PATH 2024 Flashcards

(161 cards)

1
Q

Rank from narrow to broad spectrum
Cefalexin
Amoxicillin
Ceftriaxone
Pip taz
Meropenem

A
  1. Cefalexin
  2. Amoxicillin
  3. Ceftriaxone
  4. Pip taz
  5. Meropenem
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2
Q
  1. Patient with hospital acquired pneumonia, rank from most to least likely

Escherichia coli (~31%)
2. Pseudomonas aeruginosa (~17%)
3. Candida albicans (~7%)
4. Acinetobacter baumannii (~6%)
5. Coxiella burnetii (essentially negligible/rare in HAP

A
  1. Escherichia coli (as part of Enterobacterales – ~31%)
  2. Pseudomonas aeruginosa (~17%)
  3. Candida albicans (~7%)
  4. Acinetobacter baumannii (~6%)
  5. Coxiella burnetii (essentially negligible/rare in HAP
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3
Q

Rank from highest to lowest specificity for rheumatoid arthritis
Anti-CCP
Rheumatoid factor
HLA-DR4
CRP
HLA-B27

A

Anti-CCP
Rheumatoid factor
HLA-DR4
CRP
HLA-B27

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4
Q

Rank from largest to smallest vessel affected
Takayasu arteritis
Cerebral giant cell arteritis
Polyarteritis nodosa
Granulomatosis with polyangiitis
Capillaritis

A

Takayasu arteritis
Cerebral giant cell arteritis
Polyarteritis nodosa
Granulomatosis with polyangiitis
Capillaritis

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5
Q

Rank platelets from high to low
Essential thrombocythemia
Rheumatoid arthritis
Beta thalassaemia trait
Normal pregnancy
Autoimmune thrombocytopenic purpur

A

Essential thrombocythemia
Rheumatoid arthritis
Beta thalassaemia trait
Normal pregnancy
Autoimmune thrombocytopenic purpur

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6
Q

Thrombosis risk (lowest to highest, might have been highest to lowest)

Brisk 1 hour walk
75mg Aspirin
4 hour flight
COCP to someone heterozygous for Factor V Liden
Inherited antithrombin III deficiency

A

Brisk 1 hour walk
75mg Aspirin
4 hour flight
COCP to someone heterozygous for Factor V Liden
Inherited antithrombin III deficiency

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7
Q

Rank lowest to highest PTH (they gave calcium values)
Breast cancer with bony mets (Ca 2.9? it was high)
Paget’s disease of bone
Osteoporosis (Ca 2.4?)
Primary hyperparathyroidism (Ca 2.9)
Secondary hyperparathyroidism

A

Breast cancer with bony mets (Ca 2.9? it was high)
Paget’s disease of bone
Osteoporosis (Ca 2.4?)
Primary hyperparathyroidism (Ca 2.9)
Secondary hyperparathyroidism

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8
Q

Rank potassium from high to low

Addisons
Hypothyroidism
Pheochromocytoma
Cushing’s disease
ACTH dependent Cushing’s syndrome

A

Addisons
Hypothyroidism
Pheochromocytoma
Cushing’s disease
ACTH dependent Cushing’s syndrome

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9
Q

Development of cancer in chronological order
HPV
Low grade dysplasia
High grade dysplasia
Carcinoma
Lymph node mets

A

HPV
Low grade dysplasia
High grade dysplasia
Carcinoma
Lymph node mets

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10
Q

Rank the development of liver cancer
Fatty changes
Steatohepatitis
Fibrosis
Cirrhosis
Hepatocarcinoma

A

Fatty changes
Steatohepatitis
Fibrosis
Cirrhosis
Hepatocarcinoma

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11
Q

How is mycoplasma pneumonia resistant against beta lactam antibiotics?

A

Lacks cell wall

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12
Q

A 2 day old newborn has blood culture with gram-negative rods, and mother had fever in labour. What is the likely organism?

A

E. coli

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13
Q

Patient present with knee swelling, cultures show MRSA. What antibiotic should be started?

A

vancomycin

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14
Q

What is the single most important intervention in someone who has catheter-associated UTI?

A

Remove catheter

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15
Q

Which vaccine-preventable illness can cause subacute sclerosing panencephalitis 7-15 years later?

A

Measles

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16
Q

Person with meningitis symptoms but is allergic to penicillins & cephalosporins (anaphylaxis). What antibiotic should she be given?

A

chloramphenicol

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17
Q

Why has avian influenza H5N1 etc not caused a pandemic in humans?

A

No human to human transmission

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18
Q

Mother has active herpes lesions (at 37 weeks?) How should the baby be delivered?

A

C section

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19
Q

Question describing life cycle of a helminth and asking which one. It autoinfects?

A

strongyloides

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20
Q

Influenza vaccines given to children as a nasal spray?

A

Live attenuated influenza vaccine

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21
Q

Kid visits a petting zoo, then get bloody diarrhoea, pathogen that causes HUS ->

A

E coli

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22
Q

Which hepatitis is coinfection with hepatitis D?

A

Hep B

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23
Q

Name preventative measure to give to a patient with Howell jolly bodies on blood film.

A

vaccination

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24
Q

What common anti-viral for which there is resistance via mutated thymidine kinase?

A

Acyclovir

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25
Which 2 drugs are multidrug resistant TB resistant against?
Isoniazid and rifampicin
26
Mpox caused serious disease, what vaccine is given to high risk e.g. healthcare workers caring for infected patients?
Smallpox (also known as IMVANEX)
27
What drug do you give in anaphylaxis?
IM adrenaline
28
12 yo Girl with urticaria & wheeze when she ate walnuts. How do you confirm walnut allergy?
Skin prick test RAST/Specific IgE Gold standard is Double blind oral food challenge
29
Post strep glomerulonephritis - what hypersensitivity reaction?
Type III
30
Goodpasture's Syndrome, what type of hypersensitivity reaction?
Type II
31
Which arthritis can rituximab be used against?
Rheumatoid arthritis
32
Gene thats affected in IPEX?
Foxp3
33
Cells targets in effector phase of acute antibody-mediated organ rejection.
Endothelial cells
34
Child with recurrent immune infections and abnormal DHR test?
Chronic granulomatous disease
35
Antibodies found in droopy eyelids and weakness, worst at the end of the day.
Anti-acetylcholine receptor
36
Need to check TPMT before starting what drug ?
Azathioprine
37
Antibodies found in graves?
TSH receptor antibody
38
Mutation in the common gamma chain of interleukin-2?
X-linked SCID
39
Man with recent weight loss, sinusitis, nose bleeds, renal failure and ANCA positive. Biopsy showed cytoplasmic granular deposits. What is the most likely diagnosis ->
GPA, Wegner’s granulomatosis
40
Woman with dry eyes, specifically denies CREST symptoms.
Sjogren’s disease
41
Blood results for a woman previously treated for breast cancer with chemotherapy and radiotherapy. Hb Low, WBC normal, Neutrophil low, lymphocyte normal, film shows pelger-huet cells. dx?
Myelodysplastic syndrome
42
Most common haematological malignancy in young adults.
Hodgkin lymphoma
43
Which amyloidosis is associated with multiple myeloma.
AL/light-chain
44
Lady with fever, schistocytes, confusion, low platelets, low GFR (renal failure).
TTP
45
What process should be performed prior to transplant to prevent GvHD.
Irradiation
46
Some woman with microcytic anaemia and feeling tired, most likely diagnosis?
Iron deficiency anaemia
46
