Past Exam Questions

Question 1

In small animals, the ‘skin tent test’ gives the veterinarians a rough estimate of:

Answer 1

Hydration status

Question 2

What is a GDV?

Answer 2

Gastric dilation and volvulus, common in large-chested breeds, is an acute emergency and requires immediate surgery, 10-25% mortality

Question 3

What are the two commonly used surgical scrub agents?

Answer 3

1. Chlorhexidine (wider bactericidal effect, longer action)
2. Providone-iodine

Question 4

Some veterinary practices have ‘isolation areas’. Isolation areas:

a) Are often separated from rest of the facilities
b) May be used for housing animals with suspected infectious diseases
c) Require specialised nursing and the use of PPE
d) All of the answers listed here are correct

Answer 4

d) All of the answers listed here are correct

Question 5

In relation to the clinical examination of a dog, ‘sinus arrhythmia’:

a) Occurs when there are more than 4 heart sounds
b) Is never normal
c) Is only ever detected when the heart rate is very high
d) Is when the heart rate is closely linked to the breathing pattern

Answer 5

d) Is when the heart rate is closely linked to the breathing pattern

Question 6

In Queensland, enforcement of the Animal Care and Protection Act 2001 is the responsibility of:

a) RSPCA inspectors and Biosecurity Queensland inspectors

b) RSPCA inspectors, Biosecurity Queensland inspectors and the Queensland Police Service

c) RSPCA inspectors, Biosecurity Queensland inspectors, the Queensland Police Service and registered veterinarians

d) None of the above

Answer 6

b) RSPCA inspectors, Biosecurity Queensland inspectors and the Queensland Police Service

Question 7

In relation to the work-up of medical cases, which of the following is TRUE?

a) Differential diagnoses are used to generate the problem list

b) Signalment is rarely useful for the process of clinical reasoning

c) The immediate history generally refers to the information the owner provides about the animal’s husbandry care including prophylactic medication and diet

d) Differential diagnoses can be ranked in order of likelihood, based on the clues at hand

Answer 7

d) Differential diagnoses can be ranked in order of likelihood, based on the clues at hand

Question 8

Which of the following is a published framework to assist clinicians with the consultation process?

a) The 4-Habits Model
b) The Toronto-Oxford Standards for Client Skills
c) The Gatton Model for Veterinary and Medical Communications
d) The Abracadabra Statement

Answer 8

a) The 4-Habits Model

Question 9

In relation to the professional behaviour of veterinarians online, which of the following is recommended?

a) Connecting with clients using personal social media profile/s
b) Reviewing and managing their personal ‘digital footprint’
c) Sharing confidential client and patient details with friends and
colleagues on social media
d) None of the above

Answer 9

b) Reviewing and managing their personal ‘digital footprint’

Question 10

Relationship-centred care is MOST LIKELY to be underpinned by:

a) A paternalistic approach
b) A focus on the biomedical elements of the case
c) Making assumptions about the client’s perspective
d) None of the above

Answer 10

d) None of the above

Question 11

A member of the public calls your clinic for advice to help an adult Masti dog, that was found injured by the roadside. The dog is starting to rouse and has begun snarling and snapping at people, although it cannot get up. Which of the following would you advise as the FIRST step?

a) Use a make-shift muzzle made from cloth or a dog lead to help restrain the dog to prevent injury to rescuers
b)Check the airway for any obstruction
c) Check for any wounds on both sides of its body
d) Look for any fractures that may have gone unnoticed as this is likely causing pain

Answer 11

a) Use a make-shift muzzle made from cloth or a dog lead to help restrain the dog to prevent injury to rescuers

Question 12

An owner calls you to ask if she should make her dog vomit after eating snail pellets 5 minutes ago which you know can cause seizures. The owner has ‘washing soda crystals’ and knows that ‘washing soda crystals’ can be used to induce vomiting. The owner lives in a remote area 4 hours from a veterinary clinic, but the dog is still looking ok. Which of the following is the BEST recommendation?

