Path Exam 3 Flashcards

(410 cards)

1
Q
  1. Which of the following works with “Blood pressure”?
A

a. Renin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
  1. What is the most common benign neoplasm of the breast?
A

b. Fibroadenoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
  1. A two-year-old child has an abdominal mass and chronic low-grade fever . The mass is biopsied and found to consist of several cell types, some of which form abortive glomeruli, others resemble skeletal muscle. The best diagnosis is
A

a. Wilms Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
  1. Nephrotic syndrome has all of the following EXCEPT:
A

a. Hyperalbuminemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
  1. What is the most common site of Urothelial Carcinoma?
A

a. Bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  1. In what type of inheritance is “Complete penetrance” common?
A

a. Autosomal recessive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
  1. This is when one copy of the X chromosome is inactivated
A

a. Lyonization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
  1. What disease has Cardiac problems? (something like this)
A

a. Marfan syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
  1. All of the following are diagnostic criteria of Neurofibromatosis EXCEPT:
A

a. Cafe au lait
b. Optic glioma
c. Neurofibroma
d. Lisch nodules
e. Whatever the correct choice was

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
  1. In which disease do you get the accumulation of gangliosides?
A

a. Tay-Sachs disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
  1. What deficiency is present in Hemophilia A?
A

a. Factor VIII deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
  1. All of the following are differentials for Traumatic ulcerations EXCEPT:
A

a. Deep fungal infection
b. Syphilitic ulcer
c. Squamous cell carcinoma
d. Whatever the correct answer was

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
  1. Which of the following tablets may cause a Chemical burn to occur?
A

a. Aspirin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
  1. (Shows a picture of Palatal petechiae) All of the following are reasons this can occur EXCEPT:
A

a. Don’t remember the answer choice, but it was fairly obvious

Trauma from sex acts, violent coughing, viral infection (infectious mononucleosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

A patient just finished doing chemotherapy and has been struggling with some oral
complications in the following weeks. Which of the following complications do you think the patient has?

A

a. Mucositis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
  1. Patient has been complaining about inflammatory tissue due to a faulty fitting denture. They
    most likely has
A

a. Epulis fissuratum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
  1. A patient had a tooth extraction done recently and has presented to your office with swelling
    around the extraction site. They most likely have
A

a. Myospherulosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
  1. (T/F) Maternal alcohol and tobacco use can be a risk factor for Orofacial clefts. The use of phenytoin possesses a 2x risk of getting Cleft lip
A

a. First statement is true. Second statement is false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
  1. This is congenital invagination of the lower lips
A

a. Paramedian lip pits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q
  1. Your patient presents with multiple yellow-white papules. What do you think it is?
A

a. Fordyce Granules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q
  1. This has a white appearance that disappear when mucosa stretched
A

a. Leukoedema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q
  1. Macroglossia question (don’t remember exactly what it was)
    Macroglossia is caused by:
A

Amyloidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q
  1. Lingual thyroids have a female predominance. In most cases, the ectopic gland is the only thyroid tissue
A

a. Both statements are True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q
  1. Fissure tongue is often associated with
A

a. Geographic tongue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
25. This is often confused with the incisive foramen (idk it was something like that)
a. Nasopalatine duct cyst
26
26. (Shows a picture of a lesion on the posterior lateral tongue) What is this lesion?
a. Lymphoepithelial cyst (at least I thought it was)
27
27. What group of agents is associated with “Acute myeloid leukemia”?
a. Benzene
28
28. Which of the following are NOT hallmarks of cancer?
d. Increased apoptosis
29
29. Statement question about “Immunohistochemistry”
i. (just know this slide)
30
30. Epstein Barr virus mostly affects what cells?
a. B lymphocytes
31
31. Histo question on Fibroma
32
32. In oral focal mucinosis, you get the overproduction of what?
a. Hyaluronic acid by fibroblasts
33
33. You see a proliferation of Schwann cells and fibroblasts in this
a. Neurofibroma
34
34. Picture of
Congenital Epulis
35
Granular Cell tumor (tumor on the tongue)
36
36. What is the most common tumor of infancy?
a. Hemangioma
37
37. Question about Lymphangioma
Benign growth of lymphatic vessels
38
38. What clinical presentation of Kaposi Sarcoma do you primarily see oral lesions in?
a. Epidemic
39
39. Picture of
squamous papilloma
40
40. In Condyloma Acuminatum, HPV 6 + 11 is the most common type. It is a common sexually transmitted disease
a. Both statements are true
41
41. Presents as dark keratin patches on the skin
a. I think it was Seborrheic keratosis
42
42. (Picture asking was it was) Can you get a normal appearance after habit cessation?
a. It is Tobacco Pouch keratosis and you can get a normal appearance after cessation
43
43. Maybe a question about frictional keratosis
White keratotic areas, produced by trauma, teeth, ill fitting denture
44
44. Which of the following can lead to cancer? (Maybe a picture??)
a. Leukoplakia
45
45. Picture of
Actinic Cheilitis
46
46. Picture of
Squamous Cell Carcinoma
47
47. Question about Proliferative Verrucous Leukoplakia and its transformation rate
70→ 100% transformation rate
48
48. What type of HPV positive Oropharyngeal SCC is on the rise?
a. HPV (+) Oropharyngeal with Sexual behavior is on the rise
49
49. What does the “E” in the ABCDEs of melanoma stand for?
a. Evolution A. Asymmetry B. Borders C. Color D. Diameter E. Evolution
50
50. What is the order for HIV replication?
a. Binding, fusion, reverse transcription, integration, replication, assembly, budding
51
51. Replacement of one mature cell type for another mature cell type is known as
a. Metaplasia
52
52. Sulfur granules are associated with
a. Actinomycosis
53
53. What is the primary cell of chronic inflammation?
a. Mononuclear cell
54
54. Which cell type will produce the most scarring?
a. Neurons
55
55. Hyperplastic candidiasis is best described as
a. White plaque that cannot be wiped off
56
56. (Shows you a picture) Patient presents with this on the tongue. No exudate is present. What could it be?
Nodule
57
57. The term “Hair on end” is used to describe what?
a. Thalassemia
58
58. What best describes “Multiple myeloma”?
a. Punched out holes (radiolucency)
59
59. Krunkenberg tumors are often seen in
a. Ovaries
60
60. Which of the following hepatitis are transmitted “Enterically”?
a. Hep A
61
61. Which of the following is associated with Hashimoto’s hypothyroidism?
a. Non-hodgkin’s lymphoma
62
62. What is associated with mucocutaneous lesions and bronzing?
a. Addison’s disease
63
63. Thrombocytopenic purpura platelet count would be
a. Below normal
64
64. This is associated with respiratory droplets
a. Covid-19
65
65. What is a tissue with an epithelial lined cavity?
a. Periapical cyst
66
66. What is the name for malignant blood vessels?
a. Angiosarcoma
67
67. What is the name for malignant cartilage?
a. Chondrosarcoma
68
1. Head and neck malignancy?
Gardner
69
2. Yellowing of gingiva?
Jaundice
70
3. Salivary gland tumor on hard palate?
Polymorphous low-grade adenocarcinoma - PLGA
71
4. Mesothelioma is a benign outgrowth of the pleura. It decreases with asbestos exposure
Both false -- malignant; increases
72
COPD
Chronic bronchitis and emphysema
73
6. Precursor to squamous cell carcinoma
a. Erythroleukoplakia
74
7. Peutz-Jegher occurs in what
a. Peri-oral freckling
75
8. most common salivary gland tumor
a. Pleomorphic adenoma
76
9. Granulomatous inflammation
a. Chron’s disease
77
10. Multiple myeloma on radiographic
a. Punched out
78
11. Sickle cell is valine for what
a. Glutamine
79
12. T/F Tall patient had pheochromocytoma and mucosal neuromas. This is type MEN Type 2A
False - MEN type 2B
80
13. Hyperplastic candidiasis?
a. Can not be wiped off
81
14. Which of following does not cause gingival hyperplasia
a. Perry romberg
82
15. The change of one mature cell type to another
a. Metaplasia
83
16. Kidney regulate blood pressure
Renin
84
17. Which antibody is found in bodily secretions, GI, saliva, tears
IgA
85
18. Invasion of abnormal squamous epithelium into connective tissue in seen
a. Squamous cell carcinoma
86
19. Chipmunk face for thalassemia due to what
a. Compensatory hyperplasia of bone marrow
87
20. Cell granulomatous inflammation
d. Active macrophage
88
21. What is true of paramedian lip pits
b. Express saliva
89
22. Healing by primary intention pulls margin together, secondary intention don’t pull margins together
a. Both True
90
23. Order these terms in increasing size: Purpura, Petechiae, and Ecchymosis
a. Petechiae → Purpura → ecchymosis
91
24. Kid presents with mandibular molar with hyperplasia toward the coronal end of the tooth
a. Chronic hyperplastic pulpitis
92
25. Low virulence will
b. Immunocompromised patients
93
26. If you think someone has blood under their skin, what is the technique, you use to blanch?
a. Diascopy
94
27. Munchausen syndrome is example of
a. Factitial injury
95
28. often associated with ill-fitting denture
a. Epulis fissuratum
96
29. Tetracycline staining
a. Intrinsic
97
30. True/ False radiation kills only tumor cells
a. False-- radiation kills both tumor and normal cells
98
31. Least concerned with pigmented lesion
b. Diameter <6cm
99
32. Cleft lip is:
a. Failure of fusion of the maxillary and medial nasal processes
100
33. Which of the following doesn’t present with facial asymmetry?
a. Marie Santon disease
101
34. Fordyce granules are what kinds of glands?
a. Ectopic sebaceous glands
102
35. Port-wine nevus distribution is
CN V
103
36. Branchial cyst is histologically similar to a:
a. lymphoepithelial
104
37. Acromegaly
a. After the closure of epiphyseal plates
105
38. Cystic Hygroma involves what type of vessels?
a. Lymphatic
106
39. Exclusively on skin
a. Basal cell carcinoma
107
40. Giant cell arteritis
a. Temporal artery
108
41. Philadelphia chromosome
a. CML
109
42. Treatment of stable angina
a. Nitroglycerin
110
43. Most common congenital heart malformation
a. Ventricular septal defect
111
44. T/F Left-sided heart failure is pulmonary edema
True
112
45. Measure diabetes
a. Hemoglobin A1C
113
46. Verocay bodies
a. Neurilemmoma
114
47. Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis
a. Type III (immune mediated)
115
48. Most common benign neoplasm of breast
a. Fibroadenoma
116
49. One that asked about the cells changing but not breaking basement membrane
a. Dysplasia
117
50. Syphilitic aneurysm
a. Ascending aorta
118
51. Which displays spontaneous regression?
a. Hemangioma
119
52. Non-vital tooth, tissue lined cavity
a. Periapical cyst
120
53. Rheumatic fever
a. Cardiac antigen react with antibodies, complication of group A Streptococcal
121
54. Developing overgrowth of tissues native to site
b. Hamartoma
122
55. Breast cancer frequently occurs
a. Upper outer quadrant
123
56. Risk of squamous cell carcinoma EXCEPT
c. HPV 6 & 11
124
57. Plasma cell
a. Multiple myeloma
125
58. Benign smooth muscle
a. Rhabdomyosarcoma
126
59. Malignant tumor of lymphocytes
a. Lymphoma
127
60. Malignant cartilage
a. Chondrosarcoma
128
61. Malignant Blood vessels
Angiosarcoma
129
62. Benign adipose tissue
a. Lipoma
130
63. Malignant glandular epithelium
a. Adenocarcinoma
131
3. High risk area for breast cancer
a. Outer upper
132
4. Which is skin only?
b. Basal cell carcinoma
133
5. Which gives you a high risk for head and neck malignancy?
a. Plummer vinson
134
6. What is true of atherosclerosis?
a. Plaque weakens the lumen
135
7. What is true of medial sclerotic calcification?
a. Does not encroach on vessel
136
8. Giant cell arteritis is in which artery
c. Temporal
137
9. Where are verocay bodies found?
a. Neurolemma
138
10. What is found in granulomatous tissue?
b. Activated macrophages
139
11. What is tissue with an epithelial lined cavity?
a. Periapical cyst
140
12. Nephrotic syndrome has all except:
d. Hyperalbuminemia
141
13. What is true of paramedian lip pits?
b. Express saliva
142
14. What is true of hyperplastic candidiasis?
b. Corners of lips
143
1. Which is a potential complication of cerebral edema?
a. Herniation
144
2. Most common cause of right sided heart failure
a. Left sided heart failure
145
3. Which is autoimmune
a. Pernicious anemia
146
Glomerulonephritis is usually caused by a retrograde infection in genitourinary tract. Pyelonephritis is an immune complex mediated disease
a. False false
147
5. Granulomatous inflammation
a. Chrons disease
148
What terminology is used to describe invagination of the small intestines into itself leading to necrosis?
a. intussusception
149
7. Meckle’s location
a. Small intestine
150
8. Krunkenberg location
a. Ovaries
151
9. Life span of RBC
a. 4 months
152
