine glands.
27
According to Ainsworth's Strange Situation, what does secure attachment predict?
Better social competence and emotional regulation ## Footnote Securely attached infants feel confident exploring when caregiver is present.
28
Which theorist proposed that intelligence consists of multiple abilities rather than a single general factor?
Howard Gardner ## Footnote Gardner's theory of multiple intelligences identifies at least eight distinct types.
29
During which Piagetian stage do children master conservation tasks?
Concrete operational stage ## Footnote Typically occurs between ages 7-11 years.
30
Which prenatal diagnostic test examines a sample of placental tissue?
Chorionic villus sampling (CVS) ## Footnote Usually performed between 10-12 weeks of pregnancy to detect genetic abnormalities.
31
What is the primary purpose of neonatal reflexes?
Ensure survival in early infancy ## Footnote Reflexes like grasping and rooting help with basic needs until voluntary control develops.
32
Which principle explains why identical twins raised apart may still show similarities?
Nature (genetic) influences ## Footnote Demonstrates the role of heredity in development.
33
According to Baumrind, which parenting style leads to the most competent children?
Authoritative ## Footnote Combines warmth and clear expectations with open communication.
34
Which brain structure is primarily responsible for emotional processing?
Amygdala ## Footnote Plays key role in fear responses and emotional memories.
35
What is the primary limitation of cross-sectional research designs?
Cannot assess individual change over time ## Footnote Compares different age groups at one point in time rather than tracking same individuals.
36
Which motor skill typically develops first in infants?
Lifting head while prone ## Footnote Follows cephalocaudal pattern - head control before trunk/limb control.
37
According to evolutionary psychology, why do infants prefer sweet tastes?
Sweetness indicates safe, high-calorie foods ## Footnote Evolutionary adaptation to seek nutritious substances.
38
Which type of memory develops first in infancy?
Implicit (procedural) memory ## Footnote Memory for skills and routines develops before explicit recall.
39
What is the primary function of myelin in neural development?
Increase speed of neural transmission ## Footnote Myelin sheath insulates axons for faster signal conduction.
40
Which factor is most strongly associated with secure attachment in infants?
Responsive caregiving ## Footnote Consistent, sensitive responses to infant needs promote attachment security.
41
According to dynamic systems theory, how do motor skills develop?
Through interaction of multiple systems ## Footnote Physical abilities, environment, and motivation all contribute.
42
Which cognitive ability emerges during Piaget's concrete operational stage?
Reversibility ## Footnote Understanding that actions can be reversed (e.g., pouring water back).
43
What is the primary difference between assimilation and accommodation?
Assimilation fits new info into existing schemas; accommodation changes schemas ## Footnote Two complementary processes of adaptation in Piaget's theory.
44
Which hormone is primarily responsible for puberty onset?
Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) ## Footnote Triggers release of sex hormones from pituitary gland.
45
According to information processing theory, what is 'metacognition'?
Thinking about one's own thinking ## Footnote Includes knowledge and regulation of cognitive processes.
46
Which type of research design tracks the same individuals over time?
Longitudinal ## Footnote Allows study of developmental change but is time-consuming.
47
What is the primary developmental task of middle adulthood according to Erikson?
Generativity vs. stagnation ## Footnote Focus on contributing to future generations versus self-absorption.
48
Which factor is most crucial for successful aging according to socioemotional selectivity theory?
Emotional satisfaction ## Footnote Older adults prioritize emotionally meaningful relationships.
49
According to Piaget, what is a schema?
Mental framework for organizing information ## Footnote Basic building block of intelligent behavior that adapts through experience.
50
Which prenatal factor has the greatest impact on fetal growth?
Maternal nutrition ## Footnote Adequate nutrients are essential, especially during critical periods.
51
What is the primary purpose of developmental screening tests?
Identify potential delays early ## Footnote Allow for timely intervention when problems are detected.
52
Which type of play involves creating imaginary scenarios?
Pretend play ## Footnote Emerges in toddlerhood and supports cognitive and social development.
53
According to Kohlberg, postconventional moral reasoning is characterized by:
Abstract principles of justice ## Footnote Moral decisions based on universal ethical principles rather than rules.
54
Which brain area is primarily responsible for executive functions?
Prefrontal cortex ## Footnote Involved in planning, decision-making, and impulse control.
55
What is the primary cause of cognitive decline in late adulthood?
Changes in brain structure and function ## Footnote Includes neuron loss, reduced neurotransmitter levels, and slower processing speed.
56
Which factor is most important for resilience in children facing adversity?
Supportive adult relationship ## Footnote Even one stable, caring relationship can buffer against stress.
57
According to ecological systems theory, what is the macrosystem?
Cultural values and societal norms ## Footnote Broad ideological and institutional patterns that influence development.
58
Which motor milestone typically appears first?
Rolling over ## Footnote Usually occurs around 4-6 months, before sitting or crawling.
59
What is the primary focus of ethological theories of development?
Evolutionary basis of behavior ## Footnote Examines how adaptive behaviors promote survival.
60
Which concept refers to a child's ability to understand others' mental states?
Theory of mind ## Footnote Develops gradually during early childhood (e.g., false belief tasks).
61
According to information processing theory, what is 'automatization'?
Process where skills become routine ## Footnote Requires less conscious effort with practice (e.g., reading).
62
Which type of attachment is characterized by indifference to caregiver's presence?
Avoidant attachment ## Footnote Child shows little distress when caregiver leaves and avoids them upon return.
63
What is the primary developmental task of early adulthood according to Erikson?