a) Put the dog in the car and drive to the veterinary clinic as it is too risky to induce vomiting using ‘washing soda crystals’

b) Wait to see if the dog becomes affected and only then give the ‘washing soda crystals’

c) ‘Washing soda crystals’ are ineffective at inducing vomiting in dogs and the owner should use table salt instead

d) Induce vomiting using the ‘washing soda crystals’ immediately

Answer 12

d) Induce vomiting using the ‘washing soda crystals’ immediately

Question 13

An injured dog arrives at your clinic and the airway and breathing appears to be ok. You move on to check the circulation. Which of the following is NOT a perfusion parameter?

a) Mucous membrane colour
b) Capillary refill time
c) Pulse quality
d) Blood pressure

Answer 13

d) Blood pressure

Question 14

The dog is presented to your clinic in prayer position. Which of the following options is MOST LIKELY to explain this posture?

a) Abdominal pain
b) Back pain
c) Forelimb paralysis
d) Hindlimb pain

Answer 14

a) Abdominal pain

Question 15

An owner calls you as she is worried that her Pug is suffering a heatstroke. She describes signs consistent with heatstroke. The owners lives a 45-minute drive from the veterinary clinic. Which of the following would you recommend?

a) Pugs are not usually a breed affected by heatstroke. However, the owner should keep an eye on the dog to see if things become worse and if she is concerned take the Pug to a veterinary clinic

b) Place the dog in an ice bath for 10 minutes and then immediately bring it to the veterinary clinic for assessment.

c) Immediately cool the dog with tap water for 10-15 minutes and then immediately bring it to the veterinary clinic for assessment.

d) Immediately bring the dog to the veterinary clinic.

Answer 15

c) Immediately cool the dog with tap water for 10-15 minutes and then immediately bring it to the veterinary clinic for assessment.

Question 16

Which of the following suture patterns is referred to as an “inverting” pattern?

a) Horizontal mattress
b) Cruciate
c) Cushing
d) Simple interrupted

Answer 16

c) Cushing

Question 17

Which of the following antiseptics may be used on mucous membranes?
a) Dilute chlorhexidine scrub and dilute betadine scrub

b) Dilute chlorhexidine solution and dilute betadine solution

c) Dilute chlorhexidine/alcohol and dilute betadine/alcohol

d) Dilute betadine solution only

Answer 17

b) Dilute chlorhexidine solution and dilute betadine solution

Question 18

You are anaesthetising a pre-medicated foal weighing 125 kg by IV injection. You are using diazepam and ketamine in the same syringe. The Diazepam concentration is 10 mg/ml in a 10 ml bottle. The Ketamine concentration is 100 mg/ml in a 100 ml bottle. The recommended IV dosage of diazepam is 1 mg/kg. The recommended IV dosage of ketamine is 2 mg/kg. How many mg of ketamine are required?

a) 62.5
b) 125.0
c) 250.0
d) 187.5

Answer 18

c) 250.0

Question 19

You are speying a 30 kg dog and want to administer IV uids supplying 20 drops per ml. The recommended rate of administration is 6 mls/kg/hr. The rate of administration in mls per hour will be:

a) 180
b) 18
c) 90
d) 300

Answer 19

a) 180

Question 20

You are anaesthetising a pre-medicated foal weighing 125 kg by IV injection. You are using diazepam and ketamine in the same syringe. The Diazepam concentration is 10 mg/ml in a 10 ml bottle. The Ketamine concentration is 100 mg/ml in a 100 ml bottle. The recommended IV dosage of diazepam is 1 mg/kg. The recommended IV dosage of ketamine is 2 mg/kg. How many mls of diazepam should you draw up into your syringe?

a) 12.50
b) 6.25
c) 18.75
d) 25.00

Answer 20

a) 12.50

Question 21

You are speying a 30 kg dog and want to administer IV uids supplying 20 drops per ml. The recommended rate of administration is 6 mls/kg/hr. The rate of administration in drops per minute will be:

a) 40
b) 30
c) 60
d) 50

Answer 21

c) 60

Question 22

Ethical awareness or sensitivity refers to:

a) Knowledge about legislation and codes of conduct
b) Developing individual and professional qualities as a lifelong learner
c) Recognising ethical issues and the values and viewpoints of others
d) Development of ethical reasoning skills

