Passpoint Flashcards

1
Q

Caused by loss of calcium and phosphate from the bones, causing easy fractures

A

Osteoporosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Insufficient bone mineralization result of lack Vitamin D, calcium, phosphorous

Softening Bones

A

Osteomalacia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Phebitis is….

A

Inflammation of a vein, often related to IV therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

“______” is a female who has never been pregnant.

A “______” is a female who is pregnant for the first time or has been pregnant once.

A “______” or “______” is a female who has been pregnant more than once.

A

nulligravida

primigravida

multigravida / secundigravida

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

mature female reproductive cell,

Can divide to give rise to an embryo usually only after fertilization by a male cell.

How long do they live

A

Ovum

24 hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

When does ovulation occur in a 28 day cycle

A

Day 14, plus or minus 2 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Why is

Providing wound care for a client’s venous ulcer at an ambulatory clinic near the client’s home

More Community Based Nursing

Than

Organization of blood pressure screening clinic at a shopping mall

A

Community based care is

Providing care for acute and chronic illnesses In the Geographic Region near client’s home

BP screening and health maintenance education are

Population-based and Community Health Initiatives

Distinct from COMMUNITY BASED CARE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the difference between

Developmental Stage & Functional Age

A

Developmental Stage: Understanding cognitive, emotional, social Development

Functional Age: Refers to ability to preform daily tasks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

A potentially dangerous pregnancy complication characterized by high blood pressure.

usually begins after 20 weeks of pregnancy in a woman whose blood pressure had been normal. It can lead to serious, even fatal, complications for both mother and baby.

Name 4 Symptoms

A

Pre-eclampsia

High BP
EpiGastric Pain
Swelling of Hands & Feet
Protein in Urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

_____ A portable device that continuously monitors patient ECG, respiratory rate and/or oxygen saturations while automatically transmitting information to a central monitor.

A

Telemetry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The ______ method is a combination of methods. The two most commonly used are the Basal body temperature method and the cervical mucus method. The Marquette method combines BBT and cervical mucus tracking with use of an electronic hormonal fertility monitor. The monitor detects hormones in urine to confirm fertile days.

A

symptothermal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Laminectomy is….

A

surgery Removing bone spurs and tissues associated with arthritis of the spine.

Removing a small piece of the back part (lamina) of the small bones of the spine (vertebrae).

Laminectomy enlarges the spinal canal to relieve pressure on the spinal cord or nerves.

Laminectomy is often done as part of a decompression surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Hot-cold concept of humoral medicine (Hispanic Folklore)

Health is believed to be a balance between hot and cold elements in the body.

When the body’s equilibrium is upset by being too “hot” or too “cold,” illness can occur.

Balance can be restored by treatment with foods, remedies, or medicines of the opposite valence.

True or False

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Access skin tugor in an elderly

What should nurse keep in mind

Over hydration causes skin tenting

Dehydration causes skin to appear edematous and spongy

Inelastic skin turgor is normal aging

Normal is moist and boggy

A

Inelastic skin tugor is normal part of aging

Dehydration- not over hydration- causes Inelastic skin with tenting.

Normal skin turgor is dry and firm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Match the following

Rapid, deep breathing without pauses.

Shallow breathing with an increased resipatory rate

Breaths gradually become faster and deeper than normal and then slower with periods of apnea

Deep breathing at normal rate.

A. Hyperpnea
B. Cheyne-Strokes
C. Kussmaul
D. Tachypnea

A

C. Kussmaul
D. Tachypnea
B. Cheyne- Strokes
A. Hyperpnea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Weighing the diaper of an infant after micturition revelas an increase in weight of 40 g

How much urine is this

A

40 mL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Best way for nurse to assess for bladder distention in Male & Female clients

A

Palpate for rounded swelling above the pubis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Client with possible concussion should be positioned with HOB @ ….

A

30 degrees

Promoting Venus return from the head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

In hemorrhagic stroke

Monitor ______ to avoid aspiration

A

Gag reflex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Correct placement to palpate the Maxillary and frontal sinuses

A

Maxillary: either side of nose; below the cheekbone (zygomatic bone)

Frontal: just above eye; under the bony ridge of the orbit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

______ increased pressure in an enclosed space that can compromise muscle,vascular, and nerve function, can be caused by a Cast that is too tight.

Name 5 symptoms

A

Compartment Syndrome

Inability to feel light touch
Pain
Paresthesia
Coolness
Pallor distal to cast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

In compartment syndrome associated with a Tight Cast

To reduce swelling and pressure under the cast and promote venous return the nurse should

A

Elevate leg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Bivalve a cast ….

Define

A

To cut a cast to relieve pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

A fat embolism can occur how?

Name 5 manifestaciones

A

Long bone fracture

Hypotension, tachycardia, hypoxemia, dyspnea, petechiae, change in LOC level of consciousness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Fasciotomy is...
Surgery to improve Compartment Syndrome
26
Assess Dark Skinned client for cyanosis. Which is the best spots
Conjunctiva Lips Oral mucos membranes Nail beds are NOT APPROPRIATE ASSESSMENT FOR CYANOSIS IN ANYONE
27
Is a medical scale used to measure the agitation or sedation level of a person
Richmond Agitation-Sedation Scale (RASS)
28
_______ scale is a measurement used to assess pain for children between the ages of 2 months and 7 years or individuals that are unable to communicate their pain. The scale is scored in a range of 0–10 with 0 representing no pain
The FLACC scale or Face, Legs, Activity, Cry, Consolability
29
Rates critically ill patients’ pain based on clinical observation.
Critical Care Pain Observation Tool (CPOT)
30
________ is an easy-to-use and easy-to-evaluate tool designed to help cancer patients and professionals communicate accurately about the prevention and control of nausea and vomiting that may occur with chemotherapy.
The MASCC Antiemesis Tool (MAT) Serotonin receptor antagonists: The cornerstone for preventing nausea and vomiting caused by radiotherapy EXP. 5-HT3 Ondansetron (Zofran) Four-drug regimen: For preventing acute nausea and vomiting after non-AC ChT with a high emetic risk, the guidelines recommend a regimen of: A single dose of a 5-HT-RA Dexamethasone An NK-RA (aprepitant, fosaprepitant, netupitant, fosnetupitant, or rolapitant) Olanzapine
31
Which task is most appropriate for an LPN Assessing Clients oxygen status Assisting client ambulate Administración of tube feeding Reminding client to use the bathroom
Tube food
32
A child with the following symptoms maybe suffering from which disease High fever Muffled speech Inspiratory stridor Drooling
Epiglottitis
33
Client admitted to hospital for Aspiration Pneumonia secondary to progression of Parkinson's disease Which findings should the nurse expect Cough while drinking fluid Muscle flaccid of lower extremities Bilateral upper muscle weakness Tremors in fingers, increased with movement
Cough while drinking fluids
34
Oliguria is a medical term for low urine output (how much you pee). In the case of an adult, this means less than ________ of urine per 24 hour
400 milliliters (mL) to 500 mL (around two cups
35
Which nursing assessment finding in an elderly client with sepsis requires immediate intervention Temp. 97.9 Confusion when listening to instructions Polydipsia <90 mL urine output over past 6 hrs
<90 mL urine in 6 hrs. Decreased urine output Tachypnea Tachycardia Hypotension Associated with deterioration due to sepsis
36
Which is the priority for a client showing symptoms of MI Assess pain level, administration of prescribed Analgesics Assess level of anxiety, provide emotional support Prepare client for pulmonary artery catheterization Ensure family is kept informed
Pain & analgesics Prepare to admin Nitroglycerin or Morphine Priority to stabilize medically Pulmonary Artery Catheterization is used to diagnose: Pulmonary hypertension, Shock, Heart Function
37
Doctors use _______ to diagnose and evaluate common heart and blood vessel problems Chest pain or an abnormal stress test due to coronary artery disease Heart valve conditions like a leaky or narrowed valve, a high blood pressure condition in the lungs Blood clots in the lungs from an embolism Enlarged heart
cardiac catheterization
38
Soft to firm, circular, moveable, unlikely to cause nipple retractions Fibrocystic disease or Cancer
Fibrocyctic Disease
39
Irregular in shape, firm, non moveable, nipple retractions. Fibrocystic Disease or Cancer
Cancer
40
The ear canal slants ____ in children and ____ in adults. To best visualize tympanic membrane in an infant (describe maneuver) To best visualize tympanic membrane in an adult (describe maneuver)
Children Down & Adult Up Grasp auricle with nondominant hand pull Down and Back from 6 - 9 posistion (Child) Grasp auricle with nondominant hand pull Up and Back toward 10 posistion (Adult)
41
Normal intraocular pressure is _____ mm Hg Greater than this range is associated with Type of eye drops and side effect associated with them
10 - 21 Glaucoma Prostaglandin (Change color of iris)
42
In ______ glaucoma, the increase in pressure is often small and slow. In _______ glaucoma, the increase is often high and sudden. Either type can damage the optic nerve
open-angle / closed-angle
43
After suctioning client with trach tube Which finding indicates no further interventions are needed Pulse ox changes 85 to 89 Resp rate drops from 24 to 16 Coughing out yellow sputum Coarse breath sounds in anterior chest diminish
Resp rate drops. Proper suctioning should produce a patent airway as Demonstrated by Resp Rate within norms
44
New onset confusion, headache, Bounding pulse been drinking copious amounts of water and voiding frequently Which abnormal lab value is associated with these findings Serum Sodium: 122 mmol/L Norm (135 - 145 mmol /L) Urine Specific Gravity: 1.041 Norm (1.003 - 1.035) Serum Osmolality 325 mmol/kgH²O Norm (275 -295 mmol/kgH²O)
Hyponatremia Nurse would expect the Serum Osmolality & Specific Gravity to be LOW not HIGH
45
functional nursing, team nursing, primary nursing and total patient care Are all types of...
Nursing care delivery systems
46
A task oriented approach to delivering care Tasks are delegated to team members Team members focus on their specific task - Instead of treating the whole patient
Functional Nursing
47
Led by RN team leader Leader assigns patients to members of the team. Each member is responsible for the individual patient care and outcomes
Team
48
Focus on keeping nurse at bedside Actively involved in patient care One nurse is responsible in managing care from admission to discharge.
Primary/ Relationship Based Practice
49
Nurse take total responsibility of planning and delivering care to patient for an Assigned Time Period
Total patient care approach/ Patient Focused Care
50
Urine output should be ____ in 24 hrs
20ml /h
51
When accessing a client's incision one day after surgery a nurse sees redness and warmth around incision site. Select best action A. Culture the wound B. Apply a cool compression C. Assess for blanching D. Note the wound edges in the client's chart
D. Warmth and redness are normal sign of inflammation and don't require interventions. Blanching would not demonstrate that there is a wound infection
52
Correct technique when applying an elastic bandage to a leg A. Increase tension with each turn of the bandage B. Start at distal end of extremity and move towards the trunk. C. Secure bandage with clips over the area of the inner thigh D. Overlap each layer 2 times when wrapping.
B. Tension should be kept even to prevent circulation impairment Overlapping can impairment circulation Clips placed on the outer aspect of the leg to Avoid Pressure Point on Other Leg
53
Swelling around the eyes and in the feet and ankles Foamy urine Weight gain due to excess fluid retention. Proteinuria and hypoalbuminemia Results in edema and hyperlipidemia History of diabetes places client at risk A kidney disorder that causes the body to excrete too much protein in the urine.
Nephrotic Syndrome
54
Urine culture and sensitivity test identifies....
Organisms in urine
55
Why apply a warm compress Vasodilation/ Vasoconstriction
Vasodilation Promotes circulation Increase tissue metabolism Leukocyte mobility
56
Why apply cold compress to an area Vasodilation/ Vasoconstriction
Vasoconstriction Prevent swelling
57
Why is a cather bag placed in a location below the bladder
To prevent back flow of urine into the bladder
58
To avoid injury, remember The center of gravity is located...
At the Pelvis
59
Which is the correct way for a client to clean a tracheostomy dressing A. Clean around the incision site, using gauze squares and full-strength hydrogen peroxide B. Rinse around the clean incision site, using gauze squares moistened with normal saline. C. Cleaning around the incision site, the client applies cotton-filled gauze squares as a sterile dressing.
B. Use 50/50 hydro peroxide/ saline if crust are difficult to remove. Don't use cotton-filled gauze squares. Use non-raveling material
60
When changing a sterile surgical dressing, a nurse first must A. Wash hands B. Put on sterile gloves C. Remove old dressing while wearing clean gloves D.Open sterile packages and moisten the dressing with sterile saline solution
A. Always wash hands first Remove old dressing while wearing clean gloves Put on sterile gloves Open packages and moisten dressing with saline Are all correct but come after
61
Before bronchoscopy (visualization of the trachea and bronchial tree) the Client is instructed what? Why? After procedure The client is put in semi-Fowlers position
Not to eat 6 hours prior Prevent aspiration
62
What is insensible fluid loss Give examples
Fluid loss that is not easily measured Respitory system, skin, stool
63
Use of Montgomery straps when changing a dressing is...
Prevent skin breakdown The Montgomery straps work to hold dressing in place instead of Tape (which when removed will break skin down)
64
Proper position for AED pads
Right upper sternum Left 5 / 6 intercoastal space left of anterior axillary line
65
Best way to communicate with client with a trachea tube Does a trachea plug help?
Magic slate to write No, a plug is used when being weaned off a trachea
66
First action to take when giving the client the wrong meds
Assess for potential allergies and vitals Then, notify practitioner and charge nurse
67
What action can a nurse take to help minimize loss of calcium from clients bones. A. Provide dairy products at frequent intervals B. Supplemental feedings between meals C. Encourage client to walk down hallway
C. Calcium absorption diminishes with reduced physical activity Due to decreased bone stimulation Dairy products won't help because Additional calcium doesn't increase bone stimulation or osteoblast activity
68
What should a nurse do to a client who presents to the hospital with anaphylaxis shock? A. Admin Diphenhydramine B. Insert IV C. Admin metoprol D. Have resp therapy provide Albuterol treatment E. Monitor International Normalized Ratio IRN Level
A, B, D
69
While cleaning around a G-tube placed 1 week ago and changing the gauze dressing Which type of Precautions are needed. Sterile procedure, droplets Precautions Clean procedure, universal Precautions Clean procedure, contact Precautions Sterile procedure, airborne Precautions
Clean procedure, universal Precautions
70
3 factors for radiation safety
Time, Distance, shielding
71
A blister is found on the heel of a patient with compression stockings. What would be the correct next steps regarding this issue How often does a nurse check skin in compression stockings
Discontinue for Discoloration, markings, or blisters in heel. Notify provider Sequential compression devices will be used instead to prevent DVT
72
Does massage increase or decrease blood flow to the area
Decrease
73
What is the purpose of a Time Out Procedure in the OR.
Review of client safety Review surgical site markings ID correct surgical procedure Confirm clients name band