Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Y4 GOSH obs CCs > PassMed wrong Qs > Flashcards

PassMed wrong Qs Flashcards

1
Q

What must be monitored in a patient being treated for eclampsia with magnesium sulphate?

A

-Reflexes
-Respiratory rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the first-line investigation for women >50 with symptoms suggestive of ovarian cancer?

A

Ca-125

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

When is Ulipristel contraindicated for emergency contraception?

A

Patients with asthma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What pattern does women’s BP follow in pregnancy?

A

-Falls in first half
-Rises to pre-pregnancy levels before term
-Placenta formed from 20 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the first-line management of large fibroids in women who wish to conceive in the future?

A

-Myomectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What criteria of ectopic pregnancies indicate surgical management?

A

-Measuring >35mm on TVUS
-bHCG >5000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What 4 main medications are contraindicated in breastfeeding?

A

-Aspirin
-Amiodarone
-Warfarin
-Lithium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the classic 4 symptoms of endometriosis?

A

-Subfertility
-Dysmenorrhoea
-Dyspareunia
-Pelvic pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What could be a cause of abdominal pain in late pregnancy?

A

-Labour
-Placental abruption
-Symphysis pubis dysfunction
-Pre-eclampsia / HELLP
-Uterine rupture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What would cause a whirlpool sign on USS?

A

Ovarian torsion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What factors are taken into account when calculating the Risk Malignancy Index?

A

-Ca-125
-Menopausal status
-USS findings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What medication can suppress lactation?

A

-Cabergoline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What would you be suspecting if a woman suddenly collapsed soon after rupture of membranes?

A

Amniotic fluid embolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How should placental abruption be managed <36 weeks?

A

-If foetus is not compromised –> IV corticosteroid therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the most suitable contraception for a woman with breast cancer?

A

-Copper IUD
ALL hormonal contraception is contraindicated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How should women at risk of pre-eclampsia be managed?

A

Give aspirin from 12 weeks –> birth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How should exposure to VZV in pregnancy be managed?

A

If asymptomatic (ie just contact):
-Test immunity first
-If no VZV IgG present –> give VZ IgG
If presenting within 24h of rash:
-Oral aciclovir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How does chorioamnionitis present?

A

PPROM + triad of symptoms:
-Maternal pyrexia
-Maternal tachycardia
-Foetal tachycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What diabetes medication should be stopped in pregnancy?

A

Gliclazide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

When is anti-D administered antenatally for Rh-negative women?

A

-28 weeks
-If <28 weeks and at risk of sensitisation –> give one dose anti-D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What laboratory findings are normal in pregnancy?

A

-Low urea
-Low creatinine
-Raised protein in urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How long should mag sulf be continued for?

A

-24h after delivery / last seizure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the lower limits of normal Hb in different trimesters in pregnancy?

A

1st trimester = 110
2nd/3rd = 105
Post-partum = 100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What cancers does COCP put you more at risk of?

A

INCREASED risk of BREAST and CERVICAL cancers
DECREASED risk of OVARIAN and ENDOMETRIAL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the first-line management of an overactive bladder and urge incontinence?

A

Bladder retraining

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the best management option of fibroids to reduce their size prior to surgery?

A

GnRH agonists eg triptorelin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What would a macrocytic anaemia indicate?

A

Folate / B12 deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

How should a cord prolapse be managed?

A

-Woman should adopt all fours position
-Keep cord warm and moist and avoid touching it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is Sheehan’s syndrome?

A

-Postpartum hypopituitarism
-Ischaemic necrosis of pituitary due to hypovolaemic shock following birth
-Presents with amenorrhoea, hypothyroidism, problems with lactation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the biggest risk factor for placenta accreta?

A

Previous C-section

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the long-term anti-emetic of choice in pregnancy?

A

Promethazine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

How long can a PT remain positive following TOP?

A

-For up to 4 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

How do molar pregnancies present?

A

-Uterus large for dates
-Hyperemesis gravidarum
-Thyrotoxicosis
-Significantly raised bHCG
-Snowstorm appearance on USS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What combined testing results would indicate Down’s syndrome?