10. Hair on end radiographic apperance
a. Thalassemia
153
11. Most common anemia
a. Iron deficiency
154
12. CML gene translocation
a. 9:22
155
13. Plummer vincent is not
a. Pernicious anemia
156
14. Sjogrens syndrome is associated with which lymphoma
a. MALT-oma
157
15. Insulin produced by what
a. Beta cell
158
16. In adipose tissue all of the following are effects of insulin besides what
a. Decreased glucose uptake
159
17. All associated with H pylori but
a. Squamous cell carcinoma?
160
18. What is true of fatty streak (ask on discussion board)
a. Complication would be thrombus?
161
19. Common cause of stroke (ask on discussion board)
a. Thrombus from atherosclerosis ??? b. I think it might’ve been the one with embolism
162
20. Rib notches due to collateral circulation
a. Cooartion of the aorta
163
21. Neutropenia susceptible to what
a. Bacterial infections
164
22. Thrombocytopenia purpura platelet count would be
a. T oo little
165
23. Syphilitic aneurysm
a. Ascending aorta
166
24. Multiple myeloma
a. Punched out radiolucency
167
25. Rheumatic fever
a. Immune reaction with Cardiac antigens and antibodies against streptococcal
168
26. Most common neoplasm OF liver
a. Hepatocellular carcinoma
169
27. Glomerulonephritis is all of the following but
a. Zones of something (not stones bones moans and groans)
170
28. Negri bodies (ask on discussion board)
a. Rabies
171
29. Most common congenital heart defect
a. VSD - ventricular septal defect
172
30. Sickle cell is valine for what
a. Glutamine
173
31. Oral pigmentation
Addisons
174
32. What is not left sided heart failure
a. Lower vascular edema
175
33. Least likely to embolize
a. Astrocytoma of brain to cervical lymph notes
176
34. High levels of erythropoietin
a. Polycythemia
177
35. Renal failure leads anemia why?
a. Kidney failure to produce erythropoietin b. Or maybe the one about proteinuria? Idk lol
178
36. Most common leukemia in children
a. ALL - acute lymphoblastic leukemia
179
37. Most common primary tumor is Astrocytoma; most common tumor in brain in metastatic
a. True (bc gylioblastomia is an astrocytoma), true
180
38. Atrial stenosis blocking the left ventricle? (T/F)
False
181
A two-year-old child has an abdominal mass and chronic low-grade fever. The mass is biopsied and found to consist of several cell types, some of which form abortive glomeruli, others resemble skeletal muscle. The best diagnosis
Wilm's tumor
182
40. Mucosal neuromas
a. MEN 2B
183
41. Ulcerations on tongue, chronic gingivitis, and bone loss
a. Cyclic neutropenia
184
42. Best way to manage diabetes
a. Hemoglobin A1c
185
43. Universal recipient blood type
AB
186
44. To have hep D to have to have what first
Hep B
187
45. Chipmunk face for thalassemia due to what
a. Compensatory hyperplasia of bone marrow
188
46. Step ladder trabeculae
a. Sickle cell
189
47. Streptococcal Glomerulonephritis
a. Type III immune mediated
190
48. Alzhemers neuritis plaques and neurofibrillary tangles. Alzheimers is the most common form of dementia in older adults
True true
191
49. HPV 16 and 18 associated with what
a. Cervical squamous cell carcinoma
192
50. Most common benign neoplasm of breast
a. Fibroadenoma
193
51. Most common astrocytoma
a. Glioblastoma multiforme
194
1. If you think someone has blood under their skin, what is the technique, you use to blanch?
a. Diascope/Diascopy
195
2. Which of the following is true about congestive heart failure?
a. Right sided is caused by left sided
196
3. Chronic congestive liver disease is caused by
a. Right sided heart failure
197
4. Which of the following does not result from myocardial infarction?
Angina
198
5. Infection of the blood
a. Septicemia
199
6. Complete loss of blood supply to the organ
a. Infarct
199
7. Main protein affecting osmotic colloid
a. Albumin
199
8. Edema present in right side heart failure
a. Pitting edema
199
9. Organ that is edema is not tolerated in
a. Brain
200
10. Hemorrhage into skin and mucosa sizes
a. Petechia < purpura < ecchymosis
200
11. Unwanted blood clot
a. Thrombus
200
12. Thrombi on heart valves
a. Vegetations
200
13. Dislodgement and travel of thrombus
a. Embolism
201
14. (**couldn’t find this info in notes**) Which of the following is not a cause of MI?
a. Aneurysm
202
(**couldn’t find this info in notes**) Which of the following is not a risk factor for atherosclerosis?
a. Aneurysm
203
16. (**couldn’t find this info in notes**) Which of the following is not commonly associated with fixed stenosis?
Necrosis
204
17. (**couldn’t find this info in notes**) Which of the following is the most common congenital heart defect?
a. Ventricular Septal Disorder (VSD)
205
18. (**couldn’t find this info in notes**) Which of the following is not true about infective endocarditis?
a. Viral infection
206
1. Spilling mucin into surrounding tissue and forming granulation tissue
a. Mucocele
207
2. All of the following are examples of iatrogenic except
a. Munchausen syndrome
208
3. Munchausen syndrome is example of
Factitial
209
4. Epulis often associated with ill-fitting denture
a. Epulis fissuratum
210
5. Tetracycline staining
a. Intrinsic
211
6. Most common salivary lesion on lower lip
a. Mucocele
212
7. Radiation
a. Kills both tumor cells and normal cells
213
8. Osteoradionecrosis cause
a. Radiation
214
9. Exposed bone that persists for three months in an irradiated area
a. Osteoradionecrosis
215
10. First antiresorptive agent to be associated with MRONJI
a. Bisphosphonates
216
11. Which is not a requirement for a good biopsy
a. Compressive (should be representative, orientable, undistorted)
217
12. Good biopsy
a. > 1 cm
218
1. Genotype is 45 X0
a. Turner syndrome
219
A karyogram on a newborn shows a 47 XXY genotype. The child has which of the following?
a. Klinefelter’s syndrome
220
3. Aortic dissection is associated with:
a. Marfan syndrome
221
Woman has father with x-linked disease, lyonization is 50:50, what are the odds the child will have it
a. 50%
222
5. What are the chances a father with x-linked disease will pass to son
0%
223
6. Looking at family tree, males and females equally effected, skips generations
a. Autosomal recessive
224
7. Missense mutations
All of the above (substitution of one amino acid, can have fatal effects, can have no big deal effects, cause sickle cell anemia)
225
8. Lyonization
a. Protects females from X-linked diseases by using other X chromosome
226
9. What type of polyps in Gardner syndrome?
a. Adenomatous polyps
227
10. Which of the following is due to a defect in fibrillin?
a. Marfan syndrome
228
11. Patient has cysts of the jaw and multiple early onset basal carcinomas
a. Nevoid basal cell carcinoma
229
12. Congenital is hereditary. Familial is at birth and not associated with genetics.
a. Both false
230
13. What is vitamin D resistant rickets?
a. X linked
231
14. A Barr Body is:
a. An inactivated X chromosome
232
1. Cleft lip is:
a. Failure of fusion of the maxillary and medial nasal processes
233
2. Paramedian lip pits
a. Express saliva b. ** defective merging between mandibular processes
234
3. Peutz-Jegher type of polyps
a. Hamartomatous polyps
235
. Pt with downward slanting palpebral fissures, Colomba of lower eye lid, and hypoplastic zygoma
a. Mandibulofacial dysplasia (Treacher Collins)
236
5. Which one of the following expresses asymmetry?
a. Parry Romberg
237
6. Which of the following doesn’t present with facial asymmetry?
a. Marie Santon disease
238
1. Peri-oral freckling occurs in what syndrome?
a. Peutz-Jegher
239
2. Signs of Pierre Robin
a. All of the above (Mandibular hypoplasia, Palatal cleft, Glossoptosis)
240
3. Macroglossia is caused by:
a. Amyloidosis
241
4. Fordyce granules are what kinds of glands?
a. Ectopic sebaceous glands
242
5. Port-wine nevus distribution is
a. CN V (trigeminal nerve)
243
6. Branchial cyst is histologically similar to a:
a. Cervical lymphoepithelial cyst
244
7. Acromegaly
a. After the closure of epiphyseal plates
245
1. Tumor suppressor genes act in a recessive manner. Oncogenes act in a dominant manner.
a. Both true
246
2. Carcinoid tumors secrete what hormone
a. Serotonin
247
3. Sarcomas are more common in children. Carcinomas are more common in old people.
a. Both true
248
4. Sarcoma is from mesoderm. Carcinoma is from ecto/endoderm.
a. Both true
249
5. Cyst with tissue from all three germ layers
a. Teratoma
250
6. These are all sarcoma/mesodermal except:
a. Myxoma
251
7. Which of the following is not associated with neoplasm?
a. Malignancy
252
8. Most of the malignancies in the US are accounted for by
a. None of the above – carcinoma
253
9. Grading done by pathologist, staging done by clinician
a. Both true
254
10. Tumor suppressor gene mutation has what effect on cancer formation?
a. Loss of function
255
1. Which of the following is not a sign of Neurofibromatosis?
a. Polyps/Intestinal polyposis
256
2. Keloid is made of
a. Collagen
257
3. Cystic Hygroma involves what type of vessels?
a. Lymph vessels
258
4. Cystic Hygroma involes:
a. Airway obstruction
259
5. Rhabdomyosarcoma is common in children. Rhabdomyosarcoma is more common than Rhabdomyoma (benign).
a. Both True
260
6. The most common soft tissue carcinoma of children:
a. Rhabdomyosarcoma
261
7. Pseudoepitheliomatous hyperplasia (PEH) can be confused with:
a. Granular cell tumor
262
Patient has pheochromatoma of adrenal medulla, and nodules in mouth. What do they have?
a. Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia Syndrome IIb (MEN IIb)
263
Which of the following is not associated with Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia Syndrome IIb (MEN IIB)?
