Pathology Flashcards

(111 cards)

1
Q

what type of cells line the ventricular system

A
Ependyma cells 
(which are a type of Glial cell)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what cells act as the immune system in the brain

A

microglia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what cells act as a myelin sheath

A

oligodendrocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what are glial cells derived from

A

neuroectoderm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what are the 4 types of neuronal response to injury/disease

A

Acute neuronal injury
Simple neuronal atrophy
Sub-cellular alterations
Axonal reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what cells are most vulnerable to damage in the CNS when hypoxic and why

A

neurones

activation of glutamate receptors results in uncontrolled calcium entry into the cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is an axonal reaction

A

a reaction within the cell body that is associated with axonal injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is the cells response to axonal injury

A
increased RNA and protein synthesis	
swelling of cell body
 peripheral displacement of nucleus
 enlargement of nucleolus
 breakdown of myelin sheath
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is the most important histopathological indicator of CNS injury

A

Gliosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what are features of gliosis

A
  • astrocytes undergo hyperplasia and hypertrophy
  • nucleus enlarges
  • cytoplasmic expansion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is the role of oligodendrocytes

A

warp around axons of neurones forming myelin sheath

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is injury to oligodendrocytes a feature of

A

demyelinating disorders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is disruption of the ependymal cells associated with

A

ependymal granulations

local proliferation of sub-ependymal astrocytes
- produce small irregularities on the ventricular surfaces called ependymal granulations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what can cause changes in ependymal cells

A

infectious agents

viruses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

how do microglia respond to injury

A
  • proliferate
  • develop elongated nuclei (rod cells)
  • forming aggregates about small foci of tissue necrosis (microglial nodules)
  • congregate around portions of dying neurones (neuronophagia)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

how much CO does the brain receive

A

15% of CO

uses 20% of oxygen consumed by the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what arteries branch off to provide blood supply to the brain

A

internal carotid artery

vertebral artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what would a haemorrhage in the anterior cerebral artery cause

A
  • frontal lobe dysfunction
  • contralateral sensory loss in foot and leg
  • paresis of arm and foot, relative sparing of thigh and face
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what would a haemorrhage in the middle cerebral artery cause

A
  • hemiparesis
  • hemisensory loss
  • aphasia/dysphasia
  • apraxia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is Vertebrobasilar insufficiency

A

temporary set of symptoms due to ischemia in the posterior circulation of the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what does the posterior circulation of the brain supply

A

brain stem
cerebellum
occipital lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what conditions would infection in the brain stem cause

A

midbrain - webers syndrome

pons - medial and lateral inferior pontine syndromes

medulla - lateral medullary syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is the classical presentation of occipital stroke to a posterior artery occlusion

A

Homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what would a lack of blood to the cerebellum cause

