Part One Flashcards by Anna Chanslor

Detomidine is approved for use in…

Horses

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The combination drug Telazol contains
A: Diazepam and ketamine 
B: Diazepam and xylazine 
C: Zolazepam and tiletamine 
D: Xylazine and tiletamine

C. Zolazepam and tiletamine

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The most reliable sign of inadequate anesthetic depth is
A: Increased heart rate 
B: Increased respiratory rate 
C: Active palpebral reflex 
D: Responsive movement

D. Responisive movement

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Which drug should be avoided in the stallion because it may cause permanent prolapse of the penis?
A: Glycopyrrolate 
B: Acepromazine 
C: Xylazine 
D: Diazepam

B. Acepromazine

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Routine use of atropine in horses should be avoided, because it may
A: Cause colic 
B: Slow the heart rate 
C: Cause excitement 
D: Increase salivation

A, Cause colic

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When an endotracheal tube is being inserted in a horse, the animal should be placed in
A: Sternal recumbency with its head at a 90-degree angle to the neck
B: Sternal recumbency with its head and neck extended
C: Lateral recumbency with its head at a 90-degree angle to the neck
D: Lateral recumbency with its head, neck, and back extended

D. Lateral recumbency with its head, neck, and back extended

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A 10% solution of thiopental sodium for anesthetic induction contains
A: 10 mg/ml 
B: 100 mg/ml 
C: 20 mg/ml  
D: 40 mg/ml

B.100 mg/mL

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The combination of xylazine and butorphanol is used to
A: Provide greater analgesia and muscle relaxation than either drug can alone
B: Cause central nervous system (CNS) excitement
C: Increase the dose of butorphanol
D: Increase the dose of xylazine

A. Provide greater analgesia and muscle relaxation than either drug can alone

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An intravenous catheter should be
A: Large enough to allow adequate fluid delivery, if cardiac arrest occurs
B: As small as possible to avoid pain
C: Placed in critically ill patients only
D: Left in place for at least 3 days after surgery

A. Large enough to allow adequate fluid delivery, if cardiac arrest occurs

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Which drug is a dissociative anesthetic?
A: Thiopental sodium 
B:Ketamine 
C: Xylazine 
D: Acepromazine

B. Ketamine

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Diazepam is considered to be a good choice in patients when which body system is compromised?
A: Hepatic 
B: Renal 
C: Cardiovascular 
D: All body systems

C. cardiovascular

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Immediately after tracheal intubation in a 3-kg cat you notice extreme respiratory distress. The most likely cause is
A: Light plane of anesthesia 
B: Hypoxemia 
C: Nothing; this is normal. 
D: Bronchial intubation

D. Bronchial intubation

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The following general anesthetic agents can be delivered to effect except
A: Isoflurane 
B: Telazole given IM 
C: Ketamine/diazepam IV 
D: Thiopental IV

B. Telazole given IM

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The values of the PCV/TP may indicate that all of the following are present except
A: Anemia 
B: Hypoproteinemia  
C: Dehydration 
D: Infection

D. Infection

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Which of the following is a component of a Bain anesthetic circuit?
A: Reservoir bag 
B: Unidirectional valves 
C: Oxygen flush valve 
D: Carbon dioxide absorber

A. Reservoir bag

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Opioid drugs are used in anesthetic protocols primarily as
A: Anesthetics  
B: Analgesics 
C: Antiinflammatories 
D: Antihistamines

B. Analgesics

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Butorphanol is best described as a/an
A: Antiinflammatory 
B: Analgesic 
C: Anesthetic 
D: Diuretic

B. Analgesic

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Which drug is most likely to cause hypotension in normal doses?
A: Diazepam 
B: Butorphanol
C:Acepromazine 
D: Flunixin meglumine

C. Acepromazine

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Doxapram may produce all of the following except
A: CNS excitement 
B: Increased ventilation rate 
C: Respiratory alkalosis 
D: Hypoventilation

D. Hypoventilation

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Phenothiazine tranquilizers
A: Cause nausea 
B. Increase the seizure threshold 
C: Cause vasoconstriction 
D: Suppress the sympathetic nervous system

D. Suppress the sympathetic nervous system

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The oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood can be assessed by measuring all of the following except
A: PCV 
B: Hematocrit 
C: Total solids 
D: Hemoglobin

C. Total solids

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The effect of intravenous administration of any anesthetic drug is usually detected in
A: 30 to 60 seconds 
B: 3 to 5 minutes 
C: 15 to 20 minutes 
D: 1 hour

A. 30-60 seconds

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Postanesthetic myositis is most likely to occur in
A: Pigs 
B: Horses 
C: Ruminants 
D: Rabbits

B. Horses

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The drug xylazine is best described as an
A: Antiinflammatory 
B: Analgesic and sedative 
C: Antiemetic 
D: Anesthetic

B. Analgesic and sedative

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Which of the following statements regarding avian anesthesia is incorrect? A: IM injections should be given in the pectoral muscle only. B: A cuffed tube should be used to maintain inhalant anesthesia. C: A nonrebreathing circuit should be used in birds. D: Ketamine is not effective in birds.

B. a cuffed tube should be used to maintain inhalant anesthesia

Which of the following is not an advantage for endotracheal intubation? A: Ensures a patent airway B: Increases dead space and allows for more efficient ventilation C: Prevents aspiration pneumonitis D: Improves oxygenation of arterial blood

B. Increases dead space and allows for more efficient ventilation

The only accurate way to evaluate the effectiveness of respiration is by A: Observing abdominal and chest movements during respiration B: Counting the respiratory rate C: Feeling air move through the endotracheal tube or nostrils D: Measuring the arterial blood oxygen and carbon dioxide partial pressures

D. measuring the arterial blood oxygen and carbon dioxide partial pressures

``` In the United States, xylazine is not approved for use in A:Dogs B: Cats C: Horses D: Cattle ```

D. CAttle

``` Nitrous oxide cylinders are painted what color? A: Green B: Gray C: Blue D: Brown ```

C. Blue

``` Guaifenesin is most often used in horses and cattle to provide A: Analgesia B: Muscle relaxation C: Anesthesia D: Diuresis ```

B. Muscle relaxation

``` A cardiac rhythm disturbance detected shortly after induction of anesthesia may be the result of any of the following except A: The induction agent B: Difficulty intubating C: Hypoxemia D: Breathing oxygen-enriched air ```

D. breathing oxygen-enriched air

``` Activated charcoal devices absorb all inhalation agents except A: Isoflurane B: Halothane C: Sevoflurane D: Nitrous oxide ```

D. Nitrous oxide

``` The usual vaporizer maintenance setting for sevoflurane is A: 0.25% to 1% B: 3.3% to 4% C: 0.5% to 2% D: 1% to 3% ```

B. 3.3% to 4%

``` Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs used to control mild postoperative pain include A: Aspirin and xylazine B: Diazepam and acetaminophen C: Carprofen and ketoprofen D: Acetylpromazine and ibuprofen ```

C. Carprofen and ketoprofen

``` Which drug is the most potent sedative? A: Xylazine B: Detomidine C: Acepromazine D: Diazepam ```

B. Detomidine

``` Epidural techniques are used in many species, but the primary disadvantage in animals is A: High cost B: Difficulty of administration C: Poor analgesia D: Movement of the patient ```

D. Movement of the patient

``` Which inhalant anesthetic drug is most likely to cause cardiac arrhythmias in dogs? A: Isoflurane B: Halothane C: Sevoflurane D: Nitrous oxide ```

B. Halothane

``` Which inhalant anesthetic drug is biotransformed to the greatest extent in the animal body? A: Isoflurane B: Halothane C: Sevoflurane D: Nitrous oxide ```

D. Nitrous oxide

Indications of poor cardiac function include all of the following except A: Cyanosis in patients with a PCV of 45% B: Poor perfusion C: Cardiac arrhythmias D: Normal pulse

D. Normal pulse

``` Which of these is a cyclohexamine agent? A: Ketamine B: Acetylpromazine C: Xylazine D: Propofol ```

A. Ketamine

``` The advantage of xylazine over acepromazine is that it A: Does not cause cardiac arrhythmias B: Produces a short period of analgesia C: Has antiemetic properties D: Is an antiinflammatory ```

B. Produces a short period of analgesia

Once extubated, all animals should be placed in A: Right lateral recumbency with the neck extended B: Left lateral recumbency with the neck in a normal, flexed position C: Sternal recumbency with the neck extended D: Whatever position is most comfortable for the patient

C. sTernal recumbency with the neck extended

``` The dosage of acepromazine is 0.1 mg/kg, and the maximum dose is 4 mg. How many milligrams would you administer to a 60-kg dog? A: 2 B: 4 C: 6 D: 8 ```

B. 4

``` The ideal inhalant anesthetic should have all of the following characteristics except A: Low vapor pressure B: High solubility coefficient C: Low MAC D: Provide good muscle relaxation ```

B. High solubility coefficient

``` All of the following cross the placental barrier in significant amounts except A: Acepromazine B: Diazepam C: Isoflurane D: Neuromuscular blocking agents ```

D. Neuromuscular blocking agents

Which statement concerning use of intravenous anesthesia in large animals is least accurate? A: It is routinely used for cast applications, castrations, and umbilical hernias. B: It works well on procedures that require complete immobilization of the patient. C: It should not be used on procedures that require more than 45 to 50 minutes to complete. D: It requires use of a preanesthetic for sedation and a barbiturate.

B. it works well on procedure that require complete immobilization of the patient

``` A 1:10,000 dilution of epinephrine contains how much epinephrine per milliliter? A: 1 mg B: 0.01 mg C: 1 µg D: 0.1 mg ```

D. 0.1 mg

``` An abnormally elevated central venous pressure that develops during anesthesia and surgery in an animal receiving intravenous fluids may indicate A: Intravenous fluid overload B: Increased cardiac output C: Dehydration D: Liver disease ```

A. IV fluid overload

``` In dogs, normal doses of opioids generally produce all of the following except A: Respiratory depression B: Decreased heart rate C: Analgesia D: Excitement ```

D. Excitement

``` Which drug is not classified as a barbiturate? A: Phenobarbital B: Thiopental C: Pentobarbital D: Propofol ```

D. Propofol

Ways to minimize exposure to waste anesthetic gas include A: Use of loose-fitting masks B: Properly inflate the endotracheal tube cuff C: Immediately disconnect of the patient from the anesthesia machine once the procedure is completed D: Connect the patient to the breathing circuit after both the oxygen and isoflurane are turned on

B. Properly inflate the ET tube cuff

Glycopyrrolate is an anticholinergic with all of the following advantages over atropine except A: Longer duration of action B: Crosses the placental barrier C: Less likely to cause cardiac arrhythmias D: Smaller dose volume

B. Crosses the placental barrier

``` If a dog is too deeply anesthetized, all of the following may be seen except A: Tachycardia B: Bradycardia C: Pale mucous membranes D: Increased jaw muscle tone ```

D. Increased jaw muscle tone

``` All are traits of sevoflurane except A: Low lipid solubility B: Smooth recovery C: Nonpungent odor D: Severe heart depression ```

D. Severe heart depression

``` No more than ______ nitrous oxide should be delivered to an anesthetized patient. A: 40% B: 50% C: 60% D: 70% ```

D. 70%

``` The piece of equipment that facilitates intubating a patient is the A: Esophageal stethoscope B: Laryngoscope C: Ophthalmoscope D: Otoscope ```

B. Laryngoscope

The causes of true hyperventilation and tachypnea during anesthesia may include all of the following except A: Progression from light to moderate anesthesia B: Response to metabolic acidosis C: Response to a mild surgical stimulus D: Presence of pulmonary edema

A. Progression from light to moderate anesthesia

Daily preanesthesia check of the anesthesia machine should include all of these except A: Leak testing B: Weighing the charcoal canister C: Calibrating of the vaporizer D: Filling the vaporizer with anesthetic gas agent

C. Calibrating of the vaporizer

``` How much halothane is biotransformed in the body? A: About 1% B: About 12% C: About 20% D: About 50% ```

C. about 20%

You have just completed filling the cuff on the endotracheal tube. The pressure relief valve is stuck in the closed position. Your best option is to A: Turn up the oxygen flow rate B: Start bagging the pet C: Disconnect the patient from the anesthesia machine D: Continue prepping the pet for surgery, and fix the valve release knob after the surgery is finished

C. Disconnect the patient from the anesthesia machine

``` Intravenous sodium bicarbonate is used to A: Treat cardiac arrhythmias B: Produce positive inotropic effects C: Stimulate respiration D: Combat acidosis ```

D. Combat acidosis

``` Tachycardia in an anesthetized patient may be an indication of any of the following except A:Hypotension B: Pain C: Light plane of anesthesia D: Xylazine overdose ```

D. Xylazine overdose

``` A 10-kg dog with a ventricular arrhythmia is treated with an IV lidocaine drip at 50 µg/kg/min. How many drops per minute from a minidrip infusion set (60 drops/ml) are necessary if the concentration of lidocaine is 1 mg/ml? A: 3 B: 5 C: 30 D: 50 ```

C. 30

``` At normal doses, what effect does atropine have on the heart rate? A: Decreases B: No effect C: Increases D: Prevents a decrease ```

D. Prevents a decrease

``` Apneustic breathing patterns are frequently seen in cats with use of A: Pentobarbital B: Thiamylal C: Ketamine D: Guaifenesin ```

C. Ketamine

``` 98. The minimum acceptable heart rate (beats per minute) for an anesthetized medium-sized dog is A: 40 bpm B: 60 bpm C: 80 bpm D: 100 bpm ```

B. 60 bpm

``` Which drug is a narcotic antagonist? A: Naloxone B: Atropine C: Pancuronium D: Droperidol ```

A. Naloxone

``` What is the maximum effective length for a scavenger hose used with a passive system? A: 5 feet B: 10 feet C: 15 feet D: 20 feet ```

D. 20 feet

``` During the maintenance period of anesthesia in a cat or dog, respiratory rates lower than how many breaths/min may indicate excessive anesthetic depth that should be reported to the veterinarian? A: 5 B: 8 C: 10 D: 12 ```

B. 8

``` When inflating lungs with the thoracic cavity open to the atmosphere, be sure that the pressure reached on the manometer is A: 10 cm H2O B: 20 cm H2O C: 60 cm H2O D: 70 cm H2O ```

B. 20 cm H2O

Mask inductions are A: Best used in dogs and cats with airway obstruction B: Best used in aggressive dogs and cats C: Absolutely the best way to induce anesthesia in all dogs and cats D: More appropriately used in calm dogs and cats

D. More appropriately used in calm dogs and cats

``` Highly volatile anesthetics are best suited for A: IV administration B: Precision vaporizers C: Draw-over vaporizers D: Open-drop or cone systems ```

B. Precision vaporizers

Why is apnea sometimes prolonged after barbiturates are administered too rapidly?A: Apnea is part of the excitement phase. B: Apnea is part of the parasympathetic nervous system stimulation. C: Barbiturates cause hypotension. D: Barbiturates suppress the respiratory center, making it less sensitive to carbon dioxide.

D.Barbiturates suppress the respiratory center, making it less sensitive to carbon dioxide

Depressant preanesthetic medication may have what effect on the anesthesia procedure? A: Shorten the recovery time B: Prolong the recovery time C: Leave the recovery time unaltered D: Necessitate increasing the dose of induction agent

B. Prolong the recovery time

The volume of the rebreathing bag on an anesthetic machine should be at least A: The same as the patient’s tidal volume B: Three times the patient’s tidal volume C: Six times the patient’s tidal volume D: Nine times the patient’s tidal volume

B. three times the patient's tidal volume

``` Diazepam is used to produce A: Analgesia B: Hypnosis C: Muscle relaxation D: Vomiting ```

C. Muscle relaxation

``` Epinephrine A: Increases the heart rate B: Decreases the heart rate C: Decreases the blood pressure D: Should be used to reverse the effects of acepromazine ```

A. Increases heart rate

Use of nitrous oxide in anesthesia A: Increases the amount of inhalation anesthetic required B: Decreases the amount of inhalation anesthetic required C: Slows the induction process D: Has no effect on the time or amount of anesthetic required

B. Decreases the amount of inhalation anesthetic required

What drugs will not slow the heart rate? A: Anticholinergics B: Phenothiazine tranquilizers C: Alpha-2 agonists D: Gas anesthetics

A. Anticholinergics

``` What volume of thiopental sodium should be administered intravenously to a 500-kg horse for induction of anesthesia? The dosage is 8 mg/kg, and you are using a 10% solution. A: 24 ml B: 40 ml C: 60 ml D: 65 ml ```

B. 40 mL

``` Gas cylinders that are a part of the anesthetic machine are attached to it by a A: Y piece B:Vaporizer C: Yoke D: Reducing valve ```

C. Yoke

``` A dog anesthetized with halothane in 99% oxygen develops ventricular tachycardia. What is the drug of choice for therapy? A: Propranolol B: Quinidine C: Lidocaine D: Atropine ```

C. Lidocaine

``` To minimize waste anesthetic exposure in the surgical suite, a realistic goal is to have the level of halothane no higher than A: 2 ppm B: 50 ppm C: 100 ppm D: 1000 ppm ```

A. 2 ppm

Hypoventilation that occurs in the anesthetized patient is characterized by A: Decreased oxygen levels and increased carbon dioxide levels B: Decreased carbon dioxide levels and decreased oxygen levels C: Increased oxygen levels and decreased carbon dioxide levels D: Increased oxygen levels and increased carbon dioxide levels

A. Decreased oxygen levels and increased CO2 levels

``` A disadvantage of breathing 50% nitrous oxide is that it A: Decreases the arterial PaO2 B: Increases the arterial PaO2 C: Slows the induction time D: Prolongs the recovery time ```

A. decreases the arterial PaO2

In a Siamese cat, the endotracheal tube should be removed A: As soon as the surgery or diagnostic technique is completed B: Only after the animal is fully conscious and able to maintain a free airway C: When the animal is taken off of the anesthesia machine D: As soon as the animal begins to swallow and cough

D. as soon as the animal begins to swallow and cough

``` How many milligrams per milliliter (mg/ml) does a 2% lidocaine solution contain? A: 5 B: 10 C: 20 D: 30 ```

C. 20

``` The drug that has the longest duration of effect after one injection is A: Butorphanol B: Morphine C: Buprenorphine D: Oxymorphone ```

C. Buprenorphine

Which statement concerning eye position, pupil size, and responsiveness to light as indicators of anesthetic depth is least accurate? A: In stage III, plane 3 of anesthesia, the eyes are usually central to slightly eccentric, with normal pupils that are responsive to light. B:In stage III, plane 2 of anesthesia, the eyes are usually rotated ventrally with slightly dilated pupils. C: In stage II of anesthesia, the eyes are usually central, and the pupils may be dilated and responsive to light. D: In stage IV of anesthesia, the eyes are central with widely dilated pupils that are unresponsive to light.

A: In stage III, plane 3 of anesthesia, the eyes are usually central to slightly eccentric, with normal pupils that are responsive to light.