Path Final All Docs Flashcards
(379 cards)
1
Q
- Which of the following works with “Blood pressure”?
A
Renin
2
Q
- What is the most common benign neoplasm of the breast?
A
b. Fibroadenoma
3
Q
- Nephrotic syndrome has all of the following EXCEPT:
A
a. Hyperalbuminemia
4
Q
- What is the most common site of Urothelial Carcinoma?
A
a. Bladder
5
Q
new
6. In what type of inheritance is “Complete penetrance” common?
A
a. Autosomal recessive
6
Q
new
7. This is when one copy of the X chromosome is inactivated
A
Lyonization
7
Q
new
8. What disease has Cardiac problems? (something like this)
A
a. Marfan syndrome
8
Q
new
9. All of the following are diagnostic criteria of Neurofibromatosis EXCEPT:
A
a. Cafe au lait
b. Optic glioma
c. Neurofibroma
d. Lisch nodules
e. Whatever the correct choice was
9
Q
new
10. In which disease do you get the accumulation of gangliosides?
A
a. Tay-Sachs disease
10
Q
new
11. What deficiency is present in Hemophilia A?
A
Factor VIII deficiency
11
Q
new
12. All of the following are differentials for Traumatic ulcerations EXCEPT:
A
a. Deep fungal infection
b. Syphilitic ulcer
c. Squamous cell carcinoma
d. Whatever the correct answer was
12
Q
new
13. Which of the following tablets may cause a Chemical burn to occur?
A
Aspirin
13
Q
- (Shows a picture of Palatal petechiae) All of the following are reasons this can occur EXCEPT:
A
a. Don’t remember the answer choice, but it was fairly obvious
Trauma from sex acts, violent coughing, viral infection (infectious mononucleosis)
14
Q
new
15. A patient just finished doing chemotherapy and has been struggling with some oral complications in the following weeks. Which of the following complications do you think the patient has?
A
Mucositis
15
Q
new
16. Patient has been complaining about inflammatory tissue due to a faulty fitting denture. They most likely has
A
Epulis fissuratum
16
Q
new
17. A patient had a tooth extraction done recently and has presented to your office with swelling around the extraction site. They most likely have
A
a. Myospherulosis
17
Q
new
18. (T/F) Maternal alcohol and tobacco use can be a risk factor for Orofacial clefts. The use of phenytoin possesses a 2x risk of getting Cleft lip.
A
a. First statement is true. Second statement is false
18
Q
new
19. This is congenital invagination of the lower lips
A
a. Paramedian lip pits
19
Q
new
20. Your patient presents with multiple yellow-white papules. What do you think it is?
A
a. Fordyce Granules
20
Q
new
21. This has a white appearance that disappear when mucosa stretched
A
a. Leukoedema
21
Q
new
22. Macroglossia question (don’t remember exactly what it was)
Macroglossia is caused by __________
A
Amyloidosis
22
Q
new
23. Lingual thyroids have a female predominance. In most cases, the ectopic gland is the only
thyroid tissue
A
a. Both statements are True
23
Q
new
24. Fissure tongue is often associated with
A
a. Geographic tongue
24
Q
new
25. This is often confused with the incisive foramen (idk it was something like that)
A
a. Nasopalatine duct cyst
25
26. (Shows a picture of a lesion on the posterior lateral tongue) What is this lesion?
a. Lymphoepithelial cyst (at least I thought it was)
26
*new*
27. What group of agents is associated with “Acute myeloid leukemia”?
a. Benzene
In a super long table about work exposures
27
*new*
28. Which of the following are NOT hallmarks of cancer?
d. Increased apoptosis
28
*new*
29. Statement question about “Immunohistochemistry”
a. Honestly don’t remember what the question was
29
30. Epstein Barr virus mostly affects what cells?
a. B lymphocytes
30
31. Histo question on Fibroma
31
*new*
32. In oral focal mucinosis, you get the overproduction of what?
a. Hyaluronic acid by fibroblasts
32
*new*
33. You see a proliferation of Schwann cells and fibroblasts in this
Neurofibroma
33
Congenital Epulis
34
Granular Cell tumor
35
*new*
36. What is the most common tumor of infancy?
a. Hemangioma
36
37. Question about Lymphangioma
37
*new*
38. What clinical presentation of Kaposi Sarcoma do you primarily see oral lesions in?
Epidemic
38
squamous papilloma
39
*new*
40. In Condyloma Acuminatum, HPV 6 + 11 is the most common type. It is a common sexually transmitted disease
Both statements true
40
41. Presents as dark keratin patches on the skin
Seborrheic keratosis
41
*new*
Can you get a normal appearance after habit cessation?
It is Tobacco Pouch keratosis and you can get a normal appearance after cessation
42
*new*
43. Maybe a question about frictional keratosis
White keratotic areas, produced by trauma, teeth, ill fitting dentures
43
*new*
Which of the following can lead to cancer? (Maybe a picture??)
Leukoplakia
44
Actinic cheilitis
45
Squamous Cell Carcinoma
46
*new*
Question about Proliferative Verrucous Leukoplakia and its transformation rate
70→ 100% transformation rate
47
*new*
48. What type of HPV positive Oropharyngeal SCC is on the rise?
a. HPV (+) Oropharyngeal with Sexual behavior is on the rise
48
*new*
49. What does the “E” in the ABCDEs of melanoma stand for?
a. Evolution
49
50. What is the order for HIV replication?
a. Binding, fusion, reverse transcription, integration, replication, assembly, budding
50
52. Sulfur granules are associated with
a. Actinomycosis
51
53. What is the primary cell of chronic inflammation?
a. Mononuclear cell
52
56. (Shows you a picture) Patient presents with this on the tongue. No exudate is present. What could it be?
Nodule
53
57. The term “Hair on end” is used to describe what?
a. Thalassemia
54
59. Krunkenberg tumors are often seen in
a. Ovaries
55
64. This is associated with respiratory droplets
a. Covid-19
56
65. What is a tissue with an epithelial lined cavity?
a. Periapical cyst
57
*new*
66. What is the name for malignant blood vessels?
Angiosarcoma
58
*new*
67. What is the name for malignant cartilage?
a. Chondrosarcoma
59
*new*
1. Head and neck malignancy?
Gardner
60
2. Yellowing of gingiva?
Jaundice
61
4. Mesothelioma is a benign outgrowth of the pleura. It decreases with asbestos exposure
a. Both false-- malignant; increases
62
5. COPD - consist of what two things:
a. Chronic bronchitis and emphysema
63
*new*
6. Precursor to squamous cell carcinoma
a. Erythroleukoplakia
64
*new*
12. T/F Tall patient had pheochromocytoma and mucosal neuromas. This is type MEN Type 2A
a. False-- MEN type 2B
65
14. Which of following does not cause gingival hyperplasia
a. Perry romberg
66
17. Which antibody is found in bodily secretions, GI, saliva, tears
a. IgA
67
*new*
18. Invasion of abnormal squamous epithelium into connective tissue in seen
a. Squamous cell carcinoma
68
20. Cell associated with granulomatous inflammation
d. Active macrophage
69
*n/a*
21. What is true of paramedian lip pits
b. Express saliva
70
22. Healing by primary intention pulls margin together, secondary intention don’t pull margins together
a. Both True
71
23. Order these terms in increasing size: Purpura, Petechiae, and Ecchymosis
a. Petechiae → Purpura → ecchymosis
72
25. Low virulence will threaten …
b. Immunocompromised patients
73
*n/a*
26. If you think someone has blood under their skin, what is the technique, you use to blanch?
Diascopy
74
*n/a*
27. Munchausen syndrome is example of
a. Factitial injury
75
*n/a*
29. Tetracycline staining
a. Intrinsic
76
30. True/ False radiation kills only tumor cells
a. False-- radiation kills both tumor and normal cells
77
*new*
31. Least concerned with pigmented lesion
b. Diameter <6cm
78
*n/a*
32. Cleft lip is:
a. Failure of fusion of the maxillary and medial nasal processes
79
*n/a*
33. Which of the following doesn’t present with facial asymmetry?
a. Marie Santon disease
80
*new*
34. Fordyce granules are what kinds of glands?
a. Ectopic sebaceous glands
81
*n/a*
35. Port-wine nevus distribution is
CN V
82
*new*
36. Branchial cyst is histologically similar to a:
a. Lymphoepithelial
83
*n/a*
38. Cystic Hygroma involves what type of vessels?
Lymphatic
84
*new*
39. Exclusively on skin??????
a. Basal cell carcinoma???
