Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Unit 5 ER > Pharmacology > Flashcards

Pharmacology Flashcards

(92 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

Synthetic aldosterone is called _________

A

Fludrocortisone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Blocks conversion of cholesterol to pregnenolone

A

Aminoglutethimide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Potent, nonselective inhibitor of adrenal and gonadal steroid synthesis and anti-fungal

A

ketoconazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Nonselective cytotoxic action on adrenal cortex and DDT analog

A

Mitotane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Relatively selective inhibitor of 11-hydroxylation, interferes with cortisol and corticosterone synthesis

A

Metyrapone
Tx for cushing’s
Dx for adrenal insufficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Progesterone receptor antagonist; GR antagonist at high concentrations

A

Mifepristone (RU-486)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Binds to somatostatin receptorand blocks release of ACTH from corticotropes
treatment for cushings and acromegaly

A

Pasireotide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which type of thyroid converting enzyme is expressed in the kidney and liver? (D1/ D2/ D3)

A

D1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which type of thyroid converting enzyme does the majority of conversion? (D1/ D2/ D3)

A

D2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which type of thyroid converting enzyme is expressed in the brain and skin? (D1/ D2/ D3)

A

D3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How does Iodine get into the follicular cells of the thyroid gland?

A

The Sodium-Iodide symporter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are 2 ways that the Sodium-Iodide symporter can be affected and cause disease

A
  1. gene mutations -> congenital hypothyroidism

2. Autoimmune Dz -> Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the synthetic T4 replacement?

A

Levothyroxone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the synthetic T3 replacement?

A

Liothyronine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the 4:1 mix of T4:T3?

A

Liotrix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Readjustments to thyroid medication should be made ____ weeks after beginning therapy

A

4-6 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which thyroid medication can be give IV in an emergency?

A

Liothyronine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the 3 drugs that inhibit thyroid hormone synthesis?

A
  1. Propylthiouracil, PTU
  2. Methimazole
  3. Carbimazole
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What step in thyroid hormone synthesis do Propylthiouracil, Methimazole and Carbimazole work?

A

organification of iodine

and coupling of iodotyrosine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which is the pro-drug? What is it’s active form? (Propylthiouracil/ Methimazole/ Carbimazole)

A

Carbimazole —-> Metimazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the 3 major side effects of Propylthiouracil, Methimazole and Carbimazole?

A
  1. agranulocytosis
  2. Hepatitis
  3. Lupus-like reaction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which is best used in pregnancy? (Propylthiouracil/ Methimazole/ Carbimazole)

A

Propylthiouracil,
crosses placenta less,
lower conc in breast milk,
but high risk of agranulocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How does 1,25(OH)2D increase serum calcium?

A

By increasing efficiency of intestinal absorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Lithium therapy leads to (increased/ decreased) calcium levels

A

increased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Thiazide diuretics cause (increased/ decreased) serum calcium levels
increased
26
Loop diuretics (increased/ decreased) serum calcium levels
decrease
27
What are the 5 bisphosphonates that reduce osteoclastc bone resorption?
1. Alendronate 2. Risedronate 3. Ibandronate 4. Pamidronate 5. Zoledronic acid
28
Which bisphosphonates cause fever and flu like reactions? 1. Alendronate 2. Risedronate 3. Ibandronate 4. Pamidronate 5. Zoledronic acid
Pamidronate and Zoledronic acid
29
Which bisphosphonates cause esophageal irritation? 1. Alendronate 2. Risedronate 3. Ibandronate 4. Pamidronate 5. Zoledronic acid
Alendronate Risedronate Ibandronate
30
Why can't calcitonin be used long term for lowering serum calcium?
Osteoclasts will down-regulate their receptors
31
How do hydrocortisone and prednisone lower serum calcium?
decrease production of 1,25 vitamin D
32
Synthetic PTH, used for osteoporosis
Teriparatide
33
Why does high potassium increase aldosterone?
it indicates that H2O volume is low
34
What are the 2 most powerful regulators of aldosterone release?
1. Potassium 2. Angiotensin II Other factors: ACTH, Sodium deficiency
35
synthetic mineralocorticoid: Binds aldosterone receptor (AR) which increases Na+K+ATPase expression and increase epithelial sodium channel expression
Fludrocortisone | for chronic adrenal insufficiency
36
in primary adrenal insufficiency there is hyperpigmentation due to increased _____, a bi-product of ACTH production from POMC
MSH, melanocyte-stimulating hormone
37
Chronic primary adrenal insufficiency is called ______ ______
Addison's disease
38
Acute primary adrenal insufficiency is most often caused by ______ ______ ______
Waterhouse–Friderichsen syndrome
39
The MC cause of Congenital adrenal hyperplasia is deficiency in the enzyme __________
21-hydroxylase
40
In congenital adrenal hyperplasia there is an excess production of _______ (steroids) and a lack of ______
excess of sex steroids, lack of cortisol
41
hypercortisolism is also called ________ syndrome
cushings syndrome
42
Dx: Acute adrenal insufficiency Rx: _________?
1. dexamethasone, won't interfere with blood measurments | 2. cortisol, works but will interfere
43
Dx: Congential adrenal hyperplasia w/ 21-hydroxylase def. Rx: _________?
1. replace glucocorticoids (cortisol) | 2. replace Mineralocorticoids (fludrocortisone)
44
What drugs are used to treat cushing's syndrome?
1. Ketoconazole - antifungal, blocks hormone synth 2. Mitotane- cytotoxic to adrenal 3. Metyrapone- blocks cortisol synth 4. Aminoglutethimide- blocks conversion of choles to preg 5. Mifpristone- creates cortisol resistance 6. Pasireotide- blocks release of ATCH
45
Dx: Aldosteronism Rx: ________?
1. Spironolactone | 2. Eplerenone
46
This drug is a PTH analog
Teriparatide
47
Insulin is necessary for (T1/T2) diabetes, as needed for (T1/T2) diabetes
necessary for T1 | as needed for T2
48
In the endocrine pancreas, alpha cells secrete _________, beta cells secrete _______
Alpha cells: glucagon | Beta cells: insulin
49
The metabolic hormones that increase in the amount of insulin released from pancreatic beta cells are called ______
Incretin hormones
50
The most important incretin in humans is ________
GLP-1, glucagon like peptide 1
51
GLP-1, glucagon like peptide 1 is made by the _______
L cells of the ileum and colon, response to meal
52
GLP-1 is degraded by ______
DPP-4, dipeptidyl peptidase-4
53
At the time of T2DM diagnosis, first line therapy is _______
Metformin
54
What is the mech of action of metformin?
Activates AMP kinase, inhibits mitochondrial isoform of glycerophosphate dehydrogenase Reduces gluconeogenesis from the liver
55
when you put you patient on metformin, you must monitor their _____ level
B12
56
What are the 4 sulfonylureas for Diabetes?
1. Glyburide 2. Glipizide 3. Glaclazide 4. Glimepiride
57
Which drug decreases hepatic glucose production?
Metformin, a Biguianide
58
Which drug closes Katp channels on beta cell plasma membranes?
1. Sulfonylureas | 2. Meglitinides
59
Which drugs increase insulin secretion?
1. Sulfonylureas | 2. Meglitinides
60
What are the 2 Meglitinides?
1. Repaglinide | 2. Nateglinide
61
Which drugs that increase insulin secretion work faster? (Sulfonylureas/ Meglitinides)
Meglitinides
62
Which drug activates PPAR-gamma?
1. Pioglitazone 2. Rosiglitazone the thiazolidinedione
63
Which drugs increase peripheral insulin sensitivity?
Thiazolidinediones: e.g. Pioglitazone
64
What are the intestinal α-glucosidase inhibitors?
1. Acarbose | 2. Miglitol
65
Which drugs slows intestinal carbohydrate metabolism? (Sulfonylureas/ Meglitinides/thiazolidinedione/ GLP-1 receptor agonists/ α-glucosidase inhibitors)
α-glucosidase inhibitors
66
What are the (4) GLP-1 receptor agonists/activators?
1. Exenatide, variable 2. Liraglutide, daily 3. Albiglutide, weekly 4. Dulaglutide, weekly
67
Which diabetes drugs cause weight gain? weight loss?
Gain: Sulfonylureas Meglitinides thiazolidinedione Neutral: Biguanides α-glucosidase inhibitors DPP-4 inhibitors Loss: GLP-1 receptor agonists SGLT-2 inhibitors
68
What are the DPP-4 inhibitors (incretin enhancers)?
1. Sitagliptin 2. Alogliptin 3. Saxagliptin 4. Linagliptin
69
What are the SGLT-2 inhibitors?
1. Canaliflozin 2. Dapagliflozin 3. Empagliflozin
70
Which class of drugs lower serum glucose by reducing glucose reabsorption in proximal tubule?
SGLT-2 inhibitors
71
Which to Diabetes drugs most frequently result in hypoglycemia?
1. insulin | 2. sulfonylureas
72
Patients at risk for hypoglycemia should carry both glucose tablets and _______ _______
glucagon injection
73
What is the peptide released with insulin from beta cells that SLOWS GASTRIC EMPTYING and suppresses glucagon?
Amylin
74
What is the injectable drug analog of amylin?
Pramlintide
75
Glucagon causes the liver to convert stored ______ into glucose
glycogen
76
What are the (3) Rapid Insulin therapies?
1. Lispro 2. Aspart 3. Glulisine
77
What are the (3) Intermediate Insulin therapies?
The neutral protamine w/ zinc: 1. NPH 2. NPL 3. NPA
78
What are the long acting insulin therapies?
1. Dentemir DoA: 6-24hrs | 2. Glargine DoA: 24-30hrs
79
What is the best insulin for maintaining a basal level of insulin throughout the day?
Glargine
80
What is the ultra long acting insulin?
Degludec, DoA 42 hrs
81
What cells have GLUT-1 receptors that do not require insulin for uptake of glucose?
1. RBC's 2. Brain 3. Cornea 4. Placenta
82
repeatedly injecting insulin in the same place can lead to __________
lipohypertrophy
83
What are the 3 defining characteristics of hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state, HHS
1. hyperglycemia 2. hyperosmolality 3. dehydration
84
The 4 major counter regulatory hormones that increase serum glucose are:
1. glucagon 2. cortisol 3. growth hormone 4. Epinephrine
85
What are the 3 defining characteristics of DKA?
1. Hyperglycemia 2. Metabolic Acidosis 3. Ketone Production
86
Insulin (promotes/prevents) fatty acid oxidation
prevents
87
winter's formula is that PaCO2 =
1.5 * HCO3 +8
88
An octapeptide that mimics natural somatostatin is called ________
octreotide
89
In an adrenal crisis there is hyperkalemia and hyponatremia due to increased ______
ADH
90
What are the 3 phosphate binders for secondary hyperparathyroidism from renal failure?
1. Selavemer 2. Calcium carbonate 3. Calcium acetate
91
What is the calcimimetic, reduced PTH and serum calcium level?
Cinacalcet
92
This is a mAb that targets RANKL to inhibit osteoclast maturation
Denosumab

Unit 5 ER (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions