Pathology Flashcards
(216 cards)
1
Q
oligohydramnios with flat face, limb deformities known as _____ _____
A
Potter sequence
2
Q
cysts and cartilage in the kidney, non-inherited disorder, known as ______ _____
A
dysplastic kidney
3
Q
Name 2 diseases that can cause potter’s sequence
A
- Bilateral renal agenesis
2. Autosomal Recessive PKD, Juvenile
4
Q
which presents in young adults, (AR PKD/ AD PKD)
A
Autosomal Dominant Polycystic Kidney Disease
5
Q
Enlarged kidney’s with renal failure (PKD/ Medullary Cystic Kidney Dz)
A
Polycystic Kidney Disease
6
Q
Shrunken kidney’s with renal failure (PKD/ Medullary Cystic Kidney Dz)
A
Medullary Cystic Kidney Dz
7
Q
Dirty brown granular casts are characteristic of ____ _____ _____
A
Acute tubular necrosis
8
Q
In tumor lysis syndrome, ______ crystals can accumulate in the kidneys
A
Urate
9
Q
Eosinophils in the urine indicates ____ _____ ____
A
Acute interstitial Nephritis
10
Q
Nephrotic syndrome requires proteinuria greater than ______ g/day
A
3.5 g/day
11
Q
Minimal change disease is usually idiopathic, but may be seen with ________ _______
A
Hodgkin’s lymphoma
12
Q
Why is immunofluorescence negative in Minimal Change Disease?
A
there are no immune complex deposits
13
Q
In minimal change disease the only protein that is lost is _______
A
albumin
14
Q
The most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in hispanics and af americans is (FSGS/ MCD/ MN/ MG)
A
FSGS
focal segmental glomerular sclerosis
15
Q
Which nephrotic syndrome responds well to steroids? (FSGS/ MCD/ MN/ MG)
A
Minimal change disease
16
Q
Most common cause of nephritic syndrome in caucasian adults is (FSGS/ MCD/ MN/ MG)
A
Membranous Nephropathy
17
Q
Which nephrotic syndrome is associated with Hep B and C, solid tumors and SLE?(FSGS/ MCD/ MN/ MG)
A
Membranous Nephropathy
18
Q
Which nephrotic syndrome is associated with HIV and heroin use? (FSGS/ MCD/ MN/ MG)
A
FSGS
focal segmental glomerular sclerosis
19
Q
sub-endothelial deposition, associated with HBV and HCV (MN/ MG type I/ MG type II)
A
Membranoproliferative Glomerulonephritis Type I
20
Q
intramembranous deposition, associated with C3 nephritic factor (MN/ MG type I/ MG type II)
A
Membranoproliferative Glomerulonephritis Type II
21
Q
Has sub-epithelial deposition
(MN/ MG type I/ MG type II)
A
Membranous Nephropathy
22
Q
Which disease can cause Kimmelstiel-Wilson nodules in the glomerulus?
A
Diabetes Mellitus
23
Q
Nephrotic syndrome: Has effacement of foot processes (MCD/ FSGS/ MN/ MPGN/ DM/ SA)
A
- Minimal change disease and
2. FSGS, focal segmental glomerular sclerosis
24
Q
Nephrotic syndrome: Has deposition of immune complex (MCD/ FSGS/ MN/ MPGN/ DM/ SA)
A
- MN: Membranous Nephropathy
4. MPGN: Membranoproliferative Glomerulonephritis
25
Nephrotic syndrome: Caused by a systemic disease (MCD/ FSGS/ MN/ MPGN/ DM/ SA)
5. Diabetes Mellitus
| 6. Systemic Amyloidosis
26
The Group A, β-hemolytic strep that cause PSGN carry the ______ virulence factor
M-protein
27
Nephritic Syndromes: H&;E shows crescents in Bowman's space (PSGN/ RPGN/ GS/ DFPG/ IgA N /AS)
RPGN
| Rapidly progressive glomerular nephritis
28
SLE --> Nephritic Syndrome --> __________
| SLE--> Nephrotic Syndrome --> __________
SLE --> Nephritic Syndrome --> DFPG: Diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis
SLE--> Nephrotic Syndrome --> MN: Membranous Nephropathy
29
Nephritic Syndromes: with Immune complex deposition in MESANGIUM of glomeruli (PSGN/ RPGN/ GS/ DFPG/ IgA N /AS)
IgA Nephropathy
30
Nephritic Syndromes: Defect in type IV collagen (PSGN/ RPGN/ GS/ DFPG/ IgA N /AS)
AS: Alport syndrome
31
M.C. cause of UTI (E. coli/ S. saprophyticus/ Klebsiella/ Proteus/ Enterococcus fecalis)
E. coli
32
UTI with alkaline urine and ammonia scent (E. coli/ S. saprophyticus/ Klebsiella/ Proteus/ Enterococcus fecalis)
Proteus mirabilis
33
Which has systemic signs? (pyelonephritis/ cystitis)
pyelonephritis, fever, flank pain
34
What disease in children can cause "thyroidization" of the kidney?
VUR: Vesicourethral Reflux
35
Crohn's disease predisposes nephrolithiasis with (Calcium oxalate/ ammonia mag phos/ uric acid/ cysteine)
Calcium oxalate
36
This nephrolithiasis results in stag horn calculi in renal calyces in an adult (Calcium oxalate/ ammonia mag phos/ uric acid/ cysteine)
Ammonium magnesium phosphate in adult
| Cystine stone in a child
37
This nephrolithiasis is not visible on X-ray (Calcium oxalate/ ammonia mag phos/ uric acid/ cysteine)
uric acid
38
This nephrolithiasis can occur with leukemia and hyperuricemia (Calcium oxalate/ ammonia mag phos/ uric acid/ cysteine)
uric acid
39
A flapping tremor with Uremia is called ________
Asterixis
40
What renal tumor is more common with tuberous sclerosis? (Angiomyolopoma/ RCC/ Wilms Tumor)
Angiomyolipoma
41
What suppressor gene is often implicated in Renal Cell Carcinoma?
VHL, von Hippel-Lindau tumor suppressor
42
Which has an average age of presentation in children of 3 y. o.? (Angiomyolopoma/ RCC/ Wilms Tumor)
Wilms tumor
43
Associated with Shistosoma hematobium infection (Urothelial Carcinoma/ Squamous Cell Carcinoma/ Adenocarcinoma)
Squamous Cell Carcinoma
44
Associated smoking, naphathyline and azo dyes (Urothelial Carcinoma/ Squamous Cell Carcinoma/ Adenocarcinoma)
Urothelial Carcinoma
45
Arises from a Urachal remnant (Urothelial Carcinoma/ Squamous Cell Carcinoma/ Adenocarcinoma)
Adenocarcinoma
46
The most common type of FUNCTIONAL pituitary adenoma is _______
Prolactinoma
47
A prolactinoma causes amenorrhea by inhibiting _______, which causes low levels of FSH and LH
GnRH
48
Why don't males get galactorhea with prolactinoma?
No lobular units in breast tissue
49
what drug can treat a prolactinoma?
Dopamine agonist, bromocriptine
50
How can a growth hormone adenoma cause diabetes?
GH prevents glucose uptake
51
What medicine can be given for a growth hormone adenoma?
Octreotide, mimic somatostatin
52
Ischemic necrosis of the pituitary due to blood loss after childbirth during or after child birth is called _____ ______
Sheehan's syndrome
53
In central DI, there is (hypernatremia/ hyponatremia) and the urine osmolality is (high/ low)
Hypernatremia, low urine osmolality
| polydipsia and polyurea
54
If there is no response to desmopressin, the diabetes insipidous is (central/ nephrogenic)
nephrogenic
55
How can you treat SIADH?
Demeclocycline, inhibits ADH
56
Presents as anterior neck mass (Thyroglossal Duct Cyst/ Lingual Thyroid)
Thyroglossal Duct Cyst
57
Presents as mass at base of tongue (Thyroglossal Duct Cyst/ Lingual Thyroid)
Lingual Thyroid
58
Hyperthyroidism increases SNS activity by increasing the # of ____ receptors
Beta-1 adrenergic
59
Hyperthyroidism increases BMR by increasing the number of _______
Na/K ATPase pumps
60
With hyperthyroidism there is (hypoglycemia/ hyperglycemia) and (hypocholesterolemia/ hypercholesterolemia)
hyperglycemia
| hypocholesterolemia
61
An autoantibody IgG that stimulates the TSH receptor is called ______ disease
Graves
62
In Graves Dz, pretibial myxedema and exophthalmos are due to TSH receptors in these locations signaling release of ___________
Glycosaminoglycans
63
Given for thyroid storm, ______ blocks the peripheral conversion of T4 to T3
PTU, Propylthiouracil
64
Given for Graves Dz, ______ blocks the action of peroxidase in the thyroid
Thioamide (e.g. PTU)
65
Autoimmune destruction of the thyroid gland is called _______ _______
Hashimoto Thyroiditis
66
Hashimoto Thyroiditis is associated with HLA- ____
HLA-DR5
67
What triggers subacute, deQuervain Granulomatous Thyroiditis?
viral infection
68
What is the key symptom of subacute, deQuervain Granulomatous Thyroiditis?
tender thyroid
69
Non-tender 'hard as wood' thyroid esp. in a young woman indicates ______ _____ _____
Reidel fibrosing thyroiditis
70
What is the mechanism for biopsy or sampling the thyroid?
FNA
71
What are the 4 types of thyroid carcinoma?
1. Papillary
2. Follicular
3. Medullary
4. Anaplastic
72
Which thyroid carcinoma has 'orphan annie eyed nuclei' and nuclear groves? (Papillary/ Follicular/ Medullary/ Anaplastic)
Papillary carcinoma
73
Carcinoma of the thyroid: surrounded by fibrous capsule with invasion THROUGH the capsule (Papillary/ Follicular/ Medullary/ Anaplastic)
Follicular carcinoma
74
Carcinoma of the thyroid: malignant cells in an amyloid stroma (Papillary/ Follicular/ Medullary/ Anaplastic)
Medullary carcinoma
75
Carcinoma of the thyroid: often due to MEN 2A and 2B is (Papillary/ Follicular/ Medullary/ Anaplastic) type
Medullary carcinoma
76
Medularry Carcinoma of the thyroid is associated with a mutation in the ____ oncogene
RET, same as MEN 2a and 2b
77
carcinoma of the thyroid, undifferentiated, in elderly (Papillary/ Follicular/ Medullary/ Anaplastic)
Anaplastic carcinoma
78
PTH activates oseoclasts via _______
osteoblasts
79
The MC cause of elevated PTH is ______ ______
parathyroid adenoma
80
High serum calcium causes pancreatitis because ______
calcium activates enzymes
81
High PTH levels can cause both high urine ______ and _____
phosphate and cAMP
82
MC cause of seconday hyperparathyroidism is ____ _____
Renal insufficiency
83
where are beta cells in the islets of langerhan's?
the center
84
Type 1 DM is a type _____ HSR
type 4 HSR, T-lymphocyte mediated
85
Diabetic Ketoacidosis can cause what respiration pattern?
Kussmanul respirations, hyperventilation to blow off CO2, reduce acid
86
How does obesity cause diabetes?
Obesity leads to decreased insulin receptors in periphery
87
A random glucose greater than _____ or a fasting glucose greater than _____ indicates type 2 DM
random greater than 200
| fasting greater than 126
88
What is the killer in hyperosmolar non-ketotic coma, HONK?
massive diuresis, hypotension and coma
89
NEG of large + medium vessels leads to _________
| NEG of small vessels leads to _______
large + medium: atherosclerosis
| small: hyaline arteriolosclerosis
90
What are the 3 key sites that uptake glucose w/ out a transporter, significant in diabetes
1. Schwann's cells in PNS
2. Pericytes of retinal blood vessels
3. Lens of eye -> cataracts
91
Diabetic osmotic damage: Glucose is converted to Sorbitol by ______ ______
Aldose Reductase
92
What type of pancreatic endocrine tumor can cause peptic ulcers?
gastrinoma
| (Zollinger–Ellison Syn)drome
93
What type of pancreatic endocrine tumor causes watery diarrhea and achlorhidria?
VIPoma
| excess vasoactive peptide
94
What type of pancreatic endocrine tumor causes achlorhidria, cholelithiasis and steatorrhea?
somatostatinoma
achlohidria due to inhibition of gastrin
cholelithiasis and steatorrhea due to inhibition of cholecystokinin
95
What type of pancreatic endocrine tumor causes episodic hypoglycemia?
insulinoma
96
How does cushing syndrome cause abdominal striae?
Cortisol inhibits collagen formation
| red, ruptured blood vessles
97
How does cushing syndrome cause HTN?
up-regulates alpha 1 receptors
98
What are the 3 mechanism for cortisol to modulate immune response?
1. Inhibits phopholipase A2
2. Inhibit IL2
3. Inhibit release of histamine from mast cells
99
What can cause bilateral adrenal atrophy?
too much exogenous corticosteriods
100
What can cause one adrenal to hypertrophy and the other to shrink?
primary adrenal adenoma, hyperplasia or carcinoma
101
What can cause both adrenals to hypertrophy
too much ATCH
ATCH secreting adenoma OR
paraneoplastic ATCH secretion, SSLC
102
this drug suppresses ATCH production by a pituitary adenoma, but not by SSLC
dexamethasone
103
high aldosterone and low renin is (primary/ secondary) hyperaldosteronism
primary
104
in congenital adrenal hyperplasia, the adrenal glands are (hypertrophied/ atrophied)
hypertrophied
105
The most common cause of Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia is ___________ enzyme deficiency
21-alpha hydroxylase
106
With congenital adrenal hyperplasia, you will have (hypertension/ hypotension)
hypotension
107
Waterhouse-Fridrichsen syndrome is typically due DIC from infection with ___ ________
Nisseria meningitides
108
What are the 3 major causes of chronic adrenal insufficiency?
1. Autoimmune Dz
2. TB
3. metastatic carcinoma (esp lung cancer)
109
Chromafin cells live in the adrenal _______
medulla
110
Before removing a pheochromocytoma, ________ should be given
Phenoxybenzamine, irreversible alpha blocker
111
What are the 3 components of MEN I
1. Pituitary adenoma
2. Parathyroid hyperplasia
3. Pancreatic tumors
112
What are the 3 components of MEN 2A
1. Parathyroid hyperplasia
2. Medually thyroid carcinoma
3. Pheochromocytoma
113
What are the 4 components of MEN 2B
1. Medullary thyroid carcinoma
2. Pheochromocytoma
3. Mucosal neuromas
4. Marfanoid body
114
Given for Graves Dz, Thioamide blocks the action of _______ in the thyroid
peroxidase
115
What is the mechanism of Demeclocycline in the treatment of SIADH?
reduces responsiveness of the collecting tubule cells to ADH
116
anti-GBM disease is also called _______ ________
Goodpasture syndrome
117
What leads to sodium and water retention in Nephrotic Syndrome?
Loss of serum protein ---> hypovolemia ---> activation of RAAS
118
Why are nephrotic syndrome pts at risk for staph and pneumococcal infections?
Loss of serum immunoglobulins
119
Why are nephrotic syndrome pts at risk for thrombus?
loss of ATIII
120
In membranous nephropathy, basement membrane damage is largely mediated by (Neutrophiles/ macrohpahges/ complement)
complement, MAC C5b-C9
121
Albumin has a size small enough to get through the glomerular filtration barrier. What keeps it from being filtered?
the charge barrier, both (-) charged
122
Both minimal change disease and FSGS have podocyte effacement. What is the hallmark finding of FSGS?
epithelial damage
123
deposition on immune complexes in the BM of the glomeruli is called MPGN type 2 or, _______ _______ _____
Dense deposit disease
124
Which disease has C3NeF, C3 Nephritic factor?
Dense deposit disease= MPGN type 2
125
Henoch-Schonlein purpura is a manifestation of the renal disease ____ ________
IgA Nephropathy,
| Both are IgA mediated
126
what are 2 reasons renal tubules are susceptible to damage
1. high energy demand w high blood flow
| 2. high surface area
127
which virus is a major cause pyelonephritis in the immunosuppressed, especially allograft recipients?
polyomavirus
128
What are the two types of chronic pyelonephritis?
1. Reflux nephropathy
| 2. Chronic Obstructive pyelonephritis
129
Toxin induced tubulointerstitial nephritis often has elevated serum (IgG/ IgE/ IgM)
IgE, IgE plasma cells and basophils
130
malignant nephrosclerosis is strongly correlated with the degree of ________
HTN, hypertension
131
Hyperplastic arterioles caused by HTN have a _____-______ appearance on histology
Onion skin
132
Excess activation of platelets in TTP can clog the kidneys. TTP is caused by the gene ________
ADAMTS13, a plasma metaloprotinase
133
```
Adult PKD (AD/AR)
Childhood PKD (AD/AR)
```
Adult PKD: AD
| Child PKD: AR
134
Renal epithelial neoplasm composed of large eosinophilic cells, arises from intercalated cells of the collecting ducts. (Angiomyolipoma/ Oncocytoma/ RCC)
Oncocytoma
135
Fibrous tissue replacement of the thyroid gland is called_________
Riedel Thyroiditis
136
What is the treatment for Riedel thyroiditis?
1. Corticosteroids
| 2. Tamoxifen
137
Which type of tumor tends to invade the renal vein?
| Angiomyolipoma/ Oncocytoma/ RCC/ Wilm's tumor
RCC
138
Which is associated with VHL?
| Angiomyolipoma/ Oncocytoma/ RCC/ Wilm's tumor
RCC
139
Which type of kidney stones are associated with proteus UTI? (calcium oxalate/ calcium phosphate/ magnesium ammonia phosphate/ Uric Acid)
magnesium ammonia phosphate
140
What are the components of WAGR syndrome?
Wilm's tumor
Anirida
Genitourinary
Retardation (mental)
141
HTN in a child with a Wilm's tumor is due to _______ secretion
renin
142
Hypothyroidism in infancy or early childhood is called ________
Cretinism
143
Why does cretinism cause mental retardation?
The developing brain requires thyroxine for maturation during the first year of life
144
How does adult hypothyroidism lead to bradycardia?
Low thyroxine leads to few beta adrenergic receptors
145
How does hypothyroidism lead to hyper cholesterolemia?
Decreased synthesis of LDL receptors
146
What causes exophthalmos in hyperthyroidism?
Swelling of orbital tissue with water retention from hydrophilic mucopolysaccharides and lymphocytic infiltrate
147
What is the first-line treatment for graves disease?
1. Beta-blockers
2. Thionamides
3. Ablative iodine 131
For thyroid storm use PTU
148
Which thyroid carcinoma is the overall most common? (Papillary/ Follicular/ Medullary/ Anaplastic)
Papillary adenocarcinoma
149
Which thyroid carcinoma may have psammoma bodies? (Papillary/ Follicular/ Medullary/ Anaplastic)
Papillary adenocarcinoma
150
Which thyroid carcinoma is the most fatal? (Papillary/ Follicular/ Medullary/ Anaplastic)
anaplastic thyroid cancer
151
PTH causes increased calcium resorption in the ______ _____ ______ of the nephron
early distal tubule
152
Why does tetany occur with respiratory alkalosis?
alkalosis --> more COO- on albumin --> binds more Ca2+ --> lower free Ca2+ --> tetany
153
Facial twitch after taping on the facial nerve is called ______ sign
Chvotek
154
How does decreased free Ca2+ cause tetany?
causes partial depolarization of nerves and muscles, lowers threshold for depolarization
155
What is trousseau's sign? what does it indicate?
Trousseau's sign: thumb adducts to palm
| Manifestation of tetany, indicates low free Ca2+
156
What is the "knuckle'knuckle-dimple-dimple" sign?
| What does it indicate?
short 4th and 5th didgets
| indicates pseudohypoparathyroidism
157
End organ resistance to PTH is called _____________
pseudohypoparathyroidism
158
What are the GI effects of Hyperparathyroidism?
1. Peptic ulcers, Ca2+ stimulates gastrin
2. Acute pancreatitis, Ca2+ activates phopholipase
3. Constipation
159
how does Hyperparathyroidism cause osteitis fibrosa cystica?
increased osteoclastic activity
160
hypovitaminosis D can lead to (hyper/hypo)parathyroidism
hyperparathyroidism
161
Vitamin D promotes bone mineralization by stimulating release of ______ ______ form osteoblasts
alkaline phosphatase
162
Bence-Jones proteins are associated with _______ _______
multiple myeloma
163
A benign pituitary tumor derived from Rathke's pouch is called_______
Craniopharyngioma
164
Hypertriglyceridemia occurs with Diabetes because the lack of insulin decreases ________________
Capillary lipoprotein lipase
165
In DKA, prerenal azotemia is caused by __________
Volume depletion from osmotic diuresis
166
In DKA there is anion gap metabolic acidosis due to _________
Ketoacidosis and Lactic acidosis
167
In DKA there can be hyperkalemia due to _______________
Excess H+ enter the cell in exchange for K+
168
Total body potassium and sodium are decreased in DKA due to ____________
Osmotic diuresis, lost with glucose
169
A deficiency in ADH secretion from the post pit is called _______ _______, while an excess of ADH is called ________
ADH deficiency: diabetes insipidus
| ADH excess: syndrome of inappropriate ADH
170
Failure of the testicle to descend into the scrotal sac is called _________
Cryptoorchidism
171
What infectious bacteria can cause Orchitis or Prostatitis in Young people? In Old people?
Young: Chalmydia trachomatis (D-K) and N gonorrhoeae
Old: E. Coli and Pseudomonas
172
What infectious virus can cause orchitis?
Mumps virus
173
Testicular torsion occurs with twisting of the ______ _____
spermatic cord
174
A varicocele is a dilation of the ______ ______
spermatic vein, due to impaired drainage
175
What left sided testicular lesion is associated with a left sided RCC?
Varicocele
| RCC invaded L Renal Vein causing obstruction of outflow --> vari CeeLo
176
On the Left side, the spermatic vein drains into the _______. On the right side the spermatic vein drains into the ________
Left side --> Renal vein
| Right side --> IVC
177
A hydrocele is fluid collection in the _______ _______
tunica vaginalis
178
What are the two broad types of testicular tumors? Which is malignant?
1. Germ cell, M.C. and are malignant
| 2. Sex Cord Stromal tumors
179
The alpha subunit of β-hcg is similar to:
alpha subunit of: FSH + LH --> gynecomastia
| alpha subunit of: TSH --> hyperthyroidism
180
♂ germ cell tumors: homogeneous mass with no hemorrhage or necrosis
(Seminoma/ Embryonal Carcinoma/ Yolk Sac Tumor/ Choroicarcinoma/ Teratoma)
Seminoma
181
♂ germ cell tumors: M.C. tumor in children
| Seminoma/ Embryonal Carcinoma/ Yolk Sac Tumor/ Choroicarcinoma/ Teratoma
Yolk Sac Tumor
182
♂ germ cell tumors: hemorrhagic mass with necrosis
| Seminoma/ Embryonal Carcinoma/ Yolk Sac Tumor/ Choroicarcinoma/ Teratoma
Embryonal Carcinoma
183
♂ germ cell tumors: composed of synctiotrophoblasts and cytotrophoblasts
(Seminoma/ Embryonal Carcinoma/ Yolk Sac Tumor/ Choroicarcinoma/ Teratoma)
Choroicarcinoma
184
♂ germ cell tumors: has schiller-duval bodies or 'glomeruloid-like structes'
(Seminoma/ Embryonal Carcinoma/ Yolk Sac Tumor/ Choroicarcinoma/ Teratoma)
