past paper questions 2 Flashcards

1
Q

32 y/o female EPAU

pc: 6 weeks amennorrhoea, positive pregnancy test, LIF pain, small vaginal bleed 1 day ago.

possible gynae causes?

A
  • ectopic pregnancy
  • ovarian cyst
  • miscarriage

onset of pain 1 week prior to bleeding classically suggests ecotpic pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

complications of copper coil

A
  • pain
  • irregular bleding
  • infection
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

psuedomonas aureginosa gram stain and shape

A
  • gram negative

- rod

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

non-invasive method to confirm diagnosis of MS

A

MRI of brain

  • high signal lesions (plaques) on white matter tract
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

36 y/o female

pc: 3 week hx of sensory symptoms in left arm, started with tingling in her hand, spread over 3 days up her arm.
pmh: 7 years ago painful loss of vision in left eye which resolved in 2 weeks

OE: loss of light touch and pinprick sensation in left upper limb, otherwise normal

most likely diagnosis?

A

Multiple sclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

36 y/o patient with diagnosis of MS confirmed by MRI.

symptoms resolve, but one year later she presents with numbness, ascending to umbilicus and weakness in both limbs.

what treatment could be offered?

A
  • relapse
  • IV Methyl prednisolone
  • high dose oral steroids
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

49 y/o patient

pmh: diagnosed with MS aged 36

has had progressive deterioration.

main symptoms now are:

  • painful spasms in legs
  • urinary frequency
  • urgency
  • occasional incontinence

what treatments may help her symptoms?

A

Pharmacological
- anti-cholingeric drugs

Non-pharmacological
- self-catheterisation / intermittent catheterisation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

57 y/o

pc: 9 month hx shaking in right hand, writing getting smaller as he writes

OE: resting remor, R hand abolished on purposeful movements, mild cogwheel rigidity at right wrist , slowness in snapping

gait normal, but right arm significantly flexed at elbow, doesn’t swing properly as he walks

most likely diagnosis?

A

Parkinsons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

pathophysiology of Parkinsons?

A
  • loss of dopaminergic neurones from this substantia nigra
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

most appropriate management for:

31 y/o female, 15cm fundal fibroid, pelvic adhesions and severe menorrhagia.

has completed family

options:

a) anterior repair (colporrhaphy)
b) bilateral oophorectomy
c) bilateral tubal ligation
d) left ovarian cystectomy
e) left oophorectomy
f) total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy and omentectomy
g) total abdominal hysterectomy with ovarian conservation
h) transvaginal tape (TVT) urethral sling
i) vaginal hysterectomy
j) Wertheim’s (radical) hysterectomy

A

total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy and omentectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

most appropriate intervention for 65 y/o female with bilateral mixed solid/cystic ovarian masses, ascites and raised Ca 125.

a) anterior repair (colporrhaphy)
b) bilateral oophorectomy
c) bilateral tubal ligation
d) left ovarian cystectomy
e) left oophorectomy
f) total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy and omentectomy
g) total abdominal hysterectomy with ovarian conservation
h) transvaginal tape (TVT) urethral sling
i) vaginal hysterectomy
j) Wertheim’s (radical) hysterectomy

A

f) total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy and omentectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

28 y/o nulliparous woman with infertility

  • marked cyclical pain
  • occurs ten days preceding onset of heavy periods
  • negative pregnancy test
  • US shows 4cm echogenic ovarian cyst
A

endometriosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

a 42 yr old woman presents to her GP with severe right iliac fossa pain, feeling faint, and shoulder tip pain. She has no vaginal bleeding, but she has a positive pregnancy test. There is no pregnancy seen on transvaginal ultrasound.

A

ectopic pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

45 y/o

  • regular heavy periods
  • haemoglobin level of 8g/dl

Abdo examination

  • irregular, hard mass arising from pelvis
  • size of 20 week pregnancy

most likely

A

uterine fibroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

a 58 year old woman with type 2 diabetes. She has had no periods for 9 years, but presents with a sudden heavy painless bleed.

most likely:

a) appendicitis
b) constipation
c) dysmenorrhoea
d) ectopic pregnancy
e) endometrial carcinoma
f) endometriosis
g) follicular cyst
h) incomplete miscarriage

A

endometrial carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

a 35 year old woman who finds that she has been unable to pass urine normally since the forceps delivery of her 4.2 kg baby a week ago. She now loses a dribble of urine intermittently throughout the day, and feels constantly as if she wants to pass urine. She also has lower abdominal discomfort and a central pelvic mass.

A

overflow incontinence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

a 48 year old multiparous woman who has noticed that she loses a dribble of urine when she coughs. She feels a fullness in the vagina. On examination, there is a ‘lump’ protruding from the anterior aspect of the vagina.

A

cystocele

A cystocele is when the wall between the bladder and the vagina weakens. This can cause the bladder to drop or sag into the vagina. It may be caused by things that increase pressure on the pelvic muscles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

a 38 year old woman who needs to dash to the toilet when she has the urge to pass urine. Sometimes she leaks when she is unable to reach the toilet in time. She now has stopped going out unless she knows there is a toilet nearby.

A

detrusor instability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

a woman who presents to antenatal clinic feeling uncomfortable at 34 weeks. Her uterus measures ‘large for dates’ and it is difficult to palpate fetal parts.

most appropriate test to help make diagnosis?

A

ultrasound assessment of liquor volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

is produced by the ovary in the first trimester, but by the placenta in the second and third trimesters. Synthetic forms of it are given in the ‘mini-pill’.

A

progesterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

is produced in large amounts by the growing follicle in the ovary

A

oestradiol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

is produced by the posterior lobe of the pituitary gland. A synthetic form of it may be given to women to treat slow progress in labour.

A

oxytocin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is nephrotic syndrome?

A
  • condition that causes kidneys
  • to leak large amounts of protein into urine
  • may cause sweling of body tissues, greater chance of catching infection
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what should be looked for in a blood result for nephrotic syndrome?

A

serum albumin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
what should be looked for in a blood result for acute renal failure?
serum urea
26
what should be looked at in a blood result for gilbert's syndrome?
serum bilirubin gilberts syndrome:
27
In a newborn infant, this is associated with: | 1. pitting oedema of the lower limbs and a short neck.
Turner's syndrome (genotype XO)
28
In a newborn infant, this is associated with: an increased respiratory rate for 24 hours in an otherwise well infant
transient tachypnoea of the newborn
29
In a newborn infant, this is associated with: overwhelming neonatal infection presenting 24-48 hours after birth.
maternal vaginal group B streptococcal carriage
30
in a new born infant, this is associated with: marked cyanosis but not dyspnoea
transposition of great arteries
31
7 y/o well female pc: - rash all over back, buttocks, spreading down back of legs - numerous discrete raised lesions with white centres - not itchy - creamy white stuff exuded from the centre indicative of:
molluscum contagiosum
32
7 y/o girl pc: - lesion on face - spread all over cheek - discrete - inflamed edges - covered in a golden, crusty but weeping, scab indicative of:
impetigo
33
7 y/o girl pc: unwell for 3 days - off her food, feverish, red eyes - had spot behind her ear - now covered with spots - all over trunk and face - spots are discrete and intensely itchy - some on her abdomen look like blisters indicative of:
chicken pox
34
7 y/o girl well in morning but sent home after vomiting her lunch. looks pale and unwell. OE: discrete purple spots on her chest, do not blanch under pressure. dr gives injection, urgently take her to hospital. indicative of:
meningococcal septicaemia
35
a 7 year old girl is seen by the school nurse because she is constantly scratching in class. She has a generalised red rash on her arms and neck and is sore from the scratching. She says her elder brother is scratching too. The school nurse notices that she has several raised tracks between the fingers on her left hand.
scabies
36
a 74 year old man complaining of gradually worsening vision, particularly when reading. The printed lines look wavy and distorted. Ophthalmoscopy reveals drusen (lipid and protein deposits under the retina). indicative of:
age related macular degeneration
37
episodic attacks of vertigo, tinnitus and hearing loss and gradually progressive deafness between attacks.
menieres disease
38
conductive hearing loss due to hardening of the stapes (or stirrup) in the middle ear.
otosclerosis
39
common side effects of metformin
GI symptoms notabily diarrhoea
40
most likely to occur from long term oral steroid use?
osteoporosis
41
This is most likely to occur in patients taking: ferrous sulphate
constipation
42
common antibiotic used for urinary tract infections?
trimethoprim
43
which drug is the most appropriate antidote for the following a) warfarin b) paracetamol c) ethylene glycol d) dihydrocodeine e) iron
a) warfarin - vitamin K b) paracetamol - N-acetylcysteine c) ethylene glycol - ethanol d) dihydrocodeine - naloxone e) iron - desferrioxamine
44
what condition should respond to treatment with a corticosteroid? a) angina pectoris b) asthma c) cholera d) dental caries e) diabetes insipidus f) diabetes mellitus g) halitosis h) hypoglycaemia i) oral candidiasis (thrush) j) peptic ulcer k) polydipsia l) transient ischaemic attack (TIA) m water-brash
asthma
45
name four risk factors that might put you at risk of cervical carcinoma?
- early sexual activity - increased number of sexual partners - not using condoms - multiparity - HPV
46
most common cause of cervical cancer is?
- infection with human papillomavirus (HPV) 80% of cervical cancers are squamous cell carcinoma, then adenocarcinoma.
47
what four presenting symptoms would make you consider a diagnosis of cervical cancer as a differential?
- abnormal vaginal bleeding (intermenstrual, post-coital or post-menopausal bleeding) - vaginal discharge - pelvic pain - dyspareunia
48
what is the next line when you suspect cervical cancer?