Answer 22

c) Recognising ethical issues and the values and viewpoints of others

Question 23

Animals general have three (3) perceptions of people. These are:

a) High, Low, Neutral
b) Positive, Neutral, Feared
c) Positive, Negative, Zero
d) Positive, Negative, Neutral

Answer 23

d) Positive, Negative, Neutral

Question 24

A mentally healthy workplace is one that:

a) Actively identifies and minimises risks of psychological harm
b) Promotes positive practices that support mental health
c) Builds the knowledge, skills, and capabilities of workers to be resilient and thrive at work
d) All of the answer choices are correct

Answer 24

d) All of the answer choices are correct

Question 25

In relation to the origins of 'veterinary science', which of the following is true/correct? a) Veterinary science developed as a 'spin off' from human medical training around 50 years ago b) The practice of veterinary science, as a profession, can be traced back to the origins of the other noble professions - the clergy, medicine and law c) The activities of veterinarians today differ from those of the early veterinarians in Europe d) Both a. and c. above

Answer 25

c) The activities of veterinarians today differ from those of the early veterinarians in Europe

Question 26

The Australian and New Zealand College of Veterinary Scientists: a) Published their first journal issue in 1925 b) Provides specialty training pathways c) Introduced the Animal Care and Veterinary Services Award in 2010 d) Both a. and c. above

Answer 26

b) Provides specialty training pathways

Question 27

In relation to the 'diagnostic process' and clinical records: a) The 'S" in the acronym S.O.A.P roughly correlates to the historical information provided by the owner b) The diagnostic plan generally precedes the problem list c) Prognosis refers to the likelihood of the owner to administer the recommended treatment d) Both a. and c. above

Answer 27

a) The 'S" in the acronym S.O.A.P roughly correlates to the historical information provided by the owner

Question 28

Stethoscopes are an important diagnostic tool for veterinarians. Which of the following is a stethoscope not used for in small animals? a) Listening for abnormalities in the integumentary system b) Determining heart rate c) Detecting irregularities in heart rhythm d) Identify problems in the lower respiratory system

Answer 28

a) Listening for abnormalities in the integumentary system

Question 29

In relation to the qualifications of staff employed by veterinary practices in Australia, which of the following is true? a) Kennel Hands generally possess a Certificate 4 in Veterinary Husbandry b) Veterinary Technicians trained in the US may possess an Associate Degree c) The nationally recognised qualification for Veterinary Nurses in Australia currently is the Diploma in Veterinary Nursing d) Practice Managers must possess an MBA

Answer 29

b) Veterinary Technicians trained in the US may possess an Associate Degree

Question 30

In relation to veterinary practices in Australia, which of the following is true? a) Drug and merchandise sales reflect the most important income revenue source b) Veterinary practices are rarely profitable c) Veterinary practices have high fixed costs d) Both b. and c. above

Answer 30

d) Both b. and c. above

Question 31

Members of the QLD Veterinary Surgeons Board are appointed under state legislation to implement and interpret the Veterinary Surgeons Act. Which of the following is not a role assigned by legislation to the Board? a) To regulate the practice of veterinary science in QLD b) To act in the public interest c) To ensure consumer protection in the delivery of veterinary services d) To act on behalf of the veterinary profession to deflect criticisms and complaints from clients

Answer 31

d) To act on behalf of the veterinary profession to deflect criticisms and complaints from clients

Question 32

In Queensland, enforcement of the Animal Care and Protection Act 2001 is the responsibility of: a) RSPCA inspectors and Biosecurity Queensland inspectors b) RSPCA inspectors, Biosecurity Queensland inspectors and the Queensland Police Service c) RSPCA inspectors, Biosecurity Queensland inspectors, the Queensland Police Service and registered veterinarians d) None of the above

Answer 32

b) RSPCA inspectors, Biosecurity Queensland inspectors and the Queensland Police Service

Question 33

The State Veterinary Boards in Australia: a) Providing legal defence for veterinarians against client complaints b)Are governed by the national/ federal Veterinary Surgeons Act 1936 (and subsidiary regulations) c) Provide direct oversight of undergraduate veterinary student training at each State University d) None of the above

Answer 33

b)Are governed by the national/ federal Veterinary Surgeons Act 1936 (and subsidiary regulations)

Question 34

In relation to veterinary employability in Australia, which of the following is true? a) Good communication skills and a positive attitude are valued highly by employers b) Clinical knowledge and skills are the most important selection factors considered by employers of new graduate veterinarians c) Veterinary graduates possess limited transferable skills d) Both a. and b. above

Answer 34

a) Good communication skills and a positive attitude are valued highly by employers

Question 35

Which of the following attribute/ quality/ notion is NOT generally ascribed to a "profession"? a) High ethical standards and a 'code of ethics' b) A unique and specialized body of knowledge and skills c) A rejection of altruism d) Relative autonomy and self-regulation

Answer 35

c) A rejection of altruism

Question 36

In relation to veterinary professionalism, which of the following is true? a) When faced with ethical dilemmas, veterinarians will always consider the rights of animals ahead of the rights of their owners b) In Australia, animals have the same legal status as any other belongings a person may own c) Rollin's 'fundamental question' of veterinary ethics questions the morality of veterinarians treating animals when people across the world are suffering and in need of medical assistance d) None of the above

Answer 36

d) None of the above

Question 37

The term "Normative veterinary ethics": a) Relates to the case-by-case ethical decision-making of veterinarians as they go about their workplace activities b) Describes the legislative framework that guides ethical decision-making in veterinarians c) Is the collective term for the various codes of ethics adopted by the veterinary profession in different countries d) Is captured by the compulsory oath recited by all veterinarians following graduation from Australian universities

Answer 37

a) Relates to the case-by-case ethical decision-making of veterinarians as they go about their workplace activities

Question 38

In relation to the legal status of animals in Australia, which of the following is true? a) Companion animals (for example dogs and cats) have greater legal rights than production animals (for example cattle and sheep) b) Owners and clients are legally required to attend to the welfare of animals in their care c) The '5 freedoms' only apply to production animals d) All of the above

Answer 38

b) Owners and clients are legally required to attend to the welfare of animals in their care

Question 39

In relation to the use of empathy by veterinarian in clinical consultations, which of the following is true? a) Empathy is only useful when directed at the client, not the patient b) Empathy should be avoided because it is largely deemed to be unprofessional c) Successfully communicating empathy involves both correctly interpreting the client's feelings and delivering your message in an appropriate verbal and/or non-verbal way d) Faking empathy until you start to develop real feelings is recommended

Answer 39

c) Successfully communicating empathy involves both correctly interpreting the client's feelings and delivering your message in an appropriate verbal and/or non-verbal way

Question 40

Asepsis is best described as: a) Complete sterility in the surgical field b) Absence of bacteria in the surgical field c) Absence of pathogenic microbes in the surgical field d) Pathogenic microbes may be present but in acceptably low numbers

Answer 40

c) Absence of pathogenic microbes in the surgical field

Question 41

Which of the following antiseptics may be used on mucous membranes? a) Dilute chlorhexidine scrub and dilute betadine scrub b) Dilute chlorhexidine solution and dilute betadine solution c) Dilute betadine solution only d) Dilute chlorhexidine/alcohol and dilute betadine/alcohol

Answer 41

c) Dilute betadine solution only

Question 42

With respect to haemostasis which of the following is NOT true? a) Excess haemorrhage may be life threatening b) Excess blood can obscure the surgical field c) Excess blood is an ideal medium for bacterial growth d) Excessive haemorrhage may induce bradycardia

Answer 42

d) Excessive haemorrhage may induce bradycardia

Question 43

When animals are anaesthetised, which of the following changes in vital signs may be expected? a) A fall in rectal temperature, especially in small and young animals b) A prolonged capillary refill time and mucous membrane pallor c) Pulse deficits d) Both a. and b. above