Yolk Sac Tumor
185
♂ germ cell tumors: good prognosis, responds well to radiotherapy
(Seminoma/ Embryonal Carcinoma/ Yolk Sac Tumor/ Choroicarcinoma/ Teratoma)
Seminoma
186
♂ germ cell tumors: small site of origin, quickly spreads hematogenously
(Seminoma/ Embryonal Carcinoma/ Yolk Sac Tumor/ Choroicarcinoma/ Teratoma)
Choroicarcinoma, synctiotrophoblasts and cytotrophoblasts seek blood vessels
187
♂ germ cell tumors: benign in ♀, malignant in ♂
| Seminoma/ Embryonal Carcinoma/ Yolk Sac Tumor/ Choroicarcinoma/ Teratoma
Teratoma
188
The most common cause of testicular tumor in a male > 60y.o. is ________
In a man age 15-40 it is usually a _______
Older than 60: Lymphoma
| Age 15-40: Germ cell tumor
189
Sex cord stomal tumors: Produces androgens, characteristic Reinke Crystal
(Leydig cell tumor/ Sertoli cell tumor)
Leydig cell tumor
190
Sex cord stomal tumors: comprised of tubules, often clinically silent
(Leydig cell tumor/ Sertoli cell tumor)
Sertoli cell tumor
191
BPH effects which zone of the prostate most?
peri-urethral zone --> compression of the urethra
192
What is the most common cancer in men?
Prostate Adenocarcinoma
193
What is the most common location for Prostate Adenocarcinoma?
posterior periphery, lack of clinical symptoms, palpable by Dr DRE
194
Where is the most common site of metastasis for Prostate Adenocarcinoma?
Lumbar spine
195
What is a GnRH analog used for Prostate Adenocarcinoma?
Leuprolide
196
What is an androgen receptor inhibitor used for Prostate Adenocarcinoma?
Flutamide
197
Carcinoma of the thyroid: elevated levels of calcitonin
| Papillary/ Follicular/ Medullary/ Anaplastic) flushing, diarrhea, and itching (pruritis
Medullary thyroid carcinoma, MTC
198
What hormone reduce blood calcium opposing the effects of PTH?
Calcitonin
199
What cells in the thyroid produce calcitonin?
Parafollicular cells = C-cells
| located in the medulla
200
In Medullary thyroid carcinoma, MTC calcitonin gene products result in what signs and symptoms?
1. flushing 2. diarrhea 3. pruritis
201
What connects the fetal bladder to the allantios?
The Urachus
202
A chronic inflammatory reaction triggered by chronic infection of the GU tract with defective phagocyte function and foamy macrophages is called _________
Malakoplakia
203
What are the 4 types of urinary incontinence?
1 urge
2 overflow
3 stress
4 functional
204
when the Orifice of the prepuce is too small to retract over the head of the penis it is called ___________
Phimosis
205
Infection of the gland and prepuce of the penis is called ________
Balanoposthitis
206
Persistent and painful erection, my be caused by sickle cell is called _______
Priapism
207
What are the 3 CIS of the penis associated with HPV 16?
1. Bowen disease
2. Erythroplasia of Queyrat
3. Bowenoid papulosis
208
Carcinoma in situ CIS of the penis is strongly correlated with HPV ____
HPV 16
209
Hirschprung disease lead to dilation of what organ?
Congenital Megacolon
210
Hypospadias is opening of the urethral on the _________ surface of the penis
Ventral
211
when the hypothalamic neurons that are responsible for releasing GnRH fail to migrate into the hypothalamus during embryonic development is called __________ _________
Kallmann syndrome
212
Orchitis is frequently caused by the __________ virus
Mumps
213
A tumor that derives from the epithelial cells of rathke's pouch is called a _______
Craniopharyngioma
214
How can a prolactinoma decrease testosterone?
Prolactin has (-) feedback on GnRH, therefore both LH and FSH decrease
215
Which renal tumor is comprised of blastema and stomal cells?
Wilms tumor
216
Wilm's tumors are associated with ______ mutations
WT1
