PARA by Sir Mandanas Flashcards
(114 cards)
1
Q
Introduced aseptic surgery
A
Joseph Lister
2
Q
First discovery of DNA
A
Fredrick Miescher
3
Q
Discovered that DNA contained phosphates
A
Phoebus A. T. Levine
4
Q
Discovered using X-ray crystallography that DNA is helical
A
Rosalind Franklin
5
Q
Described the 3D structure of the DNA molecule
A
James Watson and Francis
6
Q
1st to described bacteria and called “beasties”
A
Antoine Van Leeuwenhoek
7
Q
Important pioneers for the promotion of asepsis
A
Ignatz Semmelweis and Joseph Lister
8
Q
Germ theory of disease
A
Robert Koch
-Many disease are caused by mircoor
-The etiologic agent can be isolated by an infected person
-Environmental factor contributes to disease
9
Q
A
10
Q
How will you differentiate adult from Larva E.vermicularis?
A
Cephalic alae
11
Q
Similarity of adult and Larva E.vermicularis
A
Bulbed esophagus
12
Q
Parasite that is allergic to coffee enema (black coffee)
A
Trichuris
Enterobius
13
Q
Barberspole like
A
Parastrongylus cantonensis
14
Q
Trophozoite-cyst conversion is very important to life cycles of?
a. Balantdium
b. Entamoeba
c. Giardia
d. All of the above
A
All of the above
15
Q
The sporogonic life cycle of Plasmodium takes place in?
a. man
b. mosquito
c. A & B
d. red blood cells
A
mosquito
16
Q
Single celled protozoan with four pairs of flagella and ventral adhesive disk
a. Trichimonas vaginalis
b. Chilomastix mesnili
c. Trypanosoma brucei
d. Giardia intestinalis
A
Giardia intestinalis
17
Q
Specimens used in isolating Trichomonas vaginalis
a. urine
b. AOTA
c. prostatic secretion
d. urethral discharge
A
AOTA
18
Q
Medina/Dragon worm”
a. Dracunculus medinensis
b. Syngamus laryngeus
c. Trichinella spiralis
d. Onchocerca volvulus
A
Dracunculus medinensis
19
Q
All of the following nematodes can be harvested in Zinc Sulphate floatation except?
a. Giant intestinal nematode
b. threadworm
c. Pudoc worm
d. cat hookworm
A
Pudoc worm
20
Q
Which parasites causes “snail fever”?
a. Schistosoma
b. Angiostrongylus
c. Garrison’s fluke
d. AOTA
A
Schistosoma
21
Q
Nonmotile, intracellular form of Trypanosoma cruzi
a. epimastigote
b. trypomastigote
c. amastigote
d. promastigote
A
amastigote
22
Q
Mode of transmission of Schistosoma japonicum
a. skin penetration
b. ingestion of snail
c. penetration of snail
d. ingestion of aquatic plants
A
skin penetration
23
Q
Definitive host of the broad fish tapeworm
a. fish
b. copepod
c. man
d. snail
A
man
24
Q
What is the infective stage of the beef tapeworm
a. cysticercus bovis
b. cercocystis bovis
c. plerocercoid larva
d. sparganum
A
cysticercus bovis
25
Possible vectors for Leishmania spp.
I. Sand fly
II. Chrysops
III. Aedes
IV. Lutzomyia
a. I,II,III
b. I,II,IV
c. I, IV
d. I only
I, IV
26
Causes “ping-pong’s disease”
a. Cryptosporidium spp.
b. AOTA
c. Giardia lamblia
d. Trichomonas vaginalis
Trichomonas vaginalis
27
Usual location of the pork tapeworm
a. small intestine
b. large intestine
c. stomach
d. lungs
small intestine
28
“Old fashioned electric bulb appearance of egg”
a. Schistosoma japonicum
b. AOTA
c. Enterobius vermicularis
d. Chinese liver fluke
Chinese liver fluke
29
“Medina/Dragon worm”
a. Dracunculus medinensis
b. Syngamus laryngeus
c. Trichinella spiralis
d. Onchocerca volvulus
Dracunculus medinensis
30
Which parasites causes “snail fever”?
a. Schistosoma
b. Angiostrongylus
c. Garrison’s fluke
d. AOTA
Schistosoma
31
Transformation of egg to filariform larva of hookworms takes place in?
a. C & D
b. pus formed/blisters
c. small intestine
d. soil
soil
32
Free living amoeba which causes keratitis and amebic encephalitis
a. Entamoeba histolytica
b. Acanthamoeba spp.
c. A & B
d. Naegleria
Acanthamoeba spp.
33
Mode of transmission of Bancroft’s filarial worm
a. ingestion of 3rd stage larva
b. AOTA
c. mosquito borne
d. direct penetration of 3rd stage larva
mosquito borne
34
Which parasite historically inflicted Charles Darwin during his voyage in South America?
a. Enterobius vermicularis
b. Plasmodium vivax
c. Trypanosoma cruzi
d. Necator americanus
Trypanosoma cruzi
35
Mode of infection for the beef tapeworm
a. skin penetration of larva
b. ingestion of beef with larva
c. ingestion of cattle stools
d. AOTA
ingestion of beef with larva
36
All of the following can possibly be acquired through sexual contact, except
I. Entamoeba histolytica
II. Giardia lamblia
III. Trichomonas vaginalis
a. II, III
b. I,II
c. I only
d. NOTA
NOTA
37
The term “gravid” used in Parasitology denotes
a. ”extreme length”
b. “laying larva”
c. “pregnant”
d. “enlarged size”
“pregnant”
38
Parasitology is the study of
a. parasitic viruses
b. parasitic BACTERIA
c. parasitic eukaryotes and prokaryotes
d. parasitic fungi
parasitic eukaryotes and prokaryotes
39
Which of the following is most effective in preventing Giardia infection?
a. drinking bottled water only
b. cooking all food
c. sexual abstinence
d. application of insect repellents
drinking bottled water only
40
Which of the following arthropods is responsible for transmitting the deadliest parasitic disease?
a. mosquitoes
b. fleas
c. thick
d. true bugs
mosquitoes
41
Filarifom larva of Necator americanus must pass through which organ to mature?
a. brain
b. bladder
c. liver
d. lung
lung
42
Which parasite given here are resistant to routine boiling?
I. Giardia
II. Cryptosporidium
III. Toxoplasma
IV. Plasmodium
a. III, IV
b. II, III, IV
c. I, III
d. I,II,III, IV
I, III
43
Which of the ff. parasites are acquired through fecal-oral & ingestion?
I. Cyclospora
II. Fasciola
III. Taenia
IV. Toxoplasma
a. 1,II,III
b. II,III
c. I, II,III,IV
d. II,III,IV
I, II,III,IV
44
Balantidium coli can be distinguished from Entamoeba histolytica microscopically because the former has ?
a. trophozoite
b. liver abscess
c. cilia
d. cyst
cilia
45
Which parasite may be transmitted to humans by cat mess/litter boxes?
a. Ancylostoma duodenale
b. Necator americanus
c. Toxoplasma gondii
d. Plasmodium falciparum
Toxoplasma gondii
46
What is the most common mode of transmission of parasites?
a. sexual contact
b. ingestion
c. skin penetration
d. AOTA
ingestion
47
Which of the ff. are the best specimens for Naegleria?
I. Corneal scrapings
II. CSF
III. Stools
IV. Biopsy material
a. I,II
b. I,II,III
c. I,II,III,IV
d. I,II,IV
I,II,IV
48
The most common protozoan causing disease in people of industrialized nations
a. Plasmodium falciparum
b. Enterobius vermicularis
c. Trichomonas vaginalis
d. Ascaris lumbricoides
Trichomonas vaginalis
49
Infection of Trichomonas vaginalis in women causes;
a. vaginosis
b. vaginitis
c. chlamydial infection
d. gonococcal vaginitis
vaginitis
50
Common mode of transmission of Fasciola hepatica
a. ingestion of sheep meat
b. ingestion of plants
c. A & B
d. ingestion of fish
ingestion of plants
51
Nonmotile, intracellular form of Trypanosoma cruzi
a. epimastigote
b. trypomastigote
c. amastigote
d. promastigote
amastigote
52
Which parasite causes “Oriental-sore”?
a. Paragonimus westermani
b. Leishmania tropica
c. Chlonorchis sinensis
d. Fasciola gigantica
Leishmania tropica
53
Parasitic disease characterized by transient diarrhea in healty persons and severe diarrhea type
in immunocompromised persons
a. trichomoniasis
b. cochin china diarrhea c. giardiasis
d. cryptosporidiosis
cryptosporidiosis
54
Parasite acquired through accidental ingestion of uncooked crayfish
a. Metagonimus spp.
b. Heterophyes heterophyes
c. lung fluke
d. Chinese liver fluke
lung fluke
55
Aside from the same infective and diagnostic life stages, which characteristic is similar to all filarial worms?
a. capacity for elephantiasis
b. member of Digenea
c. periodicity
d. arthropod vector
arthropod vector
56
Eggs of pinworm are usually diagnosed in what specimen?
a. duodenal aspirate
b. AOTA
c. tape swabs
d. stool
tape swabs
57
Feeding, replicative and invasive form of Entamoeba histolytica
a. 3rd stage larva
b. larva
c. cyst
d. trophozoite
trophozoite
58
The microfilariae are sheathed. The anterior is rounded, and the posterior tapers to a point. There are no nuclei in the tail
a. Bancroft’s filarial worm
b. Eyeworm
c. Mansonella streptocerca
d. Brugia malay
Bancroft’s filarial worm
59
Ameba with “basket shaped nucleus”
a. Entamoeba coli
b. Iodamoeba butshlii
c. Entamoba hartmanii
d. Entamoeba polecki
Iodamoeba butshlii
60
Which parameter is not encountered during routine macroscopic stool examination for
Parasitology?
a. proglottid inspection
b. fecal sediments
c. color
d. mucous flecks
fecal sediments
61
All of the following are correct diagnostic forms of parasite given in peripheral smear, except?
a. Tachyzoite- Toxoplasma
b. Microfilaria- Wuchereria
c. Schizont- Plasmodium
d. Trypomastigote- Acute T.cruzi
Tachyzoite- Toxoplasma
62
Which form of Entamoeba histolytica is seen following a liver aspirate?
a. ciliated trophozoite
b. thorny trophozoite
c. trophozoite
d. flagellated dormant cyst
trophozoite
63
All of the following cysts of parasites are seen in stools, except?
a. Balantidium coli
b. Giardia lamblia
c. Entamoeba histolytica
d. Trichomonas hominis
Trichomonas hominis
64
All of the following parasites harbors the eggs in urine, except?
a. Enterobius
b. Wuchereria
c. Dioctophyma
d. Schistosoma haematobium
Wuchereria
65
Trophozoites of what parasite can infect lungs
I. Paragonimus
II. Entamoeba histolytica III. Ascaris
IV. Threadworm
a. I,III,IV
b. II only
c. III, IV
d. II, III, IV
II only
66
Which is not a correct parasite-diagnostic form seen in skin?
a. amastigote- Leishmania tropica
b. microfilaria- blinding worm
c. 3rd stage larva- guinea worm
d. encysted larvae- Trichinella
encysted larvae- Trichinella
67
What is a direct effect of iodine in parasitic smears?
a. availability of reagents
b. NOTA
c. color intensity
d. immobilization of parasites
immobilization of parasites
68
What is the major difference of D’Antoni’s Iodine from Lugol’s Iodine?
a. latter is more concerned with nuclear and cytoplasmic details
b. former is commonly employed in biologic determination other than parasites
c. latter is strictly used for parasitologic analysis
d. former has lesser amount of iodine/crystals
former has lesser amount of iodine/crystals
69
What is the most common mode of transmission of parasites?
a. sexual contact
b. ingestion
c. skin penetration
d. AOTA
ingestion
70
Parasite acquired through accidental ingestion of uncooked crayfish
a. Metagonimus spp.
b. Heterophyes heterophyes
c. lung fluke
d. Chinese liver fluke
lung fluke
71
What type of blood is used for knott’s concentration?
a. arterial
c. venous
b. lysed blood
d. capillary
venous
72
Which parameter is not encountered during routine macroscopic stool examination for
Parasitology?
a. proglottid inspection
b. fecal sediments
c. color
d. mucous flecks
fecal sediments
73
Which form of Entamoeba histolytica is seen following a liver aspirate?
a. ciliated trophozoite
b. thorny trophozoite
c. trophozoite
d. flagellated dormant cyst
trophozoite
74
All of the following cysts of parasites are seen in stools, except?
a. Balantidium coli
b. Giardia lamblia
c. Entamoeba histolytica
d. Trichomonas hominis
Giardia lamblia
75
Gold standard for pinworm
a. AOTA
b. ELISA
c. stool culture
d. scotch tape swab
scotch tape swab
76
This technique exploits the property of the Strongyloides larva to migrate from cooler to warmer area
a. Bentonite
b. Boeck & Drbohlav
c. Harada Mori
d. Beck’s
Harada Mori
77
Observation of E.histolytica cysts
a. asymptomatic
b. carrier
c. AOTA
d. chronic infection
asymptomatic
78
All of the following parasites causes a delayed type reaction for intradermal testing, except?
a. Leishmania
b. Trypanosoma
c. Toxoplasma
d. Trichinella
Trichinella
79
Which of the following is not carried by cyclops?
a. broad fish tapeworm
b. Leishmania
c. Dracunculus
d. Gnathostoma
Leishmania
80
Generally, which parasite cannot cause anemia?
a. Necator americanus
b. Giardia
c. Plasmodium
d. D. latum
Giardia
81
”Larva currens” is usually caused by what parasite?
a. threadworm
b. blinding worm
c. fiery serpent
d. AOTA
threadworm
82
Which parasite trematode given below cannot be associated with malignancy?
a. Chlonorchis sinensis
b. Taenia solium
c. Schistosoma haematobium
d. Opistorchis spp.
Taenia solium
83
All of the following protozoans causes opportunistic infections with immunocompromised hosts, except?
a. Strongyloides
b. Toxoplasma
c. Giardia lamblia
d. Entamoeba histolytica
Strongyloides
84
Which organism is the natural definitive and reservoir host of Capillaria?
a. fish
b. birds
c. snail
d. humans
birds
85
Vitamin malabsorption for Ascaris lumbricoides
a. Vit B
b. albumin
c. Vit A
d. vit C
Vit A
86
Which parasite given below has the charactertistic adult worm bearing a wing like expansion of
the cuticle near the anterior end?
a. Dracunculus
b. Whipworm
c. Oesophagostomum
d. pinworm
pinworm
87
Vector for African Eyeworm
a. chrysops
b. culicoides
c. cone –nosed bug
d. cyclops
chrysops
88
Identify the parasite isolated: Stool diagnostics—detects barrel shaped eggs with mucus plugs at
the ends, patient has Peripheral blood Eosinophilia and Increased serum IgE level
a. Trypanosoma cruzi
b. Capillaria hepatica
c. Trichinella
d. Trichiuris
Trichiuris
89
Only known infected host of the Enterobius vermicularis?
a. humans
b. snails
c. pigs
d. cattles
humans
90
“Cat liver fluke”
a. Toxocara cati
b. Ancylostoma braziliensis
c. Paragonimus siamiensis
d. Opistorchis felineus
Opistorchis felineus
91
It is the most pathogenic species among the schistosomes.
a. haematobium
b. intercalatum
c. japonicum
d. mansoni
japonicum
92
Infective stage of pinworm
a. adult worm
b. 3rd stage larva
c. embryonated egg
d. fertilized egg
embryonated egg
93
Circulating anodic & cathodic antigen is commonly used in?
a. Onchocerca
b. Schistosome
c. Babesia
d. Cytoisospora
Schistosome
94
Which tapeworm is capable of autoreinfection?
I. Hymenolepis nana
II. Enterobius vermicularis
III. Strongyloides stercoralis
IV. Capillaria spp.
a. II,III,IV
b. I,II
c. I
d. I,II,III
I
94
95
Reservoir host of Balantidium coli
a. C & D
b. snail
c. human
d. pig
pig
96
Non feeding life stage of protozoans
a. embryo
b. embryonated larva
c. trophozoite
d. cyst
cyst
97
Most common malarial parasite worldwide
a. falciparum
b. ovale
c. malariae
d. vivax
vivax
98
Which of the ff. parasites are viviparous?
a. Brugia
b. Loa loa
c. Wuchereria
d. AOTA
AOTA
99
“String of beads” appearance of esophagus
a. whipworm
b. Entamoeba histolytica c. Strongyloides stercoralis
d. Enterobius vermicularis
whipworm
100
“Guitar shaped egg”
a. Hookworm egg
b. Giardia immature cyst c. Trichiuris sp.
d. Capillaria spp.
Capillaria spp.
101
Microfilaria isolated in a body cavity is unsheathed, and nuclei is continuous to tail tip
a. Onchocerca volvulus
b. Brugia timori
c. Loa loa
d. Mansonella perstans
Mansonella perstans
102
Mosquito vectors of Brugia malayi
I. Aedes
II. Anopeheles
III. Culex
IV. Mansonia
a. II, IV
b. I,III,IV
c. I, IV
d. I, II, IV
I, II, IV
103
Bachmann intradermal test is highly specific for?
a. Baylisascaris procyonis
b. Echinococcus spp.
c. Trichinella sp.
d. Toxoplasma
Trichinella sp.
104
Scolex is characterized by 20-30 Y shaped hooklets
a. temperate liver fluke
b. Railletina spp.
c. rat tapeworm
d. dwarf tapeworm
dwarf tapeworm
105
A liquid stool specimen is collected at 10 pm & brought to Laboratory for culture & ova
determination. It is refrigerated for 12 hours, when the physician requested to look for amoeba, best thing to do would be?
a. do saline/NSS, specimen is safe, proper processing was done
b. just perform staining, specimen maintained its integrity
c. recollection cannot be done, instead, perform concentration tests
d. recollect another specimen
recollect another specimen
106
“Rotten egg” flatus
a. Giardia duodenalis
b. E. histolytica
c. Trichomonas
d. Dienatmoeba
Giardia duodenalis
107
What is the proper amount of watery stool for routine O&P?
a. 5-6 tablespoons
b. 2 cups
c. 1-2 teaspoon
d. 20 grams
5-6 tablespoons
108
Component of urine which is unfavourable for protozoan trophozoites
a. uric acid
b. AOTA
c. ammonia
d. creatinine
ammonia
109
Which parasite causes neurocysticercosis
a. Plasmodium
b. Schistosoma
c. beef tapeworm
d. pork tapeworm
pork tapeworm
110
Embryo found in pesudophyllidean worms that requires aquatic development
a. plerocercoid
b. sparganum
c. coracidium
d. copepod
coracidium
111
Sinton and Mulligan’s stippling
a. P. knowlesi
b. P. vivax
c. P. ovale
d. AOTA
P. knowlesi
112
Infective stage of Schistosoma japonicum
a. metacercaria
b. procercoird larva
c. furcocercus larva
d. AOT
furcocercus larva
113
“Bunch of grapes” appearance of lesions in x rays (chest)
a. Wuchereria
b. Echinococcus
c. lung fluke
d. Ascaris
lung fluke