a. Pituitary tumor
264
10. Some question about MEN IIA (lol v descriptive)
False
265
11. MEN type II has thyroid cancer. MEN type II involves oral mucosal nodules.
Both true
266
12. Kaposi sarcoma caused by HIV
False
267
Uterine mass
Leiomyoma
268
1. High risk of cancer in all the following except:
a. Acanthosis nigricans
269
2. What is the risk factor for lower lip vermillion carcinoma?
a. Actinic radiation
270
3. Which is not true of in-situ?
a. Has invaded the basement membrane
271
4. Which is not high risk for cancer?
a. Dorsal tongue
272
5. 90% of Erythroplakia will be dysplastic. 20% of Leukoplakia is dysplastic.
Both true
273
6. Al of the following are characteristics of dysplasia except:
a. Hyperkeratosis
274
7. Melanoma prognosis is dependent on:
a. Depth/invasion
275
8. Under 1 cm is always benign, over 1 cm is malignant
False
276
9. Abnormal cell growth that has not gone through basement membrane is:
a. Dysplasia
277
10. You can diagnose squamous cell carcinoma clinically
False
278
11. Which of the following is not a part of the ABCD of malignant melanoma?
a. Compressible
279
12. (T/F): Squamous Cell Carcinoma metastasizes to the regional lymph nodes.
True1
280
13. (T/F) Lateral border of the tongue is high risk site for squamous cell carcinoma.
True1
281
1. Sarcomas travel by hematogenous route and end in the lungs. Carcinomas travel via lymphatics and end up in the lymph nodes
True
282
2. Most common tumor of the lungs?
a. Metastatic
283
3. Which has the Alpha 1-anti-trypsin deficiency
a. Panaciniar emphysema
284
4. Loss of sympathetic innervation (aka Horner’s) causes all of the following except:
Exophthalmia
285
5. Which is the most likely to metastasize
a. Squamous cell carcinoma
286
6. Surfactant is secreted by
a. Type II pneumocytes
287
7. What type of collapsed lung is caused by obstruction of the airway?
Resorption
288
8. What type of collapsed lung is caused by fluid within pleural cavity?
a. Compression
289
9. What type of collapsed lung is caused by local or generalized fibrotic changes?
a. Contraction
290
10. COPD consists of:
a. Chronic bronchitis and emphysema
291
11. Mesothelioma is a benign outgrowth of the pleura. It decreases with asbestos exposure.
a. Both false
292
12. Most pain receptors are on the:
a. Pleura of lungs
293
1. What is the most common cause of right-sided heart failure?
c. Left-sided heart failure
294
2. What is the most common benign neoplasm of the breast?
b. Fibroadenoma
295
3. Glomerulonephritis is usually caused by a retrograde infection in genitourinary tract. Pyelonephritis is an immune complex-mediated disease.
d. Both statements are false
296
4. What terminology is used to describe invagination of the small intestines into itself, leading to necrosis?
b. Intussusception
297
5. Patients with Barret’s esophagus are at risk for developing what type of cancer?
a. Adenocarcinoma
298
6. Krukenburg tumor is used to describe metastasis of an adenocarcinoma to the
Ovaries
299
7. What is the average life span of an RBC?
c. 4 months
300
8. A “hair-on-end” radiographic finding can be seen in which of the following?
c. Thalassemia
301
9. A “step-ladder trabeculae” radiographic finding can be seen in which of the following?
a. Sickle cell anemia
302
10. Sickle cell anemia occurs due to substitution of valine to
b. Glutamine (should be glutamic acid)
303
11. Patients with Plummer-Vinson syndrome present with all of the following except?
c. Pernicious anemia
304
12. Which anemia is considered autoimmune disease?
b. Vitamin B12 anemia
305
13. What is the most common anemia?
b. Iron-deficiency anemia
306
14. Which of the following presents with mucocutaneus lesions and bronzing?
a. Addison’s disease
307
15. Patient presents with sloughy, enlarged gingiva. What type of leukemia would you suspect?
b. AML
308
16. Which of the following do you expect to see during bacterial infections?
a. Neutrophilia
309
17. Which of the following presents with pheochromocytoma and mucosal neuromas?
c. MEN 2B
310
18. Which pancreatic cell releases insulin?
b. Beta cell
311
19. If a child has periodic aphthous-like ulcerations and periodontitis, which of the following does the patient have most likely?
a. Cyclic neutropenia
312
20. CML is associated with the Philadelphia chromosome which is a translocation between chromosomes
9 to 22
313
21. Which lymphoma is associated with Sjogren’s syndrome?
b. MALT lymphoma
314
22. Which disease is characterized by granulomatous inflammation?
a. Crohn’s Disease
315
23. Which of the following do not result from H. pylori infection?
c. Squamous cell carcinoma
316
24. Hepatitis D relies on coinfection with?
b. Hepatitis B
317
25. Meckel diverticulosis is the developmental defect of which organ?
a. Small intestine
318
26. Patients with Peutz-Jehger syndrome present with which of the following?
a. Hamartomatous polyps
319
27. What is the most common tumor of the liver?
b. Hepatocellular carcinoma
320
28. Which of the following radiographic findings would you find with multiple myeloma?
b. Punched out holes
321
29. Chipmunk face which is a common manifestation of thalassemia which is caused by compensation of?
d. Hyperplasia of bone marrow
322
30. Negri bodies are found in which of the following
Rabies
323
31. Which of the following is not a manifestation of hyperparathyroidism?
e. Hyperplasia
324
32. Which of the following is not an effect of insulin?
c. Decrease glucose uptake
325
33. The most common congenital heart defect in humans is:
d. Ventricular septal defect
326
34. Which of the following is LEAST likely to happen?
a. Astrocytoma (of the brain) metastasizes to cervical lymph nodes
327
Some tumors such as renal cell carcinoma may inappropriately secrete supraphysiologic levels of erythropoietin. The result could be:
c. Polycythemia
328
36. In immune thrombocytopenic purpura platelet levels would be found to be
c. Below normal
329
37. What is the most common primary tumor of the brain?
a. Glioblastoma multiforme
330
38. Which of the following is a potential complication of cerebral edema?
c. Herniation of brainstem
331
The most common cause of parenchymal brain hemorrhage is hypertension. The most common cause of a cerebral vascular accident is?
a. Thrombosis of a vessel involved by atherosclerosis
332
A two-year-old child has an abdominal mass and chronic low-grade fever. The mass is biopsied and found to consist of several cell types, some of which form abortive glomeruli, others resemble skeletal muscle. The best diagnosis
a. Wilm’s tumor
333
41. Streptococcal glomerulonephritis is classified as a
c. Immune complex-mediated reaction
334
Neuritic plaques and neurofibrillary tangles are the major microscopic features of Alzheimer disease. Alzheimer disease is the most common dementia of the elderly.
a. Both statements are true
335
43. Left-sided heart failure may be associated with all of the following findings EXCEPT:
e. Lower extremity edema
336
44. Which blood type is known as the universal recipient?
c. Type AB
337
45. Which of the following statements is true about fatty streaks?
a. It is more common in adults b. Can eventually lead to thrombosis
338
46. A syphilitic aneurysm commonly occurs in the
b. Ascending aorta
339
47. Rheumatic fever can cause mitral stenosis by
Inflammation reaction by antibodies reacting with cardiac antigens of Group A streptococcal bacteria
340
48. Intercostal notching and hypertension can be caused by?
c. Coarctation of the aorta
341
49. Acute rheumatic fever that causes mitral stenosis is an example of a
b. Type II hypersensitivity reaction
342
50. It is recommended to get vaccinated against HPV subtypes 16 and 18 to prevent?
a. Squamous cell carcinoma of the cervix
343
52. The astrocytoma is the most common primary malignant tumor of the brain. The most common malignant tumor in the brain is metastatic tumor.
True, true
344
53. Aortic stenosis can cause concentric hypertrophy of the left ventricle.
True
345
What is the best way to assess a patient’s blood sugar levels in a patient with Diabetes Mellitus?
b. Monitor A1c
346
1. All of the following are types of cells found in the CNS except
Islet cells
347
2. Which of the following isn’t associated w viral meningitis/encephalitis?
c. Sy6philis
348
3. Define the pathogenesis of a prion disease and give an example of one
Abnormal forms of cellular protein cause transmissible neurodegenerative disorders. i. Example – Creutschfield
349
A localized reduction or cessation of blood flow to a defined portion of the brain is called
a. Focal Cerebral Ischemia
350
5. What causes MS?
Multiple areas of demyelination (plaques) in white matter of brain and spinal cord
351
6. Individuals with sleep apnea have a 30% increased risk of morbidity and mortality?
True
352
7. Concussion refers to ____ and contusion refers to ____
a. Clinical syndrome of altered consciousness secondary to head injury – sudden disruption of neuro fxn b. Direct parenchymal injury of brain (bruising)
353
A patient exhibits a unilateral proliferation of blood vessels (vascular nevus) involving the skin of the distribution of the 3rd branch of the trigeminal verve – what type of disease is this?
a. Developmental disease
354
Circulating immune complexes filter out in small vessels and activate the complement cascade. C5a attracts neutrophils which cause local damaging inflammation… (can’t see rest)
a. Type III immune injury disease
355
10. All of the following are autoimmune diseases except
