Part 125

Question 1

What type of aeroplane does this part consider?

Answer 1

Having a PASSENGER SEATING configuration of 10-30 SEATS OR;
With a PAYLOAD CAPACITY of 3410kg or LESS AND a MCTOW GREATER than 5700kg OR;
To PERFORM SEIFR PASSENGER operation

Question 2

What is an air operation considered as?

Answer 2

AIR TRANSPORT OR COMMERCIAL TRANSPORT operation using:
An aeroplane having a SEATING CONFIGURATION of 10 to 30 seats, EXCLUDING any required FLIGHT CREW MEMBER SEAT, OR a PAYLOAD CAPACITY of 3410 kg or LESS and a MCTOW of GREATER than 5700 kg OR;
A SINGLE ENGINE aeroplane to PERFORMANCE an SEIFR passenger operation

Question 3

What are the rules around grace periods in 125?

Answer 3

If a CREW MEMBER completes a TEST/CHECK FLIGHT/ASSESSMENT required under SUBPART I, J or M WITHIN 60 days BEFORE it is REQUIRED, they are deemed to have COMPLETED on the DATE which is REQUIRED

Question 4

When can you perform a SEIFR passenger operation under 125?

Answer 4

HOLDER shall NOT UNLESS:
The SEIFR PASSENGER operation is SPECIFIED in certificate HOLDER’S OPERATION SPECIFICATIONS under 119.15 AND;
The OPERATION is PERFORMED in ACCORDANCE with the REQUIREMENTS in part 125 AND;
The aeroplane used has a PASSENGER SEATING configuration of 14 SEATS or LESS EXCLUDING CREW MEMBER SEAT and PAYLOAD CAPACITY of 3410kg or LESS

Question 5

What are the requirements of aircraft airworthiness under 125?

Answer 5

HOLDER must ensure:
Every aeroplane in AIR OPERATION has a CURRENT STANDARD CATEGORY airworthiness CERTIFICATE;
Every aeroplane that is operated as SEIFR PASSENGER is CERTIFIED as a TURBINE POWERED aeroplane AND for IFR FLIGHT AND COMPLY with AIRWORTHINESS standards EQUIVALENT to at least FAR 23 AMD 8;
The PROPELLER, ENGINE and ACCESSORIES have a MINIMUM 100,000 HOURS TIME-IN-SERVICE in SAME TYPE of aeroplane AND with SAME PROPELLER, ENGINE and ACCESSORIES a demonstrated MECHANICAL IFSD RATE of NOT MORE than 1 per 100,000 HOURS

Question 6

When is a SEIFR proving flight conducted? Why?

Answer 6

If a SEIFR PASSENGER operation is INTENDED to be conducted where it is NOT already SPECIFIED in the the CERTIFICATE HOLDER’S operations SPECIFICATIONS under 119.15;
Used to SATISFY DIRECTOR that it can MEET any relevant REQUIREMENTS prescribed in THIS OR any OTHER PART

Question 7

What are the common language requirements?

Answer 7

HOLDER shall ensure:
ALL CREW members can COMMUNICATE in a COMMON LANGUAGE with ATLEAST 1 CREW member being able to communicate in ENGLISH;
ALL OPERATIONAL PERSONAL are able to UNDERSTAND the LANGUAGE in which the APPLICABLE parts of certificate HOLDERS EXPOSITION are WRITTEN

Question 8

What are the flight plan requirements?

When is a flight plan not required?

Answer 8

PRIOR to each AIR OPERATION a FLIGTH PLAN appropriate to TYPE of flight is prepared and SUBMITTED by PIC/HOLDER to appropriate ATS UNIT, if NOT prepared by PIC, the PIC must be INFORMED of the CONTENTS of FLIGHT PLAN BEFORE intended operation;
VFR FLIGHT PLAN prepared in ACCORDANCE with part 91 MAY have MULTIPLE ROUTE SEGMENTS provided the SARTIME is AMENDED for the next AERODROME of intended LANDING as the flight proceeds;
A FLIGHT PLAN NOT REQUIRED to be submitted to ATS UNIT for AIR OPERATION under VFR if operation is NON-STOP and flight DEPARTS and RETURNS to SAME aerodrome and flight remains WITHIN 25nm of aerodrome but must be COVERED by FLIGHT FOLLOWING SERVICE

Question 9

What are the general requirements for emergency equipment?

What is the specific requirements for a certain type of flight?

Answer 9

HOLDER shall have INFORMATION about the EMERGENCY and SURVIVAL EQUIPMENT carried on board to give IMMEDIATELY to rescue coordination centres;
For flights in EXCESS of 50nm from SHORE the INFORMATION includes:
NUMBER, COLOUR, TYPE of LIFE RAFT AND;
Whether PYROTECHNICS are CARRIED AND;
Details of EMERGENCY MEDICAL and WATER supplies AND;
TYPE and OPERATING FREQUENCIES of any emergency PORTABLE RADIO equipment

Question 10

What must the fuel requirements be based upon?

Answer 10

PROCEDURES, TABLES, and GRAPHS from manufacturers MANUAL;
Operating CONDITIONS the flight is to be conducted in:
NORMAL aeroplane FUEL CONSUMPTION data;
Anticipated WEIGHT;
Expected METEOROLOGICAL conditions;
ATS REQUIREMENTS and RESTRICTIONS;
Geographical LOCATION of DESTINATION aerodrome;
Effect of FUEL CONSUMPTION of IDENTIFIED CONTINGENCIES

Question 11

What factors must the calculation of usable fuel be based upon?

Answer 11

TAXI fuel;
TRIP fuel;
RESERVE fuel including:
CONTINGENCY fuel;
ALTERNATE fuel;
FINAL RESERVE fuel;
ADDITIONAL fuel

Question 12

What are the requirements of a flight check system?

Answer 12

Provide INSTRUCTIONS and GUIDELINES for SAFE and EFFICIENT MANAGEMENT of flight deck;
Specify METHODS to be used to ensure SAFE CONDUCT of the flight;
PROCEDURES and CHECKLISTS that comply with aeroplane FLIGHT MANUAL and MANUFACTURERS TECHNICAL and SAFETY INSTRUCTIONS;
EXPANDED CHECKLISTS in the operations MANUAL;
SCAN CHECKS;
ABBREVIATED CHECKLISTS for quick reference, including EMERGENCY procedures;
When SEIFR PASSENGER, procedure for when a person REMOVES CRITICAL item during PREFLIGHT another person AUTHORISED by HOLDER checks the item has been REPLACED in accordance with FLIGHT MANUAL BEFORE FLIGHT

Question 13

When must a crew member use a checklist?

Answer 13

Used in accordance with FLIGHT CHECK SYSTEM:
BEFORE, DURING and AFTER every phase of operation;
In NON-NORMAL and EMERGENCY situation

Question 14

What requirements are there to ensure passenger safety?

Answer 14

HOLDER must ensure:
Passengers are SEATED, where in EMERGENCY, will NOT HINDER EVACUATION;
Passengers APPEARING under the INFLUENCE by ALCOHOL or DRUGS or exhibits BEHAVIOURAL characteristics that may ENDANGER the SAFETY is REFUSED EMBARKMENT or REMOVED from the aeroplane;
DISABLED passengers are appropriately CARED FOR, including appropriate SEATING and HANDLING during EMERGENCY;
ESCORTED passengers do NOT constitute SAFETY HAZARD TO other PASSENGERS or AEROPLANE and PRIOR ARRANGEMENTS for their carriage are in accordance with the EXPOSITION;
PIC is NOTIFIED when DISABLED or ESCORTED passenger is ON BOARD

Question 15

What are the requirement of flight compartment admission?

Answer 15

HOLDER shall ensure NO PERSON other than CREW assigned to flight is ADMITTED to or CARRIED in flight COMPARTMENT or PILOT SEAT UNLESS the person is PERMITTED by PIC and is:
CREW MEMBER OR;
Authorised REPRESENTATIVE of DIRECTOR OR;
PERMITTED by HOLDER in ACCORDANCE with the EXPOSITION;
Each person admitted to FLIGHT COMPARTMENT or PILOT SEAT are FAMILIARISED with SAFETY PROCEDURES in the EXPOSITION

Question 16

What are the requirements for manipulation of controls?

Answer 16

HOLDER must ensure NO person shall MANIPULATE the controls of an aeroplane in an AIR OPERATION UNLESS they are:
A FLIGHT CREW member;
An authorised REPRESENTATIVE of the DIRECTOR who has the PERMISSION of HOLDER and PIC and PERFORMING REQUIRED DUTY

Question 17

What are the requirements of a cockpit voice recorder?

Answer 17

Operated CONTINUOUSLY from the START of the CHECKLIST BEFORE ENGINE START until completion of FINAL CHECKLIST at TERMINATION of FLIGHT;
If aeroplane is EQUIPPED to record the uninterrupted audio signals received from a BOOM OR a MASK MICROPHONE, BOOM microphones are USED BELOW 10000ft altitude;
If the cockpit voice recorder has an ERASURE feature, that feature must NOT be USED EXECPT for MAINTENANCE purposes OR for a SAFETY INVESTIGATION

Question 18

What are the requirements of a flight data recorder?

Answer 18

Operated CONTINUOUSLY from the INSTANT the aeroplane BEGINS to MOVE UNDER its OWN POWER until it has come to a COMPLETE STOP at the TERMINATION of the flight;
RECORDS and STORES at least the last 25 HOURS of its operation in DIGITAL FORM;
NOT MORE than 1 HOUR of recorded DATA is ERASED for the PURPOSE of TESTING the flight RECORDER system, OR following a SAFETY INVESTIGATION;
ANY ERASURE is of the OLDEST recorded DATA accumulated at the TIME of TESTING or SAFETY INVESTIGATION AND RECORDED in the appropriate MAINTENANCE DOCUMENTATION

Question 19

Can an aeroplane be refuelled/defuelled with passengers boarding?

Answer 19

When operating in accordance with 119, may REFUEL/DEFUEL with 3.1C OR 3.1D FLAMMABLE LIQUID when a person is EMBARKING or DISEMBARKING provided the PERSON OPERATING AEROPLANE ensures that SAFETY and aeroplane EVACUATION PRECAUTIONS are taken in accordance with the HOLDERS EXPOSITION

Question 20

Can an aeroplane be refuelled/defuelled with propulsion engines running?

Answer 20

When operating in accordance with 119, may REFUEL/DEFUEL with CLASS 3.1C OR 3.1D FLAMMABLE LIQUID with ONE OR MORE PROPULSION ENGINES RUNNING provided EVERY PASSENGER is disembarked under SUPERVISION of CREW member and is CLEAR of immediate area BEFORE REFUELLING/DEFUELLING commences AND PIC is RESPONSIBLE for EVERY PART of the operation

Question 21

What are the requirements for use of an aerodrome where operation is a regular air transport service operating to, from, or outside of New Zealand?
What if it does not meet this requirement?

Answer 21

Each RUNWAY END has a RESA of 90m in NZ and 150m OVERSEAS;
HOLDER must ENSURE that the take-off and landing PERFORMANCE CALCULATIONS for the aeroplane are BASED on a REDUCTION of the appropriate DECLARED DISTANCES for the runway to provide the EQUIVALENTS of the RESA REQUIRED

Question 22

What are the requirements to use an aerodrome not promulgated in the NZAIP?

Answer 22

AERODROME DATA;
PROCEDURES to ENSURE that the CONDITION of the aerodrome is SAFE for the OPERATION of the aeroplane;
PROCEDURES to ENSURE that the CONDITION of any REQUIRED EQUIPMENT, including SAFETY equipment, is SAFE for the OPERATION of the aeroplane;
DETAILS of any LIMITATIONS on the USE of the AERODROME

Question 23

What are the specific dimensions for use of an aerodrome for a day VFR operation that uses an aeroplane with a MCTOW of 5700kg?

Answer 23

HOLDER ensures does NOT take place UNLESS:
WIDTH that is AT LEAST TWICE the OUTER MAIN GEAR wheel SPAN of the aeroplane;
Surface WITHOUT IRREGULARITIES and of SUFFICIENT STRENGTH for take-off and landing for the aeroplane being used;
The WIDTH of the RUNWAY STRIP SURROUNDING the RUNWAY being used is AT LEAST 2 and a HALF times the WING SPAN of the aeroplane, OR 30 m, whichever is GREATER

Question 24

What is the rules surrounding SEIFR?

Answer 24

NO person shall perform a CTO carrying PASSENGERS SEIFR

Question 25

What are the requirements for extended over water flight operations?

Answer 25

HOLDER must ensure is NOT operated on EXTENDED over WATER operation UNLESS: The operation is conducted under IFR; CREW members are TRAINED in DITCHING PROCEDURES for the aeroplane; A RISK ASSESSMENT has been made to DETERMINE the risks to the SURVIVAL of the OCCUPANTS of the aeroplane in the EVENT of a DITCHING taking into account the operating ENVIRONMENT and the CLIMATIC CONDITIONS.

Question 26

What is the requirement for night operations? | When can this be changed?

Answer 26

MUST PERFORM the operation under IFR; Can PERFORM under VFR if: HOLDER has ESTABLISHED PROCEDURES for flight at NIGHT under VFR; HOLDER operation SPECIFICATIONS AUTHORISES flight at NIGHT under VRF; Flight DEPARTS from and ARRIVES at SAME AERODROME; Operation is WITHIN 25nm of AERODROME and a HEIGHT NOT LESS than 3000ft AGL; NOT LESS than CEILING of 3000ft AGL and NOT LESS than 16km VISIBILITY; PIC holds a CURRENT ATPL; Each CREW member holds CURRENT INSTRUMENT RATING; Aircraft is EQUIPPED in accordance with NIGHT VRF INSTRUMENTS and EQUIPMENT, IFR INSTRUMENTS and EQUIPMENT, IFR COMMUNICATION and NAVIGATION EQUIPMENT (91.511/17/19); Performed in accordance with ESTABLISHED PROCEDURES set by HOLDER

Question 27

What must the holder conducting SEIFR passenger operations ensure?

Answer 27

For each aerodrome to be used, PROVIDE ROUTE GUIDE to PIC with DETAILS of CONTINGENCY OPTIONS available to assist with OBSTACLE CLEARANCE, ALTERNATIVE ROUTES to intended runway, and MINIMUM HEIGHT and GLIDE PROFILE necessary to reach runway in event of ENGINE POWER LOSS during INSTRUMENT DEPARTURE OR APPROACH; PROGRAMME established to ensure EARLY IDENTIFICATION and PREVENTION of SEIFR PROBLEMS including RECORDING of event that is POTENTIAL RISK to the SAFETY, RECORDING occasions when aeroplane was NOT DISPATCHED for SEIFR PAX due to WEATHER BELOW planning minima and ALTERNATE, MAINTENANCE of a DATABASE designed to ACCESS RELIABILITY of the aeroplane and its systems, and COMPLIANCE with ENGINE MANUFACTURERS extended maintenance PROGRAMME; DATABASE contains NUMBER of SEIFR PAX flights each MONTH, details of any DIVERSION from PLANNED SEIFR PAX operation, and NUMBER of OCCASIONS when an aeroplane was NOT DISPATCHED on SEIFR PAX due to UNSERVICEABILITY; INFO required by PREVIOUS PARAGRAPHS is REVIEWED each calendar MONTH with QUALITY assurance PROGRAMME and any CORRECTIVE/PREVENTIVE actions are RECORDED; INFO and RECORDS required by PREVIOUS PARAGRAPHS are provided to DIRECTOR each calendar MONTH except AFTER 6 MONTHS the information may be EXTENDED to ONCE every 3 MONTHS if APPROVED by director. DIRECTOR may APPROVE EXTENSION of RECORDS is it will NOT COMPROMISE SAFETY; Each SUBPART I TRAINING syllabus INTEGRATES any IFR experience in MULTI ENGINE aeroplane and any VFR experience in a SINGLE ENGINE aeroplane into the SEIFR PAX operation, CONDUCT or AVOID SEIFR PAX in ICING conditions, CONDUCT SEIFR PAX at NIGHT, appropriate ACTION in event of NON-NORMAL WARNING or INDICATION

Question 28

What are the meteorological conditions to perform an air operation VFR?

Answer 28

Must NOT commence UNLESS CURRENT REPORTS or combination of CURRENT REPORTS and FORECASTS indicate VFR minima in PART 91 and below can be COMPLIED with along ROUTE or part of ROUTE to be flown VFR; PIC in air operation OUTSIDE of CONTROLLED airspace VFR must ensure NO LESS than 1000ft CEILING and NO LESS than 5km VISIBILITY and FLY BENEATH ceiling CLEAR of CLOUD in CONTINUOUS sight of GROUND/WATER and NOT FLY ABOVE MORE than SCATTERED cloud

Question 29

What are the rules for operation above scattered cloud VFR?

Answer 29

PIC must NOT perform AIR OPERATION ABOVE more than SCATTERED cloud UNLESS aeroplane: Meets the requirements for IFR and the MINIMUM NUMBER of flight CREW required for IFR, holding CURRENT INSTRUMENT RATINGS are at CONTROLS: EQUIPPED with OPERATIVE instruments and equipment, including radio navigation equipment, that are REQUIRED for IFR; Capable, with 1 ENGINE INOPERATIVE, of maintaining a NET flight PATH that has a POSITIVE SLOPE at 1000ft ABOVE CLOUD; Carries RADIO NAVIGATION EQUIPMENT enabling it to be NAVIGATED by IFR to an aerodrome where an INSTRUMENT APPROACH procedure may be carried out for landing; Carries SUFFICIENT FUEL and RESERVES to proceed by IFR to an aerodrome where an INSTRUMENT APPROACH procedure may be carried out FOR LANDING

Question 30

What are the rules for commencement of an air operation under IFR?

Answer 30

PIC must NOT UNLESS CURRENT REPORTS or combination of REPORTS and FORECASTS indicate meteorological CONDITIONS at the applicable destination aerodrome at the ETA will be AT OR ABOVE the MINIMA PUBLISHED in the applicable AIP for the INSTRUMENT PROCEDURE likely to be USED at that aerodrome

Question 31

When must a PIC not pass a final approach fix / final approach segment?

Answer 31

If, BEFORE passing the final approach FIX OR before commencing the final approach SEGMENT, CURRENT METEOROLOGICAL information indicates that the VISIBILITY at the aerodrome is less than the visibility published in the applicable AIP for the instrument APPROACH procedure being USED

Question 32

What are the departure limitations for IFR?

Answer 32

NOT COMMENCED when weather conditions are AT OR ABOVE TAKE OFF MINIMA requirements under 91.413 and are BELOW authorised IFR LANDING MINIMA requirements prescribed under 91.413, UNLESS the aeroplane is a MULIT ENGINE aeroplane and there is an APPROPRIATE AERODROME: For a 2 ENGINE aeroplane, within a MAXIMUM of 1 HOUR FLYING time, in STILL AIR at ONE ENGINE INOPERATIVE cruising SPEED, of the aerodrome of DEPARTURE OR; For an aeroplane having 3 OR MORE ENGINES, within a MAXIMUM of 2 HOURS FLYING time, in STILL at 1 ENGINE INOPERATIVE cruising SPEED, of the aerodrome of DEPARTURE

Question 33

When may reduced takeoff be commenced?

Answer 33

If the HOLDER ensures the operation is CONDUCTED in accordance with REDUCED takeoff MINIMA in EXPOSITION; Every flight CREW member is QUALIFIED for REDUCED MINIMA TAKE OFF; The RUNWAY to be used has CENTRE LINE MARKING or LIGHTING; REDUCED take-off MINIMA on the runway to be used are PUBLISHED in the applicable AIP; If the aeroplane is a 2 ENGINE PROPELLER driven aeroplane, the aeroplane is EQUIPPED with an operative AUTO FEATHER or AUTO COARSE system; The runway VISIBILITY is ESTABLISHED using RVR; and The METHOD for OBSERVING and CONFIRMING that the required VISIBILITY exists for take-off is ACCEPTABLE to the Director

Question 34

When must the PIC conduct the operation on a route published in AIP?

Answer 34

ALWAYS, EXCEPT when: NECESSARY to AVOID potentially HAZARDOUS conditions OR; Operating under RADAR CONTROL from an ATS OR; Operating under an OFF-ROUTE CLEARANCE obtained from an ATC unit OR; Otherwise SPECIFIED in the EXPOSITION of the HOLDER

Question 35

How far from a suitable aerodrome may a SEIFR PAX operation fly? What constitutes a suitable aerodrome?

Answer 35

Does NOT operate further than 45 MINUTES FLYING TIME for the aeroplane USED in STILL AIR at NORMAL CRUISING SPEED from SUITABLE aerodrome; At the TIME of USE, AT or ABOVE approved weather MINIMA specified for the aerodrome when used as ALTERNATE AND; Has suitable FACILITIES and SERVICES available for aeroplane including METEOROLOGICAL REPORTING SERVICE and AT LEAST 1 INSTRUMENT APPROACH published in AIP

Question 36

What are the operating limitations for take off distance?

Answer 36

Take off WEIGHT does NOT EXCEED MAX take off WEIGHT in FLIGHT MANUAL; Take off DISTANCE REQUIRED does NOT EXCEES 85% of take off RUN AVAILABLE

Question 37

When calculating take off distance and weight what must the holder take into account?

Answer 37

Take off RUN AVAILABLE; WEIGHT of aeroplane AT the COMMENCEMENT of the take off RUN; PRESSURE ALTITUDE of the aerodrome; AMBIENT TEMPERATURE of the aerodrome; TYPE of runway SURFACE and runway SURFACE CONDITION; Runway SLOPE in DIRECTION of TAKE OFF; NOT MORE than 50% of reported HEADWIND component or NOT LESS than 150% of reported TAILWIND component

Question 38

What is the net take off flight path consideration under IFR?

Answer 38

In the case of an aeroplane with 2 OR MORE ENGINES, assuming CRITICAL ENGINE is INOPERATIVE, all OBSTACLES within the NET TAKE OFF flight path are CLEARED VERTICALLY by at least 50ft

Question 39

When calculating net take off path what must the holder take into account?

Answer 39

Take off WEIGHT at COMMENCEMENT at take off RUN; Aerodrome ELEVATION; PRESSURE ALTITUDE when atmospheric PRESSURE VARIES MORE than 1% from ISA; AMBIENT TEMPERATURE of aerodrome; NOT MORE than 50% of reported HEADWIND component or NOT LESS than 150% of reported TAILWIND component; A TRACK CHANGE NOT made BEFORE HEIGHT of 50ft above take off surface; UNLESS otherwise AUTHORISED: Bank ANGLE EXCEEDING 15° is NOT made BEFORE HEIGHT of 50ft above take off surface AND; Bank ANGLE UP TO and INCLUDING a HEIGHT of 400ft ABOVE take off surface does NOT EXCEED 20° AND; Bank ANGLE ABOVE HEIGHT of 400ft ABOVE take off surface does NOT EXCEED 25°; ALLOWANCE is made for: EFFECT of BANK ANGLE on operating SPEEDS and FLIGHT PATH AND; DISTANCE INCREMENTS resulting from INCREASED operating SPEEDS AND; RETENTION of STALL MARGIN and LOSS of CLIMB GRADIENT IAW 125.215 (engine inoperative gradient and stall corrections)

Question 40

What is the enroute time limitation? | Are there any exceptions?

Answer 40

A HOLDER must ensure that an aeroplane with 2 ENGINES is NOT MORE than 90 MINUTES away from an aerodrome at which the PERFORMANCE REQUIREMENTS in FLIGHT MANUAL at EXPECTED LANDING WEIGHT are met; An aeroplane 3 OR MORE ENGINES may operate MORE than 90 MINUTES provided operation continues with 2 ENGINES simultaneously INOPERATIVE, ICING is considered in NET FLIGHT PATH, NET flight PATH has POSITIVE SLOPE 1500ft ABOVE AERODROME, EXPECTED WEIGHT considered

Question 41

What are the considerations for a landing-climb at the destination or alternate aerodrome?

Answer 41

HOLDER ensures: LANDING WEIGHT does NOT EXCEED MAX APPROACH and LANDING-CLIMB WEIGHT considering ambient TEMPERATURE for ETA of DESTINATION or ALTERNATE; For INSTRUMENT APPROACHES with DH BELOW 200ft the APPROACH WEIGHT, considering TAKE OFF WEIGHT and FUEL CONSUMPTION, with CRITICAL ENGINE INOPERATIVE in APPROACH CONFIGURATION the missed approach CLIMB GRADIENT at least 2.5% OR NET-CLIMB gradient to CLEAR OBSTACLES in missed approach flight PATH IAW 135.213

Question 42

What are the requirements for landing distance on a dry runway?

Answer 42

HOLDER ensures LANDING WEIGHT for ETA does NOT EXCESS LANDING WEIGHT in flight MANUAL; HOLDER ensures LANDING WEIGHT for ETA at destination or alternate aerodrome allows a FULL STOP landing from 50ft ABOVE THRESHOLD within: For aeroplanes AT or BELOW 5700kg MCTOW 85% of LDA; For aeroplanes ABOVE 5700kg MCTOW 70% of LDA

Question 43

What factors shall be taken into account when calculating landing weight? What assumptions are made for the dispatch of an aeroplane to land at an aerodrome?

Answer 43

Landing weight: Aerodrome ELEVATION; Ambient TEMPERATURE at the aerodrome; TYPE of runway SURFACE and the runway SURFACE CONDITION; Runway SLOPE in DIRECTION of LANDING; NOT MORE than 50% of reported HEADWIND component or NOT LESS than 150% of reported TAILWIND component; Dispatch: FORECAST METEOROLOGICAL conditions; Surrounding TERRAIN; APPROACH and LANDING AIDS; OBSTACLES within the MISSED APPROACH flight PATH; May be DISPATCHED if ALTERNATE complies with PREVIOUS CONDITIONS

Question 44

What are the requirements for landing on wet and contaminated runways?

Answer 44

HOLDER ensures that: A1) When WEATHER REPORTS or FORECASTS or a COMBINATION indicate at ETA the runway may be wet, LDA is AT LEAST 115% of LDR by 125.213; When WEATHER REPORTS or FORECASTS or a COMBINATION indicate at ETA of the runway may be contaminated the LDA is AT LEAST LDR in A1 PARAGRAPH OR distance DETERMINED IAW contaminated landing distance DATA; Landing DISTANCE on WET runway may be SHORTER than REQUIRED by A1 but NOT LESS than REQUIRED by 125.213, may be USED if DATA SPECIFIES SHORTER DISTANCE on WET runways

Question 45

What factors must be considered towards the weight of the aeroplane?

Answer 45

HOLDER must ensure: TOTAL ACTUAL weight of GOODS, EXCLUDING BAGGAGE; TOTAL weight of PASSENGERS and their CARRY ON BAGGAGE; TOTAL weight of CREW members and their CARRY ON BAGGAGE; TOTAL weight of CHECKED BAGGAGE

Question 46

How must the total weight of passengers and their carry on baggage be established?

Answer 46

ACTUAL weight of EVERY PASSENGER and their CARRY ON BAGGAGE; A STANDARD weight for EVERY PASSENGER and their CARRY ON BAGGAGE that is ESTABLISHED by HOLDER and DETAILED in EXPOSITION; The applicable STANDARD weight for EVERY PASSENGER and their CARRY ON BAGGAGE: 15kg for CHILD UNDER 2 YEARS of age; 46kg for CHILD 2 YEARS of age and UNDER the age of 13 YEARS; 86kg for PERSON OF or OVER the age of 13 YEARS

Question 47

How must the total weight of crew members and their carry on baggage be established?

Answer 47

ACTUAL WEIGHT of EVERY CREW member and their CARRY ON BAGGAGE; STANDARD weight for EVERY CREW member and their CARRY ON BAGGAGE ESTABLISHED by HOLDER and DETAILED in EXPOSITION; STANDARD weight of 86kg for EVERY CREW member and their CARRY ON BAGGAGE

Question 48

What weight of check baggage must be used? What happens if a holder has a standard weight and the weight of a person and carry on baggage is clearly greater than the standard?

Answer 48

Must be established using ACTUAL WEIGHT of the BAGGAGE; | A WEIGHT that is more REPRESENTATIVE of the ACTUAL WEIGHT of the person and carry on baggage is

Question 49

What are the aeroplane load limitation considerations?

Answer 49

HOLDER must ensure: LIMITATIONS are contained in FLIGHT MANUAL or other APPROVED DOCUMENT, relating to WEIGHT and BALANCE are complied with; MAXIMUM allowable WEIGHTS are NOT EXCEEDED for ZERO FUEL, MANOEUVRE, TAKEOFF and LANDING; CENTRE of GRAVITY is within LIMITS in FLIGHT MANUAL or other APPROVED DOCUMENT at DEPARTURE and will remain within limits THROUGHOUT FLIGHT

Question 50

What are the equipment considerations for night flights?

Answer 50

HOLDER ensures aeroplane is equipped with: 2 LANDING LIGHTS; A LIGHT in each PASSENGER COMPARTMENT; A means of DISPLAYING CHARTS that enables them to be READABLE in ALL AMBIENT LIGHT conditions

Question 51

What are the conditions for the number of first aid kits onboard? (91)

Answer 51

``` An aircraft with CERTIFIED SEATING CAPACITY of 10 PAX SEATS OR MORE must be equipped with first aid kits which must be DISTRIBUTED and READILY ACCESSIBLE in each PAX COMPARTMENT for LIKELY INJURIES or in MINOR ACCIDENTS; 1 - 100 = 1 101 - 200 = 2 201 - 300 = 3 301 - 400 = 4 401 - 500 = 5 501 - 600 = 6 601 or MORE = 7 ```

Question 52

What are the conditions for the number of hand held fire extinguishers onboard? (91)

Answer 52

An aircraft with CERTIFIED SEATING CAPACITY of 10 PAX SEATS OR MORE must be equipped with first aid kits which must be READILY ACCESSIBLE and DISTRIBUTED IAW below; 1 ACCESSIBLE to CREW near the ENTRANCE to EACH class A, B and E CARGO COMPARTMENT; 1 ON or NEAR FLIGHT DECK readily ACCESSIBLE from the flight CREW STATION; 1 in GALLEY NOT in PAX, CREW or CARGO COMPARTMENT; 1 ACCESSIBLE to EACH GALLEY in a PAX COMPARTMENT; 1 - 30 = 1 31 - 60 = 2 61 - 200 = 3 201 - 300 = 4 301 - 400 = 5 401 - 500 = 6 501 - 600 = 7 601 or MORE = 8

Question 53

What equipment must be carried in an aircraft within certified pax seating capacity of 20 or more? (91)

Answer 53

An AXE READILY ACCESSIBLE to the CREW

Question 54

What are the conditions for the number of portable battery powered megaphones onboard? (91) When does this not apply?

Answer 54

An aircraft with CERTIFIED SEATING CAPACITY of 61 PAX SEATS or MORE must be equipped with a portable battery powered MEGAPHONE that are READILY ACCESSIBLE from the FLIGHT ATTENDANT SEAT for the CREW who are ASSIGNED to DIRECT EMERGENCY EVACUATION; 61 - 99 = 1 in MOST REARWARD LOCATION; 100 or MORE = 1 in FORWARD END and 1 in MOST REARWARD LOCATION; When carrying CARGO EXCLUSIVELY in any PAX COMPARTMENT converted for the carriage of CARGO

Question 55

What are the additional requirements of first aid kits and hand held fire extinguishers? (91)

Answer 55

Must CLEARLY INDICATE its METHOD of OPERATION; | Must be MARKED ark INDICATE its CONTENTS

Question 56

What are the rules for flights over water in regards to life preservers? (91)

Answer 56

An aircraft operated over water must be EQUIPPED with 1 LIFE PRESERVER for EACH POB and STOWED in position readily ACCESSIBLE from the SEAT of BERTH occupied if: SE and flight DISTANCE to SHORE is MORE than GLIDING DISTANCE; ME and UNABLE to maintain HEIGHT at least 1000ft AMSL with 1 ENGINE INOPERATIVE and flight DISTANCE to SHORE is MORE than GLIDING DISTANCE; ME that is CAPABLE of maintaining HEIGHT of at least 1000ft AMSL with 1 ENGINE INOPERATIVE and flight DISTANCE to SHORE is MORE than 50nm

Question 57

When is additional equipment for flights over water required? (91) What is the equipment?

Answer 57

SE OR ME that is UNABLE to maintain HEIGHT of at least 1000ft AMSL with 1 ENGINE INOPERATIVE that is operated over WATER that EXTENDS MORE than 100nm from SHORE; ME that is CAPABLE of maintaining HEIGHT of at least 1000ft AMSL with 1 ENGINE INOPERATIVE and flight DISTANCE to SHORE is MORE than 200nm; LIFE RAFTS with BUOYANCY and rated CAPACITY to accommodate ALL OCCUPANTS of the aircraft; SURVIVAL LOCATOR LIGHT on each life RAFT; SURVIVAL KIT, appropriately EQUIPPED for ROUTE to be flown, ATTACHED to each life RAFT; AT LEAST 1 PYROTECHNIC SIGNALLING device on each life RAFT; 1 ELT or 1 EPIRB

Question 58

When is additional equipment for flights over water required for an aircraft in excess of 5700kg MCTOW? (91) What is the equipment?

Answer 58

Operated over WATER that EXTENDS MORE than 200nm from SHORE; LIFE RAFTS with BUOYANCY and rated CAPACITY to accommodate ALL OCCUPANTS of the aircraft; SURVIVAL LOCATOR LIGHT on each life RAFT; SURVIVAL KIT, appropriately EQUIPPED for ROUTE to be flown, ATTACHED to each life RAFT; AT LEAST 1 PYROTECHNIC SIGNALLING device on each life RAFT; 1 ELT or 1 EPIRB; An ADDITIONAL ELT or EPIRB

Question 59

What are the FA requirements when they need to be carried? (91)

Answer 59

NO person may operate aircraft MORE than 19 PAX UNLESS: For aircraft carrying MORE than 19 but LESS than 51 PAX AT LEAST 1 FA; For aircraft carrying MORE than 50 but LESS than 101 PAX AT LEAST 2 FA; For aircraft carrying MORE than 100 PAX AT LEAST 2 FA PLUS 1 additional FA per every 50 PAX carried in ADDITION to FIRST 100 PAX

Question 60

When a flight attendant not required to be carried? (91)

Answer 60

In aircraft carrying persons ENGAGED in PARACHUTE OPERATIONS; In a BALLOON; In a DHC6-300 or DHC6-310 aircraft TYPE In an aircraft when the ONLY PAX being carried in EXCESS of 19 are children UNDER 4 YEARS of age and the TOTAL PAX does NOT EXCEED 24

Question 61

What is required by the flight attendants to be capable of doing? (91)

Answer 61

May NOT OPERATE with FA who are NOT: FAMILIAR with NECESSARY FUNCTIONS to be PERFORMED in an EMERGENCY and in a situation REQUIRING EMERGENCY EVACUATION; CAPABLE of USING the EMERGENCY EQUIPMENT installed in the aircraft

Question 64

What are the requirements for a PA system?

Answer 64

HOLDER must ensure any aeroplane with a CERTIFIED SEATING CAPACITY, EXCLUDING any PILOT SEAT, of 10 SEATS or MORE is equipped with: A PUBLIC ADDRESS system; A CREW member INTERCOM system

Question 65

What are the requirements for a weather radar?

Answer 65

A HOLDER must ensure that each TURBINE POWERED aeroplane in EXCESS of 5700kg MCTOW operating under IFR is EQUIPPED with WEATHER RADAR

Question 66

What are the requirements for a GPWS?

Answer 66

A HOLDER must ensure that each TURBINE POWERED aeroplane in EXCESS of 5700kg MCTOW operating under IFR is EQUIPPED with GPWS; NOT REQUIRED to comply if aeroplane is EQUIPPED with TAWS CLASS A

Question 67

What are the requirements for a TAWS?

Answer 67

A HOLDER must ensure that each TURBINE POWERED aeroplane manufactured AFTER APRIL 2002 in EXCESS of 5700kg MCTOW operating under IFR is EQUIPPED with TAWS CLASS A; A HOLDER must ensure that each TURBINE POWERED aeroplane with a 5700kg MCTOW or LESS and with PAX seating configuration of MORE than 5 SEATS operating under IFR is EQUIPPED with TAWS CLASS B; A HOLDER must ensure that each PISTON POWERED aeroplane with a 5700kg MCTOW OR PAX seating configuration of MORE than 9 SEATS operating under IFR is EQUIPPED with TAWS CLASS B

Question 68

What is the holder responsible for in terms of airworthiness? What must they ensure?

Answer 68

RESPONSIBLE for EVERY aeroplane operated under certificate; RESPONSIBLE for ANY EQUIPMENT INSTALLED in or ATTACHED to aeroplane; ENSURE EVERY aeroplane operated under certificate is MAINTAINED IAW with MAINTENANCE PROGRAMME required by 119.63

Question 69

Who must perform the maintenance on the aeroplane?

Answer 69

A MAINTENANCE ORGANISATION certified IAW Part 145; If performed in ANOTHER STATE, an ORGANISATION authorised by the STATE to perform on TYPE IAW conditions in TECHNICAL ARRANGEMENT

Question 70

What is the requirement for assignment of crew members?

Answer 70

HOLDER must ASSIGN in WRITING to each CREW member the OPERATIONAL and SAFETY FUNCTIONS that each CREW member is to perform during air operation; HOLDER must ensure person NOT ASSIGNED UNLESS that person has COMPLETED APPLICABLE training PROGRAMME in subpart I and assessed as COMPETENT for CREW POSITION in subpart J; HOLDER must NOT REQUIRE crew to perform any DUTY during CRITICAL phase of flight that is NOT REQUIRED for the SAFE OPERATION; Holds CURRENT LICENSE, RATING and MEDICAL certificate; Meets ALL ROUTE and AERODROME qualification REQUIREMENTS; Meets ALL REQUIREMENTS for ASSIGNED DUTY

Question 71

What are the PIC type experience requirements?

Answer 71

PRIOR to designation as PIC: SE: 5 HOURS and 5 TAKE OFFS and LANDINGS; ME: 10 HOURS and 8 TAKE OFFS and LANDINGS; TURBOJET or TURBOFAN: 15 HOURS and 10 TAKE OFFS and LANDINGS

Question 72

What are the PIC VFR experience requirements?

Answer 72

HOLDER must not designate UNLESS: Holds AT LEAST CURRENT CPL or ATPL with TYPE RATING; SUCCESSFULLY completes applicable TRAINING and COMPETENCY requirements specified in subpart I and J; AT LEAST 500 HOURS flight time INCLUDING AT LEAST 100 HOURS CROSS-COUNTRY flight time and 100 HOURS flight time in ME operation IF operation is CONDUCTED in ME; For NIGHT OPERATIONS, AT LEAST 25 HOURS of NIGHT flight time

Question 73

What are the PIC IFR experience requirements?

Answer 73

HOLDER must NOT designate UNLESS: Holds AT LEAST CURRENT CPL or ATPL with TYPE RATING; Holds CURRENT INSTRUMENT RATING; SUCCESSFULLY completes applicable TRAINING and COMPETENCY requirements specified in subpart I and J; AT LEAST 1200 HOURS flight time INCLUDING AT LEAST 500 HOURS CROSS-COUNTRY flight time and 250 HOURS flight time in ME operation IF operation is CONDUCTED in ME; AT LEAST 75 HOURS of ACTUAL or SIMULATED INSTRUMENT flight time, of which 25 can be in APPROVED FLIGHT SIMULATOR; For NIGHT OPERATIONS, AT LEAST 50 HOURS of NIGHT flight time

Question 74

What are the minimum flight crew requirements for IFR?

Answer 74

HOLDER must ensure that aeroplane OPERATED under IFR has 2 PILOTS; HOLDER may operate aeroplane with SEATING configuration, EXCLUDING PILOT SEATS if 14 SEATS or LESS under IFR with 1 PILOT if: FLIGHT MANUAL permits 1 PILOT operations; Aeroplane is EQUIPPED with OPERATIVE AUTOPILOT or STABILISATION system CAPABLE of operating to MAINTAIN flight and MANOEUVRE about ROLL and PITCH axes with AUTO HEADING and ALTITUDE HOLD; Aeroplane FITTED with HEADSET that INCLUDES BOOM MIC and facility for control column TRANSMIT-RECEIVE SWITCHING at PIC station; PIC meets EXPERIENCE REQUIREMENTS for PIC IFR; When conducting SEIFR PAX operation, AUTOPILOT/stabilisation system is CAPABLE of remaining FULLY FUNCTIONAL during ENGINE FAILURE

Question 75

What are the documents that the holder must ensure required are carried?

Answer 75

Details of operational FLIGHT PLAN; NOTAM and aeronautical service BRIEFING DOCUMENTATION appropriate; METEOROLOGICAL information appropriate; COPY of LOAD MANIFEST; NOTIFICATION of DANGEROUS GOODS; COPIES of relevant AERONAUTICAL CHARTS; For REGULAR air transport service, a ROUTE GUIDE covering EACH ROUTE FLOWN and ALTERNATE AERODROMES

Question 76

What are the flight crew responsibilities under subpart K?

Answer 76

A person shall NOT act as FLIGHT CREW member performing AIR OPERATION if they KNOW or SUSPECT they are SUFFERING or likely to SUFFER from FATIGUE which may ENDANGER the SAFETY of the aeroplane and occupants; A flight CREW member shall NOT PERFORM other HIRE or REWARD flight DUTIES while EMPLOYED/ENGAGED/CONTRACTED by air operator when DUTIES and FLYING in addition to the air operation will EXCEED the SCHEME LIMITATIONS; A person shall NOT act as FLIGHT CREW UNLESS ensured the SCHEME LIMITATIONS will NOT be EXCEEDED; A person shall NOT act as FLIGHT CREW if at BEGINNING of flight the AGGREGATE of PREVIOUS and PLANNED flight times: During 28 consecutive days EXPIRING at the END of the day on which the flight BEGINS, EXCEEDS 100 HOURS OR; During 365 consecutive days EXPIRING at the END of the day on which the flight BEGINS, EXCEEDS 1000 HOURS

Question 77

What are the flight crew competency assessments?

Answer 77

HOLDER must ensure each PIC within IMMEDIATELY PRECEDING 12 MONTHS passed ROUTE CHECK administered by flight EXAMINER which INCLUDES AERODROME PROFICIENCY check of AT LEAST 1 flight over ROUTE SEGMENT and 1 or MORE LANDINGS at AERODROMES representative of operations AND satisfactorily PERFORM DUTIES and RESPONSIBILITIES of PIC of specified operations; HOLDER must ensure each PILOT conducting VFR operation has within immediately PRECEDING 12 MONTHS SUCCESSFULLY completes COMPETENCY assessment administered by flight EXAMINER that covers PROCEDURES including EMERGENCIES and FLYING SKILLS in TYPE to be USED and HUMAN FACTORS and CRM; HOLDER must ensure each PILOT conducting IFR operation has within immediately PRECEDING 6 MONTHS SUCCESSFULLY completes COMPETENCY assessment administered by flight EXAMINER that covers PROCEDURES including EMERGENCIES and FLYING SKILLS in TYPE to be USED and HUMAN FACTORS and CRM; HOLDER ensures each PILOT conducting operation within immediately PRECEDING 12 MONTHS completed WRITTEN or ORAL test of pilots KNOWLEDGE to: Civil aviation RULES; HOLDRS operation SPECIFICATIONS and EXPOSITION; Aircraft SYSTEMS, PERFORMANCE, OPERATING PROCEDURE and CONTENT of flight MANUAL; NAVIGATION, ATS and METEOROLOGY; SPECIAL FLIGHT OPS appropriate to NORMAL OPERATIONS; NEW EQUIPMENT, PROCEDURES and TECHNIQUES; LOCATION and OPERATION of EMERGENCY EQUIPMENT

Question 78

What are the requirements of initial training?

Answer 78

HOLDER must ensure PILOT/FA who is NOT QUALIFIED and CURRENTLY SERVING as CREW member in air operation COMPLETES the INTRODUCTION segment of the training PROGRAMME; With ACCEPTANCE by DIRECTOR, HOLDER may vary the SYLLABUS of INTRODUCTION training and REASONS are RECORDED and CERTIFIED in CREW training RECORD HOLDER must ensure INTRODUCTION segment INCLUDES training on HUMAN FACTORS and CRM; A PILOT may NOT commence INTRODUCTION segment UNLESS, if REQUIRED to PERFORM IFR, holds CURRENT INSTRUMENT RATING and has AT LEAST 250 HOURS flight time

Question 79

What are the requirements of the transition segment?

Answer 79

HOLDER must ensure PILOT/FA who is QUALIFIED and CURRENTLY SERVING as CREW member in air operation COMPLETES the TRANSITION segment of the training PROGRAMME if CHANGING TYPE or VARIANT of aeroplane OR CHANGE to NATURE of operation or NEW EQUIPMENT, which affects operation; Must address: Use of ALL SAFETY and EMERGENCY EQUIPMENT and PROCEDURES applicable to TYPE or VARIANT; NEW PROCEDURES or EQUIPMENT introduced on EXISTING aeroplane TYPE or VARIANT; Any HUMAN FACTORS and CRM brought about by DIFFERENT AEROPLANES, EQUIPMENT or PROCEDURE

Question 80

What are the requirements for the upgrade segment?

Answer 80

HOLDER must ensure PILOT/FA who is QUALIFIED and CURRENTLY SERVING as CREW member in air operation COMPLETES the UPGRADE segment of the training PROGRAMME on SAME TYPE if PILOT is CHANGING from 1 CREW position to a MORE RESPONSIBLE crew POSITION OR FA is UPGRADING to role of INCREASED RESPONSIBILITY; Must address Use of ALL SAFETY and EMERGENCY EQUIPMENT and PROCEDURES applicable to NEW crew POSITION for PILOTS or MORE RESPONSIBLE role for FA including: HUMAN FACTORS and CRM with emphasis on CHANGES of POSITION; TRAINING and SUPERVISORY SKILLS

Question 81

What are the requirements of recurrent segment?

Answer 81

HOLDER must ensure PILOT/FA who is QUALIFIED and CURRENTLY SERVING as CREW member in air operation COMPLETES the RECURRENT segment of the training PROGRAMME in order to be CURRENT and PROFICIENT on TYPE, POSITION, and TYPE of OPERATION; HOLDER must ensure the RECURRENT segment includes training for CREW every 6 MONTHS for IFR and 12 MONTHS for VFR; HOLDER must ensure RECURRENT segment addresses HUMAN FACTORS and CRM

Question 82

What are the requirements for the crew member training syllabus?

Answer 82

Includes training elements to: AEROPLANE TYPE including SPECIAL EQUIPMENT for operation; ROUTES and AERODROMES appropriate to operation; CREW member ASSIGNMENTS, FUNCTIONS, RESPONSIBILITIES, and RELATIONSHIPS to these to other CREW, in ABNORMAL or EMERGENCY PROCEDURES; Training in all types of EMERGENCY and ABNORMAL situations and procedures CAUSED by POWER PLANT, AIRFRAME, or SYSTEM MALFUNCTIONS, FIRE or other ABNORMALITIES; LOCATION and OPERATION of emergency EQUIPMENT available for use by CREW members; LOCATION and USE of OXYGEN equipment; LOCATION and USE of ALL NORMAL and EMERGENCY EXITS, including evacuation SLIDES and ESCAPE ROPES; Training on HUMAN FACTORS and CRM; Training in STRATEGIES to MANAGE RISKS, including TEM; The REQUIREMENTS of Part 92 regarding carriage of DANGEROUS GOODS; SECURITY training IAW the SECURITY PROGRAMME required; The HOLDERS POLICIES and PROCEDURES appropriate to its air OPERATION

Question 83

What are the general requirements for crew training equipment?

Answer 83

HOLDER must ensure training PROGRAMME INCLUDES GROUND and FLIGHT INSTRUCTION using TRAINING DEVICES and a flight SIMULATOR for aeroplane TYPE used

Question 84

What are the requirements for training crew to operate turbojet, turbofan, ME turboprop powered aeroplanes? When do these requirements change?

Answer 84

HOLDER must ensure training INCLUDES GROUND and FLIGHT INSTRUCTION using flight SIMULATOR of same aeroplane TYPE for INTRODUCTION, TRANSITION, and UPGRADE segments of training PROGRAMME and for RECURRENT training AT LEAST every 12 MONTHS; May conduct training in AEROPLANE if flight SIMULATOR NOT AVAILABLE in NZ or AUSTRALIA and aeroplane of SAME TYPE USED for operations

Question 85

What are the requirements for crew member training records?

Answer 85

HOLDER must maintain a RECORD of ALL training that each crew undertakes; The record is RETAINED for 3 YEARS from the date the EMPLOYEE: CEASES to PERFORM DUTIES requiring LICENSE or RATING; Exercises any DELEGATION or AUTHORISATION

Question 86

What is line training?

Answer 86

.