85
*n/a*
40. Giant cell arteritis
Temporal artery
86
41. Philadelphia chromosome
CML
87
*n/a*
42. Treatment of stable angina
a. Nitroglycerin
88
*new*
44. T/F Left-sided heart failure leads to pulmonary edema
True
89
*new*
46. Verocay bodies
b. Neuroma (Acoustic Neuroma aka Schwannoma)
90
47. Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis - what type of hypersensitivity rxn?
a. Type III (immune mediated)
91
*new*
49. One that asked about the cells changing but not breaking basement membrane
Dysplasia
92
51. Which displays spontaneous regression?
Hemangioma
93
52. Non-vital tooth, tissue lined cavity
a. Periapical cyst
94
*na*
54. Developing overgrowth of tissues native to site
b. Hamartoma
95
55. Breast cancer frequently occurs
a. Upper outer quadrant
96
*New*
56. Risk of squamous cell carcinoma EXCEPT
c. HPV6&11
97
58. Benign smooth muscle
Leiomyoma
a. NOT Rhabdomyosarcoma (this is malignant of skeletal muscle)
98
59. Malignant tumor of lymphocytes
a. Lymphoma
99
62. Benign adipose tissue
Lipoma
100
63. Malignant glandular epithelium
Adenocarcinoma
101
1. What is the most common cause of right-sided heart failure?
c. Left-sided heart failure
102
3. Glomerulonephritis is usually caused by a retrograde infection in genitourinary tract.
Pyelonephritis is an immune complex-mediated disease.
d. Both statements are false → flipped
103
4. What terminology is used to describe invagination of the small intestines into itself, leading to necrosis?
b. Intussusception
104
5. Patients with Barret’s esophagus are at risk for developing what type of cancer?
a. Adenocarcinoma
105
6. Krukenburg tumor is used to describe metastasis of an adenocarcinoma to the
c. Ovaries
106
7. What is the average life span of an RBC in months?
c. 4 months
107
8. A “hair-on-end” radiographic finding can be seen in which of the following?
c. Thalassemia
108
9. A “step-ladder trabeculae” radiographic finding can be seen in which of the following?
a. Sickle cell anemia
109
10. Sickle cell anemia occurs due to substitution of valine to
b. Glutamine
110
11. Patients with Plummer-Vinson syndrome present with all of the following except?
c. Pernicious anemia
111
12. Which anemia is considered autoimmune disease?
b. Vitamin B12 anemia (aka pernicious)
112
13. What is the most common anemia?
b. Iron-deficiency anemia
113
14. Which of the following presents with mucocutaneus lesions and bronzing?
a. Addison’s disease
114
15. Patient presents with sloughy, enlarged gingiva. What type of leukemia would you suspect?
b. AML
115
16. Which of the following do you expect to see during bacterial infections?
a. Neutrophilia
116
17. Which of the following presents with pheochromocytoma and mucosal neuromas?
c. MEN 2B
117
18. Which pancreatic cell releases insulin?
b. Beta cell
118
19. If a child has periodic aphthous-like ulcerations and periodontitis, which of the following
does the patient have most likely?
a. Cyclic neutropenia
119
20. CML is associated with the Philadelphia chromosome which is a translocation between chromosomes
b. 9 to 22
120
21. Which lymphoma is associated with Sjogren’s syndrome?
b. MALT lymphoma
121
22. Which disease is characterized by granulomatous inflammation?
a. Crohn’s Disease
122
23. Which of the following do not result from H. pylori infection?
c. Squamous cell carcinoma
123
24. Hepatitis D relies on coinfection with?
b. Hepatitis B
124
25. Meckel diverticulosis is the developmental defect of which organ?
a. Small intestine
125
What is the most common tumor of the liver?
Hepatocellular carcinoma
126
28. Which of the following radiographic findings would you find with multiple myeloma?
b. Punched out holes
127
30. Negri bodies are found in which of the following
b. Rabies
128
31. Which of the following is not a manifestation of hyperparathyroidism?
e. Hyperplasia
129
32. Which of the following is not an effect of insulin?
c. Decrease glucose uptake
130
33. The most common congenital heart defect in humans is:
d. Ventricular septal defect
131
34. Which of the following is LEAST likely to happen?
Astrocytoma (of the brain) metastasizes to cervical lymph nodes
132
Some tumors such as renal cell carcinoma may inappropriately secrete supraphysiologic of erythropoietin. The result could be:
Polycythemia
133
36. In immune thrombocytopenic purpura platelet levels would be found to be
c. Below normal
134
37. What is the most common primary tumor of the brain?
a. Glioblastoma multiforme
135
38. Which of the following is a potential complication of cerebral edema?
c. Herniation of brainstem
136
39. The most common cause of parenchymal brain hemorrhage is hypertension. The most
common cause of a cerebral vascular accident is?
a. Thrombosis of a vessel involved by atherosclerosis
137
40. A two-year-old child has an abdominal mass and chronic low-grade fever. The mass is
biopsied and found to consist of several cell types, some of which form abortive glomeruli, others resemble skeletal muscle. The best diagnosis:
a. Wilm’s tumor
138
41. Streptococcal glomerulonephritis is classified as a
c. Immune complex-mediated reaction
139
42. Neuritic plaques and neurofibrillary tangles are the major microscopic features of
Alzheimer disease. Alzheimer disease is the most common dementia of the elderly.
a. Both statements are true
140
43. Left-sided heart failure may be associated with all of the following findings EXCEPT:
e. Lower extremity edema (not enough blood is being pumped out to body)
141
44. Which blood type is known as the universal recipient?
c. Type AB
142
45. Which of the following statements is true about fatty streaks?
b. Can eventually lead to thrombosis????
143
46. A syphilitic aneurysm commonly occurs in the
b. Ascending aorta
143
47. Rheumatic fever can cause mitral stenosis by
a. Inflammation reaction by antibodies reacting with cardiac antigens of Group A streptococcal bacteria
143
49. Acute rheumatic fever that causes mitral stenosis is an example of a
b. Type II hypersensitivity reaction
143
48. Intercostal notching and hypertension can be caused by?
c. Coarctation of the aorta
143
50. It is recommended to get vaccinated against HPV subtypes 16 and 18 to prevent?
a. Squamous cell carcinoma of the cervix
143
52. The astrocytoma is the most common primary malignant tumor of the brain. The most common malignant tumor in the brain is metastatic tumor.
True, true
144
53. Aortic stenosis can cause concentric hypertrophy of the left ventricle.
True
144
54. What is the best way to assess a patient’s blood sugar levels in a patient with Diabetes
Mellitus?
b. Monitor A1c
144
1. All of the following are types of cells found in the CNS except
c. Islet cells
145
2. Which of the following isn’t associated w viral meningitis/encephalitis?
c. Syphilis
146
3. Define the pathogenesis of a prion disease and give an example of one
Abnormal forms of cellular protein cause transmissible neurodegenerative disorders.
Example – Creutschfield
147
A localized reduction or cessation of blood flow to a defined portion of the brain is called
a. Focal Cerebral Ischemia
148
5. What causes MS (multiple sclerosis)?
Multiple areas of demyelination (plaques) in white matter of brain and spinal cord
149
6. Individuals with sleep apnea have a 30% increased risk of morbidity and mortality?
True
150
7. Concussion refers to ____ and contusion refers to ____
a. Clinical syndrome of altered consciousness secondary to head injury – sudden disruption of neuro fxn
b. Direct parenchymal injury of brain (bruising)
151
8. A patient exhibits a unilateral proliferation of blood vessels (vascular nevus) involving the skin of the distribution of the 3rd branch of the trigeminal verve – what type of disease is this?
a. Developmental disease
152
9. Circulating immune complexes filter out in small vessels and activate the complement cascade. C5a attracts neutrophils which cause local damaging inflammation… (can’t see rest)
a. Type III immune injury disease
153
10. All of the following are autoimmune diseases except
b. Bruton’s hypogammaglobulinemia
154
11. Which organ has a very low tolerance to edema?
a. Brain and lungs
155
13. A karyogram shows a newborn has Klinefelter syndrome. What genotype would you expect to see?
a. 47 XXY
156
14. Pts with Peuts – Jegher syndrome often first present with
c. Perioral freckling
157
15. Grading of a malignancy is done by pathologists at the microscope. Staging done by clinician to determine distrubition of tumor in body
T/T
158
16. A dx of squamous cell carcinoma can be made clinically
False
159
17. Kaposi sarcoma is caused by the HIV
a. False (caused by HHV-8)
160
19. Which of the following conditions isn’t a well established risk factor for breast cancer
b. Having a child
161
21. What percentage of men develop prostate cancer by the age of 80?
a. 70%
162
25. The oral lesions associated with ulcerative colitis are known as
pyostomatitis vegetans
163
26. What terminology used to describe metastasis of an adenocarcinoma to the bilateral ovaries?
Krukenberg tumor
164
27. What is average life span of a RBC in days?
120 days
165
29. Sickle cell anemia occurs due to substitution bw which 2 amino acids?
Valine to Glutamine
166
30. Pts with plummer vinson syndrome present with which type of anemia?
Iron deficiency
167
32. Which anemia considered autoimmune disease
a. Hemolytic anemia
168
33. In viral infection, which type of WBC is elevated?
a. Leukocyte (lymphocytes)????
169
34. What immune deficiency is caused by having a pronounced decrease in # of neutrophils
a. Neutropenia
170
35. When presenting with oral manifestation, which leukemia has a predilection for the gingiva
a. Acute myelogenous leukemia
171
37. Which high grade lymphoma has a predilection for the jawbone of children and is associated with herpes IV?
a. Burkett’s lymphoma
172
38. A malignancy of plasma cells is referred to as
multiple myeloma
173
39. Name one medication that impairs ability of platelets to aggregate
a. Aspirin
174
40. Right lung has 2 lobes?
False
175
41. An aspirated crown more likely to be lodged in right side?
True
176
42. What type of necrosis seen in TB?
Caseous necrosis
177
43. Name three types of atelectasis?
a. Resorption, compression, contraction
178
44. Which type of emphysema predominates in non-smokers?
a. Panacinar emphysema
179
45. Name 3 diff types of lung cancers
a. Squamous cell carcinoma
b. Adenocarcinoma
c. Small cell carcinoma
180
46. Name 3 diff hormones secreted by the anterior pituitary gland (FLAT PG)
a. GH
b. Prolactin
c. ACTH
181
47. Excess secretion of GH after epiphyseal plates have closed results in which abnormality?
a. Acromegaly
182
48. Which specific portion of adrenal gland secretes cortisol?
a. adrenal cortex → zona fasciculata
183
49. What is the oral manifestation of MEN 2B
a. Mucosal neuromas
184
50. Glucagon is secreted by which type of pancreatic cell?
a. Alpha cells
185
51. Hep A considered STD?
True → FALSE???? Transmitted fecal oral route
186
52. 25 yo man presents to oral surgery for extraction of #15 with divergent and dilacerated roots. When pt returned… cluster of painful small ulcerations that began as vesicles were noted on hard palate. On palpation, this lesion was not indurated and didn’t have a rolled border…. Or symptoms. Which of following is most appropriate dx?
a. Recurrent herpetic infection
187
54. What’s the name of oral lesion in secondary syphilis?
a. Mucous patch
188
55. Increase in overall size of tissue due to increase in size of cells
hypertrophy
189
56. Name 2 periapical pathosis that can present as a periapical radiolucency associated with a non vital tooth
a. Periapical cyst and periapical granuloma
190
58. Vomiting of fresh red blood is called…
Hematemesis
191
59. Which type of colonic polyp has greatest incidence of undergoing malignant?
Familial adenomatous polyposis coli (FAP)
192
4. What terminology is used to describe metastasis of an adenocarcinoma to the bilateral ovaries?
Krunkenberg
193
12. Burkitt’s lymphoma is associated with what HHV?
a. HHV-4
194
15. What is associated with alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency?
a. Panacinar emphysema
195
19. What is associated with Regeneration of the Liver?
a. Hyperplasia
196
26. Peripheral edema is associated with
a. Right-side heart
197
27. All of the following are modifiable components of Atherosclerosis EXCEPT:
a. Family history
198
28. Major clinical factor of Atherosclerosis
a. Hypertension
199
29. What is a common tumor of the lungs?
a. Metastatic
200
30. What type of collapsed lung is caused by obstruction of the airway?
a. Resorption
201
31. What type of collapsed lung is caused by fluid within the pleural cavity?
a. Compression
202
32. What type of collapsed lung is caused by local or generalized fibrotic changes?
a. Contraction
203
34. A patient has type 1 diabetes to which they have to regularly take insulin shots. What type of disease would this be classified as?
a. Metabolic disease
204
35. Hyperplastic candidiasis is best described as
d. White plaque that cannot be wiped off
205
36. Which of the following Hepatitis are transmitted “Enterically”?
a. Hep A → (Hep E is also correct, but was not option on our exam)
206
41. Which of the following are associated with Rheumatic heart disease?
a. Aschoff body
207
42. What is the initial step to cause thrombosis to occur?
a. Injury to endothelial cells
208
48. H. Pylori are found in all of the following except:
a. Chronic gastritis
b. Peptic ulcer disease
c. Adenocarcinoma
d. MALT lymphoma
→ asked (2x)
i. All of these answers were correct, I think she might have miss entered the
question
209
50. These is presented with ulcerations on the tongue, bone loss, and chronic gingivitis
a. Cyclic neutropenia
210
53. Which of the following is not part of the portal triad?
a. Arteriole
- Answers are portal vein, hepatic artery, and bile duct
211
54. Which of the following is NOT a function of the hepatocyte?
a. Lipid metabolism
b. Produces bile
c. Protein synthesis
d. Whatever the correct answer was
212
56. Which of the following is NOT a risk factor of cholesterol stones?
c. Insulin accumulation → it is insulin resistance
213
57. All of the following are associated with hyperpituitarism except:
a. Sheehan syndrome
214
58. What do capillaries do?
a. Exchange of gas and material between blood and tissues
215
59. What is Stage 1 hypertension?
a. 130/80 mmHg
216
2. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, risk of developing:
a. Non- Hodgkin lymphoma
217
4. Most pain receptors?
a. Pleural lining
218
6. 55 yr old with swollen gingiva and bruising?
AML
219
16. Surfactant is secreted by
a. Type II pneumocytes
b. Type I pneumocytes
220
17. Histologically similar to parotid
a. Acinic cell carcinoma
221
18. Histologically looks like swiss cheese
a. Adenoid cystic carcinoma (poor long-term prognosis)
222
19. Histologically a mixture of ductal and myoepithelial elements
a. Pleomorphic adenoma
223
21. Most common malignant salivary gland tumor
a. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
224
22. Salivary gland tumor that favors the hard palate
a. Polymorphous low grade adenocarcinoma
225
8. most common benign salivary gland tumor
a. Pleomorphic adenoma (mixed benign tumor)
226
24. Upper lip tumor
Monomorphic adenoma
227
26. Carcinoid tumors secrete what hormone
a. Serotonin
228
27. Peri-oral freckling occurs in what syndrome
a. Peutz-Jegher
229
28. Peutz Jegher type of polyps
a. Hamartomatous polyps
230
32. Most likely to be in the parotid gland
a. Papillary cystadenoma lymphomatosum
231
35. Which is autoimmune
a. Pernicious anemia
232
37. Hair on end radiographic appearance
a. Thalassemia
233
46. Most common leukemia in children
ALL
234
48. Universal donor blood type
a. O
235
49. Chipmunk face for thalassemia due to what
a. Compensatory hyperplasia of bone marrow
236
2. Which of the following is true about congestive heart failure?
a. Right sided is caused by left sided
237
3. Chronic congestive liver disease is caused by
a. Right sided heart failure
238
4. Which of the following does not result from myocardial infarction?
a. Angina
239
6. Complete loss of blood supply to the organ
a. Infarct
240
7. Major contributor of osmotic colloid pressure
a. Albumin
241
1. Sarcomas travel by hematogenous route and end in the lungs. Carcinomas travel via lymphatics and end up in the lymph nodes
a. Both true
242
4. Loss of sympathetic innervation (aka Horner’s) causes all of the following except:
a. Exophthalmia
243
5. Which is the most likely to metastasize
a. Squamous cell carcinoma
244
A young man gets rushed to the emergency room after a severe car crash that causes him to get 2nd and 3rd degree burns. What shock best describes what he would experience?
a. Hypovolemic shock
245
37. Increased edema is due to which of the following?
a. Increased hydrostatic pressure, decreased colloid osmotic pressure
246
21.Which compartment holds the most fluid
a. Intracellular
247
35.If you have right heart failure
a. Pitting edema
248
49. Inflammation edema are?
a. Protein rich
249
2. Lymphatic filtration occurs in which compartment
b. Interstitial
250
3 parts of Virchows Triad:
Hyper-coagulability
Abnormal blood flow
Endothelial injury
251
0. Virchows triad does not include:
d. Epithelium
252
Which tissue is edema the least tolerated
a. Brain
253
34. High levels of erythropoietin
a. Polycythemia
254
35. Renal failure leads anemia why?
a. Kidney failure to produce erythropoietin
255
182. Cyclical hyperplasia with incomplete involution of breast tissue may result in “lumpy/bumpy” breast. This has been referred to as:
a. fibrocystic disease
256
18. What disease is a malignant neoplasm of the pleura associated with environmental asbestos exposure?
Mesothelioma
257
21. What two diseases can a “hair on end” radiographic appearance be seen?
Sickle cell anemia and thalassemia
258
22. What is an elevated WBC count that is a physiologic response to stress or viral infection?
Leukemoid rxn
259
CLL is characterized by
a. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
260
31. What are the oral findings in multiple myeloma?
a. Macroglossia caused by amyloidosis
261
32. What medication can cause irreversible functional platelet defects?
a. Aspirin
262
33. What is hematemesis?
a. Vomiting of fresh, red blood
263
34. What syndrome is characterized by mucosal atrophy, esophageal webs and dysphagia?
a. Plummer-Vinson syndrome
264
19. Common cause of stroke (ask on discussion board)
a. Thrombus from atherosclerosis ???
265
10. An escape of blood is called
Hemorrhage
266
2. A patient exhibits a unilateral lesion composed of blood vessels (birthmark) that was present at birth. What type of disease is this?
a. Developmental disease
267
7. What happens to the thymus as you get older?
a. Thymus involutes into a fatty mass
268
8. Positive reaction to PPD (mantoux test), this is an example of
a. Type IV immune injury disease
269
9. Which of the following is the best term for a radiolucency associated with a non-vital tooth
a. Periapical granuloma → this was the only choice that worked on our exam
270
10. Which of the following is a dental manifestation in Congenital syphilis?
a. Hutchinson's incisors
271
11. Identification:
Plasma cell
272
12. What viral induced disease can present with enlargement of the salivary glands?
Mumps
273
16. Gumma is seen in what?
a. Tertiary syphilis
274
17. All of the following is associated with actinomycosis, EXCEPT:
a. Fungal infection
275
Plaque
276
Ulcer
277
a. Recurrent aphthous stomatitis
278
24. What vitamin is best for wound healing?
Vitamin C
279
28. This is the end result of irreversible injury to a cell
a. Necrosis
280
The underlying cause of Rheumatoid arthritis is inflammation. Immunity is the reaction to an allergy
a. First statement is true, second statement is false
NO it is reaction to antigen/pathogen/living organism (infection)
281
32. This is acute inflammation without consolidation that travels through the tissues
a. Cellulitis
282
33. IgM switching includes all of the following except:
a. (don’t remember what the answer was)
Class switching: T cells stimulate B cells to switch their Ig
Originally express IgM and IgD
Switches the heavy chain
283
38. Mast cells produce what?
a. Histamine
284
40. Which of the following is NOT a type of candidiasis?
d. Migratory rhomboid glossitis
285
Vesicle
286
42. Which of the following is NOT located in the cavernous sinus?
c. External carotid
287
45. This is a severe complication of cavernous sinus thrombosis
a. Severe retrograde infection
288
Nodule
289
MAcule
290
53. Radiograph picture asking what best describes it (TERRIBLE PICTURE)
Radiolucency
291
54. Which of the following best describes the surface texture? (SHOWS PICTURE)
Papillary
292
55. Clinical question about epithelial hyperplasia example
a. Papilloma
293
57. Which of the following is associated with granulomatous inflammation?
a. Acid-fast bacilli
294
59. Allergy mediated reactions are associated with which of the following?
b. Th2 → Eosinophil
295
1. When a thrombus becomes dislodged from a vessel and travels to another site in the vasculature, this is called:
d. Embolization
296
3. Pure hypertrophy occurs in
a. Skeletal muscle after working out
297
5. The change of one mature cell type to another
a. Metaplasia
298
7. Pyknosis is associated with
a. Shrinking of the nucleus
299
8. Karyorrhexis is associated with
b. Fragmentation
300
10.Caseous necrosis is seen in
a. Tuberculosis infection
301
14.Which of the following diseases results in failure to kill
d. MPO deficiency
302
18 .Which cell type will produce most scarring
b. Neurons (also cardiac myocytes)
303
22. What cells release histamine?
c. Mast cells
304
23. T lymphocytes come from the _______ and then travel to the lymph node.
b. Thymus
305
26.Which of the following can cause transformations?
a. HHV-4 epstein barr
306
30.Which of the following is not present as a radiolucency
d. Parulis
307
39.Which of these is not an immunosuppressed disease?
a. Sjorens (autoimmune)
308
43. What is an example of fibrosis hyperplasia?
a. Fibroma
309
44. Infection of the blood
c. Septicemia
310
45. The primary cell of acute inflammation
a. Neutrophils
311
Plasma cell
312
47. What infectious disease is shown in this photo?
a. recurrent intra-oral herpes → hard tissue
313
50. Myasthenia Gravis?
a. antibody inhibition
314
1. A Lesion Cannot Be Considered Invisible And Molecular
False
315
2. Diseases Are Named By All Of The Following Except:
e. They are named in a way to make classification standard
316
3. The cause of a disease process is
a. Etiology
317
4. The Mechanism Of Disease Development
b. Pathogenesis
318
5. A Child Has To Be Given Intravenous Insulin Injections
d. Metabolic
319
2. A Women Gets Biopsy For And Positive For Breast Cancer
c. Neoplastic
320
2. Person did not get mmr vaccine and end up getting ruebella infection
b. Infectious
321
2. Person has an allergic reaction to earrings
e. Immune-mediated
322
3. Child is born with a birthmark
a. Developmental
323
2. Pathological Atrophy Includes All The Following Except
d. Trophic Hormones
324
2. Fat Necrosis Is Seen In
a. Acute Pancreatitis
325
2. Which Antibody Crosses The Placental Barrier
IgG
326
2. Which antibody is the first responder
a. IgM
327
2. Which antibody is main second responder
IgG
328
2. Which Antibody Plays Large Role In Hypersensitivity
a. IgE
329
2. Which Antibody Is Found In Bodily Secretions,GI,saliva,tears
IgA
330
2. Which Compliment Causes Opsonization
C3B
331
2. Complement Activates Antibodies: T/F
False
332
2. Which of the following is not outcome of acute inflammation
a. Acute Inflammation Go On Indefinitely
333
2. Which complement molecule helps with leukocyte chemotaxis and inflammation
C5a
334
2. Components Of Cyst
a. Epithelial Lining,wall, and lumen
335
2. Granulomatous Tissue
a. Epithelioid Histiocytes, multinucleated giant cells, lymphocytes
Involves Macrophages
336
2. Cd4+t helper cells interact with mhc2 and cd8+cytotoxic interact with mhc 1
True
337
2. Which of the following would limit cellular immunity the most
a. Lacking Dendritic Cells
338
2. Binding of IgE to mast cells resulting in degranulation of histamine - what type of hypersensitivity
a. Type 1 Hypersensitivity
339
3. Type 1 Hypersensitivity - what Ab and what cell?
a. IgE and mast cells (releases histamine)
340
2. Type 2 Hypersensitivity
a. Antibody Binding To Cells (rbc,platlets)
b. AChreceptor
c. Basement membrane (desmoglein of desmosomes and laminin of
basement membrane)
341
2. Type 2 Hypersensitivity
a. Thrombocytopenic Purpura
342
2. Type 4 Hypersensitivity
a. PPD tuberculosis skin test, contact dermatitis
343
2. Xerostomia and Xerophthalmia associated with:
a. Sjogren Syndrome
344
2. Which of the following is not an autoimmune disease
a. Granulomatous Disease Of Childhood
345
Antibody-coated erythrocytes go to spleen to be cleared. Which type of reaction is this?
a. Type II Hypersensitivity
346
4. All Of These Are Important In Cell Mediated Immunity Except
b. Extracellular Bacteria→ HUMORAL immunity
347
AIDS has taught us that cell-mediated immunity (antibody independent or acquired specific immunity) is our first line of defense against all except:
d. Extracellular pathogens (eg. Staphylococci)
348
Which of the following is NOT a feature of primary herpetic gingivostomatitis?
b. Scarring
349
. An asymptomatic patient has a positive PPD test. What does this mean?
d. None of the above
350
. What is the longest-lived and most plentiful antibody?
d. IgG
351
. What antibody is a secretory antibody found in tears, saliva, etc?
a. IgA
352
. What antibody is first formed following exposure to antigen?
e. IgM
353
10. Which antibody can cross the placenta?
d. IgG
354
11. Which of the following is NOT a feature of secondary syphilis?
b. Chancre → primary
355
1. Patient presents with a purulent exudate draining from a sinus tract overlying the mandible. Yellow granules are observed upon close examination of the purulent material, suggesting the following:
b. Actinomycotic infection
356
1. Which of the following is related to infectious mononucleosis?
d. HHV4
357
1. A lesion cannot be considered molecular if it is a genetic mutation (something like that)
False
358
. What happens to the liver after surgical removal of a small portion?
a. Hyperplasia
359
Blood transfusion reaction is an example of what hypersensitivity reaction?
Type II
360
Thrombus on the valves of the heart are called
d. Vegetations
361
. Which presents as a unilateral dermatomal infection of face and oral mucosa
b. Herpes zoster (shingles)
362
. Which presents with koplik spots
a. Rubeola → measles
363
0. Gumma is presented in
d. Syphilis → tertiary
364
1. Kid presents with mandibular molar with hyperplasia toward the coronal end of the tooth
b. Chronic hyperplastic pulpitis
365
. The end of the sinus tract is
Parulis
366
. Which of the following is a complication of Ludwig Angina?
Aggressive, spreading cellulitis to multiple spaces - submental, sublingual, and submandibular
Neck swelling = airway obstruction and life threatening
367
Which of the following can have palatal petechiae?
b. Infectious mononucleosis
368
. Unwanted blood clot is called a
. Unwanted blood clot is called a
369
. Which of the following do we NOT look for in ideal biopsies?
d. Less than 1 cm
370
. Which medication was first linked to BRONJ?
a. Pretty sure it was bisphosphonates
371
0. What causes osteoradionecrosis?
a. Radiation
372
1. Radiation has no long term effects on oral health (something like that)
b. False