A

-Thickened nuchal translucency
-Increased bHCG
-Reduced PAPPA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

How does the LH:FSH ratio vary in different causes of infertility?

A

-PCOS –> raised LH:FSH ratio (high LH, low FSH)
-Hypothalamic / underweight –> normal ratio (v low LH + FSH)
-Ovarian insufficiency / menopause –> low LH:FSH ratio (high LH, v high FSH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

How should women with a fasting glucose of >7 on diagnosis be managed?

A

-Commenced on insulin immediately

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

When is a Kleihauer test done?

A

-If there is risk of fetomaternal haemorrhage / blood mixing eg in antepartum haemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

When is a salpingostomy elected for over a salpingectomy?

A

SALPINGECTOMY
-First line S-TOP
-Removal of fallopian tube
-If no other RFs for infertility
SALPINGOSTOMY
-2nd line
-Creation of opening into fallopian tube
-If other RFs for infertility eg PID

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What pharmacological treatment is used in urge incontinence?

A

-Anti-muscarinics
eg oxybutynin, tolterodine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What type of HRT increases the risk of breast cancer?

A

-Combined HRT

41
Q

What are the 3 key features of Meig’s syndrome?

A

-Benign ovarian tumour
-Ascites
-Pleural effusion

42
Q

Where is the most common site for ectopic pregnancies?

A

Ampulla of Fallopian tube

43
Q

What is the difference between active and latent first stage of labour?

A

Latent = 0-3cm
Active = 3-10cm

44
Q

What risks are associated with taking ondansetron in pregnancy?

A

-Small risk of cleft lip / palate in the newborn if taken in 1st trimester

45
Q

What is the most common cause of umbilical cord prolapse?

A

Artificial amniotomy

46
Q

What is the most appropriate way to investigate a ?placenta previa?

A

TVUSS

47
Q

What UKMEC would a patient with anti phospholipid antibodies be placed under?

A

UKMEC 4

48
Q

When does the 2nd screen for anaemia and atypical red cell autoantibodies occur in ANC?

A

28 weeks

49
Q

How should women being treated for a DVT be monitored, especially if they are overweight?

A

Anti-Xa activity

50
Q

What HPV types cause cervical cancer?

A

16 + 18

51
Q

What could cause a raised maternal serum AFP?

A

Abdominal wall defects eg omphalocele

52
Q

What is the most suitable form of contraception for women taking enzyme-inducing drugs?

A

Cu-IUD

53
Q

What is the next step in management of endometriosis after NSAIDs / hormonal contraception?

A

GnRH analogues

54
Q

How should women at risk of pre-eclampsia be managed?

A

Aspirin

55
Q

How should thrush be managed in pregnancy?

A

Clotrimazole pessary

56
Q

How long should folic acid be taken for in pregnancy?

A

For the first trimester

57
Q

When should progesterone levels be measured in fertility investigations?

A

7 days before next expected period

58
Q

What should be advised to couples trying to conceive if one or both of them are taking methotrexate?

A

Stop methotrexate 6 months prior to conceiving

59
Q

How long can lochia be expected to be noticed postpartum?

A

6 weeks

60
Q

How do placenta praaevia and vasa praevia present differently?

A

Vasa praevia = foetal blood vessels run across internal os
–Usually rupture of membranes occurs in VP, but does not in PP
–Foetal compromise is a more significant risk in VP compared to PP

61
Q

What side effect do GnRH analogues have?

A

Loss of bone mineral density

62
Q

What quadruple screening test results would indicate Edward’s syndrome?

A

-Low AFP
-Low estriol
-Low bHCG
-Normal inhibin A

63
Q

How is postpartum thyrotoxicosis managed?

A

Propanolol

64
Q

What is a contraindication to HRT?

A

PM bleeding

65
Q

What risk does the progesterone component of HRT carry?

A

Increased risk of breast cancer

66
Q

How do androgen insensitivity and congenital adrenal hyperplasia present differently?

A

AIS = primary amenorrhoea, little pubic hair, elevated testosterone, undescended testes
CAH = primary amenorrhoea, deep voice / hirsutism

67
Q

How should women at risk of eclampsia be managed?

A

-75-150mg aspirin from 12 weeks until birth

68
Q

What contraception is suitable for women taking EIDs?

A

-Cu-IUD
-Depo provera

69
Q

When is AFP raised and when is it low?

A

-Raised in neural tube defects
-Low in Down’s and Edward’s

70
Q

What is Asherman’s syndrome?

A

-Intrauterine adhesions following procedures
-Can cause amenorrhoea

71
Q

What is given as GBS prophylaxis to women in labour?

A

-Benzylpenicillin

72
Q

What advice should be given to women undergoing surgery if they are on the COCP?

A

Stop 4 weeks before, recommence 2 weeks later

73
Q

When is a test of cure and cervical smear done for women with CIN?

A

6 months later

74
Q

When can contraception be re-started after ullipristal and levonorgestrel?

A

Ullipristal = 5 days
Levonorgestrel = immediately

75
Q

What is the most common type of benign ovarian tumour in women under 25?

A

Dermoid cyst (teratoma)

76
Q

What is the best emergency contraception for women who are breast-feeding?

A

-Levonorgestrel / Cu-IUD
-If taking ullipristal, must stop BF for 1 week

77
Q

What is a suitable alternative treatment for urge incontinence for the elderly?

A

Mirabegron
-Oxybutynin = anticholinergic which is associated with confusion in the elderly

78
Q

When should absent foetal movements be investigated from?

A

24 weeks

79
Q

When should ECV be offered to women?

A

From 36 weeks

80
Q

How often should women with HIV have cervical smears?

A

Annually

81
Q

How should chorioamnionitis be managed?

A

Co-amoxiclav
-Cefuroxime + metronidazole if pregnant

82
Q

What is Heroghe’s sign and what condition is it associated with?

A

Sign = loss of lateral third of the eyebrow
Sign of hypothyroidism

83
Q

What does a ‘red velvet halo’ surrounding the cervical os indicate on speculum examination?

A

Cervical ectropion

84
Q

What is frank breech vs complete breech?

A

Frank = legs are fully extended
Complete = legs are flexed at the knee

85
Q

What endometrial thickness raises suspicion of cancer?

A

Thickness >5mm

86
Q

How do you calculate the EDD?

A

LMP + 7 days + 9 months

87
Q

What is classed as an abnormal pH or lactate on foetal blood samples during labour?

A

Abnormal pH = 7.20 or below
Abnormal lactate = 4.9 or above

88
Q

How are ectopic, miscarriage and TOP managed medically?

A

ECTOPIC = methotrexate
MISCARRIAGE + MTOP = mifepristone + misoprostol

89
Q

When should cervical smears be done during pregnancy?

A

Delay until 3 months after birth / termination

90
Q

What is the most common type of fibroid?

A

Intramural

91
Q

What is placenta accreta vs increta vs percreta?

A

ACCRETA = mild - attachment to myometrium with no penetration
INCRETA = moderate - attachment into myometrium but does not invade all the way through
PERCRETA = severe - extends through entire myometrium

92
Q

What can CMV infection during pregnancy cause in the newborn?

A

Hearing loss + learning difficulties

93
Q

How should hypothyroidism be managed in pregnancy?

A

Increase levothyroxine by 25 mcg and check levels after 4 weeks

94
Q

When should ECV be offered from?

A

37 weeks

95
Q

What is the most common type of ovarian cyst?

A

Follicular cyst

96
Q

When is anti-D administered in pregnancy?

A

28 and 34 weeks

97
Q

How should PCOS patients take the COCP?

A

Induce a bleed every 3 months

98
Q

What chemical is applied during colposcopy to help visualise abnormal cells?

A

Acetic acid

99
Q

How should hyperthyroidism be managed in pregnancy?

A

1st trimester = propylthioyuracil
2nd/3rd = carbimazole

Y4 GOSH obs CCs (18 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions