Path: Inflammation 1&2 Flashcards

1
Q

List the most common and most important cells of inflammation.

A
1- neutrophils
2- bands
3- macrophages
4- lymphocytes
5- plasma cells
6- eosinophils
7- mast cells
8- multinucleated giant cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Normally, what percent of the leukocytes measured in the blood are neutrophils?

A

40-70%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Normally, what percent of peripheral blood leukocytes are bands?

A

<5%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What cell type is the most important innate immune system defense against extracellular pathogens?

A

Neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the dominant cell players in CHRONIC inflammation?

A

Macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The point in the cycle where macrophages replace neutrophils in the inflammatory response, starts around day _____ and is sometimes called “ ________”.

A

day 3; “subacute”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

T cells carry out cell-mediated or humeral immunity?

A

Cell-mediated immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

B cells carry out cell-mediated or humoral immunity?

A

Humoral immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Lymphocytes are identifiable in a peripheral smear by their ________ nuclei and _____ cytoplasm. They look like little blue dots under the microscope.

A

small, round, dense nuclei; scant cytoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Plasma cells are derived from ___________ cells.

A

Activated B cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Plasma cells produce large amounts of ______-specificity antibodies.

A

single-specificity antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Plasma cells are distinguishable under a microscope by their “_______” appearance due to nuclear chromatin clumped around the periphery.

A

“clockface”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

_______ are prominent in many allergic and parasitic diseases.

A

eosinophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The granules contained in eosinophils contain _______________ (toxic to parasites, but also to host cells).

A

major basic protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The eosinophil granules avidly take up red ______ dye, hence their name.

A

red eosin dye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Eosinophil nuclei frequently have ____ (#) lobs?

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

______ cells are bone-marrow-derived cells around blood vessels, nerves and skin.

A

Mast cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Mast cells have cytoplasmic granules loaded with:

A

histamine, chemotactic factors, proteases, heparin, serotonin, and more

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Mast cell granules avidly take up _______ (blue dye) and other basophilic dies.

A

Hematoxylin (blue dye)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Multinucleated giant cells are a fusion of several __________.

A

Macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Name the two morphological types of multinucleated giant cells

A

foreign body type and Langhans type

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Describe the foreign body type of multinucleated giant cells

A

Foreign body type giant cells have haphazardly arranged nuclei

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Describe the Langhans type giant cells

A

Langhans type giant cells have nuclei arranged peripherally in a semicircle and are associated with immune granulomas.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is a granuloma?

