Part Two Flashcards
1
Q
The anesthetized patient may respond to surgical stimulation if the anesthetic depth is inadequate. Response to a painful stimulus may be indicated by all of the following except (A considerable increase in heart rate and an increase in blood pressure, A decrease in lacrimation and salivation, an increase in rr, or sweating on the foot pads)
A
B. Decrease in lacrimation and salivation
2
Q
Which agent in the table above can maintain the patient under anesthesia at the lowest alveolar concentration? (A, B, C, or D)
A
C
3
Q
Diazepam is considered to be a good choice in patients when which body system is compromised? A: Hepatic B: Renal C: Cardiovascular D:All body systems
A
C
4
Q
When monitoring the mucous membrane color of an anesthetized patient with pigmented gingivae, you could use each of the following alternative sites except A: Pinnae B: Tongue C: Buccal mucous membranes D: Membranes lining the prepuce or vulva
A
A. Pinnae
5
Q
The drug xylazine is best described as an A: Antiinflammatory B: Analgesic and sedative C: Antiemetic D: Anesthetic
A
B. Analgesic and sedative
6
Q
Detomidine is approved for use in A: Dogs B: Cats C: Horses D: Cattle
A
C. Horses
7
Q
Epinephrine A: Increases the heart rate B: Decreases the heart rate C: Decreases the blood pressure D: Should be used to reverse the effects of acepromazine
A
A. increases heart rate
8
Q
The responsibilities of the anesthetist during a surgical procedure include continuous monitoring of the patient’s vital signs and recording observations at approximately A: 10-minute intervals B: 5-minute intervals C: 2-minute intervals D: 15-second intervals
A
B. 5-minute intervals
9
Q
Butorphanol is best described as a/an A: Antiinflammatory B: Analgesic C: Anesthetic D: Diuretic
A
B. analgesic
10
Q
The combination of xylazine and butorphanol is used to
A: Provide greater analgesia and muscle relaxation than either drug can alone
B: Cause central nervous system (CNS) excitement
C: Increase the dose of butorphanol
D: Increase the dose of xylazine
A
A. Provide greater analgesia and muscle relaxation than either drug can alone
11
Q
In the US, xylazine is not approved for use in…
A
Cattle
12
Q
In the anesthetized surgical patient, pale mucous membranes can indicate all of the following, except A: Inadequate oxygen levels B: Cyanosis C: Excessive blood loss D: Decreased tissue perfusion
A
B. Cyanosis
13
Q
The approximate volume of oxygen in an H cylinder is A: 70 L B: 700 L C:7000 L D: 2200 L
A
C. 7000 L
14
Q
Guaifenesin is most often used in horses and cattle to provide A: Analgesia B: Muscle relaxation C: Anesthesia D: Diuresis
A
B.Muscle relaxation
15
Q
Caudal epidural administration of lidocaine in the dog is
A: Useful to prevent movement
B: Not to be used for cesarean section
C: An excellent caudal analgesic
D: An old procedure with little value in veterinary anesthesia today
A
C. an excellent caudal analgesic
16
Q
Once extubated, all animals should be placed in
A: Right lateral recumbency with the neck extended
B: Left lateral recumbency with the neck in a normal, flexed position
C: Sternal recumbency with the neck extended
D: Whatever position is most comfortable for the patient
A
c. sternal recumbency with the neck extended
17
Q
Which drug is the most potent sedative? A: Xylazine B: Detomidine C: Acepromazine D: Diazepam
A
B. Detomidine
18
Q
The active phase of normal breathing is
A: Shorter in duration than the passive phase
B: The same duration as the passive phase
C: Longer in duration than the passive phase
D: Variable in duration, sometimes shorter, sometimes longer
A
A. shorter in duration than the passive phase
19
Q
Use of nitrous oxide in anesthesia
A: Increases the amount of inhalation anesthetic required
B: Decreases the amount of inhalation anesthetic required
C: Slows the induction process
D: Has no effect on the time or amount of anesthetic required
A
B. Decreases the amount of inhalation anesthetic required
20
Q
Which drug is most likely to cause hypotension in normal doses? A: Diazepam B: Butorphanol C: Acepromazine D: Flunixin meglumine
A
C. Acepromazine
21
Q
Which inhalant anesthetic drug is biotransformed to the greatest extent in the animal body?
A:
Isoflurane
B:
Halothane
C:
Sevoflurane
D:
Nitrous oxide
A
D. nitrous oxide
22
Q
Phenothiazine tranquilizers
A:
Cause nausea
B:
Increase the seizure threshold
C:
Cause vasoconstriction
D:
Suppress the sympathetic nervous system
A
D
23
Q
During CPR, adequate cardiac massage is present when
A:
The electrocardiogram (ECG) is normal.
B:
The heart rate is 60 beats/min.
C:
A peripheral pulse can be palpated.
D:
The mucous membranes are pink.
A
C
24
Q
What volume of thiopental sodium should be administered intravenously to a 500-kg horse for induction of anesthesia? The dosage is 8 mg/kg, and you are using a 10% solution.
A:
24 ml
B:
40 ml
C:
60 ml
D:
65 ml
A
B
25
The combination drug Telazol contains
A:
Diazepam and ketamine
B:
Diazepam and xylazine
C:
Zolazepam and tiletamine
D:
Xylazine and tiletamine
C
26
Which of the following anesthetic agents may provide some analgesia in the postoperative period?
A:
Propofol
B:
Sevoflurane
C:
Ketamine
D:
Isoflurane
C
27
A 1:10,000 dilution of epinephrine contains how much epinephrine per milliliter?
A:
1 mg
B:
0.01 mg
C:
1 µg
D:
0.1 mg
D
28
Pulse oximetry monitoring devices give an estimate of
A:
Respiratory rate
B:
Cardiac output
C:
Percentage of hemoglobin saturation with oxygen in arterial blood
D:
Oxygen content of arterial blood
C
29
All of the following cross the placental barrier in significant amounts except
A:
Acepromazine
B:
Diazepam
C:
Isoflurane
D:
Neuromuscular blocking agents
D
30
No more than ______ nitrous oxide should be delivered to an anesthetized patient.
A:
40%
B:
50%
C:
60%
D:
70%
D
31
Which drug is an antagonist of xylazine?
A:
Butorphanol
B:
Detomidine
C:
Yohimbine
D:
Pentazocine
C
32
The following general anesthetic agents can be delivered to effect except
A:
Isoflurane
B:
Telazole given IM
C:
Ketamine/diazepam IV
D:
Thiopental IV
B
33
Epidural techniques are used in many species, but the primary disadvantage in animals is
A:
High cost
B:
Difficulty of administration
C:
Poor analgesia
D:
Movement of the patient
D
34
Which inhalant anesthetic drug is most likely to cause cardiac arrhythmias in dogs?
A:
Isoflurane
B:
Halothane
C:
Sevoflurane
D:
Nitrous oxide
B
35
The preanesthetic mix abbreviated BAA contains
A:
Buprenorphine, atropine, acepromazine
B:
Butorphanol, atipamezole, atropine
C:
Buprenorphine, atropine, atipamezole
D:
Butorphanol, acepromazine, atropine
D
36
An isoflurane-anesthetized cat suddenly begins breathing 30 times a minute during a surgical procedure. Your first response should be to
A:
Turn down the oxygen flow rate
B:
Immediately begin to bag the patient
C:
Turn up the anesthetic concentration
D:
Evaluate vital organ function and endotracheal tube placement and make necessary adjustments
D
37
If 180 ml of a 5% solution of guaifenesin is administered to a 150-kg foal, how many mg/kg would be administered?
A:
30
B:
60
C:
90
D:
15
B
38
Measures that help decrease waste anesthetic gas exposure include all except
A:
Frequent changing of the soda lime canister
B:
Properly fitting endotracheal tube cuffs
C:
Avoiding use of masks or induction chambers
D:
Leak testing the anesthesia machine
A
39
Neuromuscular blocking agents are used for all of the following except
A:
Analgesia
B:
Facilitation of fracture reduction
C:
Facilitation of ocular surgery to immobilize the eye
D:
Prevention of spontaneous inspiratory efforts by the patient
A
40
In nonbrachycephalic breeds of dogs recovering from anesthesia, the endotracheal tube should be removed when the
A:
Palpebral reflex returns
B:
Swallowing reflex returns
C:
Pupils resume a central position
D:
Animal shows voluntary movement of the limbs
B
41
Daily preanesthesia check of the anesthesia machine should include all of these except
A:
Leak testing
B:
Weighing the charcoal canister
C:
Calibrating of the vaporizer
D:
Filling the vaporizer with anesthetic gas agent
C
42
When inflating lungs with the thoracic cavity open to the atmosphere, be sure that the pressure reached on the manometer is
A:
10 cm H2O
B:
20 cm H2O
C:
60 cm H2O
D:
70 cm H2O
B
43
Mean arterial blood pressure of the isoflurane-anesthetized horse
A:
Can be used as an indication of anesthetic depth
B:
Is not important
C:
Is not practical to monitor
D:
Is important for long procedures only
A
44
Balanced anesthesia commonly includes all of the following agents except
A:
Nitrous oxide and an inhalant anesthetic
B:
Muscle-paralyzing agents
C:
Thiobarbiturates
D:
Dissociative agents
D
45
Which of the following can activate the sympathetic portion of the autonomic nervous system?
A:
Intubation
B:
Handling viscera
C:
Administration of opioids
D:
Painful stimuli
D
46
Which of these species is most prone to developing malignant hyperthermia?
A:
Equine
B:
Porcine
C:
Ovine
D:
Feline
B
47
Use of an indwelling catheter in an artery to monitor blood pressure is termed
A:
Direct monitoring
B:
Central venous pressure
C:
Indirect monitoring
D:
Peripheral venous pressure
A
48
Which drug is a narcotic antagonist?
A:
Naloxone
B:
Atropine
C:
Pancuronium
D:
Droperidol
A
49
The false statement regarding postsurgical pain is
A:
The pain serves a useful purpose by preventing activity that could cause further tissue injury.
B:
An animal that experiences postoperative pain is more likely to have a poor anesthetic recovery.
C:
Inhalation anesthetics currently used in small-animal practice do not provide significant, postoperative pain control.
D:
If a procedure is known to be painful in humans, it should be regarded as such in animal patients.
A
50
Opioid drugs are used in anesthetic protocols primarily as
A:
Anesthetics
B:
Analgesics
C:
Antiinflammatories
D:
Antihistamines
B
51
Vaporizers may be classified according to all of the following, except the
A:
Method of regulating output
B:
Method of vaporization
C:
Location in the anesthetic circuit
D:
Type of breathing circuit with which they can be used
D
52
A patient in ASA class I physical status is
A:
A normal patient with no organic disease
B:
A moribund patient
C:
An adult animal with no signs of evident disease on physical examination
D:
In absolutely no danger while under anesthesia
A
53
For which of the following species is ketamine use approved?
A:
Cats
B:
Birds
C:
Horses
D:
Dogs
A
54
Which drug should be avoided in the stallion because it may cause permanent prolapse of the penis?
A:
Glycopyrrolate
B:
Acepromazine
C:
Xylazine
D:
Diazepam
B
55
Which of the following is not a good reason to use a preanesthetic?
A:
Calms the patient
B:
Minimizes the dose of induction agent needed
C:
Smoothes induction and recovery
D:
Increases vagal activity
D
56
What is the best technique to secure an endotracheal tube to an animal?
A:
It is best not to secure the tube to the animal, so that it can move freely if the animal starts to wake up.
B:
It should be secured by gauze strips around the head in cats and brachycephalic dogs and caudal to the upper canines in other breeds of dogs.
C:
It can be secured by several wraps of cloth and tape around the animal’s nose and the tube.
D:
A rubber band can be looped tightly around the tube and the animal’s nose.
B
57
The oxygen flush valve
A:
Allows oxygen to flow into the breathing system without going through the vaporizer
B:
Increases the anesthetic concentration within the circuit
C:
Causes the patient to breathe deeper
D:
Is used primarily to keep the reservoir bag deflated
A
58
During CPR, 2% lidocaine is used to treat ventricular arrhythmias. A complication that may occur after intravenous infusion of lidocaine is
A:
Bradycardia
B:
Coughing
C:
Tachycardia
D:
Vomiting
A
59
Which drug is not classified as a barbiturate?
A:
Phenobarbital
B:
Thiopental
C:
Pentobarbital
D:
Propofol
D
60
A 10% solution of thiopental sodium for anesthetic induction contains
A:
10 mg/ml
B:
100 mg/ml
C:
20 mg/ml
D:
40 mg/ml
B
61
Treatment for hypotension during anesthesia includes
A:
Turning up the anesthetic gas
B:
Increasing the drip rate of the IV fluids
C:
Increasing the flow of oxygen
D:
Giving ventilating breaths
B
62
Diazepam is used to produce
A:
Analgesia
B:
Hypnosis
C:
Muscle relaxation
D:
Vomiting
C
63
Concerning physical stimulation of the recovering anesthetized patient, which statement is least accurate?
A:
Stimulation should not include rubbing the chest, because it may interfere with respiration.
B:
Stimulation can include talking to the patient, moving the limbs, or pinching the toes.
C:
Stimulation increases the flow of information to the reticular activation center of the brain.
D:
A lack of stimulation may cause drowsiness in the conscious animal.
A
64
Intravenous sodium bicarbonate is used to
A:
Treat cardiac arrhythmias
B:
Produce positive inotropic effects
C:
Stimulate respiration
D:
Combat acidosis
D
65
A patient’s hydration status can be assessed by all the following except
A:
Respiratory rate
B:
PCV
C:
Total solids
D:
Skin turgor
A
66
The oxygen flow rate necessary to prevent rebreathing of exhaled gases with an Ayre’s T piece is
A:
0.5 L/min
B:
1 L/min
C:
2 L/min
D:
Greater than 1.5 times the minute ventilation
D
67
Soda lime granules in the CO2 absorber canister should be checked for color change
A:
Immediately before a starting a procedure
B:
Three to 6 hours after the procedure
C:
One hour before starting the procedure
D:
During and up on completing the procedure
D
68
A cardiac rhythm disturbance detected shortly after induction of anesthesia may be the result of any of the following except
A:
The induction agent
B:
Difficulty intubating
C:
Hypoxemia
D:
Breathing oxygen-enriched air
D
69
The causes of true hyperventilation and tachypnea during anesthesia may include all of the following except
A:
Progression from light to moderate anesthesia
B:
Response to metabolic acidosis
C:
Response to a mild surgical stimulus
D:
Presence of pulmonary edema
A
70
Recovery from barbiturate anesthesia is prolonged by all of the following except
A:
Increased blood glucose concentration
B:
Sight hounds
C:
Liver disease
D:
Elevated cardiac output
D
71
A disadvantage of breathing 50% nitrous oxide is that it
A:
Decreases the arterial PaO2
B:
Increases the arterial PaO2
C:
Slows the induction time
D:
Prolongs the recovery time
A
72
If the unidirectional valves are missing from an anesthetic machine, it is
A:
Okay to use the machine until you find them
B:
Okay to use the machine if soda lime is new
C:
Okay to use the machine with the pop-off valve closed
D:
Definitely not okay to use the machine, except with a nonrebreathing circuit
D
73
Glycopyrrolate is an anticholinergic with all of the following advantages over atropine except
A:
Longer duration of action
B:
Crosses the placental barrier
C:
Less likely to cause cardiac arrhythmias
D:
Smaller dose volume
B
74
Acepromazine should be avoided in
A:
Patients with a history of seizures
B:
Aggressive patients
C:
All old dogs
D:
All Dobermans
A
75
If IV access is difficult, emergency drugs can be administered safely and effectively by the ______ route.
A:
Intracardiac
B:
Intraperitoneal
C:
Intratracheal
D:
Intramuscular
C
76
While monitoring a horse receiving oxygen at the rate of 8 L/min, isoflurane 2.5%, and fluids at the rate of 10 ml/kg/hr, you note that the blood pressure suddenly falls to 60 mm Hg, and the peripheral pulse becomes weak. Your first response should be to
A:
Administer a vasoactive agent
B:
Lower the isoflurane concentration and increase fluid delivery rate
C:
Turn down the oxygen flow
D:
Not be concerned
B
77
At normal doses, what effect does atropine have on the heart rate?
A:
Decreases
B:
No effect
C:
Increases
D:
Prevents a decrease
D
78
By which route can short-acting barbiturate drugs be safely administered to induce general anesthesia?
A:
IV
B:
IM
C:
Oral
D:
SQ
A
79
The dosage of acepromazine is 0.1 mg/kg, and the maximum dose is 4 mg. How many milligrams would you administer to a 60-kg dog?
A:
2
B:
4
C:
6
D:
8
B
80
Never use nitrous oxide
A:
In a closed anesthesia circuit
B:
In cats
C:
With rubber tubes on the anesthesia machine
D:
With isoflurane
A
81
The advantage of xylazine over acepromazine is that it
A:
Does not cause cardiac arrhythmias
B:
Produces a short period of analgesia
C:
Has antiemetic properties
D:
Is an antiinflammatory
B
82
The pressure in a full cylinder of compressed oxygen is ______ psi.
A:
1000
B:
750
C:
500
D:
2000
D
83
Which of the following statements regarding brachycephalic breeds is incorrect?
A:
They may have stenotic nares.
B:
Brachycephalics have a hypoplastic trachea.
C:
A long, floppy soft palate may occlude the trachea.
D:
Brachycephalics often suffer from laryngospasm.
D
84
Ideally an endotracheal tube should be inserted so that
A:
Its tip is midway between the thoracic inlet and the larynx.
B:
The adaptor is just caudal to the incisors.
C:
It is deep enough to prevent backing out.
D:
Its tip just reaches the third rib.
A
85
Routine use of atropine in horses should be avoided, because it may
A:
Cause colic
B:
Slow the heart rate
C:
Cause excitement
D:
Increase salivation
A
86
Cardiac arrhythmias that occur during anesthesia are commonly associated with all of the following except
A:
Normocapnia
B:
Excessive halothane concentration
C:
Hypoxemia
D:
Myocardial ischemia
A
87
Using ketamine as an anesthetic agent diminishes the value of what measure in assessing anesthetic depth?
A:
Pinna reflex
B:
Pedal reflex
C:
Jaw muscle tone
D:
Eye position
D
88
Depressant preanesthetic medication may have what effect on the anesthesia procedure?
A:
Shorten the recovery time
B:
Prolong the recovery time
C:
Leave the recovery time unaltered
D:
Necessitate increasing the dose of induction agent
B
89
Tachycardia in an anesthetized patient may be an indication of any of the following except
A:
Hypotension
B:
Pain
C:
Light plane of anesthesia
D:
Xylazine overdose
D
90
How many milligrams per milliliter (mg/ml) does a 2% lidocaine solution contain?
A:
5
B:
10
C:
20
D:
30
C
91
Apneustic breathing patterns are frequently seen in cats with use of
A:
Pentobarbital
B:
Thiamylal
C:
Ketamine
D:
Guaifenesin
C
92
Which of the following is not an effect associated with atropine administration?
A:
Tachycardia
B:
Excessive salivation
C:
Mydriasis
D:
Decreased gastrointestinal motility
B
93
In patients with which of the following characteristics is it recommended to wait a longer period before extubation because of the likelihood of vomiting or airway obstruction?
A:
Dolichocephalic
B:
Undershot mandible
C:
Brachycephalic
D:
Cleft palate
C
94
In cattle, an epidural block is performed by inserting the needle between
A:
T13 and L1
B:
L7 and the sacrum
C:
The sacrum and C1
D:
Cy1 and Cy2
D
95
Mask inductions are
A:
Best used in dogs and cats with airway obstruction
B:
Best used in aggressive dogs and cats
C:
Absolutely the best way to induce anesthesia in all dogs and cats
D:
More appropriately used in calm dogs and cats
D
96
Halothane concentrations of 1% to 2% may produce any of the following except
A:
Hypotension
B:
Hypoventilation
C:
Hypothermia
D:
Increased cardiac output
D
97
The adverse effects of anesthetic compounds are
A:
Nothing to worry about
B:
Never present with smaller doses
C:
Dose dependent
D:
Not dose dependent
C
98
The approximate volume of oxygen in an E cylinder is
A:
70 L
B:
700 L
C:
7000 L
D:
2200 L
B
99
A half-full tank of nitrous oxide gas has a pressure of
A:
375 psi
B:
2200 psi
C:
750 psi
D:
50 psi
C
100
A dog anesthetized with halothane in 99% oxygen develops ventricular tachycardia. What is the drug of choice for therapy?
A:
Propranolol
B:
Quinidine
C:
Lidocaine
D:
Atropine
C
101
The most reliable sign of inadequate anesthetic depth is
A:
Increased heart rate
B:
Increased respiratory rate
C:
Active palpebral reflex
D:
Responsive movement
D
102
Whole blood should be administered in which of the following presurgical situations?
A:
PCV 30%
B:
PCV 14%
C:
Von Willebrand positive
D:
Chronic anemia, PCV 25%
B
103
Which of the following is not an advantage for endotracheal intubation?
A:
Ensures a patent airway
B:
Increases dead space and allows for more efficient ventilation
C:
Prevents aspiration pneumonitis
D:
Improves oxygenation of arterial blood
B
104
The usual vaporizer maintenance setting for sevoflurane is
A:
0.25% to 1%
B:
3.3% to 4%
C:
0.5% to 2%
D:
1% to 3%
B
105
An intravenous catheter should be
A:
Large enough to allow adequate fluid delivery, if cardiac arrest occurs
B:
As small as possible to avoid pain
C:
Placed in critically ill patients only
D:
Left in place for at least 3 days after surgery
A
106
In rabbits, intravenous anesthetics should be injected into which of the following veins?
A:
Femoral
B:
Jugular
C:
Auricular
D:
Cephalic
C
107
Propofol is a/an
A:
Xylazine antagonist
B:
Ultrashort-acting barbiturate
C:
Ketamine-like dissociative
D:
Nonbarbiturate, intravenous anesthetic with hypotensive potential
D
108
In dogs, normal doses of opioids generally produce all of the following except
A:
Respiratory depression
B:
Decreased heart rate
C:
Analgesia
D:
Excitement
D
109
What reflex may still be present under a light surgical plane of anesthesia?
A:
Patellar
B:
Palpebral
C:
Pinnal
D:
Pharyngeal
B
110
When comparing inhalation anesthetics, you should use the minimum alveolar concentration (MAC) as a guide in assessing
A:
Respiratory depression
B:
Potency of the agent
C:
Cardiovascular effects
D:
Solubility coefficients
B
111
Which drug is a dissociative anesthetic?
A:
Thiopental sodium
B:
Ketamine
C:
Xylazine
D:
Acepromazine
B
112
Which inhalant anesthetic is associated with the longest induction and recovery times?
A:
Nitrous oxide
B:
Isoflurane
C:
Halothane
D:
Sevoflurane
C
113
A small animal patient’s systolic blood pressure was measured at 50 mm Hg. What is your best course of action?
A:
Turn up the oxygen flow rate.
B:
Turn up the concentration of gas anesthetic.
C:
Close the pop-off valve.
D:
Increase the drip rate of the IV fluids.
D
114
Gas cylinders that are a part of the anesthetic machine are attached to it by a
A:
Y piece
B:
Vaporizer
C:
Yoke
D:
Reducing valve
C
115
Precision vaporizers, such as those used for isoflurane, work correctly when placed
A:
In the circle
B:
Out of the circle
C:
Either in or out of the circle
D:
In the high-pressure portion of the anesthetic system
B
116
After placing, lubricating, and inflating the cuff of the endotracheal tube, you note a sudden decrease in heart rate. The most likely cause is
A:
Low oxygen flow
B:
Too deep a plane of anesthesia
C:
Cuff is underinflated
D:
Cuff may be overinflated, producing vagal-induced bradycardia
D
117
The advantages of a nonrebreathing system, as compared with a circle breathing system, include all of the following, except
A:
Reduced resistance to breathing
B:
Greater potential for hypothermia caused by high flows needed
C:
Reduced mechanical dead space
D:
No soda lime required
B
118
In a pug, the endotracheal tube should be removed
A:
As soon as the surgery or diagnostic technique is completed
B:
Only after the animal is fully conscious and able to maintain a free airway
C:
When the animal is taken off of the anesthesia machine
D:
As soon as the animal begins to swallow and cough
B
119
The MAC of an anesthetic agent will change for all of the following reasons except
A:
Preanesthetic drug administration
B:
Patient’s age
C:
Patient’s breed
D:
Anemia
C
120
The minimum fresh gas flow in a semiclosed system is correctly determined by the
A:
Patient’s metabolic rate
B:
Patient’s respiratory rate
C:
Drugs used for premedication
D:
Size of the soda lime canister
A
121
All inhalant anesthetic machines should have
A:
A nitrous oxide flowmeter
B:
Blood pressure monitors
C:
Respiratory monitors
D:
An anesthetic waste gas scavenging system
D
122
The volume of the rebreathing bag on an anesthetic machine should be at least
A:
The same as the patient’s tidal volume
B:
Three times the patient’s tidal volume
C:
Six times the patient’s tidal volume
D:
Nine times the patient’s tidal volume
B
123
When inflating the cuff on an endotracheal tube, you should change to a larger diameter tube if cuff inflation requires injection of more than what volume of air?
A:
2 ml
B:
5 ml
C:
7 ml
D:
10 ml
B
124
______ is a concern when recovering a patient from anesthesia if nitrous oxide has been used.
A:
Solubility
B:
Diffusion hypoxia
C:
Biotransformation
D:
Inflammation
B
125
An epidural agent would be administered where in a dog?
A:
Between L7 and the sacrum
B:
Just cranial to C1
C:
Immediately caudal to T13
D:
Directly into the spinal cord at T1
A
126
Which statement concerning soda lime is least accurate?
A:
It removes carbon dioxide from the breathing circuit.
B:
Its capacity should be at least one to two times the patient’s tidal volume.
C:
It can be nonfunctional and still maintain its original color.
D:
It should be changed once a month.
D
127
To minimize waste anesthetic exposure in the surgical suite, a realistic goal is to have the level of halothane no higher than
A:
2 ppm
B:
50 ppm
C:
100 ppm
D:
1000 ppm
A
128
A 10-kg dog with a ventricular arrhythmia is treated with an IV lidocaine drip at 50 µg/kg/min. How many drops per minute from a minidrip infusion set (60 drops/ml) are necessary if the concentration of lidocaine is 1 mg/ml?
A:
3
B:
5
C:
30
D:
50
C
129
If the rebreathing bag is empty during anesthesia, all of the following may be the cause, except
A:
The oxygen flow may be too high.
B:
The oxygen flow may be too low.
C:
There may be a leak in the system.
D:
The waste gas scavenging system is not working properly.
A
130
Nitrous oxide cylinders are painted what color?
A:
Green
B:
Gray
C:
Blue
D:
Brown
C
131
All of the following drugs predispose the animal to bloat, except
A:
Atropine
B:
Medetomidine
C:
Glycopyrrolate
D:
Midazolam
D
132
According to the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH), the maximum recommended level of exposure of people to volatile anesthetic agents in the environment is
A:
2 ppm
B:
4 ppm
C:
6 ppm
D:
8 ppm
A
133
The pressure of gas that enters the flowmeter of an inhalant anesthetic machine is
A:
20 to 30 psi
B:
50 to 60 psi
C:
100 to 120 psi
D:
2200 psi
B
134
Which statement concerning the pressure manometer in an inhalant anesthetic circuit is least accurate?
A:
It is calibrated in centimeters of water or millimeters of mercury.
B:
It is helpful when ventilating patients.
C:
It is related to the pressure in the patient’s airway.
D:
It measures oxygen partial pressure.
D
135
Activated charcoal devices absorb all inhalation agents except
A:
Isoflurane
B:
Halothane
C:
Sevoflurane
D:
Nitrous oxide
D
136
There is evidence of increased health risks among people exposed chronically to trace levels of inhalant anesthetic gases. All of the following conditions have been associated with such exposure except
A:
Abortion and congenital abnormalities
B:
Hepatic and renal disease
C:
CNS dysfunction
D:
Insomnia
D
137
Mask induction of anesthesia using inhalation agents is
A:
The best way to induce anesthesia in a patient with upper airway obstruction
B:
Best accomplished using a volatile anesthetic that is more soluble in body fluids, such as halothane
C:
Less expensive than routine parenteral induction
D:
Best accomplished using a volatile anesthetic that is relatively insoluble in body fluids, such as isoflurane
D
138
All of the following are methods that reduce waste gas levels except
A:
Scavenging systems
B:
Elimination of breathing circuit leaks
C:
Careful filling of vaporizers to avoid spillage
D:
Chamber and mask inductions
D
139
When given a neuromuscular blocking agent, the last muscle(s) to become paralyzed is/are the
A:
Muscles of the tail
B:
Diaphragm
C:
Abdominal muscles
D:
Muscle into which the drug was injected
B
140
What is the standard color of medical nitrous oxide cylinders, and what is the pressure in a full cylinder?
A:
Green; 750 psi
B:
Blue; 750 psi
C:
Green; 2000 psi
D:
Blue; 2000 psi
B
141
When monitoring the vital signs of an anesthetized patient, you must observe and record all of the following, except
A:
Mucous membrane color and capillary refill time
B:
Heart rate and respiratory rate and depth
C:
Reflexes
D:
Pulse quality and strength
C
142
Which of the following is not an advantage of using an endotracheal tube?
A:
Prevents atelectasis of lung alveoli
B:
Encourages proper examination of the animal’s mouth, pharynx, and larynx
C:
Provides a means for treating respiratory and cardiac arrest
D:
Increases the chances of airway obstruction
D
143
When an endotracheal tube is being inserted in a horse, the animal should be placed in
A:
Sternal recumbency with its head at a 90-degree angle to the neck
B:
Sternal recumbency with its head and neck extended
C:
Lateral recumbency with its head at a 90-degree angle to the neck
D:
Lateral recumbency with its head, neck, and back extended
D
144
Which animal is most likely to experience laryngospasm during endotracheal intubation?
A:
Thoroughbred mare
B:
Hereford cow
C:
Persian cat
D:
Dalmatian dog
C
145
Hypothermia has become significant in a 4-kg anesthetized cat. The best way to restore body heat is
A:
With a warm-water blanket
B:
To submerge the animal in warm water
C:
With a heat lamp
D:
To warm the air in the breathing circuit by some method
D
146
The best method for determining the proper inflation of an endotracheal tube cuff is
A:
Use 1 ml of air for each millimeter of internal diameter of the tube.
B:
Inject air while applying pressure from the reservoir bag until no air escapes around the tube.
C:
Inject air until the bulb on the cuff tubing is too hard to collapse.
D:
Use a 12-ml syringe and inject 12 ml of air into the cuff.
B
147
Which of the following is least likely to be a result of administering barbiturates perivascularly?
A:
An excitement phase
B:
Pain
C:
Tissue sloughing
D:
Transient apnea
D
148
An esophageal stethoscope can be used to monitor
A:
Direct blood pressure
B:
Oxygen saturation
C:
Heart and respiratory rates
D:
Carbon dioxide levels
C
149
Which of the following is the most common complication of endotracheal intubation?
A:
Placement of the tube in the esophagus
B:
Physical damage to the teeth and oral mucous membranes
C:
Overinflated cuff injuring the trachea
D:
Underinflated cuff collapsing the trachea
A
150
Use of succinylcholine in combination with general anesthetics may be advantageous to the surgeon during certain procedures, but it gives the anesthetist one less measure with which to monitor anesthetic depth. What measure would be of no use in monitoring patients given succinylcholine?
A:
Eye position and pupil size
B:
Heart rate
C:
Jaw muscle tone
D:
Respiratory rate
C
151
During cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) in a medium-sized dog, you should maintain a ventilation rate of how many breaths per minute?
A:
5
B:
12
C:
20
D:
30
B
152
Local anesthetics
A:
Cause increased release of inhibitory neurotransmitters
B:
Interfere with transmission of the impulse along the nerve fiber
C:
Disrupt nerve impulse transmission at the NMJ
D:
Block catecholamine release
B
153
It is cause for concern if an anesthetized cat’s heart rate falls below
A:
160 bpm
B:
120 bpm
C:
100 bpm
D:
140 bpm
C
154
If a dog is too deeply anesthetized, all of the following may be seen except
A:
Tachycardia
B:
Bradycardia
C:
Pale mucous membranes
D:
Increased jaw muscle tone
D
155
In a Siamese cat, the endotracheal tube should be removed
A:
As soon as the surgery or diagnostic technique is completed
B:
Only after the animal is fully conscious and able to maintain a free airway
C:
When the animal is taken off of the anesthesia machine
D:
As soon as the animal begins to swallow and cough
D
156
The preferred method for treating a cat with laryngospasm is to
A:
Use a sharp stylet to wedge the endotracheal tube between the vocal cords.
B:
Return the animal to its cage, and wait 20 minutes before trying again.
C:
Place a drop of a topical anesthetic in the laryngeal area, wait a few minutes, and then intubate the animal.
D:
Use a stiffer endotracheal tube that can force the vocal cords open.
C
157
Naloxone is classified as a(an) opioid
A:
Agonist
B:
Mixed agonist/antagonist
C:
Mu and kappa blocker
D:
Antagonist
D
158
Which statement concerning use of intravenous anesthesia in large animals is least accurate?
A:
It is routinely used for cast applications, castrations, and umbilical hernias.
B:
It works well on procedures that require complete immobilization of the patient.
C:
It should not be used on procedures that require more than 45 to 50 minutes to complete.
D:
It requires use of a preanesthetic for sedation and a barbiturate.
B
159
The drug that has the longest duration of effect after one injection is
A:
Butorphanol
B:
Morphine
C:
Buprenorphine
D:
Oxymorphone
C
160
Adequate oxygen may be evaluated subjectively during anesthesia by the
A:
Heart rate
B:
Respiratory rate
C:
Mucous membrane color and capillary refill time
D:
Pulse pressure
C
161
The most common arrhythmia associated with use of thiobarbiturates in dogs during induction of anesthesia is
A:
Atrial fibrillation
B:
Ventricular tachycardia
C:
Bigeminy
D:
Second-degree atrioventricular block
C
162
Which of the following is the anesthetic with the lowest blood/gas coefficient?
A:
Halothane
B:
Isoflurane
C:
Nitrous oxide
D:
Sevoflurane
D
163
A half-full nitrous oxide cylinder should be
A:
Green, with a pressure of 2000 psi
B:
Blue, with a pressure of 750 psi
C:
Green, with a pressure of 1000 psi
D:
Blue, with a pressure of 375 psi
B
164
Indications of poor cardiac function include all of the following except
A:
Cyanosis in patients with a PCV of 45%
B:
Poor perfusion
C:
Cardiac arrhythmias
D:
Normal pulse
D
165
Patients that have water withheld for long periods before surgery and general anesthesia may be prone to
A:
Vomiting during induction
B:
Dehydration and hypotension
C:
Nothing more than other patients
D:
Respiratory depression
B
166
Hypoventilation that occurs in the anesthetized patient is characterized by
A:
Decreased oxygen levels and increased carbon dioxide levels
B:
Decreased carbon dioxide levels and decreased oxygen levels
C:
Increased oxygen levels and decreased carbon dioxide levels
D:
Increased oxygen levels and increased carbon dioxide levels
A
167
It is advisable to turn the anesthetized patient from side to side during the recovery period of anesthesia. Concerning this, which statement is least accurate?
A:
Turn the patient every 10 to 15 minutes until it regains consciousness.
B:
Turning the patient prevents pooling of blood in the dependent parts of the body.
C:
It is advisable to turn all animals dorsally, rather than sternally, to prevent gastric torsion.
D:
Turning the patient helps stimulate respiration and consciousness.
C
168
Following discontinuation of the anesthetic gas, periodic bagging of the patient with pure oxygen is advisable, because it
A:
Helps reinflate collapsed alveoli
B:
Allows for a faster recovery
C:
Helps flush anesthetic gas out of the hoses
D:
Allows expired waste gas to be evacuated by the scavenger system
A
169
While monitoring a horse during inhalation anesthesia, you note that the heart rate suddenly increases to 80 beats/min. Your most appropriate response is to
A:
Increase the delivered anesthetic concentration
B:
Administer intravenously 10 mg of butorphanol
C:
Evaluate the peripheral pulse, mucous membranes, and other vital organ function before responding
D:
Not be concerned, because the horse is not moving
C
170
Which of the following is a neuromuscular blocking agent?
A:
Succinylcholine
B:
Lidocaine
C:
Morphine
D:
Yohimbine
A
171
Providing good nursing care for the recovering anesthetized patient is the duty of the attending anesthetist. Which of the following is not advisable for a patient immediately following surgery?
A:
Providing ample bedding to prevent heat loss and increase comfort
B:
Providing fresh food and water once the animal is conscious
C:
Providing a source of heat in hypothermia cases
D:
Administering postoperative analgesics as directed by the veterinarian
B
172
98. The minimum acceptable heart rate (beats per minute) for an anesthetized medium-sized dog is
A:
40 bpm
B:
60 bpm
C:
80 bpm
D:
100 bpm
B
173
An anesthetist should be aware of the effects of anesthetic agents on the patient. When used as preanesthetics, atropine and acepromazine can cause all of the following, except
A:
Prolapse of the nictitating membrane
B:
Respiratory depression
C:
Reduced salivation and tear production
D:
Pupil dilatation in cats
B
174
A capillary refill time that is over 2 seconds indicates
A:
Congestive heart failure
B:
Decreased peripheral blood perfusion
C:
Decreased ventilation
D:
Hypertension
B
175
During the maintenance period of anesthesia in a cat or dog, respiratory rates lower than how many breaths/min may indicate excessive anesthetic depth that should be reported to the veterinarian?
A:
5
B:
8
C:
10
D:
12
B
176
The patient is in shock. Which of these symptoms would not be expected?
A:
Tachycardia
B:
Hypertension
C:
Prolonged capillary refill time
D:
Pale mucous membranes
B
177
Some anesthetists routinely bag the patient under inhalation anesthesia once every 5 minutes to help prevent
A:
Apnea
B:
Mydriasis
C:
Hypercapnia
D:
Atelectasis
D
178
The estimated blood volume in dogs is
A:
25 ml/kg
B:
50 ml/kg
C:
75 ml/kg
D:
100 ml/kg
C
179
If the rectum of a patient is covered by a surgical drape or is otherwise inaccessible to the anesthetist, a rough estimate of body temperature can be obtained by
A:
Touching the patient’s nose or tail
B:
Touching the patient’s feet or ears
C:
Touching the patient’s tongue or mucous membranes
D:
Feeling the temperature of exhaled air
B
180
Medical oxygen cylinders are colored
A:
Blue
B:
Gray
C:
Green
D:
Orange
C
181
Throughout anesthesia, the animal’s temperature should be maintained as close to normal as possible. Hypothermia can be prevented by all of the following measures except
A:
Warming the stainless-steel V trough before using it
B:
Administering warm intravenous fluids
C:
Use of a circulating warm-water heating pad
D:
Providing a comfortable air temperature in the surgery room
A
182
Malignant hyperthermia is a potentially fatal syndrome to the anesthetized patient. Which of these species is most prone to this condition?
A:
Cattle
B:
Pigs
C:
Dogs
D:
Goats
B
183
A 10-year-old dog has been anesthetized for removal of a skin tumor and is now maintained on 2% isoflurane. The anesthetist observes that its respirations are 8/min and shallow, its heart rate is 80 beats/min, its pupils are centrally positioned, its jaw tone is slack, and all of its reflexes are absent. What should be your response or actions to the condition of this animal?
A:
It is adequately anesthetized; no adjustments are necessary.
B:
You should try to stimulate the animal, to lighten the plane of anesthesia.
C:
You should notify the veterinarian of the dog’s condition but not be alarmed.
D:
You should reduce the vaporizer setting to 1.5% isoflurane and continue to monitor for signs of decreased depth.
D
184
Which of the following is least likely to cause hypotension after administration?
A:
Propofol
B:
Thiopental
C:
Acepromazine
D:
Ketamine
D
185
Which statement concerning eye position, pupil size, and responsiveness to light as indicators of anesthetic depth is least accurate?
A:
In stage III, plane 3 of anesthesia, the eyes are usually central to slightly eccentric, with normal pupils that are responsive to light.
B:
In stage III, plane 2 of anesthesia, the eyes are usually rotated ventrally with slightly dilated pupils.
C:
In stage II of anesthesia, the eyes are usually central, and the pupils may be dilated and responsive to light.
D:
In stage IV of anesthesia, the eyes are central with widely dilated pupils that are unresponsive to light.
A
186
Nonrebreathing systems are generally recommended for patients that weigh
A:
More than 15 lb
B:
Less than 7 kg
C:
Greater than 7 kg
D:
Less than 25 lb
B
187
Highly volatile anesthetics are best suited for
A:
IV administration
B:
Precision vaporizers
C:
Draw-over vaporizers
D:
Open-drop or cone systems
B
188
A dog under anesthesia has a heart rate of 230 beats/min. Which of the following is the best explanation?
A:
This is normal.
B:
The patient is in too deep a plane of anesthesia.
C:
The patient is in too light a plane of anesthesia.
D:
The patient is hypothermic.
C
189
Which of the following has not been associated with long-term exposure to waste anesthetic gases?
A:
Carcinogenic effects
B:
Hepatotoxicity
C:
Decline in short-term memory
D:
Increased incidence of miscarriages
A
190
The presence or absence of salivary and lacrimal secretions may give clues regarding anesthetic depth. In an animal that has not received an anticholinergic, which statement concerning observance of these secretions is most accurate?
A:
Production of tears and saliva increases with increasing anesthetic depth.
B:
Production of tears and saliva is totally absent in light anesthesia.
C:
Tear and saliva production diminishes as anesthetic depth is increased.
D:
Tear and saliva production increases in all stages of anesthesia in the absence of anticholinergics.
C
191
: A 10-year-old dog has been anesthetized for removal of a skin tumor and is now maintained on 2% isoflurane. The anesthetist observes that its respirations are 8/min and shallow, its heart rate is 80 beats/min, its pupils are centrally positioned, its jaw tone is slack, and all of its reflexes are absent. This animal is in what stage and plane of anesthesia?
A:
Stage III, plane 2
B:
Stage III, plane 3
C:
Stage III, plane 4
D:
Stage IV, plane 1
B
192
The values of the PCV/TP may indicate that all of the following are present except
A:
Anemia
B:
Hypoproteinemia
C:
Dehydration
D:
Infection
D
193
What stage of anesthesia may be characterized by vocalization, struggling, and breath holding?
A:
Stage I
B:
Stage II
C:
Stage III, plane 1
D:
Stage III, plane 2
B
194
An abnormally elevated central venous pressure that develops during anesthesia and surgery in an animal receiving intravenous fluids may indicate
A:
Intravenous fluid overload
B:
Increased cardiac output
C:
Dehydration
D:
Liver disease
A
195
A/an ______ in the blood stimulates the animal to take a breath.
A:
Decrease in oxygen saturation
B:
Decrease in carbon dioxide
C:
Increase in carbon dioxide
D:
Increase in pH
C
196
The type of nonrebreathing system that consists of inner tubing surrounded by larger corrugated tubing is
A:
Mapleson A
B:
Ayres T
C:
Norman mask elbow
D:
Baines
D
197
A dog received intramuscularly the correct dose of xylazine. Second-degree heart block and bradycardia developed. Based on the most common cause of this adverse reaction, what would be the best therapy?
A:
No treatment is required.
B:
Yohimbine
C:
Glycopyrrolate
D:
Doxapram
C
198
Surgical evaluation of a dog hit by a car revealed a PCV of 18% and plasma protein below 2.5 g/dl. All of the following are true, except the
A:
Patient is predisposed to pulmonary edema.
B:
Fluid administration rates should be watched closely.
C:
Patient should receive plasma or whole blood before surgery.
D:
Patient should not receive fluid before surgery.
D
199
Which of the following is not likely to result in a patient demonstrating stage II of anesthesia?
A:
Masking an animal with an inhalant anesthetic
B:
Injecting an anesthetic agent IV too rapidly
C:
During recovery, when a premed has not been given
D:
Partial perivascular injection of a barbiturate while inducing anesthesia
B
200
The volume of blood administered to a patient is determined by all of the following except
A:
PCV of the donor
B:
PCV of the recipient
C:
Desired PCV
D:
Age of the recipient
D
201
In a cat that is too deeply anesthetized, all of the following may be present except
A:
Pale mucous membranes
B:
Tachycardia
C:
Bradycardia
D:
Voluntary movement
D
202
Dobutamine is used in emergency anesthetic and clinical situations to
A:
Increase the respiratory rate
B:
Increase cardiac output
C:
Correct cardiac arrhythmias
D:
Decrease the heart rate
B
203
A drug is considered an ______ if its action at the receptor is to stimulate.
A:
Agonist
B:
Antagonist
C:
Anarchist
D:
Antitussive
A
204
The only accurate way to evaluate the effectiveness of respiration is by
A:
Observing abdominal and chest movements during respiration
B:
Counting the respiratory rate
C:
Feeling air move through the endotracheal tube or nostrils
D:
Measuring the arterial blood oxygen and carbon dioxide partial pressures
D
205
Dehydration greater than 10% is
A:
A seriously morbid state
B:
Nothing to worry about
C:
Not something that affects skin turgor
D:
Not associated with depression
A
206
When xylazine is used to induce vomiting before surgery
A:
There is nothing to worry about.
B:
Do not place an endotracheal tube.
C:
Examine the airway for gastric contents before placing the endotracheal tube.
D:
Do not administer atropine.
C
207
Which of the following is not an opioid drug?
A:
Diazepam
B:
Fentanyl
C:
Meperidine
D:
Butorphanol
A
208
Immediately after tracheal intubation in a 3-kg cat you notice extreme respiratory distress. The most likely cause is
A:
Light plane of anesthesia
B:
Hypoxemia
C:
Nothing; this is normal.
D:
Bronchial intubation
D
209
Doxapram may produce all of the following except
A:
CNS excitement
B:
Increased ventilation rate
C:
Respiratory alkalosis
D:
Hypoventilation
D
210
Obesity delays elimination of what drug because of its high lipid solubility?
A:
Propofol
B:
Xylazine
C:
Thiopental
D:
Guaifenesin
C
211
______ may occur because of rapid recovery from isoflurane anesthesia.
A:
Diffusion hypoxia
B:
Second gas effect
C:
Biotransformation
D:
Emergence delirium
D
212
______ is commonly used along with ketamine or thiopental as an induction agent for adult horses.
A:
Propofol
B:
Phenobarbital
C:
Guaifenesin
D:
Isoflurane
C
213
Malignant hyperthermia associated with inhalant anesthesia is most likely to be encountered in
A:
Dogs
B:
Rabbits
C:
Pigs
D:
Sheep
C
214
______ can cause convulsions when administered alone at high doses.
A:
Dissociative anesthetics
B:
Barbiturates
C:
Benzodiazepine tranquilizers
D:
Propofol
A
215
______ is an analgesic and a sedative.
A:
Acepromazine
B:
Atropine
C:
Diazepam
D:
Xylazine
D
216
What drugs will not slow the heart rate?
A:
Anticholinergics
B:
Phenothiazine tranquilizers
C:
Alpha-2 agonists
D:
Gas anesthetics
A
217
An overdose of a barbiturate anesthetic can be appropriately treated with all of the following except
A:
Respiratory stimulant
B:
Fluid therapy
C:
Ventilator support
D:
An increase in the concentration of isoflurane
D
218
______ should not be used as part of the anesthetic plan if the patient has an intestinal obstruction.
A:
Isoflurane
B:
Acepromazine
C:
Nitrous oxide
D:
Atropine
C
219
Sevoflurane is primarily eliminated from the body by
A:
Respiration
B:
Liver metabolism
C:
Feces
D:
Kidney excretion
A
220
Which is the incorrect statement regarding bovine anesthesia?
A:
Nitrous oxide is not suitable for bovine anesthesia.
B:
Cattle should be placed in lateral recumbency during recovery.
C:
The palpebral reflex is still present in cattle at a surgical plane of anesthesia.
D:
Atropine may cause bloat and thus should be avoided in cattle.
B
221
Pediatric patients younger than 3 months that undergo general anesthesia are at higher risk than adult patients for all of the following except
A:
Having a fluid overdose
B:
Developing hypothermia
C:
Developing hypoglycemia
D:
Biting the endotracheal tube in half
D
222
Which of the following would not cause pale mucous membranes?
A:
Stress causing catecholamine release leading to vasoconstriction
B:
Anemia
C:
Hyperthermia
D:
Hypotension
C
223
The effect of intravenous administration of any anesthetic drug is usually detected in
A:
30 to 60 seconds
B:
3 to 5 minutes
C:
15 to 20 minutes
D:
1 hour
A
224
An anesthetized animal should receive sigh breaths every ______ minutes.
A:
15 to 20
B:
3 to 5
C:
10 to 15
D:
5 to 10
D
225
Kidney function can be assessed by the following preanesthetic screening tests except
A:
BUN
B:
ALT
C:
Urinalysis
D:
Creatinine
B
226
Which of the following statements regarding avian anesthesia is incorrect?
A:
IM injections should be given in the pectoral muscle only.
B:
A cuffed tube should be used to maintain inhalant anesthesia.
C:
A nonrebreathing circuit should be used in birds.
D:
Ketamine is not effective in birds.
B
227
The oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood can be assessed by measuring all of the following except
A:
PCV
B:
Hematocrit
C:
Total solids
D:
Hemoglobin
C
228
Charcoal canisters attached to the exhaust of the anesthesia machine
A:
Absorb carbon dioxide
B:
Remove all gas anesthetic agents
C:
Remove all gas anesthetic agents except nitrous oxide
D:
Change color when the canister must be changed
C
229
When cleaning up a gas anesthetic spill, you should do all of the following except
A:
Open windows
B:
Turn on any venting fans
C:
Soak up the agent in absorbent material
D:
Dispose of in a paper bag in the trash in the surgical area
D
230
Which of the following statements about neuromuscular blocking agents is false?
A:
Neuromuscular blocking agents cause profound muscle relaxation.
B:
Neuromuscular blocking agents interfere with acetylcholine activity.
C:
Neuromuscular blocking agents work at the neuromuscular junction (NMJ).
D:
Neuromuscular blocking agents must be injected around the nerve.
D
231
Neuromuscular blocking agents
A:
Cause increased release of inhibitory neurotransmitters
B:
Interfere with transmission of the electrical impulse along the nerve fiber
C:
Disrupt nerve impulse transmission at the NMJ
D:
Block catecholamine release
C
232
Inhalant anesthetics with low ______ have short induction and recovery periods.
A:
Toxicity
B:
Solubility coefficient
C:
Vapor pressure
D:
Biotransformation
B
233
______ pain originates from internal organs.
A:
Somatic
B:
Preemptive
C:
Visceral
D:
Referred
C
234
Recovery from a volatile anesthetic will be prolonged because of all of the following except when
A:
The animal is under for several hours.
B:
A high percent of the anesthetic is biotransformed.
C:
The solubility coefficient is high.
D:
The MAC is high.
D
235
Pin indexing on inhalant anesthetic machines is used to
A:
Blow air out of connections
B:
Check for leaks
C:
Prevent oxygen and nitrous oxide cylinders from being exchanged
D:
Ensure that the oldest tanks are used first
C
236
What agent is excreted largely intact by the cat kidney?
A:
Atropine
B:
Ketamine
C:
Halothane
D:
Acetylpromazine
B
237
Which volatile anesthetic agent is the most potent?
A:
One with a 1 MAC value of 0.59
B:
One with a 1 MAC value of 1.2
C:
One with a 1 MAC value of 5.3
D:
One with a 1 MAC value of 0.09
D
238
Which agent in the table above has the shortest induction and recovery time?
A:
A
B:
B
C:
C
D:
D
B
239
Which agent in the table above has the longest induction and recovery time?
A:
A
B:
B
C:
C
D:
D
C
240
Weaning off of a ventilator should include all of the following except
A:
Reversal of the neuromuscular blocking drug
B:
Increase rate of ventilating breaths
C:
Decrease anesthetic gas concentration delivered
D:
Respiratory stimulant drugs
B
241
Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors
A:
Are reversal agents for depolarizing neuromuscular blockers
B:
Are reversal agents for nondepolarizing neuromuscular blockers
C:
Decrease the concentration of acetylcholine in the NMJ
D:
Increase the breakdown of acetylcholine in the NMJ
B
242
Overinflation of the lungs during artificial ventilation
A:
Is of little concern, except during open-chest surgery
B:
May cause emphysema
C:
May cause oxygen toxicity
D:
May cause the endotracheal tube to disconnect from the anesthesia machine
B
243
An animal that was hit by a car yesterday is having its diaphragmatic hernia repaired. Which of the following anesthetics would be the least desirable?
A:
Isoflurane
B:
Sevoflurane
C:
Nitrous oxide and halothane
D:
Continuous infusion of propofol
C
244
Neuromuscular blocking agents
A:
Provide analgesia
B:
Provide sedation
C:
Paralyze all skeletal muscles except the diaphragm
D:
Do not cross the blood–brain barrier
D
245
Neuromuscular blocking agents
A:
Paralyze skeletal muscles, but all reflexes are maintained
B:
Are also known as peripheral muscle relaxants
C:
Slow gut motility and predispose the patient to bloat
D:
First paralyze the diaphragm
B
246
Local anesthetics
A:
Are readily absorbed through intact skin
B:
Prevent nerve cell depolarization
C:
Are combined with vasodilators to prolong their activity
D:
Are injected directly into the nerve
B
247
______ analgesia is the administration of an analgesic before the pain develops.
A:
Somatic
B:
Preemptive
C:
Visceral
D:
Referred
B
248
The patient is under anesthesia and in shock. Which of the following symptoms would you observe?
A:
Bradycardia
B:
Hypertension
C:
Cyanotic mucous membranes
D:
Excessively long capillary refill time
D
249
To quickly lighten the depth of anesthesia in a patient under inhalant anesthesia, the anesthetist should
A:
Suck all of the anesthetic gas from the lungs
B:
Increase the flow of oxygen
C:
Turn the vaporizer setting off or down
D:
Prevent the patient from taking a breath
C
250
The patient is in an excessively deep plane of anesthesia. Which answer would not be an explanation?
A:
The vaporizer is set at a high concentration.
B:
The IV induction agent was given too quickly.
C:
The pet has a low body temperature.
D:
The endotracheal tube is kinked.
D
251
If the soda lime canister is exhausted, the patient may become
A:
Cyanotic
B:
Too light under anesthesia
C:
Hypercapnic
D:
Hyperthermic
C
252
You have just completed filling the cuff on the endotracheal tube. The pressure relief valve is stuck in the closed position. Your best option is to
A:
Turn up the oxygen flow rate
B:
Start bagging the pet
C:
Disconnect the patient from the anesthesia machine
D:
Continue prepping the pet for surgery, and fix the valve release knob after the surgery is finished
C
253
The patient is dyspneic. You should do all of the following except
A:
Turn down the vaporizer
B:
Check the oxygen flow
C:
Check the endotracheal tube
D:
Disconnect the pet from the anesthesia machine
D
254
The patient is in respiratory arrest. Which of the following is the correct action and reason?
A:
Check the heart, because if the pet is not breathing, then the heart is not beating.
B:
Start ventilating breaths, because arrest is obviously due to an obstructed endotracheal tube.
C:
Tell the surgeon because he or she will be angry.
D:
Turn off the vaporizer, because chances are the pet is too deep, and you need to begin ventilating breaths with oxygen alone.
D
255
Ways to minimize exposure to waste anesthetic gas include
A:
Use of loose-fitting masks
B:
Properly inflate the endotracheal tube cuff
C:
Immediately disconnect of the patient from the anesthesia machine once the procedure is completed
D:
Connect the patient to the breathing circuit after both the oxygen and isoflurane are turned on
B
256
Hypothermia
A:
Prolongs anesthetic induction
B:
Prolongs anesthetic recovery
C:
Is common in obese patients
D:
Is of no concern in neonatal patients
B
257
Isoflurane is mainly eliminated from the body by the
A:
Renal system
B:
GI system
C:
Respiratory system
D:
Hepatic system
C
258
It is generally safe to extubate the patient when the patient
A:
Vocalizes
B:
Swallows
C:
Stands
D:
Can rest in a sternal position
B
259
Which of the following is not a valid reason for administering a preanesthetic medication?
A:
It reduces the amount of general anesthetic for induction.
B:
It may calm an excited animal.
C:
It may reduce possible noxious side effects from the general anesthesia.
D:
It increases patient safety by allowing the animal to stay under the general anesthetic for a longer time.
D
260
The epidural space is located
A:
Just below the supraspinous ligament
B:
In the subarachnoid area
C:
Between the dura mater and the vertebrae
D:
Immediately above the spinal cord
C
261
Epidural anesthesia could be appropriately used for all procedures except
A:
Tail amputation
B:
Cesarean section
C:
Eye enucleation
D:
Perianal surgery
C
262
The drug used for epidural anesthesia is
A:
Thiopental
B:
Ketamine
C:
Propofol
D:
Lidocaine
D
263
Perivascular injection of a barbiturate solution, such as thiopental, can cause
A:
Local anesthesia
B:
Tissue slough
C:
Increased blood pressure
D:
Respiratory acidosis
B
264
High-pressure system tests of the anesthetic machine check for
A:
Escape of anesthetic gas from the machine
B:
Leaks between flowmeter and patient
C:
Oxygen or nitrous oxide leakage
D:
Leaks within the anesthetic circuit and attachments
C
265
The barbiturate anesthetic drug that can be used in sight hounds for its ability to produce faster anesthetic recovery is
A:
Ketamine
B:
Thiopental
C:
Pentobarbital
D:
Methohexital
D
266
The usual induction vaporizer setting for sevoflurane is
A:
2% to 6%
B:
1% to 4%
C:
5% to 7%
D:
Up to 3%
C
267
Which of these is a cyclohexamine agent?
A:
Ketamine
B:
Acetylpromazine
C:
Xylazine
D:
Propofol
A
268
Acepromazine is classified as a(an)
A:
Anticholinergic
B:
Phenothiazine
C:
Benzodiazepine
D:
Thiazine derivative
B
269
What drug is an antagonist of medetomidine (Domitor)?
A:
Yohimbine
B:
Dopram
C:
Atipamezole
D:
Naloxone
C
270
Which of the following drugs is useful in the treatment of prolonged anesthetic recoveries?
A:
Diazepam
B:
Doxapram
C:
Dopamine
D:
Digoxin
B
271
For a large dog receiving CPR, compressions and respirations should be administered at
A:
60 compressions/minute; respirations every 1 to 3 seconds
B:
60 compressions/minute; respirations every 3 to 5 seconds
C:
120 compressions/minute; respirations every 15 seconds
D:
120 compressions/minute; respirations every 3 to 5 seconds
B
272
All are traits of sevoflurane except
A:
Low lipid solubility
B:
Smooth recovery
C:
Nonpungent odor
D:
Severe heart depression
D
273
All are controlled substances except
A:
Acepromazine
B:
Ketamine
C:
Fentanyl
D:
Diazepam
A
274
Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs used to control mild postoperative pain include
A:
Aspirin and xylazine
B:
Diazepam and acetaminophen
C:
Carprofen and ketoprofen
D:
Acetylpromazine and ibuprofen
C
275
All are true statements regarding transdermal use of fentanyl except
A:
Analgesic effect is immediate on placement of the patch.
B:
Patch should be applied to clipped skin.
C:
Patch is normally left in place for 3 to 5 days.
D:
Excessive amounts of drug can be released if the patch is heated.
A
276
The fundamental principle of administering analgesics before the animal has an awareness of pain is
A:
Windup
B:
Preemptive analgesia
C:
Referred pain
D:
Balanced analgesia
B
277
The local anesthetic agent that has the longest duration of action is
A:
Lidocaine
B:
Mepivacaine
C:
Tetracaine
D:
Bupivacaine
D
278
An alpha-2 agonist that provides sedation, muscle relaxation, and analgesia is
A:
Acepromazine
B:
Xylazine
C:
Diazepam
D:
Ketamine
B
279
Ideally, in a patient under anesthesia,
A:
The PaO2 should be high, and the PaCO2 should be low.
B:
The PaO2 should be high, and the PaCO2 should be high.
C:
The PaO2 should be low, and the PaCO2 should be low.
D:
The PaO2 should be low, and the PaCO2 should be high.
A
280
A capnograph measures
A:
Central venous pressure
B:
Expired CO2
C:
Arterial oxygen
D:
Blood pressure
B
281
The false statement regarding nonrebreathing systems is
A:
They must have a CO2 absorber.
B:
They allow quick changes of depth of anesthesia.
C:
High amounts of waste gas are produced.
D:
They use high oxygen flow rates.
A
282
The recommended carrier gas flow rate for chamber induction of a small animal is ______ L/min.
A:
2
B:
5
C:
1
D:
3
B
283
Before administering a general anesthetic, which of the following is the least important part of an animal’s history?
A:
When the animal last ate
B:
When the animal was last vaccinated
C:
Whether the animal has a concurrent disease
D:
Prior anesthetic history
B
284
The false statement regarding scavenging systems is
A:
Waste gases can be safely vented to the floor.
B:
Active systems use a vacuum pump to draw gas into the scavenger.
C:
Passive systems use positive pressure of the gas to push gas into the system.
D:
Waste gas should be collected from the anesthetic machine and conducted to a disposal point.
A
285
For a given inhalation anesthetic agent, a vaporizer setting of ______ times MAC will produce a surgical depth of anesthesia.
A:
2
B:
0.5
C:
1
D:
1.5
D
286
When using a mechanical ventilator, the animal’s chest is under
A:
Continuous pressure
B:
Negative pressure
C:
Positive pressure
D:
No pressure
C
287
To intubate a 45-lb dog, you should select an endotracheal tube with an internal diameter of ______ mm.
A:
5
B:
8
C:
11
D:
15
C
288
The piece of equipment that facilitates intubating a patient is the
A:
Esophageal stethoscope
B:
Laryngoscope
C:
Ophthalmoscope
D:
Otoscope
B
289
Which of the following monitoring devices is invasive?
A:
Pulse oximeter
B:
Central venous pressure manometer
C:
Doppler blood pressure monitor
D:
Oscillometric blood pressure monitor
B
290
Which of the following is least useful for detecting the proper placement of an endotracheal tube?
A:
Observing condensation in the tube with each breath
B:
Detecting one rigid tube, rather than two, in the neck area
C:
Feeling air come out of the tube when pressing on the chest
D:
Seeing the rebreathing bag move with respirations
C
291
A noncuffed endotracheal tube would most likely be used in a
A:
Newborn kitten
B:
Calf
C:
Lamb
D:
Newborn foal
A
292
A dog in an appropriate plane of anesthesia under isoflurane would be expected to have a pulse oximeter reading of
A:
97
B:
120
C:
85
D:
90
A
293
The pulse oximeter probe is generally placed on the
A:
Tongue
B:
Chest
C:
Tail
D:
Nose
A
294
Puppies or kittens delivered by cesarean section that have reduced respiratory function can be given this drug underneath their tongue to stimulate respiration.
A:
Atropine
B:
Doxapram
C:
Epinephrine
D:
Lidocaine
B
295
Which of the following is least commonly used in cattle to perform procedures?
A:
Sedation
B:
Restraint
C:
General anesthesia
D:
Local analgesics
C
296
With dogs and cats, food is most commonly withheld before anesthesia for
A:
1 to 2 hours
B:
3 to 5 hours
C:
6 to 8 hours
D:
10 to 12 hours
D
297
All of the following are appropriate uses of anticholinergic drugs except
A:
As an antidote for organophosphate poisoning
B:
As an agent to increase intestinal peristalsis
C:
As an aid in the treatment of corneal ulcers
D:
As treatment for bradycardia
B
298
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
A:
Phenothiazine tranquilizers may make an animal more aggressive.
B:
Obese animals are often underdosed.
C:
Brachycephalic animals are prone to respiratory complications.
D:
Isoflurane is more respiratory depressive than halothane.
B
299
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
A:
Diazepam is a potent sedative.
B:
Xylazine can cause bloat in deep-chested dogs.
C:
Atropine does not have to be administered with butorphanol.
D:
Opioids can be given by the epidural route.
A
300
Which of the following is not seen when ketamine is administered IV rather than IM?
A:
Lower dose rate used
B:
Quicker onset of effects
C:
Longer duration of effects
D:
Less pain on injection
C
301
Why is apnea sometimes prolonged after barbiturates are administered too rapidly?
A:
Apnea is part of the excitement phase.
B:
Apnea is part of the parasympathetic nervous system stimulation.
C:
Barbiturates cause hypotension.
D:
Barbiturates suppress the respiratory center, making it less sensitive to carbon dioxide.
D
302
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
A:
Barbiturates are not active when protein-bound.
B:
Barbiturates are less potent in their unbound (free) form.
C:
Methohexital can be safely used in sight hounds.
D:
Barbiturates may cause hypotension when administered too quickly.
B
303
Which of the following is (are) not characteristic(s) of propofol?
A:
Rapid induction and recovery
B:
Absence of “hangover effect” with repeated injections
C:
Good postanesthesia analgesia
D:
Smooth recoveries
C
304
Which of the following is not characteristic of ketamine anesthesia?
A:
Increased muscle tone
B:
Tachycardia
C:
Tachypnea
D:
Central pupils
C
305
Advantages of inhalant anesthetics over injectable anesthetics include all of the following except
A:
The ability to quickly change the anesthetic concentration
B:
Less toxic effects on various body systems
C:
Less expensive
D:
Relatively rapid anesthetic induction and recovery
C
306
When inducing anesthesia with intravenous barbiturates,
A:
Give the full dose over 10 seconds.
B:
Give slowly to effect.
C:
Give the full dose over 5 seconds.
D:
Give 1/2 of the dose quickly, the rest to effect.
D
307
Which of the following cannot be used to detect blood pressure?
A:
Oscillometer
B:
Doppler
C:
Sphygmomanometer
D:
Pulse oximeter
D
308
What is the maximum effective length for a scavenger hose used with a passive system?
A:
5 feet
B:
10 feet
C:
15 feet
D:
20 feet
D
309
Postanesthetic myositis is most likely to occur in
A:
Pigs
B:
Horses
C:
Ruminants
D:
Rabbits
B
310
What agent is usually avoided when anesthetizing horses?
A:
Xylazine
B:
Atropine
C:
Guaifenesin
D:
Thiopental
B
311
When using a gas flowmeter with a spherical (floating ball) indicator, the flow should be read
A:
At the top of the indicator
B:
At the bottom of the indicator
C:
At the center of the indicator
D:
Spherical indicators are not in common use.
C
312
A 10% solution of thiopental contains the drug at a concentration of
A:
0.1 mg/ml
B:
1 mg/ml
C:
10 mg/ml
D:
100 mg/ml
D
313
Which of the following is not normally present in stage IV of general anesthesia?
A:
Cool extremities
B:
Weak pulse
C:
Constricted pupils
D:
Bradycardia
C
314
Which of the following is not a potential toxic effect of commonly used local anesthetics?
A:
Arrhythmias
B:
Neurologic damage if injected into a nerve
C:
Seizures
D:
Acidosis
D
315
The ideal inhalant anesthetic should have all of the following characteristics except
A:
Low vapor pressure
B:
High solubility coefficient
C:
Low MAC
D:
Provide good muscle relaxation
B
316
Which of the following is associated with diffusion hypoxia?
A:
Isoflurane
B:
Halothane
C:
Sevoflurane
D:
Nitrous oxide
D
317
Which of the following statements regarding MAC is incorrect?
A:
The MAC expresses the potency of an anesthetic.
B:
A patient at the MAC value is at a surgical plane of anesthesia.
C:
Patient factors such as pregnancy and disease may influence the MAC.
D:
Isoflurane has a lower MAC than sevoflurane.
B
318
How much halothane is biotransformed in the body?
A:
About 1%
B:
About 12%
C:
About 20%
D:
About 50%
C
319
The ideal inhalant anesthetic would have
A:
Low vapor pressure, low MAC, high solubility coefficient
B:
Low vapor pressure, high MAC, low solubility coefficient
C:
High vapor pressure, low MAC, high solubility coefficient
D:
Low vapor pressure, low MAC, low solubility coefficient
D
320
What is included as a preservative in halothane?
A:
Thiamylal
B:
Thiopental
C:
Thymol
D:
Theophylline
C
321
The optimal plane of anesthesia for most surgery is
A:
Stage 3, plane 1
B:
Stage 3, plane 2
C:
Stage 2, plane 2
D:
Stage 2, plane 3
B
322
Which of the following does not describe a true reflex response?
A:
Blink
B:
Toe pinch
C:
Jaw tone
D:
Ear flick
C
323
The pressure in a full medical O2 tank is
A:
500 psi
B:
1000 psi
C:
1500 psi
D:
2000 psi
D
324
For which of the following agents can a nonprecision vaporizer be safely used?
A:
Halothane
B:
Isoflurane
C:
Sevoflurane
D:
None of the above
D
325
For which of the following can a vaporizer not be compensated?
A:
Back pressure
B:
Temperature
C:
Solubility coefficient
D:
Flow rate
C
326
Which of the following is a component of a Bain anesthetic circuit?
A:
Reservoir bag
B:
Unidirectional valves
C:
Oxygen flush valve
D:
Carbon dioxide absorber
A
327
Which is the preferred order of administering emergency drugs?
A:
IC, IT, IV
B:
IV, IC, IT
C:
IT, IV, IC
D:
IV, IT, IC
D
328
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
A:
Furosemide may be used to treat pulmonary edema.
B:
Dopamine is an analeptic stimulant.
C:
When giving medications by the IT route, the dosage rate should be doubled from the IV dose.
D:
Doxapram is a respiratory stimulant.
B
329
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
A:
Neostigmine reverses the effects of succinylcholine.
B:
Succinylcholine is an example of a depolarizing type of muscle-paralyzing agent.
C:
Muscle cells are polarized at rest.
D:
Muscle-paralyzing agents should not be used if an animal has been given an aminoglycoside antibiotic.
A
330
What agent should be avoided in geriatric patients?
A:
Atropine
B:
Xylazine
C:
Ketamine
D:
Diazepam
B
331
For which patients should mask induction with isoflurane be avoided?
A:
Patients undergoing cesarean sections
B:
Patients with impaired cardiac function
C:
Patients with impaired respiratory function
D:
Patients with impaired gastrointestinal function
C