Intimacy vs. isolation ## Footnote Forming close, committed relationships versus social isolation.
64
Which factor is most strongly associated with healthy aging?
Physical activity ## Footnote Regular exercise maintains physical and cognitive functioning.
65
What is the difference between growth and development?
Growth refers to quantitative changes (size, structure), while development includes qualitative and quantitative changes (skills, behavior).
66
What is maturation in the context of development?
Biological readiness to acquire a skill, dependent on heredity.
67
What are gross motor skills?
Movements involving larger muscles (e.g., sitting, crawling, rolling).
68
What are fine motor skills?
Small movements involving smaller muscles (e.g., grasping objects, moving lips/tongue).
69
What is the cephalocaudal sequence of development?
Development progresses from head to feet (e.g., head control before walking).
70
What is the proximodistal sequence of development?
Development progresses from center to outer body (e.g., heart develops before fingers).
71
What is the germinal period in prenatal development?
The first 1-2 weeks after conception, involving zygote formation and implantation.
72
What happens during the embryonic period (3-8 weeks)?
Major organs and systems form (e.g., heart, brain, spinal cord).
73
What is the fetal period?
Weeks 9-38, marked by rapid growth and refinement of organs (e.g., kicking, thumb-sucking).
74
What is the function of the placenta?
Provides nutrients/oxygen to the fetus and removes waste via the umbilical cord.
75
What is the age of viability?
22-26 weeks, when a fetus can survive outside the womb with medical support.
76
What is lanugo?
Fine, downy hair covering the fetus's body for protection.
77
What is vernix?
A white, cheese-like substance protecting fetal skin from chapping.
78
What are WHO's recommendations for antenatal care?
At least 8 contacts, iron/folic acid supplements, tetanus vaccination, and one ultrasound before 24 weeks.
79
Why is iron supplementation important during pregnancy?
Prevents maternal anemia, low birth weight, and preterm birth.
80
What physiological changes occur in pregnancy?
Increased plasma volume (50%), higher cardiac output (40%), and elevated fibrinogen levels.
81
What is hyperemesis gravidarum?
Severe, persistent vomiting leading to dehydration or weight loss.
82
What is preeclampsia?
Pregnancy-induced high blood pressure, often with protein in urine.
83
What is eclampsia?
Severe preeclampsia causing seizures, potentially fatal.
84
What is an ectopic pregnancy?
Fertilized egg implants outside the uterus (e.g., fallopian tube), non-viable.
85
What is a molar pregnancy?
Abnormal placenta forms without a viable fetus due to chromosomal issues.
86
What is placental abruption?
Placenta detaches prematurely, risking fetal oxygen/nutrient supply.
87
What is placenta previa?
Placenta covers/partially covers the cervix, causing bleeding risks.
88
What are common complications of amniotic fluid?
Polyhydramnios (too much) or oligohydramnios (too little), linked to birth defects or preterm labor.
89
What is a high-risk pregnancy?
Pregnancies with complications (e.g., maternal age >35, diabetes, multiples).
90
What are the types of multiple pregnancies?
Twins, triplets, etc., from multiple fertilized eggs or one egg splitting.
91
What is lupus pregnancy?
Pregnancy in women with lupus, increasing blood clotting risks.
92
What are neonatal care priorities?
Monitoring preterm/sick newborns for transitions (e.g., breathing, temperature).
93
What reflexes do newborns exhibit?
Rooting, sucking, grasping, and stepping reflexes.
94
What developmental milestone occurs at 3-4 months?
Improved eye tracking, head control, and reduced primitive reflexes.
95
What milestone occurs at 6-9 months?
Crawling, sitting without support, and pulling to stand.
96
What milestone occurs at 9-12 months?
Standing alone, taking first steps.
97
Why avoid drugs/alcohol during pregnancy?
Risk of fetal harm (e.g., birth defects, developmental delays).
98
What is the role of the corpus luteum?
Secretes hormones to prepare the uterine lining for implantation.
99
How long do sperm and ovum survive after release?
Sperm: up to 6 days; ovum: 1 day.
100
What are the layers of the embryonic disk?
Ectoderm (nervous system/skin), mesoderm (muscles/organs), endoderm (digestive/lungs).
101
What is the neural tube?
Embryonic structure forming the brain and spinal cord.
102
What is the yolk sac's function?
Produces blood cells until fetal liver/spleen mature.
103
What is the amniotic fluid's role?
Cushions fetus, maintains temperature, and prevents jerks.
104
What is the umbilical cord's structure?
One vein (nutrients) and two arteries (waste), 1-3 feet long.
105
What is intrauterine pregnancy?
Normal pregnancy with fetus implanted in the uterus.
106
What is tubal pregnancy?
Fertilized egg implants in the fallopian tube, non-viable.
107
What is a singlet pregnancy?
One egg and one sperm form a single fetus.
108
What causes miscarriage?
Often due to genetic/chromosomal abnormalities, most before 12 weeks.
109
What are reversible birth control methods?
IUDs, pills, vaginal rings (hormonal/non-hormonal).
110
What is tubal ligation?
Permanent sterilization by cutting/sealing fallopian tubes.
111
What is vasectomy?
Permanent male sterilization by cutting vas deferens.
112
What is abstinence?
Refraining from all sexual activity to prevent pregnancy.
113
What is fertility awareness?
Tracking ovulation/menstrual cycles to plan/avoid pregnancy.
114
What are WHO's tetanus vaccination guidelines for pregnant women?
Administered in 7th/8th months to prevent neonatal tetanus.

Ugc NET (4 decks)

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