b. Bruton’s hypogammaglobulinemia
356
11. Which organ has a very low tolerance to edema?
a. Brain and lungs
357
12. Tetracycline staninig is an example of
Intrinsic stain
358
A karyogram shows a newborn has Klinefelter syndrome. What genotype would you expect to see?
a. 47 XXY
359
14. Pts with Peuts – Jegher syndrome often first present with
c. Perioral freckling
360
15. Grading of a malignancy is done by pathologists at the microscope. Staging done by clinician to determine distrubition of tumor in body
(T/T)
361
16. A ds of squamous cell carcinoma can be made clinically
False
362
17. Kaposi sarcoma is caused by the HIV
False
363
18. Most common cause of right sided heart failure is
Left sided heart failure
364
19. Which of the following conditions isn’t a well established risk factor for breast cancer
b. Having a child
365
20. Most common benign neoplasm of the breast is
b. Fibroadenoma
366
21. What percentage of mend evelop prostate cancer by the age of 80?
70%
367
22. Glomerulonephritis is usually caused by a retrograde infection in genitourinary tract. Pyelonephritis is an immune complex mediated diseas
F/F
368
What terminology is used to describe invagination of the small intestines into itself leading to necrosis?
a. Intussisception?
369
24. Pts with barrett’s esophagus are at risk of developing what type of malignancy?
a. Adenocarcinoma
370
25. The oral lesions associated with ulcerative colitis are known as
pyostomatitis vegetans
371
What terminology used to describe metastasis of an adenocarcinoma to the bilateral ovaries?
Krukenberg tumor
372
What is average life span of a RBC?
120 days
373
What radiographic term can be used to describe both sickle cell anemia and thalassemia?
Hiar on end
374
Sickle cell anemia occurs due to substitution bw which 2 amino acids?
Valine for glutamic acid
375
Pts with plummer vinson syndrome present with which type of anemia?
Iron deficiency
376
32. Which anemia considered autoimmune disease
a. Hemolytic anemia
377
33. In viral infection, which type of WBC is elevated?
a. Leukocyte
378
34. What immune deficiency is caused by having a pronounced decrease in # of neutrophils
a. Neutropenia
379
When presenting with oral manifestation, which leukemia has a predilection for the gingiva
a. Acute myelogenous leukemia
380
36. What low grade lymphoma can be associated with patients with sjogrens?
Lymphoma???
381
37. Which high grade lymphoma has a predilection for the jawbone of children and is associated with herpes IV?
a. Burkett’s lymphoma
382
38. A malignancy of plasma cells is referred to as
Multiple myeloma
383
39. Name one medication that impairs ability of platelets to aggregate
Aspirin
384
Right lung has 2 lobes?
False
385
An aspirated crown mor elikely to be lodged in right side?
True
386
What type of necrosis seen in TB?
Caseous necrosis
387
43. Name three types of atelectasis?
a. Resorption, compression, contraction
388
44. Which type of emphysema predominates in non-smokers?
a. Panacinar emphysema
389
45. Name 3 diff types of lung cancers
a. Squamous cell carcinoma b. Adenocarcinoma c. Small cell carcinoma
390
46. Name 3 diff hormones secreted by the anterior pituitary gland
a. GH b. Prolactin c. ACTH
391
47. Excess secretion of GH after epiphyseal plates have closed results in which abnormality?
a. Acromegaly
392
48. Which specific portion of adrenal gland secretes cortisol?
Zona fasciulata of adrenal cortex
393
49. What is the oral manifestation of MEN 2B
a. Mucosal neuromas
394
50. Glucagon is secreted by which type of pancreatic cell?
a. Alpha cells
395
51. Hep A considred STD?
true
396
25 yo man presents to oral surgery for extraction of #15 with divergent and dilacerated roots. When pt returned… cluster of painful small ulcerations that began as vesicles were noted on herd palate. On pulpation, this lesion no indurated and didn’t have rolled border…. Or symptoms. Which of following is most appropriate dx?
a. Recurrent herpetic infection
397
What immune deficiency is caused by having a pronounced decrease in # of neutrophils?
Neutropenia
398
54. What’s the name of oral lesion in secondary syphilis?
a. Mucous patch
399
55. Increase in overall size of tissue due to increase in size of cells
Hypertrophy
400
Name 2 periapical pathosis that can present as a periapical radiolucency associated with a non vital tooth
a. Periapical cyst and periapical granuloma
401
57. Name the most commom benign salivar gland tumor
a. Pleomorphic adenoma
402
58. Vomiting of fresh red blood is called…
Hematemesus
403
59. Which type of colonic polyp has greatest incidence of undergoing malignant?
Familial adenomatulous polyposus coli (FAP)
404
60. The oral lesions associated with ulcerative colitis are known as
Pyostomatits Vegetans