- speculum | - if abnormal cervical appearance, then urgent cancer referral for colposcopy
49
four appears on colposcopy which may suggest cervical cancer?
- ulceration - inflammation - bleeding - visible tumour
50
grading system used for level of dysplasia in cells of the cervix?
CIN = cervical intraepithelial neoplasia CIN I: mild dysplasia, affecting 1/3 the thickness of the epithelial layer, likely to return to normal without treatment CIN II: moderate dysplasia, affecting 2/3 the thickness of the epithelial layer, likely to progress to cancer if untreated CIN III: severe dysplasia, very likely to progress to cancer if untreated
51
what is dyskaryosis?
- examination of fluid containing collection of cells from cervix - precancerous changes in this fluid are known as dyskaryosis.
52
It is decided that the CIN = cervical intraepithelial neoplasia area is going to be excised. what procedures may be performed? list two complications
- large loop excision of the transformation zone (LLETZ) - cold knife cone biopsy - laser cone biopsy complications: - bleeding, infection, cervical scarring, cervical incompetence
53
On otoscopy, what clinical picture is likely to be found in acute otitis media.
erythema and bulging of the tympanic membrane
54
1st choice of antibiotic for otitis media would be?
amoxycillin
55
Which of the following would be a contra-indication to administering adenosine? a) COPD b) Asthma c) Heart failure d) IHD e) treatment with adenosine
asthma
56
name a side effect of adenosine administration ?
shortness of breath feeling of impending doom
57
name three anti-arrythmic drugs?
1. amiodarone 2. digoxin 3. adenosine
58
four key x-ray changes seen in osteoarthritis?
L- loss of joint space O -osteophytes S - subchondral sclerosis S - subchondral cysts
59
is osteoarthritis worse or better with movement?
osteoarthritis presents with joint pain and stiffness - worsened by activity - leads to deformity, instability and reduced function in joint NICE (2014) suggest that a diagnosis can be made without any investigations if the patient is over 45, has typical activity related pain and has no morning stiffness or stiffness lasting less than 30 minutes.
60
signs of osteoarthritis in hands?
1. herbeden's nodes (in DIP) 2. bouchards nodes (in PIP) 3. weak grip 4. squaring at base of thumb at carpo-metacarap joint 5. reduced rage of motion
61
herbedens nodes affect
dip joints
62
bouchards nodes affect
pip joints
63
management of osteoarthritis in a patient?
1. lifestyle: weight loss, physio 2. analgesia - oral paracetamol, topical NSAID or tropical capsaicin 3. oral NSAID, PPI 4. Opiates (codeine and morphine) - intra-articular steroid injections - joint replacement
64
what is rheumatoid arthritis?
- autoimmune - causes chronic inflammation - of synovial lining of joints, tendon sheaths and bursa - tends to be symmetrical, affecting multiple joints
65
genetic associations with rheumatoid arthritis
HLA DR4 (RF positive patients) HLA DR1 (gene occasionally present in RA patients)
66
which antibodies are associated with rheumatoid arthritis?
- Rheumatoid factor | - anti-CCP antibodies
67
commonly affected joints of Rheumatoid arthritis?
- Proximal Interphalangeal Joints (PIP) joints - Metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joints - Wrist and ankle - Metatarsophalangeal joints - Cervical spine - Large joints can also be affected such as the knee, hips and shoulders TOM TIP: The distal interphalangeal joints are almost never affected by rheumatoid arthritis. If you come across enlarged painful distal interphalangeal joints this is most likely to be Heberden’s nodes due to osteoarthritis.
68
signs of rheumatoid arthritis in hands?
- Z shaped deformity to the thumb - swan neck deformity (hyperextended PIP with flexed DIP) - boutonnieres deformity (hyperextended DIP with flexed PIP) - Ulnar deviation at knuckles
69
investigations for possible rheumatoid arthritis?
- check rheumatoid actor - if RF negative check anti-CCP - inflammatory markers: CRP and ESR - X-ray of hands and feet
70
NICE guidelines for disease modifying anti-rheumatic drugs?
1st line: methotrexate, leflunomide or sulfsalazine. hydroxychloroquine 2nd line: two of the above together 3rd line: biological therapy, TNF inhibitor 4th line: rituximab
71
how does methotrexate work?
- interferes with metabolism of folate notable side effects - mouth ulcers and mucositis - liver toxicity - pulmonary fibrosis - bone marrow suppression and leukopenia - is teratogenic
72
There are a lot of side effects to remember for your exams. Many of them are shared between medications. Try to remember the unique ones as these are more likely to be tested: Methotrexate: pulmonary fibrosis Leflunomide: Hypertension and peripheral neuropathy Sulfasalazine: Male infertility (reduces sperm count) Hydroxychloroquine: Nightmares and reduced visual acuity Anti-TNF medications: Reactivation of TB or hepatitis B Rituximab: Night sweats and thrombocytopenia
Methotrexate: pulmonary fibrosis Leflunomide: Hypertension and peripheral neuropathy Sulfasalazine: Male infertility (reduces sperm count) Hydroxychloroquine: Nightmares and reduced visual acuity Anti-TNF medications: Reactivation of TB or hepatitis B Rituximab: Night sweats and thrombocytopenia