Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

MUSCULOSKELETAL/RHEUM > Pathology > Flashcards

Pathology Flashcards

1
Q

Name the pathology:

Tumor where the periosteum is lifted and forms a triangular shell of reactive bone called a Codman Triangle

A

Osteosarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

term for bone fractures after repeated stress

A

stress fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

term for: bone is cracked, but not broken into 2 pieces

A

incomplete fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

term: fracture where overlying tissues are intact

A

closed (simple fracture)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

term for fracture where bacteria have a route from the surface to the bone; perhaps the bone is even sticking out the wound

A

compound (open, complicated) fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

term for fracture where bone is broken into several pieces

A

multifragmented (comminuted) fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

term for fracture where the ends of the bone fragments have done serious damage to the surrounding tissue

A

complex fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

term for fracture due to instrinsic disease of the bone; the force would not have broken a normal bone

A

pathologic fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what kind of cancer develop in a bone that has long-standing osteomyelitis?

A

squaous cell carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

which bug most often causes ostoemylitis?

A

staph aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

sickle cell disease pts probably have which bug if they have osteomyelitis?

A

salmonella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what do you call the subperiosteal shell of new viable bone in osteomyelitis?

A

involucrum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what do you call the inner native necrotic cortex in osteomylitis?

A

sequestrum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is pott’s disease?

A

spinal TB / combined infection of vertebral bodies & joint spaces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

when is a syphilis pt most contagious?

A

secondary syphilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

describe what happens in tertiary syphilis?

A

1-10 yrs after initial infection

  • formation of gummas (soft tumor like granulomas),
  • -granulomas are chronic & represent an inability to clear the organism
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

in order what are the 6 joint causing problems in the ER?

A
  1. Ankle
  2. Wrist
  3. Knee
  4. Hip
  5. Shoulder
  6. Elbow
    (A Wookie Knows His Shooting Eye)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is the most common type of ankle injury?

A

lateral sprain due to inversion, while walking or running

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is the most common type of wrist fracture?

A

colles fracture, at the distal radial metaphysis, w/ proximal & dorsal displacement, creating dinner-fork deformity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

75% of all hemarthroses in knee joing are caused by disruption of what?

A

ACL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

epidemiologically speaking which pts most often get hip fractures?

A

OLD, WHITE, WOMEN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what are the signs of cauda equina syndrome?

A

bladder distension, ↓anal tone, absent ankle, knee, bulbocavernosus reflex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is the classic triad in rhabdomyolysis?

A

muscle pain, weakness, dark urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

which vasculitis commonly affects both arteries & veins?