A

An aggregate of activated macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Describe the two common types of granuloma.
1- foreign body granulomas generally represent the inflammatory reaction to a persistent material too large or undigestible for clearance. 2- Immune type granulomas generally represent the inflammatory response to a persistent antigen that induces a cell-mediated immune reaction.
26
Granulomatous infections are generally due to intracellular or extracellular pathogens?
Intracellular pathogens
27
What are the two types of inflammatory cells that are numerous and easily sen with routine stains under a microscope?
neutrophils and lymphocytes
28
Lymphocytes can be differentiated from other cells in a smear by looking at their nuclei. Their nuclei are round, and the same size as _______, also found in the field.
RBCs
29
Which are larger under the microscope, neutrophils or macrophages?
Macrophages
30
Acute inflammation has a rapid onset, ___________ (time span), and short duration ___________ (time span).
seconds to minutes; minutes to a few days
31
Acute inflammation has 4 cardinal signs and symptoms. List them.
``` 1- redness (rubor) 2- swelling (tumor) 3- heat (calor) 4- pain (dolor) Also sometimes, loss of function (Latin translation not a valuable memory aid) ```
32
What are PAMPs, anyway?
pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMPs), are certain microbial components shared among related microbes that are essential for infectivity. Cells of our innate immune system recognize PAMPs with Pattern Recognition Receptors (PRRs) on their own surfaces, this is where the innate immune response begins.
33
What in Sam Hill are DAMPs?
Damage-associated molecular patterns (DAMPs) are certain molecules released from injured or dead cells.
34
What are Toll-like receptors (TLRs)?
pattern recognition receptors on cellular plasma membranes and endosomal vesicle membranes of macrophages, dendritic cells and various epithelial cells and leukocytes that recognize PAMPs and DAMPs
35
What is an inflammasome?
A multi-protein complex that forms when receptors on any host cell surface recognize DAMPs or other molecules released by injury (ATP, DNA, uric acid). This induces the production of IL-1.
36
What are cytokines?
The intercellular messenger substances secreted by cells of the immune system (innate and acquired) that tell other cells what to do.
37
How do cytokines get leukocytes to the site of infection?
Pro-inflammatory cytokines upregulate the expression of endothelial cell adhesion molecules that bind leukocytes, directing them to the site of infection.
38
List the 5 distinct forms of inflammation.
``` 1- purulent (suppurative) 2- abscessing (necrotizing) 3- fibrinous 4- serous 5- granulomatous ```
39
List the 3 component responses of inflammation.
1- vascular response 2- leukocyte response 3- systemic response (total body response)
40
What characterizes the vascular response of inflammation?
Vasodilation soon followed by increased permeability
41
What compound primarily mediated vasodilation during inflammation?
Histamine
42
What compounds mediate the increased vascular permeability during inflammation and what change to they cause in endothelial cells of capillaries and post-capillary venules?
Histamine, bradykinin, leukotrienes. | Cause cells to contract, opening space between them.
43
What can cause increased vascular permeability to persist beyond 2-12 hrs?
Burns, radiation and certain bacterial toxins
44
List the 3 types of fluid that can leak from capillaries and describe their various viscosities.
Serous (thin, serum, no clotting factors due to coag. formation upstream) Fibrinous (thick with abundant protein) Purulent (thickest with protein and inflammatory cells)
45
Describe the difference between exudate and transudate.
Exudate is a thick, cellular inflammatory fluid while transudate is a thin, acullular fluid.
46
Please, describe pus.
A purulent exudate rich in neutrophils, cellular debris and commonly microbes.
47
A localized area of tissue necrosis with purulent exudate is an _________ .
Abscess
48
What is an empyema?
A collection of pus in the pleural space.
49
Necrotizing inflammation at or near the surface of an organ or tissue can cause the necrotic inflamed tissue to slough off, creating a localized defect or excavation. This is an _______.
Ulcer
50
Superficial sloughing of epithelium (without necrosis through basement membrane into subepithelial tissue) is called ________ .
Erosion
51
What is margination?
When leukocytes move to the periphery of a blood vessel's lumen where they can begin diapedesis via selectins and integrins.
52
Leukocytes express these receptors for binding to endothelial selectins:
L-selectins
53
Normally, P-selectins (for platelets) found on the surface of endothelial cells, are stored in cytoplasmic granules called:
Weibel-Palade bodies
54
What are LFA-1s?
Integrins found on neutrophils, monocytes and T cells.
55
What are Mac-1s?
Integrins found on monocytes
56
What are VLA-4s?
Integrins found on monocytes and T cells
57
TNF and IL-1 induce endotheial cell expression of ligands for _______ during acute inflammation.
integrins- to bring leukocytes to site of infection
58
What are leukocytes looking for between endothelial cells to initiate their transmigration from blood vessels to the inflamed tissue during inflammation?
PECAM-1 (CD31) to bind to their PECAM-1
59
What is chemotaxis?
Migration of leukocytes in tissue to a site of inflammation.
60
List the 3 most important classes of endogenous chemoattractants.
1- cytokines 2- complement system proteins 3- arachidonic acid metabolites
61
Name the most important cytokine chemoattractant (chemokine).
IL-8
62
What is the most important complement protein chemoattractant?
C5a
63
What is the most important arachidonic acid metabolite?
Leukotriene B4 (LTB4)
64
What are the "first responders" of acute inflammation?
neutrophils
65
Do segmented (matured) neutrophils proliferate (divide/replicate) once they get to a site of infection?
No.
66
Can macrophages proliferate (divide/replicate) once they get to a site of infection?
Yes.
67
What are the first cells to arrive in viral infections?
Lymphocytes, not neutrophils.
68
If spinal tap of a patient with symptoms and signs of acute meningitis yield CSF with neutrophils, what do you suspect is the source of infection, virus or bacteria?
Bacteria.
69
Autoimmune inflammation is commonly lymphocytic, eosinophilic or neutrophilic?
Lymphocytic
70
Allergic inflammation is commonly lymphocytic, neutrophilic or eosinophilic?
Eosinophilic
71
A macrophage has ______ receptors that bind _______ or fructose residues of glycoproteins and glycolipids, which are prevalent in microbes, but not human glycoproteins and glycolipids.
Mannose receptors; bind mannose
72
Macrophage integrins, particularly _______ may also bind microbes in addition to the mannose receptors.
Mac-1
73
Phagocytosis of microbes is greatly enhanced when they are coated with ______ that adhere to microbes or molecules and then bind to phagocytes, facilitating recognition and attachment.
Opsonins
74
The major opsonins are:
Various IgG antibodies, C3b complement, and mannose-binding lectin
75
We defend ourselves against leaked contents of macrophage/neutrophil lysosomes with the antioxidants:
enzyme superoxide dismutase enzyme catalase enzyme glutathione peroxidase ceruloplasmin (serum copper-transporting protein) transferrin (serum iron-transporting protein)
76
What compound reduces oxygen to the effector molecule, superoxide anion, that is lethal to microbes?
NADPH
77
What is the most efficient bacteriocidal system of neutrophils?
the hydrogen peroxide-myeloperoxidase-halide system.
78
If the peroxide-myeloperoxidase-halide system fails due to a myeloperoxidase deffiiency in a neutrophil, what else can do the job?
Hydrogen peroxide can be converted to hydroxyl radical, which is also efficacious in killing bacteria
79
What is iNOS?
inducible nitric oxide synthetase. This compound is responsible for creating the nitric oxide precursor of the reactive nitrogen species, used in executing invading microbes, from arginine.
80
If a person lacks both iNOS and NADPH in their neutrophils, what will happen?
They will be overwhelmed by bacterial infection and fucking die.
81
How does lysozyme work?
It hydrolyzes the glycopeptide coat of all bacteria.
82
What are defensins?
Cationic arginine-rich peptides toxic to bacteria. Is a phagocyte effector molecule.
83
What is an acid protease?
degrade bacteria and debris when the phagolysosome environment is acidified by proton pumps in their membranes. A phagocyte effector molecule
84
These proteases degrade bacteria and debris in phagolysosomes, but if released outside phagocytes, degrade collagen, basement membrane, fibrin, elastin, cartilage; cleave complement C3 and C5 to cause anaphylaxis.
neutral proteases
85
What do neutrophil elastases do?
Degrade bacterial toxins
86
What are cathelicidins?
Antimicrobial proteins found in phagocytes
87
Some patients develop antibodies to this proteinase, called cytoplasmic anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (c-ANCA). This is an autoimmune disease called granulomatosis with polyangiitis (Wegener's).
Proteinase-3
88
We protect outselves against leaked proteases by antiproteases. The most important of these is ____________, which is the major inhibitor of neutrophil elastase.
alpha-1-antitrypsin
89
Congenital deficiency of alpha-1-antitrypsin results in uncontrolled elastase. The organ most severely affected by elastin destruction is ________.
Lung
90
List the 4 most important of the systemic effects of acute inflammation.
1- fever 2- tachycardia 3- hyperventilation 4- leukocytosis (elevated WBCs in blood)
91
What are the main cytokines that mediate the acute phase response of inflammation?
IL-1, TNF, and IL-6
92
The acute phase response to inflammation includes increases in plasma protein levels, namely:
C reactive protein, amyloid A, fibrinogen
93
If the liver is busy making acute phase reactive proteins, you may see a deficit of this protein's level in the blood.
Albumin.
94
T/F: Inflammation switches the body from catabolism to anabolism.
False. Anabolism to catabolism. Building to breakdown of proteins.
95
T/F: In acute phase inflammation, levels of epinephrine, norepinephrine, cortisol and glucagon go up.
True
96
How is it that a patient goes into a negative nitrogen balance during the acute phase of inflammation?
Skeletal muscle is broken down faster than the liver is making proteins of inflammation. This leads to elevated nitrates in the blood and thus in the urine output. This equals a negative nitrogen balance.
97
Usually and especially in clinical research, only a temperature of ______ celsius or _______ degrees F is counted as a fever.
38 C or 100.4 F
98
The main pyrogens (fever inducers) are:
TNF-alpha & IL-1
99
Which prostaglandin mediates fevers, acting directly on the hypothalamus?
PGE2
100
At what elevated temperature does a person become comatose?
43 C
101
A fully anesthetized patient is poikilothermic, meaning:
They have an ambient temperature. (same as surroundings)
102
The normal WBC count in adults is:
4,500-11,000/cu mm
103
Typically, infections (particularly bacterial) tend to cause leukocytosis of: (how many cells per cu mm)
15,000-20,000/cu mm but can be as high as 100,000/cu mm
104
WBC counts of between 40,000-100,000/cu mm are much more commonly due to ________ than an inflammatory response.
Leukemia
105
What is a leukemoid reaction?
A leukocytosis of between 40,000-100,000/cu mm due to inflammation.
106
Leukocytosis consisting of neutrophils (most common) is called:
Neutrophilia - most commonly associated with bacterial infections.
107
Leukocytosis consisting of lymphocytes is associated with bacterial or viral infections?
Viral infections
108
Leukocytosis consisting of eosinophils is associated with:
Allergies and parasitic infections
109
What are Dohle bodies?
Patches of dilated ER, which appear as "sky-blue peripheral cytoplasmic puddles") in neutrophils during severe acute inflammation.
110
Why does there appear to be a leukocytosis, specifically a neutrophilia, in patients on steroid therapy?
steroid therapy causes decreased margination of WBCs, so more neutrophils will be counted in a blood sample that does not represent an infection response
111
What is a left shift?
an increased number of immature granulocytes in the blood; mediated by TNF and IL-1
112
How would you tell if a patient on glucocorticosteroid therapy had an infection?
WBC count would be >20,000/mm3 and there would be left shift
113
What are acute phase reactants?
proteins produced in abundance with inflammation; these include clotting factors, complement proteins, serum A, C-reactive protein, alpha-1-antitrypsin and other antiproteases, ferritin, and hepcidin
114
What is ESR and what reactant causes it?
ESR = erythrocyte sedimentation rate, caused by fibrinogen - the cells sediment faster when they are stuck together; not a very specific or sensitive test for inflammation but it is quick and cheap
115
CRP stands for ____, which binds ____ and serves as ____, thereby initiating ____. Its synthesis is induced by ____, especially ____.
C-reactive protein; binds phosphocholines on bacteria; as a ligand for C1 thereby initiating the complement cascade; synthesis is induced by cytokines, esp. IL-6
116
What are the 4 criteria for SIRS, 2 or more of which indicate SIRS if present? (SIRS=Systemic Inflammatory Response Syndrome)
1. temperature >38˚C 2. HR >90/min 3. respiratory rate > 20/minute or pCO2 12,000/cu mm or 10% bands
117
Sepsis is defined as _____.
SIRS due to proved or suspected infection, with 25 additional parameters (added after the consensus conference of 2001)
118
What are the 5 main cytokines involved in the acute phase response?
(1) TNF-alpha (2) IL-1 (3) IL-6 (4) interferon-gamma (5) TNF-beta
119
The combined effects of glucocorticoids and cytokines on what cells result in the acute phase response changes?
hepatocytes
120
What 3 cell types are involved in first producing inflammatory mediator molecules?
1. macrophages 2. dendritic cells 3. mast cells
121
Histamine is a ____ amine stored in ____ of ____ cells. They function by binding the ___ receptor on endothelial cells.
vasoactive; granules; mast; H1
122
What 3 cell types are most important for secreting cytokines, and what other 3 cell types can secrete cytokines too?
primary: 1. activated lymphocytes; 2. macrophages; 3. dendritic cells secondary: 1. epithelial cells; 2. endothelial cells; CT cells
123
Activated endothelial cells, in addition to producing some cytokines, also become ____ which promotes ____.
procoagulant; promotes the formation of clots
124
Which molecule is responsible for promoting lipid and protein mobilization and decreasing appetite in the inflammation process?
TNF
125
The subset of cytokines that act primarily as chemoattractants for leukocytes are called ____.
chemokines
126
The 40 chemokines are classified into 4 groups on the basis of the arrangement of cysteine residues in them. What are they?
1. C-X-C 2. C-C 3. C 4. CX3C
127
Chemokines act by binding to what type of receptor? What can be said about these receptors' ligand specificities?
GPCRs, they have overlapping ligand specificities because the chemokines have such important actions
128
IL-8 is secreted by activated ____ and ____ cells. The most important inducers of its production are ____(3 things). The primary effect of IL-8 is activation and chemotaxis of ____.
macrophages and endothelial cells; microbial products, TNF, and IL-1; neutrophils
129
The C chemokines act primarily on what cells?
lymphocytes
130
What is "mottling" of the skin?
Irregular mixture of colors, usually a sign of ischemia
131
Fractalkine is a chemokine that signals for migration of:
Monocytes & T-cells
132
MCP-1 stands for:
Monocyte chemoattractant protein-1
133
MIP-1alpha stands for macrophage inflammatory protein-1alpha and is a chemoattractant for: (hint: more than macrophages)
monocytes, lymphocytes, eosinophils, & basophils
134
__________ is the neutrophil police dispatcher, chemoattractant for neutrophils.
IL-8
135
What is the memory aide for the 5 modifiable risk factors for atherosclerosis?
``` SHODDy Smoking Hypertension Obesity Diabetes Dyslipidemia ```
136
What type of inflammatory cells dominate interstitial tissues during acute vs chronic inflammation?
Acute: neutrophils Chronic: Lymphocytes
137
CD14 is a ____ (receptor type) present on ________ (cell type) that recognizes the _____ (surface antigen) of gram negative bacteria.
TLR; macrophages; LPS (a DAMP)
138
TLR activation by a PAMP results in upregulation of ________ (transcription factor), the "on switch" that turns on the inflammatory response.
NF-kappaB
139
Arachidonic acid is released from the _____________ by ___________ .
phospholipid cell membrane; phospholipase A2
140
Once arachidonic acid is released from the PM, it is then acted on by either of these two pathways:
Cyclooxygenase or lipoxygenase
141
Generally speaking, the cyclooxygenase pathway produces these mediators of inflammation:
prostaglandins (PGI2, PGE2, PGD2)
142
The prostaglandin products of the cyclooxygenase pathway mediate these events of acute inflammation:
vasoDilation and vascular permeability
143
In addition to vasodilation and vascular permeability, PGE2 mediates:
Fever and pain
144
Generally speaking, the lipoxygenase pathway produces these mediators of acute inflammation:
Leukotrienes LTB4- attracts and activates neutrophils LTC4, LTD4, LTE4- mediate vasoConstriction, bronchospasm, increase vascular permeability
145
What are the 4 key mediators of neutrophils?
C5a, LTB4, IL-8, bacterial products
146
List 3 ways mast cells are activated.
1) Tissue trauma 2) Complement proteins C3a & C5a 3) Cross-linking of cell surface IgE by antigen
147
Where does increased vascular permeability occur?
Post-capillary venule