Answer 43

d) Both a. and b. above

Question 44

What best defines a zoonosis? a) A newly emerged pathogen which is naturally transmissible from animals to humans b) An infection which is directly transmissible from animals to humans i.e. has no intermediary such as the environment c) An infection which is naturally transmissible from animals to humans but not vice versa d) Any infection which is naturally transmissible between animals and humans

Answer 44

d) Any infection which is naturally transmissible between animals and humans

Question 45

The human-animal bond represents a unique relationship between man and companion animals. Understanding of the human-animal bond is critical to the daily practice of the veterinary technologist in clinical practice. Identify which of the following statements about the findings of studies conducted on the human-animal bond is NOT correct. a) Children owning pets tend to be more involved in activities such as sports, hobbies and clubs b) Pet owners of all ages have better psychological well-being compared to non-pet owners c) Children exposed to pets during the first year of life are more likely to have asthma d) Older Australians who own pets are more likely to remain in their own home

Answer 45

c) Children exposed to pets during the first year of life are more likely to have asthma

Question 46

During a consultation, your attempts to examine a 9 year old pug cross are challenged by her obvious desire to be in very close contact with her owner. The dog struggles to get as close to his owner as possible. Which of the following Attachment Styles (as described by Bowlby) most closely explains the dog's behaviour? a) Proximity Maintenance b) Separation Distress c) Safe Haven d) Secure Base

Answer 46

c) Safe Haven

Question 47

Which of the following summarise the three components of combating Compassion Fatigue? a) Prevention, Preclusion, Healing b) Prevention, Healing, Curing c) Prevention, Preclusion, Coping d) Prevention, Coping, Healing

Answer 47

d) Prevention, Coping, Healing

Question 48

Which of the following options is the least suitable choice for skin preparation prior to a surgical procedure? (a) Chlorhexidine surgical scrub. (b) Alcohol. (c) 0.9% Sodium Chloride solution. (d) Alcohol-Chlorhexidine solution

Answer 48

SODIUM CHLORIDE.

Question 49

In relation to veterinary surgery which of the following options is the appropriate way to achieve ‘Gentle Tissue Handling’? (a) Using dry laparotomy sponges during an exploratory abdominal surgery to keep tissues dry. (b) Using appropriate instruments to minimise tissue trauma. (c) Avoid any use of stay sutures. (d) Only use sharp dissection when dissecting through tissues

Answer 49

B.

Question 50

Children who see or practise animal abuse: (a) Are less likely to engage in these behaviours as adults. (b) Are at an increased risk of growing up to become violent adults. (c) Are less likely to abuse people. (d) Are at an increased risk of becoming a hoarder

Answer 50

B

Question 51

Growth Mindset is:

Answer 51

The belief that the ability to learn is not fixed and improvement can happen through effort and perseverance.

Question 52

Eudaimonia:

Answer 52

a state of flourishing

Question 53

In Australia which body regulates veterinary practice and deals with client complaints about veterinarians? (a) The Australian Veterinary Association (b) The Australasian Veterinary Boards Council (c) The relevant State Veterinary Surgeons Board (d) The Australian and New Zealand Veterinary College

Answer 53

C

Question 54

Of the following important professional bodies/ organisations which was the FIRST ESTABLISHED (chronologically)? (a) The Australian Veterinary Association (b) The Australasian Veterinary Boards Council (c) Veterinary Nurses Council of Australia (d) The Australian and New Zealand Veterinary College

Answer 54

A

Question 55

The nationally recognised qualification for veterinary nurses in Australia is the: (a) Diploma in Veterinary Nursing (b) Bachelor of Veterinary Nursing and Technology (c) Certificate 4 in Veterinary Nursing (d) Certificate 3 in Animal Studies

Answer 55

C

Question 56

What does WNL mean?

Answer 56

Within normal limits

Question 57

The 6 perfusion parameters commonly evaluated in dogs and cats are:

Answer 57

1. Mentation (level of consciousness) 2. Capillary refill time (CRT) 3. Heart rate 4. Pulse quality 5. Mucous membrane color 6. Respiratory rate or effort

Question 58

Which of the following sentences about pressure bandage is true? (a) Pressure bandage is not an appropriate way to eliminate dead space and should be avoided at all costs (b) Pressure bandage should be avoided in the limbs as it can affect the patient’s ability to walk after surgery (c) Pressure bandage needs to be applied for at least 1-2 weeks to be able provide adequate elimination of dead space. (d) Pressure bandage on the cervical (neck) region should be avoided due to risks of asphyxiation

Answer 58

D

Question 59

Which of the following options is NOT one of the Halsted’s principles of surgery? (a) Gentle tissue handling (b) Elimination of dead space (c) Appropriate use of antibiotics (d) Preservation of blood supply

Answer 59

C

Question 60

When monitoring an anaesthetic which of the following is LEAST IMPORTANT in terms of establishing physiological stability? (a) Pulse rate; rhythm and vessel tone (b) Respiratory rate and depth (c) Oral mucous membrane colour and refill time (d) Response to noise

Answer 60

D

Question 61

Which of the following veterinary imaging modalities utilise gamma rays? (a) Fluoroscopy (b) Nuclear scintigraphy (c) Computed tomography (d) Plain film radiography

Answer 61

B

Question 62

Which of the following veterinary imaging modalities does not require a special use licence? (a) Plain film radiography (b) Computed tomography (c) Fluoroscopy (d) Ultrasound

Answer 62

D

Question 63

Challenges to interprofessional teamwork in veterinary practice? (a) Diversity, non-hierarchical structures, and lack of understanding of collaboration. (b) Diversity, an over-reliance on electronic communication and non-hierarchical structures. (c) Non-hierarchical structures, poor verbal communication, and lack of understanding of business principles. (d) Hierarchical structures, poor communication, and lack of understanding of roles.

Answer 63

D

Question 64

When considering the four (4) attachment behavioural systems in Bowlby’s Attachment theory, which of the following scenarios would best describe ‘Secure Base’? (a) In an attempt to take an 8-month-old Maltese from a consult room to the treatment room for examination, the patient frantically tries to return to its owner, pulling away from you and vocalising. (b) Upon entry to a consult room you notice your patient, a 4-year-old female Staffordshire Bull Terrier, is exhibiting signs of anxiousness. During the examination you notice that she appears more comfortable when she is in physical contact with the owner. (c) A young kelpie becomes overwhelmed at the dog park when approached by 3 other dogs. He is seen to quickly search for his owner as a means of coping with what appears to be a stressful situation for him. (d) A 7-year-old Cattle Dog presents to the clinic with a cut to her lip and face. Her owners said they went to the shops for 30 minutes and came home to a chewed and broken door.

Answer 64

C

Question 65

Compassion fatigue:

Answer 65

A state of emotional, physical, and spiritual exhaustion that can result from prolonged exposure to trauma or suffering in others (secondary trauma)

Question 66

Which of the following are part of the 6 perfusion parameters when evaluating dogs and cats? (a) Mentation, respiratory rate, mucous membrane colour (b) Capillary refill time, respiratory effort, mucous membrane moisture (c) Capillary refill time, heart rate, pulse quality (d) Mentation, pulse quality, ventilation

Answer 66

C

Question 67

While declawing of cats (onychectomy) is performed in some jurisdictions, it is increasingly frowned upon. Which of the following statements in relation to onychectomy is most consistent with a virtue ethics approach? (a) The costs borne by declawed outweigh the benefits to other stakeholders (b) Altering a cat’s claws infringes its bodily integrity (c) A conscientious, compassionate vet would not declaw a cat (d) Veterinarians have a right not to perform particular veterinary services

Answer 67

C

Question 68

Rollin’s ‘fundamental question’ of veterinary ethics refers to the tension of ...

Answer 68

The responsibilities of veterinarians to both animals and clients

Question 69

In relation to veterinary imaging, the four (4) pillars of radiation safety are:

Answer 69

1. Time 2. Distance 3. Shielding 4. Common sense