Patient had a DVT after a surgery, was treated with apixaban and tolerated it well. How long should you continue the treatment?
3 months
47
A woman came in for her antenatal appointment. Blood results with only slightly low platelets
Gestational thrombocytopenia
48
Man with acute onset back pain, GP sent straight to A&E. The ambulance crew tested and he can’t walk properly and have paresthesia. What is the next most urgent investigation?
MRI spine
49
Plasma type given as universal donor.
AB
50
How to monitor LMWH if needed ?
Anti-Xa assay
51
MOH, blood results showing anaemia and DIC. What blood product to give someone with low fibrinogen?
cryoprecipitate
52
JAK2 mutation with high Hct, leukocytosis and thrombocytosis —> what blood disorder?
polycythaemia rubra vera
53
Normal IgG, low IgA and low IgG. Hx of ITP. Repeated infections but in adulthood - said happened over the last few years. Bloods were all normal. What is the cause?
Common variable immune deficiency
54
Child with limp. High wcc, low platelets. Most likely diagnosis?
Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia
55
The common source molecule of all steroids?
cholesterol
56
First line treatment for severe hypercalcaemia?
IV 0.9% saline
57
Man with IVDU, tried to inject then misses his vein lol, and has blood in urine but no red cells - name of protein responsible.
myoglobin
57
What substance is missing in urine in obstructive jaundice?
urobilinogen
58
Which hormone acts on the adrenal gland to stimulate cortisol production.
ACTH
59
What acts on adrenal to stimulate aldosterone production.
Angiotensin 2
60
Hormone that stimulates osteoblasts?
PTH
60
Slightly high prolactin and suppressed other pituitary hormones ?
Non functioning pituitary adenoma
61
Vitamin C deficiency disease.
Scurvy
62
Vitamin D deficiency disease.
Rickets
63
Positive birefringence on aspirate of knee.
Pseudogout
64
Enzyme expressed in sarcoidosis that causes hypercalcaemia.
1 alpha hydroxylase
65
Enzyme targeted by evolocumab?
PCSK9
66
Which small interfering RNA is given as a twice annual injection for people with high lipids?
Inclisiran
67
Asymptomatic patient registered at GP. Normal LFTs with isolated raised unconjugated bilirubin. Diagnosis?
Gilberts
68
Name a breast cancer that varies from benign to malignant?
Phyllodes tumour
69
Which bone disease is there a jig-saw/mosaic pattern of bone with jaw pain?
Paget’s disease
70
patient with amyloidosis- which cardiomyopathy?
Restrictive
71
Most common cause of aortic stenosis?
Age related calcification
72
Most common cause of chronic pancreatitis?
Alcohol
73
Name of lung disease in someone with A1 antitrypsin deficiency?
Panacinar emphysema
74
Which bullous disease is intraepidermal acantholysis?
Pemphigus vulgaris
75
Haemorrhage type associated with berry aneurysms?
Subarachnoid haemorrhage
76
Skin lesions and transmural inflammation, which IBD?
Crohn’s Disease
77
Lobe of prostate most likely to be origin of malignancy?
Posterior lobe
78
What type of tissue calcification is hypercalcaemia associated with?
metastatic calcification
79
Type of cancer of parafollicular parathyroid cells?
Medullary
80
Greatest risk factor for Hepatocellular Carcinoma?
Cirrhosis
81
Protein deposited in the kidneys in Familial mediterranean fever that causes nephrotic syndrome
Amyloid AA
82
What is present in the urine of normal people but not in those with obstructive jaundice?
Urobilinogen
83
1. Which of the following is associated with HMB synthase deficiency 1. acute intermittent porphyria 2. hereditary coporphyria 3. erythrocytic coporphyria 4. basically listed all the other porphyrias
acute intermittent porphyria
84
2. Woman is a smoker who has been on furosemide for a long time. Has high Hb, high Hct, normal red cell mass, low plasma volume, Jak2 negative. What is the likely cause? Primary polycythaemia Secondary polycythaemia Psuedo(relative) polycythaemia
Psuedo(relative) polycythaemia
85
3. Middle-aged man has a DVT what is the most important thing to rule out a. Occult malignancy b. Haemoglobinopathy c. Hereditary thrombophilia
Occult malignancy
