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Surgery > part 1 > Flashcards

part 1 Flashcards

1
Q

-otomy

A

A surgical procedure in which a structure is cut.

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2
Q

-ectomy

A

A surgical procedure in which a portion of tissue is removed / resected.

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3
Q

-stomy

A

A surgical procedure in which a new opening is created on a temporary or permanent basis.

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4
Q

-plasty

A

A surgical procedure in which an alteration is performed to an organ or body structure, it is usually permanent. Think of plastic surgery. The term ”-plasty” is also used as a suffix when an artificial prosthesis is implanted to replace an original body part.

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5
Q

-pexy

A

A surgical procedure in which a permanent or temporary adhesion is created between two structures (usually using suture, sometimes using atube).

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6
Q

-oscopy

A

A surgical procedure involving the use of an optical instrument (an endoscope, an otoscope, an arthroscope, etc.) to visualize organs or structures.

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7
Q

-rrhaphy

A

A surgical procedure in which a structure is sutured or repaired.

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8
Q

-centesis

A

A surgical procedure in which a cavity or structure is punctured in order to aspirate fluid, air or tissue. Paracentesis is sometimes used synonymously.

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9
Q

A ___ and ___ must be worn upon entering the surgical area.

The ___ is essential for walking into the room while the ___ should be worn at the time of preparation of the patient.

A

hat, mask

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10
Q

Before the pack is opened, one should ensure that the pack has not expired and that ____________ indicating sterilization.

A

the tapes have changed colours

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11
Q

The surgeon or technician should never reach ___ a pack and should rather _______ the pack to prevent contamination.

A

over, move around

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12
Q

If the instrument package tears during opening, then the instrument is not considered ____ as it may have touched the outside edge of the paper

A

sterile

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13
Q

If something contaminated touches an open surgical pack, what do we do?

A

replace the entire pack

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14
Q

Each linen pack contains _______ followed by ________. This pack should be opened _________.

A

four ground drapes, a gown and hand towel
a second gown and hand towel
just prior to going to scrub

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15
Q

The gloves shall be opened prior to _____ in order to ensure you do not need to wait for assistance.

A

going to scrub

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16
Q

The instruments can only be set up by _____.

A

a sterile surgeon or technician

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17
Q

______ need to be counted prior to surgery (and also at the end) to ensure none are left behind in the patient.

A

the gauze sponges

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18
Q

The main scrub products used at this institution are:

A

povidone-iodine, chlorhexidine gluconate, and alcohol

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19
Q

The ideal scrub products possess _______, ________, ________ and ________.
_______ and _________ fulfill these criteria the best.

A

-a broad spectrum of activity
-a rapid antimicrobial activity
-are not irritating to the skin
-allow for prolonged residual activity

-Chlorhexidine and iodophors

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20
Q

Alcohols such as ethyl and isopropyl alcohol are used in concentrations of _____ percent to kill _____.

A

70 to 99, bacteria

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21
Q

alcohol kills bacteria via what mechanism? How fast? Alcohol is also effective against what other pathogens, and ineffective against what?

A

cell membrane damage and protein denaturation
-Bactericidal activity takes effect immediately, but evaporation over a few minutes is required for greatest activity

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22
Q

Alcohol is effective against what pathogens, and ineffective against what?

A

Mostly used for bacteria. Also effective against fungi but its activity against viruses and spores is poor

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23
Q

_____ increases the activity of chlorhexidine and iodophors.

A

alcohol

24
Q

Alcohol is useful to help remove ___ from the skin and allows more thorough skin cleaning.

A

oils

25
Q

Iodophores are effective against what pathogens? They are ineffective against what?

A

-used to kill bacteria, enveloped and some non-enveloped viruses, fungi, protozoa, and yeasts but have poor activity against spores.

26
Q

Povidone-iodine requires at least _____ contact time to be effective.

A

2 minutes

27
Q

Iodophors kill by ___ and ___ when free iodine is released.

A

iodination, oxidation

28
Q

Iodophors may have persistent activity for ____ after use.

A

several hours

29
Q

Alcohol can increase the killing action of iodophors by ____

A

increase, liberating free iodine.

30
Q

disadvtanges of iodophores

A

-Iodophors are corrosive to metals, making them a poor choice for sterilization of instruments, can be cytotoxic and can cause thyroid dysfunction with prolonged use.
-Povidone-iodine may also cause allergic responses in some individuals.
-Iodophors are inactivated by organic debris and will stain fabric and tissues.

31
Q

Chlorhexidine is a _____ that is useful for killing___, ___, and ___.

A

bisbiguanide
bacteria
viruses
fungi

32
Q

Chlorhexidine has a broad spectrum of activity but is more effective against gram-___ bacteria than gram-___ bacteria (i.e. Pseudomonas sp.) and ___.

A

positive
negative, fungi

33
Q

chlorhexidine is better at killing viruses with what characteristic?

A

enveloped

34
Q

chlorhexidine has poor activity against ____

A

spores

35
Q

When used for scrubbing hands or patients, Chlorhexidine is not ____ and works within ____ to kill organisms.

Despite a rapid onset of action, contact times of ____ are still recommended to reach maximum killing and better residual activity.

A

irritating to the skin
30 seconds
2 minutes

36
Q

drawbacks of chlorhexidine

A

Chlorhexidine is irritating to the eye, ototoxic and neurotoxic if it contacts the brain or meninges.

37
Q

how does chlorhexidine kill microorganisms

A

It kills microorganisms by increasing cell membrane permeability and precipitation of the cell contents.

38
Q

how long is the residual activity of chlorhexidine and why? does effectiveness change with repeated use?

A

Residual activity that lasts at least 6 hours is present due to binding to keratin, and effectiveness increases with repeated uses.

39
Q

how does the presence of organic debris effect chlorhexidine?

A

it does not

40
Q

Phenol and its derivatives are used as ____, ____, and ____.

A

antiseptics
general disinfectants
in cold sterilants

41
Q

____ and ____ are phenol derivatives that are used as antiseptics.

A

Bisphenols
halogen-substituted phenols

42
Q

a bacteriostatic bisphenol that only possesses bacteriostatic activity against gram-positive bacteria.

A

Hexachlorophene

43
Q

Hexachlorophene kills at a ____ rate and has a residual effect lasting several hours.

A

slow to intermediate
several hours

44
Q

drawbacks of hexachlorophene

A

-It can cause photosensitivity and dermatitis to people sensitive to phenols and should not be used on broken skin or mucous membranes due to irritation and absorption into the blood.
-Many skin preparations are more effective than hexachlorophene, reducing its use in veterinary medicine.

44
Q

what phenol is inactivated if contacted with alcohol or other soaps but is not inactivated by organic debris?

A

Hexachlorophene

45
Q

____ (PCMX) is a halogen-substituted phenol that kills gram-___ bacteria by cell wall disruption and enzyme inactivation but has reduced activity against gram-___ bacteria.

A

Parachlorometaxylenol
positive
negative

46
Q

what is often done with PCMX to potentiate its activity against gram-negative bacteria

A

combined with other agents

47
Q

Onset of action of PCMX is ____ and contact times of ____ are recommended

A

slow to intermediate
a few minutes

48
Q

PCMX may be toxic to ___ because it requires hepatic glucuronate conjugation for excretion.

A

cats

49
Q

_____ (i.e. benzalkonium chloride) are slow acting and are neutralized by gauze, cotton, iodine, rubber and anionic detergents and their efficacy can be decreased by other soaps and organic debris.

A

Quaternary ammonium compounds

50
Q

quaternary ammonium kills what? How? Poorly effective against what?

A

-Bacterial killing occurs by cell wall phospholipid destruction and is more effective against gram-positive than gram-negative bacteria. -They are poorly effective against viruses, fungi or spores.

51
Q

what is the residual activity of quaternary ammonium after use?

A

none

52
Q

drawbacks of quaternary ammonium

A

may cause mucosal ulceration.

53
Q

Triclosan is a diphenyl ether that has good killing action by ______. It is effective against both gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria but specifically is not effective against _____ spp. Speed of killing is ____ and residual activity is present.

A

disrupting the bacterial cell wall
Pseudomonas
rapid to intermediate

54
Q

triclosan is effective against what?

A

gram + and- bacteria

Surgery (8 decks)

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