Pathology Flashcards

(65 cards)

1
Q

What causes essential hypertension at the pathophysiological level?

A

Increased systemic vascular resistance and/or sodium retention

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2
Q

What’s the underlying pathology in asthma?

A

Reversible airway inflammation and hyperresponsiveness → bronchoconstriction.

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3
Q

What is the primary defect in T1DM vs T2DM?

A

T1DM = autoimmune β-cell destruction;
T2DM = insulin resistance + impaired secretion.

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4
Q

What lab values indicate hypothyroidism?

A

↑ TSH and ↓ T4.

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5
Q

What defines CKD?

A

Egfr of less than 60 for 3 months or more

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6
Q

What drugs help reduce CKD progression?

A

ACEi or ARBs

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7
Q

What bacteria most commonly cause UTIs?

A

E coli

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8
Q

What is the CURB65 score used for?

A

assess severity and guide management of community-acquired pneumonia

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9
Q

What is the pathophysiology of epilepsy?

A

Abnormal excessive neuronal firing → seizures.

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10
Q

What drugs are used in secondary stroke prevention?

A

Antiplatelets (aspirin, clopidogrel),
statins,
antihypertensives.

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11
Q

What monitoring is required with lithium?

A

Serum lithium levels, renal function, thyroid function, and U&Es.

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12
Q

What is the therapeutic range for lithium?

A

0.4-1 mmol/l

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13
Q

What class of drugs is used for acute anxiety relief but is not recommended long-term?

A

Bzp

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14
Q

What is the difference between typical and atypical antipsychotics?

A

Typical: Higher risk of EPS (e.g., haloperidol); Atypical: Lower EPS risk, more metabolic effects (e.g., olanzapine, risperidone).

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15
Q

What are the main causes of constipation?

A

Poor diet, dehydration, immobility, opioid use, hypothyroidism, IBS.

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16
Q

Common causes of acute diarrhoea?

A

Viral gastroenteritis, bacterial infection, food poisoning, antibiotics.

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17
Q

Is Crohn’s continuous or patchy?

A

Patchy inflammation affecting any part of the GI tract

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18
Q

symptoms of Crohn’s disease?

A

Abdominal pain, weight loss, diarrhoea, fatigue

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19
Q

First-line induction therapy for Crohn’s flare?

A

Corticosteroids (e.g., prednisolone).

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20
Q

Maintenance therapy for Crohn’s?

A

Azathioprine or methotrexate ± biologics

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21
Q

Is UC continuous or patchy?

A

Continuous inflammation starting from the rectum.

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22
Q

Key symptoms of UC?

A

Bloody diarrhoea, urgency, tenesmus, abdominal pain

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23
Q

What drug is commonly used in UC but not Crohn’s?

A

Aminosalicylates (e.g., mesalazine).

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24
Q

What causes Parkinson’s disease?

A

Degeneration of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra → ↓ dopamine

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25
symptoms of Parkinson’s?
Tremor, rigidity, bradykinesia
26
First-line drug for functional impairment in Parkinson’s?
Levodopa
27
Why is Levodopa given with carbidopa or benserazide?
To prevent peripheral metabolism of Levodopa → more reaches the brain and fewer side effects
28
Name a dopamine agonist and its main side effect.
Ropinirole or pramipexole Hallucinations
29
What do MAO-B inhibitors do in Parkinson’s?
Block breakdown of dopamine in the brain
30
COMT inhibitors MOA and example?
Block breakdown of levodopa Entacapone
31
Which drug helps with tremor but not rigidity?
Propanolol
32
What non-motor symptoms may be seen in Parkinson’s?
Depression, constipation, sleep disorders, cognitive decline
33
What is Alzheimer’s disease?
A progressive neurodegenerative disorder marked by memory loss, cognitive impairment, and behavioural changes
34
Pathological features of Alzheimer’s disease?
Amyloid-beta plaques, tau protein tangles
35
First-line treatment for mild to moderate Alzheimer’s?
Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors: donepezil, rivastigmine, galantamine.
36
MOA of donepezil in Alzheimer’s?
Inhibits acetylcholinesterase → increases acetylcholine in the synaptic cleft.
37
Drug for moderate to severe Alzheimer’s?
Memantine
38
What is rheumatoid arthritis?
chronic autoimmune inflammatory disease that primarily affects synovial joints
39
Key features of RA?
Joint pain morning stiffness >30 minutes swelling fatigue
40
What is the first-line treatment for RA?
Methotrexate
41
What are DMARDs and give 3 examples?
Disease-modifying anti-rheumatic drugs: Methotrexate, sulfasalazine, hydroxychloroquine.
42
What must be monitored with methotrexate?
FBC, LFTs, renal function
43
How does methotrexate work in RA?
Inhibits dihydrofolate reductase
44
45
What supplement is usually co-prescribed with methotrexate?
Folic acid
46
What is osteoarthritis?
degenerative joint disease caused by wear and tear, leading to cartilage breakdown.
47
Common symptoms of OA?
Joint pain worsened by activity, stiffness <30 mins , joint deformity.
48
First-line management of OA?
Lifestyle (weight loss, exercise), paracetamol, topical NSAIDs.
49
What is an infection?
Invasion and multiplication of pathogenic microorganisms in the body, potentially causing illness.
50
B12 deficiency is
Macrolytic anaemia
51
What is the goal of chemotherapy?
To kill rapidly dividing cancer cells, ideally without harming normal cells.
52
alkylating agents?
Cyclophosphamide Melphalan
53
54
Mechanism of alkylating agents?
Cross-link DNA strands, preventing DNA replication and transcription.
55
Examples of antimetabolites?
Methotrexate, 5-fluorouracil (5-FU)
56
Doxorubicin main toxicity?
Cardio toxicity
57
What is polypharmacy?
The concurrent use of multiple medications, often defined as taking five or more drugs simultaneously.
58
What are common risks associated with polypharmacy?
Increased risk of adverse drug reactions drug interactions medication non-adherence cognitive impairment falls, hospitalizations.
59
Why is polypharmacy a particular concern in older adults?
age-related changes in drug metabolism and multiple comorbidities
60
What are strategies to manage polypharmacy?
Regular medication reviews, deprescribing unnecessary drugs, involving multidisciplinary teams, patient education
61
What is deprescribing?
The process of tapering or stopping medications that may no longer be beneficial or may be causing harm.
62
Name a tool used to assess potentially inappropriate medications in elderly patients.
Beers Criteria. STOPP/START criteria
63
What is the Medicines Act 1968?
The primary UK legislation controlling the manufacture, supply, and sale of medicines.
64
What is GPhC?
the regulatory body for pharmacists, pharmacy technicians, and pharmacy premises in Great Britain.
65
What is a patient group direction (PGD)?
A written instruction allowing specified healthcare professionals to supply and administer medicines to groups of patients without a prescription.