Patho-Pharm Exam 1 - Respiratory Flashcards

(112 cards)

1
Q

90% of respiratory illnesses are caused by what?

A

Smoking

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2
Q

What is a hyperresponsiveness of airways that is usually reversible and considered a disease of inflammation other than obstruction?

A

Asthma

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3
Q

Is asthma a disease of inflammation or obstruction?

A

Inflammation

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4
Q

Asthma is a constriction of what?

A

Bronchial smooth muscle

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5
Q

Hypersecretion of what occurs in asthma?

A

Mucous

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6
Q

Is asthma considered reversible or irreversible?

A

Reversible

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7
Q

An allergic response is an immune response T/F?

A

True

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8
Q

What immunoglobulin in involved in an asthma response?

A

IgE

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9
Q

What does IgE do to cause an immune response?

A

Binds to mast cells and drills holes in them to release histamine and leukotrienes.

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10
Q

Where are mast cells located?

A

In tissues all over the body.

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11
Q

Histamine and leukotrienes are released from what cells?

A

Mast cells

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12
Q

Edema and inflammation cause the smooth muscle of the bronchioles to do what?

A

Constrict

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13
Q

What are the usual causes of chronic bronchitis?

A

Smoking or inhaling irritants

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14
Q

Is the airway inflammation in chronic bronchitis reversible or irreversible?

A

Irreversible

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15
Q

For people with chronic bronchitis, what takes a lot of energy?

A

Breathing

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16
Q

Alveolar destruction is responsible for what condition?

A

Emphysema

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17
Q

In what condition are the “springs” broken”?

A

Emphysema

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18
Q

Is emphysema reversible or irreversible?

A

Irreversible

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19
Q

Identify the following conditions as irreversible or reversible:

Asthma
Chronic bronchitis
Emphysema

A

Asthma - reversible
Chronic bronchitis - irreversible
Emphysema - irreversible

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20
Q

What is the major cause of COPD?

A

Smoking

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21
Q

What is one bronchodilator?

A

Beta-adrenergic agonists

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22
Q

How do bronchodilators work?

A

Reduce airway constriction

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23
Q

Agonists stimulate the adrenergic receptors in what part of the autonomic nervous system?

A

Sympathetic NS

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24
Q

In what phase of asthma attack are bronchodilators used?

A

Acute

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25
Which receptors in the lungs are affected by beta-adrenergic agonists?
B2
26
Which receptors in the heart are affected by beta-adrenergic agonists?
B1
27
Common side effects of beta-adrenergic agonists?
Palpitaions, tachycardia, tremors
28
What is the device that is used with an inhaler to deliver the appropriate amount of medication?
A spacer
29
Corticosteroids are used for what type of asthma?
Chronic
30
Do corticosteroids relieve acute asthmatic attacks?
No
31
Inhaled or oral forms of corticosteroids reduce systemic effects?
Inhaled
32
How long does it take to see effects with a corticosteroid used for asthma?
Several weeks
33
Corticosteroids stabilize membranes of cells to prevent the release of what stubstances?
Inflammatory substances
34
Corticosteroids increase the responsiveness of bronchial smooth muscle to what other bronchodilator and are commonly used in conjunction with it?
Beta-adrenergic agonists
35
What is the suffix for corticosteroids?
-sone or -olone
36
What form is usually used for a combo corticosteroid/beta-adrenergic agonist treatment?
Powder inhaler
37
Adverse affects of corticosteroids?
Pharyngeal irritation Coughing Dry mouth Oral fungal infections Decreased immune response
38
What is one thing to teach patients after the administration of inhaled steroids?
Rinse and spit after use
39
What is a spirometer used for?
Encourage deep breathing in patients after surgery or laying in bed
40
What technique of breathing is used as retraining?
Purse-lip breathing
41
In COPD, what happens to flatten the diaphragm to make it immobile?
Air gets trapped in the lungs.
42
CO2 and H2O combine to form what in the lungs and what does it cause?
CO2 and H2O form carbonic acid which increases systemic acidity.
43
Why is it important to push the stale air out of the lungs in emphysema?
To avoid respiratory acidosis
44
What breathing exercise contracts the abdominal muscles and forces the diaphragm up and aids in expelling air?
Pursed lip breathing
45
Weight loss and malnutrition are common with what disease condition?
Emphysema
46
Patients on long-term oxygen therapy most commonly use what device to deliver oxygen?
A nasal canula
47
What is the FIO2 of room air?
21%
48
What is the increase in FIO2 for each L of O2?
3%
49
What drug has anti-inflammatory properties, is used for chronic asthma, does not relieve acute asthma symptoms and make take several weeks for effects to be seen?
Corticosteroids
50
What dosage forms are corticosteroids available in?
Oral or inhaled
51
What is the MOA of corticosteroids?
Turn off inflammation process (immune system)
52
Are corticosteroids good for long or short term control of asthma?
Long term
53
What is the inhaled corticosteroid to know for this test?
Fluticasone (Flonase)
54
What is fluticasone commonly combined with in powdered inhalers to treat persistent asthma?
Beta-adrenergic agonist (fast acting)
55
Pharyngeal irritation, coughing, dry mouth and what other side effect are the result of inhaled corticosteroids?
Oral fungal infections
56
Why are oral fungal infections caused by inhaled corticosteroids?
Because they depress the immune system
57
How many meters of O2 can be administered through a nasal canula?
4 L
58
When a pt needs more than 4L of oxygen, what device is needed to administer it?
A venturi mask
59
A pt is prescribed 2 different types of inhaled medication for COPD. How long should the nurse wait to administer the 2nd medication?
Five minutes
60
The nurse has a prescription to give a client a long-acting beta 2 agonist, two puffs, and a steroid, two puffs by metered-dose inhaler. Which medication should be administered first?
The bronchodilator (beta 2 agonist) should be administered first to open the bronchioles to allow the steroid to get where it needs to go.
61
In an acute asthma attack, which medication should be given first?
Albuterol (beta adrenergic agonist)
62
If a pt is being treated with a short-acting inhaled beta 2 agonist, what step in asthma treatment is this?
First step
63
What is the typical cause of the common cold?
Viruses
64
Why is excess mucous produced in response to a viral invasion that causes a cold?
From the inflammatory response in the mucosa of the upper respiratory tract to the invasion.
65
Nasal mucosal irritation causes the release of what substances?
Inflammatory and vasoactive substances
66
What is the effect of inflammatory and vasoactive substances in the nasal mucosa?
Dilation of the small blood vessels, causing congestion
67
Treatment of the common cold is what type of therapy?
Empiric - because don't know the cause, just treating symptoms
68
What is an antihistamine used to treat symptoms of the common cold?
Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
69
In what cells are histamines stored?
Mast cells
70
Where are mast cells located?
Everywhere - skin, lungs, GI tract
71
Where are a low level of mast cells located?
Blood plasma
72
T/F - An allergic release of histamine requires prior exposure to the allergen?
True
73
Which immunoglobulin is associated with allergic reactions?
IgE
74
What does IgE do to cause the release of histamine?
Drills hole in mast cell which releases histamine which binds to histamine receptors stimulating further release of histamine.
75
What substance is responsible for the sneezing, coughing, wheezy, itchy, runny nose of a cold?
Histamine
76
Vasodilation, increased capillary permeability, bronchoconstriction are the result of the release of what?
Histamine
77
Vasodilation is associated with bronchoconstriction - T/F?
True
78
Vasodilation is associated with decreased capillary permeability?
False. Vasodilation is associated with increased capillary permeability.
79
Histamine acts through what receptor?
H1
80
What is the MOA of antihistamines?
Block action of histamine at H1 receptor sites
81
T/R - Diphenhydramine is best used palliative?
False. It is best used prophylactically.
82
Diphenhydramine is what generation of H1 antagonists?
First generation
83
Is diphenhydramine water or lipid soluable?
Lipid soluable
84
What can diphenhydramine do because it's lipid soluable?
Cross the blood/brain barrier
85
What are the three properties of antihistamines?
- Antihistaminic - Anticholinergic (Depressed acetyl choline, a neurotransmitter) - Sedative
86
Second generation antihistamines differ from first generation how?
- Much less sedation - Cross blood-brain barrier poorly
87
Stimulate saliva, gastric, lacrimal and bronchial secretions are the effects of what substance?
Histamines
88
Reduced salivation, gastric secretion, lacrimal and bronchial secretions are the effects of what substance?
Antihistamines
89
What is an anticholinergic effect?
Drying effect that reduces nasal, salivary, lacrimal and nasal secretions
90
What drug is an anticholinergic?
Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
91
Anticholinergic drugs repress what neurotransmitter?
Acetyl choline
92
What are the effects of anticholinergics?
Mad as a hatter Red as a beet Can't see Can't pee Can't spit Can't shit
93
What part of the autonomic NS do anticholinergic drugs mimic?
Sympathetic
94
GI upset can be reduced with anticholinergics by doing what?
Taking it with meals
95
2 types of coughs?
Production/non-productive
96
What are the 2 types of antitussives?
Opioid and non-opioid
97
Which type of cough are antitussives used for?
Non-productive coughs only
98
Where is the cough center of the brain that is affected by opioids?
Medulla
99
What is a big side effect of the opioid-based antitussive codeine?
Constipation
100
Is codeine a good pain reliever?
No
101
What is a non-opioid antitussive medication?
Dextromethorphan
102
What is the MOA of dextromethorphan?
Suppress the cough center of the brain in the medulla, just like opioid-based antitussive codeine, only is non-opioid.
103
Dizziness, nausea and drowsiness are adverse effects of what antitussive?
Dextromethorphan
104
Sedation, nausea, vomiting, lightheadedness and constipation are adverse effects of what antitussive?
Codeine
105
What is the MOA of expectorants?
Thin mucus
106
What should patients taking guaifenesin do?
Drink plenty of water
107
What drug reduces the viscosity of secretions?
Guaifenesin
108
What type of laxative is polyethylene glycol?
Hyperosmotic
109
What is the MOA of hyperosmotic laxatives?
Draws water into bowel from surrounding tissue
110
What is the brand name of hyperosmotic laxative that is used for bowel cleansing for procedures?
Miralax
111
How fast does Miralax, a hyperosmotic laxative, work?
30-60 minutes
112
What is a mild hyperosmotic laxative that is used in children?
Glycerin