A

Ataxia
Nystagmous
Intention tremor
Pendular reflexes (abnormal response to stimulus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
what conditions come under the term cerebra-vascular disease
Brain ischaemia and infarction Haemorrhages Vascular malformations and developmental abnormalities
26
what pathology can brain ischaemia/infarct cause
Global hypoxic-ischaemic damage Focal infarcts – due to local vascular obstruction
27
what happens in Hypoxic-ischaemic Damage
neurones affected more (as they are more vulnerable than glial cells)
28
what is meant by 'watershed' areas in reference to Hypoxic-ischaemic Damage
junctions of arterial territories (arterial border zones) – they are first to be deprived of blood supply during hypotensive episodes
29
what is the definition of a stroke
sudden disturbance of cerebral function of vascular origin that causes death or lasts over 24 hours
30
what are the 2 types of stroke
infarction | haemorrhage
31
what are the subtypes of stroke
infarction - thrombotic - embolic haemorrhage - intracerebral - subarachnoid - bleeding into infarct
32
what causes a cerebral infarction
local interruption of cerebral blood flow due to thrombosis or emboli
33
what is the risk factors of a cerebral infarction
``` Atheroma Hypertension Serum lipids, obesity, diet Diabetes mellitus Heart disease Diseases of neck arteries Drugs Smoking ```
34
what is the presentation of the brain between 4-12hrs, 15-20hrs and 24-36hrs after a cerebral infarction
4-12 = brain may appear normal 15-20 = ischaemic neuronal changes develop, defined margin between ischaemic and normal brain 24-36 = inflammatory reaction, extravasation of RBC. Activation of astrocytes and microglia
35
what is the presentation of the brain between 36-48hrs, day 3 and 1-2 weeks after a cerebral infarction
36-48 = necrotic area visible macroscopically, becomes swollen and softer than surrounding tissue 3 days = macrophages infiltrate into the area 1-2 weeks = stiffening of tissue and gliosis
36
what is the most common cause of a spontaneous SAH
rupture of a saccular aneurysm (i.e. Berry Aneurysm)
37
where do saccular aneurysm commonly occur
90% at arterial bifurcation of internal carotid artery 10% in vertebro-basilar circulation
38
what else can happen in a rupture of a Berry aneurysm apart from SAH
may also get intracerebral haematomas infarcts of brain parenchyma
39
what are the symptoms of a SAH
``` abrupt onset severe headache vomiting LOC meningeal signs CSF grossly bloody no precipitating factor often ```
40
what are acute complications of SAH
cerebral infarcts (4-9 days), acute hydrocephalus, and herniation
41
what effect does hypertension have on the brain
increased amount of atheroma hyaline arteriosclerosis microaneurysms
42
what can complicate a case of severe hypertension
hypertensive encephalopathy
43
what is hypertensive encephalopathy
upper limit of autoregulation is exceeded by forced cerebral hyperperfusion, induced by eclampsia or malignant-phase hypertension.
44
what is 'auto regulation' and what happens when this fails
mechanisms help to maintain blood flow at a “constant” rate hypoxic brain damage likely
45
what pathology is seen in hypertension and the brain
- Lacunar infarcts - Intracerebral haemorrhage and haematoma formation – ruptured aneurysms - Multi-infarct dementia - Hypertensive encephalopathy
46
what is demyelination
Preferential destruction of myelin sheath around axon Relative preservation of axons themselves
47
what causes demyelination
Diseases of myelin or oligodendrocyte/Schwann cell
48
what does myelin allow for
rapid conduction of electrical impulses along cell membranes. disruption of myelin sheath leads to disruption of electrical conductivity within the CNS
49
what is a primary demyelinating disorder
MS
50
what are examples of secondary demyelinating disorder
- central pontine myelinosis - sub-acute sclerosing panencephalitis - AIDS - axonal degeneration
51
what are other causes of demyelinating disorders
Metabolic | Toxic - cyanide, CO, solvents
52
what is the morphological appearance of MS
External appearance of brain and spinal cord usually normal Cut surface - multiple areas of demyelination, termed “plaques” Well-demarcated plaques in white matter May act as SOL
53
what matter does MS affect
white matter
54
how might plaques differ in appearance
acute lesions tend to be soft/pink older lesions are firmer/pearly grey
55
what areas can MS affect
occur at any site in the CNS commonly seen in CN II, periventricular white matter, corpus callosum, brain stem and spinal cord
56
what are the types of MS plaques
Acute active plaques Chronic (inactive) plaques Chronic active plaques Shadow plaques
57
what is the appearance of acute active plaques
demyelinated plaques that are yellow/brown, with an ill-defined edge which blends into surrounding white matter
58
what is the appearance of inactive plaques
centre of an inactive plaque contains little or no myelin. Astrocytic proliferation and gliosis are prominent.
59
how do shadow plaques appear
Border between normal and affected white matter is not clearly defined. Abnormally thinned out myelin-sheaths can be identified, especially at the outer edges.
60
what is the appearance of chronic plaques
well-demarcated grey/brown lesions in white matter, classically situated around lateral ventricles
61
to summarise what are the main histological features of MS
Demyelination Inflammation  Gliosis (astrocytic gliosis particularly)
62
dementia is subdivided into primary and secondary - what are examples of both
primary/organic dementia - Alzheimer's. diffuse levy body disease, huntington's disease, Pick's disease secondary - vascular, metabolic, infection, trauma
63
what is the most common cause of dementia in the elderly
Alzheimer's disease (AD)
64
what genetic condition has increased incidence of AD
Down's Syndrome - Trisomy 21
65
what are genetic links for familial AD
amyloid precursor protein (APP) gene found on chromosome 21, presenilin 1 gene on chromosome 14 presenilin 2 gene on chromosome 1
66
what is the macroscopic pathology of AD
- decreased size and weight of brain (cortical atrophy) - widening of sulci - narrowing of gyri - compensatory dilatation ventricles, 2° hydrocephalus
67
what lobes are affected in AD
frontal, temporal and parietal
68
what is the microscopic pathology of AD
neurofibrillary tangles Aß amyloid plaques (senile plaques) amyloid angiopathy extensive neuronal loss with astrocytosis
69
what stain is used to look for amyloid collections
congo red it goes Apple-green birefringence in the presence of amyloid
70
what are the neurofibrillary tangles seen in AD mainly composed of
TAU protein
71
what is the hallmark features of dementia with lewy bodies (DLB)
progressive dementia with hallucinations and fluctuating levels of attention
72
what type of features can develop in DLB
features of Parkinson's disease
73
what are the pathological features of DLB
Degeneration of the substantia nigra Remaining nerve cells contain abnormal structures called Lewy bodies Degeneration of the cortical areas of the brain
74
how can degeneration of the cortical areas of the brain with formation of lewy bodies be detected
immunochemical staining for the protein ubiquitin.
75
what is the inheritance pattern of Huntington's disease (HD)
Autosomal dominant | huntingtin gene of chromosome 4
76
what is the pathological appearance of HD
loss of neurons in caudate nucleus and cerebral cortex accompanied by reactive fibrillary gliosis
77
what is Pick's disease
progressive dementia commencing in middle life (usually between 50 and 60 years) characterised by slowly progressing changes in character and social deterioration leading to impairment of intellect, memory and language
78
pathology of Picks disease
Extreme atrophy of cerebral cortex in frontal and temporal lobes Neuronal loss and astrocytosis Pick’s cells (swollen neurons) Pick’s bodies (intracytoplasmic filamentous inclusions)
79
what are symptoms in Pick's disease related to
damage to frontal and temporal lobe
80
what is multi-infarct dementia
deterioration in mental functioning due to changes or damage to the brain tissue from hypoxia or anoxia (lack of oxygen) as a result of multiple blood clots within the blood vessels supplying the brain.
81
what causes multi-infarct dementia
successive, multiple cerebral infarctions cause increasingly larger areas of cell death and damage
82
what are people with multi-infarct dementia prone to
anxiety and depression as they are aware of their mental deficits
83
multi-infarct dementia can be difficult to distinguish from AD, what is more suggestive of multi-infarct dementia
Abrupt onset Stepwise progression History of hypertension or stroke Evidence of stroke will be seen on CT or MRI
84
what are the 2 types of causes of head injury
missile | non-missile
85
what happens in a non-missile injury
Sudden acceleration/deceleration of head Brain moves within cranial cavity and makes contact with bony protrusions.
86
what are causes of a non-missile brain injury
RTAs Falls Assaults
87
what are the different types of fractures seen in the skull
fissure fracture depressed fracture compound fracture base of skull fractures
88
what occurs at the moment of injury and what can it cause if severe
diffuse axonal injury coma/vegetative state
89
what are causes of diffuse axonal injury
``` trauma raised ICP progression of inflammatory disease progression od dementia hypoxia ```
90
what is the pathological time scale of axonal injuries
2-4 hrs - focal axonal accumulation of APP 12-24 - axonal swelling 24hrs - 2weeks - axonal swelling 2weeks - 5months - glial reaction 5months - years - degeneration and loss of myelinated fibres
91
when is a traumatic extradural haematoma often a complication
fracture in temparoparietal region that involves middle meningeal artery
92
what can happen is a extradural haematoma is left untreated
midline shift – compression and herniation associated brain damage often minimal
93
what are causes of raised ICP
``` SOL Oedema Increased CSF (hydrocephalus) Increased venous volume physiological - hypoxia, hypercapnia, pain ```
94
what are the effects of raised ICP
Intracranial shifts and herniations Distortion and pressure on cranial nerves and vital neurological centres Reduced level of consciousness Impaired blood flow
95
where are the common sites for herniations
falcine/cingulate uncal tonsillar transcalvarium
96
clinical signs of Raised ICP
papilloedema nausea and vomiting headache neck stiffness
97
what are examples of SOL
tumours (primary or mets) abscess (single/multiple) haematoma localised swelling
98
what are causes of a single abscess
- otitis media - sinusitis - nasal/facial/dental infections - skull fractures - penetrating injury - neurosurgical procedures
99
what are causes of multiple abscess
- septicaemia - acute bacterial endocarditis - bronchiectasis - lung abscess - cyanotic heart disease - IV drug use
100
what causes focal oedema
present as a result of other pathological lesions, such as infarcts, can also lead to an increase in intracranial pressure.
101
what is generalised cerebral oedema
Increased water content of the brain (either intracellular or extracellular)
102
what commonly causes extradural haemorrhages
rupture of meningeal arteries | skull fractures
103
what happens in an extradural haemorrhage
compress the subjacent dura and flatten gyral crest of underlying brain
104
what can be complications of an extradural haemorrhage
uncal gyral/cerebellar tonsillar herniation | death.
105
what causes subdural haemorrhages
disruption of bridging veins that extend from the surface of the brain into subdural space
106
what is a subdural haemorrhage
Collections of blood between the internal surface of dura mater and arachnoid mater
107
what are features of an acute subdural haemorrhage
clear history of trauma unilateral or bilateral associated with other traumatic lesions gyral contours preserved swelling of cerebrum on side of haematoma
108
what are features of a chronic subdural haemorrhage
associated with brain atrophy composed of liquefied blood/yellow-tinged fluid
109
what are Sx of a chronic subdural haemorrhage
altered mental status | focal neurological deficits
110
what are astrocytes
star shaped glial cells
111
what are the functions of astrocytes
provide support to blood brain barrier role in repair and scarring provision of nutrients maintenance of ion balance