PAs in Surgery Flashcards

(60 cards)

1
Q

ASA Classifications range from __ to ___ to predict…

A

1-6 (from normal to organ donor)

predict operative risk

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2
Q

The Mallampati score ranges from class ___ to ____ and describes…

A

class 1 to 4

soft palate visualization

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3
Q

Pre-op labs… (7)

A

CBC
Lytes
PT/INR
Preg

+/- UA, BUN/Cr, CXR (> 50 yo)

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4
Q

the below patient should have a pre-operative ____

Men > 45, women > 55
cardiac dz
diuretic use
hx DM, HTN
major surgical procedure
A

ECG

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5
Q

cigarette smoking should be ceased _____ before surgery

A

2 mo

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6
Q

Pulm risk assessment labs/studies… (3)

A

CXR, PFTs, ABGs

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7
Q

The cardiac risk factor score totals ____ points. > ____ warrants concern

A

53 points

> 10 concerning

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8
Q

elevated _____ is a/w increased post-op infx

A

glucose & A1c

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9
Q

Post op DM attempts to maintain sugar between…

A

150-200

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10
Q

at what frequency should blood sugar be monitored post-op in DM?

A

q6hrs

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11
Q

Pre and post-op steroid regimen for adrenal insufficiency…

A

pre-op: 100mg hydrocotisone

post-op 100mg QD tapered over 5 days

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12
Q

MC patient position

used for many general surgery procedures

A

supine

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13
Q

which position?

increased exposure to pelvic organs

used to place central lines

A

trendelenburg

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14
Q

which position?

enhances exposure to abdominal viscera

A

reverse trendelenburg

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15
Q

which position?

used for spinal surg

A

prone

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16
Q

which position?

used for thoracotomy, nephrectomy, retroperitoneal approach

A

lateral

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17
Q

General surgery covers from ____ to _____

A

diaphragm to pelvis

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18
Q

what causes referred post-op shoulder pain after laparooscopy?

A

diaphragm stretch and CO2

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19
Q

The below procedures usually use what approach?

cholecystectomy
appendectomy
inguinal hernia repair
ventral hernia repair
nissen fundoplication
A

laparoscopy

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20
Q

The camera during laparoscopy shouldn’t come in contact with…

A

the bowel

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21
Q

8 procedures surgical PAs commonly perform

A
art lines and IVs
central lines
drain removal
foleys
NG tubes
bedside CT
I & D
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22
Q

how often should wounds be checked post-op?

A

daily

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23
Q

I&Os should be checked with what frequency post-op day 1?

A

q 4-6 hours

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24
Q

if fever post-op day 3-5, what must be r/o?

A

infx

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25
the below would cause a ____ post-op fever... meds blood products malignant hyperthermia
immediate (hours)
26
the below would cause a ____ post-op fever... nosocomial infx UTI apiration pneumonia
acute (1st weeks)
27
the below would cause a ____ post-op fever... SSI central line infx abx diarrhea
subacute (1-4 weeks)
28
the below would cause a ____ post-op fever... infection/abscess
delayed ( > 1 mo)
29
workup for fever 48 hours post-op or temps > 102... (4)
CBC UA Cx blood, urine, sputum CXR
30
4 common causes of post-op fever w/in 0-48 hours
atelectasis infx (GAS) leakage of bowel anastomosis aspiration pneumonia
31
tx of post-op aspiration pneumonia
pulm toilet | abx
32
tx of post-op wound infx
open wound | abx
33
tx of post-op atelectasis (4)
spirometry, cough, deep breathing, ambulation
34
The below usually occur as a fever after post-op day ___ ``` UTI wound infx catheter infx abscess DVT ```
day 3
35
Wound dressings on clean surgical wounds should be left in place for how long?
48hours
36
_______ wounds are packed open to promote hemostasis and drainage. wet/moist dressings should be changed _____
contaminated wounds changed 8-12 hours
37
MC agent of post-op wound infx
group A strep
38
3 common pathogens of post-op wound infx
staph, strep, G-
39
post-op drains help prevent...
seroma/hematoma
40
post-op patient p/w: sudden drainage of pink, serosanguineous salmon colored peritoneal fluid
fascial wound dehiscence
41
fascial wound dehiscence occurs between days __ and __ post-op
5-8
42
optimum time for parenteral prophylactic abx?
30-60 min prior to incision
43
what abx are commonly used for prophylaxis during most operations?
1st/2nd gen cephalosporins
44
MC cause of fever in first 48 hours after surgery?
atelectasis
45
post-op patient presents with: ``` abd. pain fever leukocytosis tachycardia ill appearing ```
intra-abdominal infx
46
workup for suspected intra-abdominal infx
CXR (free air, pleural effusion) CT abd US
47
Patient presents with: ``` fever chills tachy leukocytosis hypotension ```
bacteremia
48
evaluation of bacteremia...
blood cx x 2 catheter cx inspection of IV sites
49
to prevent bacteremia, IV lines should be changed...
q 3 days
50
5 types of debridement...
``` sharp mechanical autolytic enzymatic biologic ```
51
What type of debridement? Uses body’s own enzymes to liquefy necrotic debris and maintain moist wound environment
autolytic
52
can autolytic debridement be used for infected wounds?
no
53
enzymatic debridement is best used on...
eschar/necrotic tissue
54
enzymatic debridement requires a ____dressing
second
55
What is a strategy of mechanical debridement?
wet to dry dressing
56
2 painful types of debridement
mechanical, sharp
57
this is best used for debridement of large wounds that are infected with necrotic tissue
sharp surgical debridement
58
______ has the below characteristics: ``` – Enhances granulation – Clears heavy exudate and infectious material – Increases perfusion to the wound bed – Stretching initiates cell proliferation ```
negative pressure wound therapy
59
_______ is contraindicated in presence of: ``` – Necrotic tissue – Untreated Osteomyelitis – Fistula to body cavity – Malignancy in wound – Exposed artery or vein ```
negative pressure wound therapy
60
lab studies for wound infx...
CBC, ESR