Part 2 Flashcards
1
Q
1) Which of the following is described as the ability of an object to resist compression and relates to the hardness of a medium? A) Stiffness B) Density C) Pressure D) Inertia
A
A
2
Q
2) An increase in the PRF would lead to A) An increase in the duty factor B) An increase in pulse duration C) An increase in the number of cycles D) A decrease in resolution
A
A
3
Q
3) Which of the following would have the highest propagation speed? A) Air B) Bone C) Soft tissue D) Water
A
B
4
Q
4) Which of the following would have the lowest propagation speed? A) Water B) Soft tissue C) Bone D) Lung tissue
A
D
5
Q
5) As imaging depth increases, the PRF must A) Not change B) Increase C) Decrease D) PRF does not relate to imaging depth
A
C
6
Q
6) A pair of waves in phase. What occurs when these waves interfere? A) Reflection B) Constructive interference C) Refraction D) Destructive interference
A
B
7
Q
7) The typical range of frequency for diagnostic ultrasound image is: A) 20 to 20000 HZ B) 2 to 15 MHZ C) 10 to 20 MHZ D) 12 to 100 MHZ
A
B
8
Q
8) Which of the following is described as the distance over which one cycle occurs? A) Pulse duration B) Duty factor C) Period D) Wavelength
A
D
9
Q
9) All of the following are true of stiffness except:
A) It is defined as the ability of an object to resist compression
B) Stiffness and propagation speed are indirectly associated
C) Increasing stiffness increase propagation speed
D) Stiffness may also be referred to as bulk modulus
A
B
10
Q
10) Area of high pressure and density is referred to as: A) Compression B) Rarefaction C) Condensation D) Refraction
A
A
11
Q
11) Spatial pulse length can be calculated as: A) Number of cycles x frequency B) Period/frequency C) Number of cycles x wavelength D) Number of cycles/wavelength
A
C
12
Q
12) As imaging depth increase PRP: A) Remains constant B) Increase C) Decrease D) Doubles
A
B
13
Q
13) If PRF increases then the duty factor A) Remains same B) Increase C) Decrease D) Doubles
A
B
14
Q
14) The percentage of time that the ultrasound system is producing pulses of ultrasound describes the : A) PRP B) Pulse duration C) Duty factor D) PRF
A
C
15
Q
15) Density and propagation speed are: A) Inversely related B) Directly related C) Directly proportional D) Unrelated
A
A
16
Q
16) All of the following are true of power except:
A) As amplitude increase power remains same
B) Power is proportional to amplitude squared
C) Intensity is proportional to power
D) Power is measured in milliwatts
A
A
17
Q
17) All of the following are true of wavelength except:
A) It is determined by both the medium and sound source
B) It is equal to period divided by the frequency
C) It is inversely related to frequency
D) It is directly related to period
A
B
18
Q
18) Which of the following is determined only by the medium? A) Propagation speed B) Frequency C) Period D) Wavelength
A
A
19
Q
19) Which of the following is defined as the number of ultrasound pulses emitted in 1 second? A) PRP B) Duty factor C) PRF D) Spatial pulse length
A
C
20
Q
20) Which of the following is defined as active time only? A) Duty factor B) PRF C) Period D) Pulse duration
A
D
21
Q
21) The maximum value of the density of an acoustic wave is 80 lb/in2 while minimum density is 20 lb/in2. What is amplitude of the wave? A) 20 lb/in2 B) 30 lb/in2 C) 80 lb/in2 D) 60 lb/in2
A
D
22
Q
22) When the elasticity of a medium is high, the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is low. A) Compressibility B) transmission C) Reflectivity D) Propagation speed
A
D
23
Q
23) What happens to the pulse duration when a sonographer decrease the maximum imaging depth in an Ultrasound? A) Remains same B) Increase C) Decrease D) Cannot be determined
A
A
24
Q
24) The duty factor for continuous wave ultrasound is: A) <99% B) 100% C) >20,000 Hz D) 8 Pa
A
B
25
```
25) All of the following relate to the strength of the sound wave except
A) Amplitude
B) Wavelength
C) Intensity
D) Power
```
B
26
```
26) What is the change in intensity if the power decreases by half?
A) Intensity doubles
B) Intensity is halved
C) Intensity is one fourth
D) Intensity does not change
```
B
27
```
27) What is defined as the beginning of one pulse to the beginning of the next pulse, and therefore includes both the “on” and “off” time?
A) Pulse repetition period
B) Pulse duration
C) Duty factor
D) Pulse repetition frequency
```
A
28
```
28) What is essentially equal to the power of a wave divided by the area over which the power is distributed?
A) Amplitude
B) Power
C) Intensity
D) Absorption
```
C
29
```
29) What is the change in power if the amplitude triples?
A) It doubles
B) It triples
C) It quadruples
D) It increases nine times
```
D
30
```
30) The portion of the sound beam where the molecules are pulled apart describes an area of:
A) Compression
B) Rarefaction
C) Refraction
D) Amplitude
```
B
31
```
31) If only the density of a medium is increased, then the:
A) Propagation speed will increase
B) Propagation speed will decrease
C) Propagation speed will stay the same
D) None of the above
```
B
32
```
32) Sound is technically a:
A) Transverse and longitudinal wave
B) Mechanical and transverse wave
C) Non mechanical pressure wave
D) Mechanical and longitudinal wave
```
D
33
```
33) The maximum value or minimum value of an acoustic variable minus the equilibrium value of that variable describes the:
A) Power
B) Intensity
C) Duty factor
D) Amplitude
```
D
34
```
34) Which of the following would be considered ultrasonic?
A) 10 Hz
B) 12.5 Hz
C) 1 MHz
D) 200 Hz
```
C
35
```
35) Which of the following is considered the speed of sound in soft tissue?
A) 660 m/s
B) 330 m/s
C) 1480 m/s
D) 1540 m/s
```
D
36
```
1) Which of these intensity is smallest?
A) SATP
B) SPTP
C) SATA
D) SPPA
```
C
37
```
2) The units of attenuation are ______________ this is a _________________ scale.
A) Mm/cm, parametric
B) Db/cm, multiplicative
C) None, relative
D) DB, logarithmic
```
D
38
```
3) Sound wave intensity is attenuated from one fourth of original. How many decibel of attenuation is this?
A) 6 DB
B) 9 DB
C) 10 DB
D) 3 DB
```
A
39
```
5) Which of the following tissue has the highest rate of attenuation of an ultrasound wave?
A) Liver
B) Fat
C) Fluid
D) Lung and bone
E) Muscle
```
D
40
6) You are imaging a structure containing two media having same acoustic impedance and normal incidence. What will occur at the boundary of the two structure?
A) All of the sound will be transmitted
B) All of the sound will be reflected
C) Some of the sound will be refracted
D) Some of the sound will be reflected and some of the sound will be transmitted
E) Most of the sound will be absorbed by media boundary
A
41
7) Snell’s law describes
A) The % of reflection at an interface with normal incidence and different densities
B) The angle of transmission at an interface between media having different speed
C) The amount of attenuation of sound in tissue with depth
D) The amount of backscatter from a diffuse reflector
B
42
8) What occurs when you image a structure with oblique incidence?
A) A very strong reflection will occur since this is the optimal angle for imaging
B) All of sound will be reflected due to poor scanning angle
C) All of the sound will be transmitted due to poor scanning angle
D) The angle of reflection will be oriented away from the transducer, resulting in decreased visualization of the structure
E) The amount of scattering will be reduced with a scanning angle of 45°, resulting in a cleaner image with reduced artefactual echoes.
D
43
```
9) If an angle of incidence is 50°, what is the angle of transmission at the interface if medium 1 has a propagation speed of 1560 m/s and medium 2 has a propagation speed of 1900 m/s?
A) <50 degrees
B) >50 degrees
C) 50 degrees
D) Cannot tell the angle of transmission
```
B
44
10) Which of the following statement regarding the effect of frequency on Rayleigh scattering is true?
A) The amount of scattering is not affected by scattering
B) Scattering intensity doubles if frequency doubles
C) Doubling the frequency resulting in halving the scattering intensity
D) Doubling the frequency resulting in quartering the scattering intensity
E) Scattering intensity is proportional to frequency raised to the fourth power
E
45
11) What is relationship of frequency to absorption?
A) If frequency is halved, absorption is doubled
B) If frequency is doubled, absorption is doubled
C) If frequency is doubled, absorption is halved
D) If frequency is halved, absorption is quartered
E) The rate of sound absorption is not frequency dependent
B
46
```
12) The maximum imaging depth during an ultrasound exam is 5 cm. The sonographer adjust the imaging depth to 10 cm. What happens to go return time?
A) It is unchanged
B) It is halved
C) It is doubled
D) It is 20 times longer
```
C
47
```
13) A sound wave is created by transducer, reflects off an object, and return to the transducer. The go return time is 39 micro secs. What is the total distance that the pulse travelled?
A) 3 cm
B) 6 cm
C) 2 cm
D) 9 cm
```
B
48
```
14) A sound beam travels 9 cm in soft tissue. The attenuation co efficient is 3 DB/cm. What is the total attenuation that the sound beam experienced?
A) 9 DB
B) 3 DB
C) 27 DB
D) 18 DB
```
C
49
```
16) A sound beam with an Intensity of 50 Watts/cm2 strikes a boundary and 70 % of the wave’s intensity is reflected. How much is transmitted?
A) 25 Watts/cm2
B) 30%
C) 50 Watts/cm2
D) 100 %
```
B
50
```
17) While performing a sonographic exam, you encounter following interfaces. Which will produce the weakest reflected signal?
A) Organ parenchyma/fluid
B) Organ parenchyma/air
C) Organ parenchyma/ Organ parenchyma
D) Organ parenchyma/bone
E) Organ parenchyma/ligament
```
C
51
```
18) What sound –tissue interaction is necessary to form an ultrasound image?
A) Rarefaction
B) Refraction
C) Diffraction
D) Destructive interference
E) Reflection
```
E
52
```
19) _______________________ is a redirection of ultrasound in many direction as a result of a rough boundary between two media.
A) Refraction
B) Scattering
C) Reflection
D) Rayleigh scattering
```
B
53
```
20) Which of the following terms does not belongs with others?
A) Orthogonal
B) Oblique
C) Normal
D) Perpendicular
```
B
54
```
21) Which of the following is most relevant intensity in the study of Bioeffects/
A) SPTP
B) SPTA
C) SATA
D) SATP
```
B
55
```
22) Which of the following is the part of the transducer that stops the ringing of the element?
A) Matching layer
B) case
C) Damping material
D) Insulator
```
C
56
```
23) Which of the following is the range of frequencies present within the beam?
A) Quality factor
B) Bandwidth
C) Array
D) Resonant frequency
```
B
57
24) What does heat sterilization do to an ultrasound transducer?
A) Gives it a better axial resolution
B) Improves lateral resolution of the transducer
C) Kills the bacteria and viruses
D) Kills pathogen and destroy transducer
D
58
```
25) All of the following correctly describes an imaging transducer except
A) High sensitivity
B) Low Q factor
C) Wide bandwidth
D) Damped
```
A
59
```
26) A pulsed wave transducer has a resonant frequency of 5 MHZ. The lowest frequency in the pulse is 2 MHZ and the Highest is 8 MHZ. What is Q factor?
A) 0.8
B) 3 MHZ
C) 5 MHZ
D) 1.9
E) 2 MHZ
```
B
60
```
27) In an imaging transducer what is purpose of attaching the backing material to PZT?
A) Increase bandwidth
B) Decrease Q factor
C) Improve image Quality
D) Decrease transducer sensitivity
```
C
61
```
28) Which of the following lists order of impedance from lowest to highest?
A) Skin, gel, matching layer, PZT
B) Gel, matching layer, skin, PZT
C) PZT, matching layer, gel, Skin
D) Matching layer, Gel, Skin, PZT
```
A
62
```
29) The backing material decrease
A) Bandwidth
B) Quality factor
C) Size of case
D) PRP
```
B
63
30) What is thickness of a matching layer of a 3 MHZ pulsed wave transducer?
A) 1.54 mm
B) 0.77 mm
C) Half the wavelength of the sound wave in the PZT
D) One quarter the wavelength of sound in the matching layer
D
64
```
31) What helps to determine the frequency of the sound produced by the transducer of a continuous wave ultrasound system?
A) PZT diameter
B) PZT crystal thickness
C) Damping material density
D) Ultrasound system electronics
```
D
65
32) You are asked to fabricate a pulsed ultrasound transducer with the highest possible frequency. Which piezoelectric crystal would you select
A) 8 mm thick, 4 cm diameter, 4 mm/microsec propagation speed
B) 6 mm thick, 2 cm diameter, 6 mm/microsec propagation speed
C) 4 mm thick, 9 cm diameter, 5 mm/microsec propagation speed
D) 3 mm thick, 6 cm diameter, 6 mm/microsec propagation speed
D
66
```
33.The impedance of a transducer’s active elements 1,900,000 rayls and the impedance is 1400000. What is an acceptable impedance for the matching layer?
A. 1,407,00 rayls
B. 2,400,000 rayls
C. 1,200,000 rayls
D. 1,726,444 rayls
E. 1,900,000 rayls
```
D
67
```
34.An ultrasound system is set at 0 DB and is trsansmitting a full intensity. What is the output power when the system is transmitting at 50 % of full intensity?
A) – 3DB
B) -10DB
C) 3 DB
D) 10 DB
E) -50 DB
```
A
68
```
.Which of the following describes the situation where the minimum amount of attenuation will occur?
A) 4 cm depth and 6 MHZ frequency
B) 20 cm depth and 3 MHZ frequency
C) 12 cm depth and 7.5 MHZ frequency
D) 4 cm depth and 9 MHZ frequency
E) 4 cm depth and 7.5 MHZ frequency
```
A
69
```
1. Which of the following transducers has the worst depth resolution?
A) 3 MHz & 5 cycles/pulse
B) 2 MHZ & 5 cycles/pulse
C) 3 MHz & 2 cycles/pulse
D) 2 MHz & 2 cycles/pulse
```
B
70
2. What will lower the numerical value of an ultrasound system’s lateral resolution?
A) Decrease the # of cycles in the pulse
B) Increase the effective damping material
C) Increase the PRP
D) Use of an acoustic lens
D
71
3. Which of the following techniques is considered external focusing?
A) Lens
B) Curved crystal
C) Electronic
D) Phased array
A
72
4. Which of the following transducers has the best lateral resolution deep in the far field?
A) 4 MHz, 4 mm diameter of the PZT
B) 6 MHz, 4 mm diameter of the PZT
C) 4 MHz, 6 mm diameter of the PZT
D) 6 MHz, 6 mm diameter of the PZT
D
73
6. When will the beams diameter be greater than the diameter of the PZT?
A) At focus
B) At twice the focal length
C) Beyond twice the focal length
D) At the beginning of the beam.
C
74
7. Which of the following forms of focusing is achieved during reception
```
A) Internal
B) External
C) Lens
D) Dynamic aperture
E) Excitation phasing
```
D
75
8. Which transducer would provide the longest near-zone length?
```
A. 1O MHz, 6 mm diameter aperture
B. 10 MHz, 5 mm diameter aperture
C. 10 MHz, 4 mm diameter aperture
D. 1O MHz, 3 mm diameter aperture
E. 10 MHz, 2 mm diameter aperture
```
A
76
```
9. Which of the following would be considered an advantage of a curved linear array over a phased array?
A) Wide near field
B) Linear scan line
C) Narrower near field
D) Narrower far field
```
A
77
. The type of transducer that does not allow the operator to vary the focus is:
A) A linear array.
B) A curvilinear array.
C) A Mechanical transducer.
D) A phased array.
A
78
```
. What type of resolution is affected most by spatial pulse length?
A. Lateral resolution
B. Contrast resolution
C. Temporal resolution
D. Axial resolution
E. Elevational resolution
```
D
79
```
12. The shape of the image formed by the Curvilinear Sequential array transducer is
A) Sector shaped
B) Fan shaped
C) Blunt sector
D) Rectangular shape
```
C
80
13. The process by which you can improve slice thickness resolution
a. Apodization
b. Increase the length of the pulse
c. Using 1 ½ dimensional array transducer
d. Dynamic aperture
e. Increase the beams diameter
C
81
14. Which of the following is not a true statement about a mechanical transducer?
a. It uses a motor to steer the beam
b. May be focused electronically
c. May be focused by lens
d. It has fixed focus
B
82
16. If one of the active elements is damaged in linear sequential array transducer, what happens to the image?
A) Complete loss of picture
B) Top to bottom loss corresponding to the PZT, vertical drop out of image
C) Erratic beam steering and focusing
D) Side to side loss of image corresponding to the PZT, Horizontal drop out of image
B
83
```
17. What type of transducer has the same measurement for elevational and lateral resolution?
A. Convex linear array
B. Phased linear array
C. Annular array
D. Sequential linear array
E. Mechanical sector array
```
C
84
18) ____________ resolution describes the accuracy related to visualizing two structures that are above and below the sound beam’s imaging plane.
A) Depth
B) Lateral
C) Elevational
D) Angular
C
85
```
20. The shape of the image formed by the Linear Sequential array transducer is
A) Sector shaped
B) Fan shaped
C) Blunt sector
D) Rectangular shape
```
D
86
21. What is on the X-axis of M-mode?
A) Depth
B) Time
C) Amplitude
D) Brightness
B
87
4D imaging is__________________________
A) Another name for 2D image
B) 2D image in real time
C) M-mode in real time
D) 3D image in real time.
d
88
26. Which of the following crystals will produce a sound beam of lower beam divergence?
A. Smaller diameter & higher frequency
B. Smaller diameter and lower frequency
C. Larger diameter and higher frequency
D. Larger diameter & lower frequency
C
89
```
29. What is the purpose of subdicing?
A. To focus the beam upon transmit
B. To reduce grating lobes
C. To increase transmitted intensity
D. To alter the transmitted frequency
E. To focus the beam upon reception
```
B
90
```
30. What type of resolution is affected most by sound beam’s thickness?
A) Lateral resolution
B) Contrast resolution
C) Temporal resolution
D) Axial resolution
E) Elevational resolution
```
E
91
```
31. Under which of the following conditions is lateral resolution improved?
A) Decreased PD
B) Decreased imaging depth
C) Decreased SPL
D) Decreased pixel size
E) Decreased beam diameter
```
E
92
```
32. In a B mode display which of the following axis is used with the amplitude of the reflection?
A) M axis
B) Y axis
C) X axis
D) Time base axis
E) Z axis
```
E
93
```
33. A sound beam is created by a single disc shaped crystal.Which of these beam has shallow focus?
A) 6 MHZ, 9 mm dia
B) 5 MHZ ,12 mm dia
C) 7 MHZ , 9 mm dia
D) 5 MHZ, 14 mm dia
E) 2 MHZ ,9 mm dia
```
E
94
```
34. Which of the following would be considered the narrowest part of a sound beam?
A) Far zone
B) Near zone
C) Near zone length
D) Focus
```
D
95
```
35. Which of the following is true of the diameter of the sound beam in the Fresnel zone?
A) It increase
B) It decrease
C) It does not change
D) It is unpredictable
```
B
96
```
1) A sonographer adjusts an ultrasound scan to decrease the depth of view from 12 cm to 6 cm. what happens to frame rate?
A) Doubles
B) Halved
C) Unchanged
D) Decrease from 10 to 5 HZ
```
A
97
2) A sonographer, using a phased array ultrasound system, turn off the multi focus feature. What is most likely consequence of this action?
A) Frame rate decreases, Lateral resolution improves
B) Temporal resolution degrades, lateral resolution improves
C) Imaging depth increases, lateral resolution degrades
D) Temporal resolution improves, lateral resolution degrades
D
98
3) Which of the following is most important in determining the frame rate of a system?
A) Dynamic range of receiver
B) Transducer frequency
C) Speed of sound in medium, Depth of view
D) Transmitter output
C
99
```
5) Which choice will result in increased frame rate and temporal resolution?
A) Decreased sector size
B) Decreased propagation speed
C) Decreased lateral resolution
D) Decreased PRF
```
A
100
```
6) Which ultrasound imaging modality has best temporal resolution?
A) B scanning
B) Duplex imaging
C) Color flow imaging
D) M mode
```
D
101
```
7) Which of the following action will improve the signal to noise ratio?
A) Increase dynamic range
B) Increase receiver gain
C) Increase transducer output
D) Increase TGC
```
B
102
```
8) What is the process of adjusting path length related attenuation called?
A) Compression
B) Compensation
C) Smoothing
D) Amplification
```
B
103
```
9) Which function of receiver process all reflected signal in similar manner?
A) Compensation
B) Rejection
C) Compression
D) Amplification
```
D
104
```
10) Which of the following choice is best when an image on your ultrasound display only reflectors in the region deep to the transducer but no reflectors that are closer to the transducer?
A) Adjust system’s compensation
B) Use high frequency transducer
C) Decrease the output power
D) Adjust the reject level
```
A
105
11) Which of the following actions would not lead to a decrease in the image frame rate of a phased array transducer?
A) Increase the image depth setting.
B) Increase the number of transmit focal zones.
C) Increase the width of the image sector.
D) Increase the transmit power to the transducer.
D
106
```
12) Which transducer system is most likely to have the shortest delay in TGC curve?
A) A 5 MHZ linear array
B) A 2.5 MHZ annular array
C) A 7.5 MHZ linear array
D) A 5 MHZ annular array
```
C
107
```
13) The output power of the pulsar determines the ______________of the acoustic pulse?
A) Frequency
B) Amplitude
C) Duration
D) PRP
```
B
108
14) At which imaging depth is the slope of the TGC curve most effective?
A) The region very close to the transducer
B) The far zone
C) Focal zone
D) Deeper than far zone
C
109
```
15) The process of eliminating low amplitude signals from further processing is called ______________
A) Amplification
B) Threshold
C) Compensation
D) Demodulation
```
B
110
18) By increasing the number of acoustic beam lines per frame, the manufacturer can:
A) Increase the frame rate.
B) Decrease the examination time.
C) Improve the spatial detail in the image.
D) Improve the temporal resolution.
C
111
```
20) In which of the following multiple previous frames are superimposed on the most current frame to produce a higher signal to noise ratio in an image?
A) Spatial compounding
B) Fill in interpolation
C) Persistence
D) Frequency compounding
```
C
112
```
21) Which is the smallest memory that can be stored?
A) Bit
B) Pixel
C) Byte
D) Word
```
A
113
```
22) If the number of gray shades in an image are 10. How many bits are required?
A) 5
B) 4
C) 3
D) 6
```
A
114
```
23) What is DICOM?
A) Standard for transducer design
B) Standard for Patient exposure
C) Protocol for two dimension imaging
D) Protocols for medical image data
```
D
115
```
24) What is the process where the ranking of the signals remains same?
A) Compensation
B) Compression
C) Amplification
D) Demodulation
```
B
116
```
25) Which of the following will have lowest dynamic range?
A) Transducer
B) Display
C) Receiver
D) Scan converter
```
B
117
```
26) The region of interest is rescanned in
A) Increase gain
B) Write magnification
C) Read Magnification
D) Increase power
```
B
118
```
27) Which of the following uses long pulses with different frequencies to reduce intensity of the sound beam?
A) Frequency compounding
B) Fill in interpolation
C) Coded excitation
D) Temporal compounding
```
C
119
```
28) Image processing technique that displays information from different imaging angles to produce a single frame to reduce speckle is called
A) Spatial compounding
B) Frequency compounding
C) Temporal compounding
D) Fill in interpolation
```
A
120
```
29) A signal has been compressed from 110 DB to 80 db. What is amount of compression?
A) 190 DB
B) 110 DB
C) 30 DB
D) 80 DB
```
C
121
30) Contrast resolution is;
A) The ability to see differences in shades of gray
B) The ability to display moving structures in real time
C) The ability to identify two reflectors parallel to the beam
D) The ability to identify two reflectors perpendicular to the beam
A
122
```
31) Which of the following technique is used to create image data where none really exists?
A) Edge enhancement
B) Temporal compounding
C) Fill in interpolation
D) Spatial compounding
```
C
123
```
32) Which of the following steps is performed just prior to storage of image in a diagnostic imaging?
A) Rectification
B) A-to-D conversion
C) D-to-A conversion
D) Demodulation
E) Read magnification
```
B
124
```
33) All of the following are limitation of analogue scan converter except?
A) Image flicker
B) Low spatial resolution
C) Image fade
D) Image deterioration over time
E) Instability
```
B
125
```
34) The image on the ultrasound system’s display is too bright.Which of the following technique is best to correct this problem?
A) Decrease the output power
B) Decrease reject
C) Adjust TGC
D) Increase threshold
E) Decrease receiver gain
```
A
126
35) Which of the following best describes demodulation of electric signals?
A) Reducing the noise content of the signal
B) Change the shape or form of the signal
C) Increase the dynamic range of the signal
D) Increase negative voltage in to the signal
B
127
```
2) A 10 MHz transducer with PRF of 10,000 Hz measures a Doppler shift of 8 KHz. The study is repeated with 5MHz transducer. What Doppler shift will be measured?
A. 4 MHz
B. 4 KHz
C. 3.5 Hz
D. 3500 Hz
E. 5 KHz
```
B
128
```
3) The Doppler effect is observed as a change in _______and has units of______
A. Amplitude , watts
B. Power , watts
C. Frequency, Hz
D. Wavelength , mm
```
C
129
```
4) If RBC’s are traveling away from a transducer, the frequency emitted by the transducer is ______________ the frequency reflected from the RBC.
A. Greater than
B. Equal to
C. Less than
D. Cannot be determined
```
A
130
```
5) Which of the following creates harmonics?
A) Reflection
B) Transmission
C) Linear behavior
D) Nonlinear behavior
```
D
131
6) Blood moving at a velocity of 3 m/s creates a Doppler frequency of 6,000 Hz. what will the Doppler shift be if the velocity increases to 6 m/s?
a) 3,000 Hz
b) 6,000 Hz
c) 9,000 Hz
d) 12,000 Hz
D
132
7) All of the following are associated with a CW Doppler transducer except:
a) Narrow bandwidth
b) Increased sensitivity
c) Backing material
d) High Q-factor
C
133
8) Which of the following determines the grayscale in a Doppler spectrum?
a. # of reflectors
b. Velocity
c. Frequency shift
d. time
A
134
9) The analysis of spectral Doppler spectrum using ____________ is most accurate.
a) Zero-crossing detectors
b) FFT
c) Time interval histograms
d) Chirp- Z transforms
B
135
10) In clinical imaging, which reflectors produce most relevant Doppler shifts?
a) Blood vessels
b) Blood plasma
c) Platelets
d) RBC
D
136
11) Which type of Doppler doesn’t rely on frequency shift but instead relies on the strength (Amplitude) of the shift
a) Spectral Doppler
b) Power Doppler
c) Color Doppler
d) CW Doppler
B
137
13) The value of Doppler shift will be highest at which of the following Doppler angle
a) 0 degree
b) 45 degree
c) 60 degree
d) 90 degree
A
138
14) Which of the following is not a way to get rid of aliasing?
a) Decrease transducer frequency
b) Increase the velocity scale
c) Zero baseline
d) Increase sample volume depth
D
139
15) Which of the following Doppler will not have aliasing?
a) Color Doppler velocity mode
b) Color Doppler variance mode
c) Continuous wave Doppler
d) Pulsed wave Doppler
C
140
16) The disadvantage of continuous wave Doppler is
a) No velocity limit
b) Range ambiguity
c) No aliasing
B
141
17) With pulsed Doppler, what term is used to describe a very high positive Doppler shift that is displayed as a negative waveform?
a) Attenuation
b) Range ambiguity
c) Aliasing
d) Demodulation
C
142
20. Which choice relates to the presence gray scale in Doppler spectrum?
A) Velocity
B) Frequency shift
C) Amplitude of the echo
D) Laminar flow
C
143
21. If the transmitting frequency of a sound wave is 5 MHZ and the signal has undergone tissue harmonics. What will be the harmonic frequency??
a) 5MHZ
b) 2.5 MHz
c) 10 MHz
d) 7.5 MHz
C
144
22. Which of the following will occur due to nonlinear behavior of micro bubbles?
a) Tissue harmonics
b) Pulse inversion harmonics
c) Contrast harmonics
d) Power modulation harmonics
C
145
23. What happens to venous return to the heart when an individual exhales?
A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains same
B
146
24. Mechanical index depends on
a) Contrast agent and pressure
b) Nonlinear behavior and pressure
c) Pressure and frequency
d) Frequency and contrast agent
B
147
27. Which of the following converts flow energy into sound energy?
a) Steady flow
b) Laminar flow
c) Turbulent flow
d) Pulsatile flow
B
148
28. Which of the following doesn’t belong to group?
a) Increased intra-abdominal pressure
b) Diaphragm descent
c) Venous flow in the lower limbs increases
d) Inhalation
e) Venous return to the heart increases
C
149
29. You obtained this color Doppler image during a hepatic sonogram. There is no color signal detected within the portal vein. What can you do to improve sensitivity to low velocity blood flow?
a) Increase wall filter
b) Decrease packet size
c) Decrease color gain
d) Decrease PRF
e) Change color map
D
150
31. What is the true of the Doppler shift when the sound beam is normally incident to the velocity of the red blood cells?
a. It is maximum
b. It is half of maximum
c. It is absent
d. It is at minimum
C
151
32. Name the bidirectional Doppler in which aliasing is seen similar to pulsed wave Doppler?
a. Power Doppler
b. Continous Doppler
c. Color Doppler
d. color angio Doppler
C
152
33. Which of the following is an advantage of a large packet size?
a. less aliasing
b. increased frame rate
c. increased Doppler accuracy
d. improved lateral resolution.
B
153
34. What is the arterial pressure measured in the knee in upright patient? If the blood pressure is 120mmhg?
a. 70mmhg
b. 120mmhg.
c. 195mmhg
d. 220mmhg.
C
154
35) Name the imaging technique which contains the information from both fundamental and harmonic frequencies?
a. contrast harmonics
b. tissue harmonics.
c. pulse inversion harmonics
d. none of the above.
C
155
```
1) Which artifact produces an image with an incorrect number of reflectors?
A. Propagation speed error
B. Focal enhancement
C. Enhancement
D. Side lobes
```
D
156
```
2) Grating lobes are most common with which type of transducer technology?
A. Single element transducer
B. Continuous wave
C. Mechanical scanners
D. Linear arrays
```
D
157
```
3) Which artifact results in improper side-by-side positioning of reflectors?
A. Shadowing
B. Comet tail
C. Refraction
D. Reverberation
```
C
158
4) Which of these produce shadowing?
a) Reverberation
b) Multipath
c) Reflection
d) High Attenuation
D
159
5) Where are shadowing artifacts commonly seen on an acoustic scan?
a) Deeper than a structure with a high impedance
b) Shallower than a structure with low speed
c) Deeper than a structure with a high attenuation
d) Alongside of a structure with low attenuation
C
160
6) Which one of these artifacts does not result from multiple reflections?
a. Comet tail
b. Reverberations
c. Ring down
d. Enhancement
D
161
7) Which artifact is unrelated to the dimensions of an ultrasound pulse?
a. Lateral resolution
b. Depth resolution
c. Refraction
D. Slice thickness
C
162
8) How is shadowing artifact expressed?
A. Positioning structures too deep on the image
B. Locating structures in improper lateral position
C. Placing reflections in multiple locations
D. Reflectors being absent on the image
D
163
```
) When enhancement occurs, where does it appear on the image?
A. In the near field
B. Deeper than a weak attenuator
C. Shallower than a weak reflector
D. In the far field
```
B
164
10) If a sound travels through a large masses at a speed of 1.84 mm/microsecond, what happens to the position of echoes from reflectors deeper that the mass?
a. They are placed in too shallow a location on the image
b. They are placed in too deep a location on the image
c. They are likely to be placed at the correct depth
d. can’t be determined
A
165
```
11) What artifact results from an ultrasound beam having a finite and measurable three dimensional profile, thicker beam?
A. Acoustic speckle
B. Multipath artifact
C. Slice thickness artifact
D. Grating lobes
```
C
166
12) Which of the following artifact fills up the hollow structures
a. axial resolution artifact
b. Elevational resolution artifact
c. Lateral resolution artifact
d. refraction artifact
B
167
13) Four distinct, equally spaced reflections appear on an image at ever increasing depths. What type of artifact is this?
a. Reverberation
b. Ring down
c. Mirror imaging
d. Longitudinal resolution
A
168
17) Which of the following is not used for quality assurance of Doppler
a) Moving belt phantom
b) Tissue equivalent phantom
c) Vibrating string phantom
d) Flow phantom
B
169
18) What does TIB stand for
a) Thermal Index bone
b) Tissue index bone
c) Thermal index bladder
d) Thermal issue bladder
A
170
19) What does ALARA stand for
a) As least as reasonably acceptable
b) As low as reasonably achievable
c) As low as responsibly acceptable
d) As low as responsibly achievable
B
171
20) Which cavitation causes micro streaming and shear stress
a) Inertial cavitation
b) Normal cavitation
c) Stable cavitation
d) Transient cavitation
C
172
22) Under which condition is it permissible to perform a diagnostic ultrasound exam?
A. When the doctor will benefit
B. when the patient requests one
C. when the exam is not authorized by a physician
D. when the benefits to the patient outweigh the risks.
D
173
```
23) Which of the following is considered the most important for the Sonographer with regard to Bio effects?
A.PRP
B. Frequency
C. Duration of the study
D. Imaging mode
```
C
174
```
25) The waveform you obtain from an arterial stenosis demonstrates aliasing. If you increase the PRF to eliminate the aliasing what artifact could be introduce?
A) Propagation speed error
B) Spectrum mirror image
C) Range ambiguity
D) Refraction
```
C
175
26) What is defined as the action of an acoustic field within a fluid to generate bubbles?
A) Thermal index
B) Cavitation
C) Radiation force
D) Hydrostatic pressure
A
176
```
30) The effect of sound wave upon the biologic tissue through which it passes is ----
A. Acoustic variables
B. Acoustic parameters
C. Rarefaction
D. Bioeffects
```
D
177
```
The ______________________measures beam intensity at specific location where as a __________________ measures the entire energy in a sound beam.
A) Calorimeter, thermocouple
B) Schlieren, thermocouple
C) Thermocouple, calorimeter
D) Thermometer, hydrometer
```
C
178
32) Which of the following is related to cavitation Bioeffects?
A) TIS
B) MI
C) Cavitation index
D) Pulsatility index
B
179
) Which selection has the highest mechanical index?
A) High frequency, high power
B) High PRF, high intensity
C) Low frequency, High pressure
D) High SPL, high PRF
C
180
34) From the standpoint of minimizing exposure to patients, it’s best to use
a. Low power, high gain
b. High power, low gain
c. Intermediate power, intermediate gain
d. High power, high gain
A
181
35) With standard diagnostic imaging instrumentation, which has the highest numerical value?
A) Axial resolution
B) Lateral resolution
C) Neither ,they have identical values
D) Both A & B
B