86
4. Patients with liver failure and heart failure, on biopsy there are iron deposits in the heart and liver. Iron studies reveal the following: Low transferrin (0.5) . Iron was like 4000 and saturation 100% (normal value around 50%) a. Ferroportin transporter deficiency b. Hereditary haemachromatosis c. Alcoholic disease d. Hepatitis B e. Other options might be correct
Hereditary haemachromatosis
87
Question about auer rods, granules and DIC, blood film shows immature myelocytes
a. APML
88
6. Woman who is a B thalassemia carrier and has no clinical features. Her partner has been tested and he does not carry any of the gene. What is the likelihood that their child will have symptomatic B thalassemia? a. 0 b. 1 in 4 c. 2 in 4 d. 3 in 4 e. 4 in 4
0
89
7. A 38 week pregnant woman is at moderate risk of VTE - what should she be on? - similar to specialties question a. Aspirin and heparin b. LMWH c. Aspirin
LMWH
90
8. Lady spends 10 days in hospital and develops a VTE in her femoral vein. Greatest risk factor for VTE in vignette? a. Pregnancy b. Immobilisation c. Chronic alcoholic d. Protein C deficiency
Immobilisation
91
9. What condition does HTLV1 cause?
a. acute T cell leukaemia/lymphoma
92
10. Low platelets on FBC, first investigation to request? a. Blood film b. Bone marrow biopsy c. Inherited thrombogenic condition?
Blood film
93
11. Man comes back from Ghana. Feels tired or unwell. No palpable splenomegaly. Thrombocytopaenia. Reticulocytes low, neutrophils high. 37.5C. Sickle cell trait. Unwell 10 days ago, then fully recovered. Now unwell again with non blanching rashes. a. Parvovirus B19 b. Splenic sequestration c. Sickle trait d. CML e. Bone marrow infarct
a. Parvovirus B19
94
12. CLL drug ibrutinib targets what enzyme a. Bruton tyrosine kinase b. ACL gene
Bruton tyrosine kinase
95
1. Person that came in with leukaemia symptoms. Blood tests showed high lymphocytes and blast cells. What investigation would reveal the most information? a. Peripheral blood immunophenotyping b. Cytological and genetic analysis c. Bone marrow test d. CT scan
c. Bone marrow test
96
14. Most important thing to be matched when doing a stem cell transplant? a. HLA b. Blood group c. CMV status d. Gender e. Ethnicity
HLA
97
15. What type of lymphoma has an indolent course? a. follicular b. Hodgkin’s c. Burkitt’s d. Diffuse large B cell e. Mantel cell
Follicular
98
1. Man has inflammation from anus to splenic flexure and crypt abscesses. What is he at risk of? a. Perianal fistula b. Primary sclerosing cholangitis c. diverticulitis
PSC (this is UC)
99
2. Keratin pearls and intraepithelial bridges, what histological type of malignancy? a. squamous cell carcinoma b. adenocarcinoma c. Basal cell carcinoma
squamous cell carcinoma
100
1. Alcoholic with hematemesis after a bout of vomiting, a history of liver cirrhosis, what is the cause? (repeat) a. oesophageal varices b. strictures
oesophageal varices
101
4. Dilated heart chambers and normal valves a. restrictive cardiomyopathy b. Dilated cardiomyopathy c. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
Dilated cardiomyopathy
102
5. Virus in japan associated with H.pylori. It causes cancer of what organ? a. Lung b. Colon c. Stomach d. Breast e. Uterus
Stomach
103
6. 30 cm tumour that is in the left retroperitoneum, obscuring left psoas muscle. Colon is normal. No blood in stool. What is the tumour? a. Liposarcoma b. Adenocarcinoma c. Hamartoma d. Lymphoma e. melanoma
Liposarcoma
104
7. Mother describes 3mm red lump on child's chest ? What is it? a. Haemangioma b. Melanoma
a. Haemangioma
105
8. Which testicular tumour is sensitive to radiation? a. Seminoma b. yolk sac tumour c. sertoli cell tumour d. Leydig cell tumour
Seminoma
106
9. What feature characterises a malignant cell? a. Atypia b. Invasion c. Pleomorphism d. Increased nuclear/cytoplasm ratio
b. Invasion
107
10. Likely cancer that someone with uncontrolled coeliac disease would get a. Lymphoma b. Adenocarcinoma
Lymphoma
108
11. Child with nephrotic syndrome. Likely biopsy of kidney shows: a. Minimal change b. Crescent something c. Glomerulonephritis
Minimal change
109
12. Middle aged woman is itching. Anti ama what condition?
a. PBC
110
13. Chemotherapy given for leukaemia. Renal failure develops later. Most likely cause? a. Nephrocalcinosis, b. urate nephropathy c. membranous glomerulonephritis
urate nephropathy
111
SLE most specific test?Something about a women presenting with facial rash, oral ulcerations, raynauds, small joint pain in her hands, what antibody would you look for? a. Anti-dsDNA, b. ANA
Anti-dsDNA
112
1. Which part of adrenal is responsible for production of aldosterone a. zona glomerulosa b. zona fasciculata c. zona reticularis d. cortex e. medulla
zona glomerulosa
113
2. Mother of a child with T1DM reports being hypoglycaemic whenever she checks. Her has low C-peptides, high Insulin and low glucose (2 mmol). Cause ? a. Taking exogenous insulin b. Insulinoma c. T1DM d. sulphonylurea
Taking exogenous insulin
114
3. Breathless women with widespread wheeze. Low pH. Normal bicarbonate. (I think low O2 and high PCO2) a. Resp acidosis uncompensated b. Resp alkalosis c. Mixed resp and metabolic d. Metabolic acidosis compensated e. Metabolic alkalosis
Resp acidosis uncompensated
115
4. Patient with complete 21 hydroxylase deficiency, what is the likely electrolyte balance a. Low sodium, low potassium b. Low sodium, high potassium, c. High sodium, low potassium d. High sodium, high potassium
Low sodium, high potassium
116
5. Man who had COVID and treated with dexamethasone for 10 days. He has noticed central weight gain and striae, which has continued despite finishing treatment and regular exercise. 1 mg dexamethasone test. Cortisol 700 (normal: smth - 700) midnight cortisol was low (as expected). Administration of 1mg dexamethasone suppresses cortisol (even more) by the morning. CT showed small bilateral adrenal mass. MRI pituitary showed a 2mm pituitary mass. lung X ray showed infiltrates and areas of consolidation. a. Ectopic ACTH b. Pituitary dependent ACTH c. Simple obesity d. COVID induced renal failure e. adrenal carcinoma
Simple obesity
117
Which complication does SGLT 2 help prevent in diabetic patients a. MI b. renal failure, c. Stroke d. Neuropathy e. Retinopathy
MI
118
7. Tingling in extremities following a surgery for toxic multinodular goitre removal. Which of these would we want to measure in bloods? a. calcium, b. thyroxine c. potassium d. cant remember the other options
Calcium
119
8. Drug causing hypoglycaemia a. quinine, b. thiazide, c. prednisolone d. glucagon
Quinine
120
9. What increases following intravascular haemolysis? a. Calcium b. Sodium c. Potassium
Potassium
121
10. Which term is defined as true negatives divided by the people who don’t have the disease? a. Specificity b. Sensitivity c. Positive predictive value d. Negative predictive value e. Z score
Specificity
122
11. Palpitations, hyperthyroid woman. Most important medication to give a. doxazosin b. propanolol
Propranolol
123
12. Low GFR. Patient with uremia, most likely complication? a. metabolic acidosis b. mixed alkalosis c. metabolic alkalosis d. respiratory alkalosis e. respiratory acidosis
metabolic acidosis
124
13. What hormone triggers the release of prolactin from the pituitary gland? a. CRH b. GH c. TRH d. ACTH e. GNRH
TRH
125
1. type of vaccine is diphtheria a. subunit b. toxoid c. inactivated d. live
Toxoid
126
2. What vaccine should not be given to immunosuppressive people due to risk of reactivation a. Polio b. tetanus
Polio
127
3. Which condition would plasmapheresis most likely benefit? a. Myasthenia gravis b. Rheumatoid arthritis c. X linked Hyper IGM Syndrome d. IgA vasculitisis
Myasthenia gravis
128
4. Patient is on immunosuppression (prednisolone and something else). WHich vaccine should they not receive?
a. Zostavax
129
5. Which auto-antibody is able to cross the placenta and cause congenital cardiac problems? a. Anti Jo b. Anti Ro c. Anti-Sm (smith) d. Anti-smooth muscle e. Anti-cardiolipin
Anti Ro
130
6. Second anti-cardiolipin question with a pregnant lady and recurrent miscarriages I think
anti-cardiolipin
131
7. Hep B acute active infection. Options were variations of the surface antigens, anti-c and anti-S a. only one option with surface antigen positive
only one option with surface antigen positive
132
8. Condition treated with anti IL1 a. asthma b. gout
Gout
133
9. Condition treated with anti IL-4 (pretty sure it was IL4 not 5) a. asthma
Crohns?
134
10. CART cell therapy is used for?
large B cell lymphoma
135
11. Which disease is polygenic auto inflammatory a. crohn’s b. ALPS c. graves
Crohn's
136
12. Some q about confirming anaphylaxis -> Serial mast cell tryptase
at 3 hours and 24 hours
137
13. Infection with Neisseria, normal C3 and C4. Abnormal classical and alternative pathway tests CH50, AP50. What is the deficiency?
C7
138
14. Patient with transplant had tacrolimus and mycophenolate, what additional drug should you give to manage acute T cell mediated rejection? a. ciclosporin b. corticosteroids c. azathioprine d. rituximab
corticosteroids
139
15. Drug used to treat metastatic melanoma
pembrolizumab
140
1. Man with hypertension and diabetes. No immunosuppression. Had a brain abscess - most likely organism? a. Acinetobacter baumannii b. Cryptococcus neoformans c. Staphylococcus smth? d. Mycobacterium dt e. streptococcus anginosus
141
2. Inpatient who has been on co-amoxiclav for 5 days. She now has green mucous in stool and abdominal pain, what is most likely cause? a. Clostridium difficile b. Yersinia pestis
c diff
142
3. 20 y/o IVDU has infective endocarditis. What is the most likely pathogen that you can’t culture using normal lab tests? a. Strep smth b. Another coccus c. Coxiella burnetii d. Cardiobacterium hominis e. Acinetobacter?
Cardiobacterium hominis
143
4. What is the most specific indicator of an e.coli UTI?
a. Nitrites
144
5. Someone with falciparum malaria, parasitaemia of 0.5%, fever but generally well. What medication(s) would you give?
a. IV artesunate b. IV quinine c. Artemether and lumefantrine d. Chloroquine
145
6. What is the recommended procedure to prevent surgical site infection before cutting into the skin, but not near mucousal surfaces? a. Iodine b. Iodine + alcohol c. Chlorhexidine d. Alcohol only e. Chlorhexidine + alcohol
Chlorhexidine + alcohol
146
7. Test for diagnosing latent TB a. IGRA b. Sputum culture c. Sputum something again
IGRA
147
8. Candida esophagitis and Candida GLABRATA infection on swab of rectum (NON ALBICANS). What drug to treat? a. Fluconazole b. Clomitrazole c. Miconazole d. Flucytosine e. Anidulafungin
Anidulafungin
148
9. What can you give for prophylaxis of RSV?
a. Palivizumab
149
10. Mechanism of resistance towards penicillin of streptococcus pneumoniae a. Changing target b. Effluxing it out c. Inactivating it by making enzyme (2021 repeat)
Changing target
150
11. Patient with HIV, CD4 count is like 350 something. What complication is he most susceptible at this CD4 count? a. Mycobacterium Tuberculosis b. Kaposi’s and/or herpes zoster infections/candida c. Herpes zoster/candida only d. PCP e. Cryptococcus neoformans
Kaposi’s and/or herpes zoster infections/candida
151
12. What’s the likely mechanism that HIV has not been cured by antiretroviral drugs? a. It quickly integrates in CD4 T cells in 48-72 hours <- ? b. many changing strains c. failure to produce broad antibodies d. Toxicity of HAART
It quickly integrates in CD4 T cells in 48-72 hours
152
13. Invasive candidemia test -> a. beta d glucan
a. beta d glucan
153
14. Man comes back from holiday and now has a fever, rash, low platelets
dengue
154
1. Man with HIV and not on treatment reveals to sexual health consultant that he has been having unprotected sex with many partners. Consultant asks to contact trace but they did not exchange contacts. a. contact police and tell patient you will b. contact nightclubs where he went and had sex with people so they can warn them c. Dont tell anyone because he has a right to confidentiality d. Tell patient that intentional transmission is a crime but do not take further action as there no identifiable people at risk
Tell patient that intentional transmission is a crime but do not take further action as there no identifiable people at risk
155
2. A 38 year old man is admitted with decompensated liver failure and gross ascites. Initial investigations show that he has Hepatitis B that has not been previously diagnosed. The following day he deteriorates and becomes encephalopathic. Two days later he dies of overwhelming sepsis. His wife, asks to speak to the FY2 who looked after her husband. She cannot understand how her husband could have developed liver failure as he never drank alcohol. How should you advice the FY2 in terms of disclosure of the man’s Hep B status? (repeat 2021) a. Intentional transmission of hep B is a crime and therefore the information can be disclosed to the wife on the grounds of prevention of serious crime. b. The legal duty of confidentiality can be legally breached in order to prevent serious harm to others c. The legal duty of confidentiality no longer applies after death so his hep b status can be disclosed to his wife d. The man was probably becoming encephalopathic when he refused disclosure to his wife and therefore the legal duty of confidentiality can be lawfully breached on the grounds that he lacked capacity. e. The man cannot be harmed by the disclosure and therefore his wife should be informed of his hepatitis B status
The legal duty of confidentiality can be legally breached in order to prevent serious harm to others
156
26yo man is brainstem dead and removed himself from ODR 6 years ago. Parents say he would have wanted his organs donated and didn’t know he removed himself previously. Family had recent discussion and he expressed that he would have donated his organs. What should the consultant do? a. He was 20 years old at the time and therefore it doesn’t count anymore b. ODR must be renewed every 5 years so it doesn’t count anymore c. Have specialist staff nurse gather more information from parents in order to best understand his recent wishes d. Explain his organs cannot be donated in this circumstance e. Explain that he is brainstem dead so they can’t take his organs anyway
Have specialist staff nurse gather more information from parents in order to best understand his recent wishes
157
4. 76 year old dies. Has advance written note stating she wants her brain to be used in research. After her death the son says they are orthodox and hence that you cannot give her brain to research (seems easy but options were very similar and weird) a. As she has written an advanced note, there is a legal obligation to use her brain her research b. As she has written an advanced note, the human tissue act does not apply and her brain can be used for research c. Brain can be used for research despite refusal from family d. Family wishes must be respected e. Anything can be used for research without consent
Brain can be used for research despite refusal from family
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17 year old boy, with no known health problems dies suddenly while playing football. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is diagnosed as the cause of death at the coroner’s post-mortem. The pathologist wishes to retain the heart for teaching purposes. The mother agrees but his 26 year old brother is completely opposed to this. What is the legal position regarding organ retention in this situation? (repeat from 2020) a) Following a coroner’s post-mortem, organ or tissue retention is required as evidence for the cause of death b) Organ or tissue retention can lawfully process with the mother’s consent c) Organ or tissue retention cannot lawfully proceed where there is family disagreement d) Organ or tissue retention following a coroner’s autopsy does not require consent e) Organ or tissue retention for the purpose of medical education does not required the family’s consent
Organ or tissue retention can lawfully process with the mother’s consent