A

Wegener’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
what is the most common cause of hypersensitivity angiitis?
URT infection
26
what do you call it when you have hypersensitivity angiitis + skin + GI + renal ?
henoch-Schoenlein purpura
27
what kind of Ig is deposited in BV walls in HSP?
IgA
28
what is the MCC of HSP in adults?
drugs: especially sulfonamides, penicillins, cephalosporins, diuretics, phenytoin, and allopurinol
29
what is the only bone tumor that arises out of the epiphysis of long bones like the distal femur & proximal tibia?
Giant cell tumor
30
which malignant bone tumor is related to a peripheral neuroectodermal tumor (PNET)?
ewing sarcoma
31
what is the classic translocation for ewing sarcoma?
t(11;22)
32
which tumor has a classic onion skin appearance on xray?
ewing sarcoma (onion skin shows the layers of reactive periosteum)
33
what do you call the osteophytes that form at the DIP joints in OA?
heberden nodes
34
what do you call the osteophytes that form at the PIP joints in OA?
Bouchard nodes
35
which pathology is associated w/ HLA-DR4?
RA
36
what is the hallmark of RA?
synovitis leading to formation of a pannus
37
what are 2 major systemic complications of RA?
anemia of chronic disease | secondary amyloidosis
38
what is reiter syndrome?
triad of arthritis, urethritis, & conjunctivitis (wks after GI or chlamydia infection) can't see, can't pee, can't climb a tree
39
which arthritis causes sausage fingers?
psoriatic arthritis (DIP most affected)
40
what is the etiology of Lesch-Nyhan syndrome?
X-linked def. of HGPRT
41
how does Lesch-Nyhan syndrome present?
w/ mental retardation & self-mutilation
42
what do you call acute gout of the great toe?
podagra
43
how does alcohol make gout worse?
competes w/ uric acid for elimination in the kidneys & contains lots of purines
44
how do you know you are looking at urate crystals under the microscope?
they are negatively birefringment underpolarized light | -YELLOW-URATE-PARALLEL
45
how do you know you are looking at calcium pyrophosphate crystals under the microscope?
they are negatively birefringement under polarized light | -rhomboid shaped
46
anti-Jo-1 antibodies are found in what pathology?
dermatomyositis & polymyositis
47
what is most common benign soft tissue tumor in adults?
lipoma
48
what is most common malignant soft tissue tumor in adults?
liposarcoma
49
what is most common primary malignant bone tumor?
osteosarcoma
50
what is 2nd most common primary malignant bone tumor?
chondrosarcoma
51
A chondrosarcoma can arise out of what kind of tumor?
enchondroma
52
what are the overall most common tumors in bone?
metastatic: Breast Lung Prostate & Kidney | Bud Light Platinums for Kenny
53
what is the most common malignant soft tissue tumor in children?
rhabdomyosarcoma
54
what is the classic site of rhabdomyosarcoma in young girls?
vagina
55
what is a brown tumor?
found in hyperparathyroidism - cystic & hemorrhagic nature of this lesion - very spongy looking - not a neoplasm (focus of ↑ osteoclast activity)
56
HLA-B27 is associated with which pathology?
ankylosing spondylitis
57
which bone tumor has pain relieved by aspirin?
osteoid osteoma
58
what is the most common benign tumor of bone?
osteochondroma
59
an osteochondroma can sometimes transform into what malignant bone tumor?
chondrosarcoma
60
Paget's disease of bone has a risk of developing into what malignant bone tumor?
osteosarcoma
61
which bone tumor which is found in men that have to change their hat size, also has an increased alkaline phosphatase?
paget's disease of bone
62
which bone cell tumor classically arises out of the epiphyseal end of long bones and has a soap bubble appearance on xray?
giant cell tumor
63
what kinds of pts get osteoid osteoma?
males in their teens & 20's
64
what is mafucci syndrome?
multiple enchondromas form as well as soft tissue hemangiomas
65
what is Ollier's disease?
nonhereditary syndrome of multiple formations of enchondromas
66
where do enchondromas typically arise from?
usually solitary and out of the metaphysis of hands & feet
67
what is McCune Albright syndrome?
syndrome where you have polyostotic fibrous dysplasias, cafe-au-laie skin pigmentation, & endocrinoathies
68
which bone tumor has a characteristic moth eaten appearance on radiography?
fibrous dysplasia
69
what is a fibrous dysplasia?
benign localized developmental arrest | -has all components of bone but doesn't mature
70
what is a fibrous cortical defect?
benign developmental primary bone tumor
71
what do you call a fibrous cortical defect that is greater than 5-6 cm?
nonossifying fibroma
72
which primary benign bone tumor has a scooped out appearance on radiography?
fibrous cortical defect
73
there are 2 bone tumors (1 is malignant and the other is benign) that both have a storiform pattern on microscopy. What are they?
benign: fibrous cortical defect/non-ossifying fibroma malignant: malignant fibrous histiocytoma
74
Where would probably find a fibrous cortical defect?
children at the metaphysis of the femur or proximal tibia
75
what kind of pts get solitary bone cysts and where would you find them?
male children, 2/3rds at humerus or femur
76
which benign bone lesion resembles a sponge filled w/ blood?
aneurysmal bone cyst
77
why are aneurysmal bone cysts surgically risky?
there can be excessive bleeding
78
what kind of pts get aneurysmal bone cyts?
children & young adults, arises out of the surface of the bone, commonly found in long bones & vertebrae
79
name the lesion: | reactive, rapidly growing, small, benign, fibrous proliferation on the subcutis, usually as small mass
nodular fasciitis
80
where do you most commonly see nodular fasciitis?
ARMS of young adults who present with a history of rapid growth
81
name the lesion: post traumatic often lower limb, reactive bone formation in muscle as a result of injury (woven bone in granulation tissue)
myositis ossificans
82
what kinds of pts get fibrosarcomas and where?
men in their middle age, arises in soft tissues of thigh and posterior knee
83
name the pathology: due to non-cancerous growth of dermal dendritic histiocytic cells, sometimes arises at site of minor injury like an insect bite
dermatofibroma
84
name the pathology: soft tissue neoplasm w/ low grade malignancy, locally aggressive w/ high recurrence rate, cutaneous malignancy that arises from the dermis & invades deeper subq tissue
dermoatofibrosarcoma Protuberans
85
this tumor contains both fibroblast-like & histiocyte-like cells w/ spindled & rounded cells exhibiting a storiform pattern
malignant fibrous histiocytoma
86
which soft tissue neoplasm is classically seen in pts after radiation therapy?
malignant fibrous histiocytoma
87
which tumor has a sunburst appearance on xray?
osteosarcoma
88
which tumor has homer-wright rosettes, and what are they?
ewing sarcoma, tumor cells are arranged in a circle about a central fibrillary space; possible neural differentiation
89
Name the pathology: this disease has saber shins and a saddle nose
congenital syphilisy

MUSCULOSKELETAL/RHEUM (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions