Pathology - Haematology Flashcards
(450 cards)
1
Q
What are acanthocytes also called?
A
Spur/spike cells
2
Q
What causes acanthocytes?
A
Liver disease, CKD, hyposplenism
3
Q
What does basophilic RBC stippling indicate?
A
Lead poisoning
4
Q
What causes basophilic RBC stippling?
A
Lead poisoning, sideroblastic anaemia
5
Q
What are burr cells also called?
A
Echinocytes
6
Q
What often causes burr cells?
A
EDTA artefact
7
Q
What are Heinz bodies?
A
Denatured Hb inclusions
8
Q
What causes Heinz bodies?
A
G6PD deficiency
9
Q
What are Howell-Jolly bodies?
A
Nuclear remnants in RBCs
10
Q
What causes Howell-Jolly bodies?
A
Post-splenectomy, hyposplenism
11
Q
What is leucoerythroblastic picture?
A
Nucleated RBCs + myeloid precursors
12
Q
What causes leucoerythroblastic picture?
A
Bone marrow infiltration
13
Q
What are Pelger-Huët cells?
A
Hyposegmented neutrophils
14
Q
What causes acquired Pelger-Huët cells?
A
Myelogenous leukaemia, MDS
15
Q
What is polychromasia?
A
Bluish red blood cells
16
Q
What causes increased polychromasia?
A
Haemolytic anaemias
17
Q
What is right shift?
A
Hypersegmented polymorphs
18
Q
What causes right shift?
A
Megaloblastic anaemia, uraemia
19
Q
What is rouleaux formation?
A
Red cells stacked together
20
Q
What causes rouleaux formation?
A
Chronic inflammation, myeloma
21
Q
What are schistocytes?
A
Fragmented RBC parts
22
Q
What causes schistocytes?
A
Microangiopathic anaemia
23
Q
What are spherocytes?
A
Sphere-shaped RBCs
24
Q
What causes spherocytes?
A
Hereditary spherocytosis, AIHA
25
What are stomatocytes?
'Smiling faces' RBCs
26
What causes stomatocytes?
Hereditary stomatocytosis, alcohol
27
What are target cells?
Bull's-eye appearance RBCs
28
What causes target cells?
Liver disease, thalassaemia
29
What is anaemia in men?
Hb <135g/L
30
What is anaemia in women?
Hb <115g/L
31
What causes microcytic anaemia? (mnemonic)
TAILS
32
What does TAILS stand for?
Thalassaemia, ACD, IDA, Lead, Sideroblastic
33
What causes normocytic anaemia? (mnemonic)
MR I CALM
34
What causes macrocytic anaemia? (mnemonic)
Alcoholics May Have Liver Failure
35
What are signs of IDA?
Koilonychia, glossitis, angular cheilosis
36
What is Plummer-Vinson syndrome?
Post-cricoid webs with dysphagia
37
What is most common cause of IDA in adults >50?
Colorectal cancer
38
What is most common cause of IDA in women <50?
Menorrhagia
39
What is FIT test used for?
Screening for colorectal cancer
40
When should patients >60 with IDA be referred?
2-week-wait colorectal pathway
41
What are side effects of oral iron?
Black stools, GI upset
42
When is IV iron indicated?
Poor absorption, rapid rise needed
43
What is anaemia of chronic disease?
Cytokine-driven inhibition
44
What is ferritin level in ACD?
High
45
What is TIBC in ACD vs IDA?
Low in ACD, high in IDA
46
What causes sideroblastic anaemia?
Ineffective erythropoiesis
47
What are ring sideroblasts?
Iron around nucleus
48
What vitamin helps in sideroblastic anaemia?
Pyridoxine (B6)
49
What is transferrin saturation in iron deficiency?
<20%
50
What affects ferritin interpretation?
Inflammation (acute phase protein)
51
What suggests bone marrow failure in pancytopenia?
Low reticulocyte count
52
What virus causes pancytopenia in immunosuppressed?
Parvovirus B19
53
What are megaloblastic blood film features?
Hypersegmented polymorphs, macrocytosis
54
What are megaloblasts?
Megaloblasts are red cell precursors with an immature nucleus and mature cytoplasm
55
Where is B12 absorbed?
Terminal ileum
56
What is pernicious anaemia?
Autoimmune atrophic gastritis
57
What antibodies are in pernicious anaemia?
Parietal cell, intrinsic factor
58
What is SACD?
Subacute combined degeneration
59
What does SACD affect?
Dorsal columns, spinothalamic tracts
60
How often are B12 injections given?
Every 3 months
61
Where is folate absorbed?
Small bowel
62
What increases folate demand?
Pregnancy, cell turnover
63
Why check B12 before giving folate?
May worsen B12 neuropathy
64
What is normal RBC lifespan?
120 days
65
What happens in intravascular haemolysis?
Free plasma Hb, haemoglobinuria
66
What happens in extravascular haemolysis?
Splenomegaly
67
What is haptoglobin in haemolysis?
Decreased
68
What virus causes aplastic crisis?
Parvovirus B19
69
What is hereditary spherocytosis inheritance?
Autosomal dominant
70
What proteins are deficient in spherocytosis?
Spectrin, ankyrin
71
What test confirms spherocytosis?
Osmotic fragility test
72
What is DAT test in spherocytosis?
Negative
73
What is G6PD deficiency inheritance?
X-linked recessive
74
What protects against G6PD deficiency?
Malaria protection
75
What triggers G6PD crisis?
Primaquine, sulphonamides, broad beans
76
What cells are seen in G6PD?
Bite cells, Heinz bodies
77
When to test G6PD enzyme?
2-3 months after crisis
78
What is pyruvate kinase deficiency inheritance?
Autosomal recessive
79
How many alpha globin genes are normal?
Four
80
How many beta globin genes are normal?
Two
81
What is HbA composed of?
2 alpha, 2 beta
82
What is HbA2 composed of?
2 alpha, 2 delta
83
What is HbF composed of?
2 alpha, 2 gamma
84
What mutation causes sickle cell?
Glu→Val at codon 6
85
What is sickle cell anaemia?
HbSS
86
What is sickle cell trait?
HbAS
87
When does sickle cell manifest?
3-6 months
88
What triggers sickling?
Low oxygen tension
89
What is SICKLED mnemonic?
Stroke, Infections, Crises, Kidney, Liver, Eyes, Dactylitis
90
What test confirms sickle cell?
Hb electrophoresis
91
What is acute sickle cell treatment?
Oxygen, fluids, opioid analgesia
92
What increases HbF in sickle cell?
Hydroxycarbamide
93
What is beta thalassaemia caused by?
Point mutations
94
What is raised in beta thalassaemia?
HbA2 and HbF
95
What is beta thalassaemia minor?
Asymptomatic carrier
96
What is beta thalassaemia major?
Severe microcytic anaemia
97
What is alpha thalassaemia caused by?
Deletion mutations
98
What is Hb H disease?
3 deleted alpha genes
99
What is alpha thalassaemia major?
4 deleted genes, incompatible with life
100
What is warm AIHA caused by?
IgG antibodies
101
What is cold agglutinin disease caused by?
IgM antibodies
102
What is treatment for warm AIHA?
Steroids, splenectomy
103
What causes paroxysmal cold haemoglobinuria?
Donath-Landsteiner antibodies
104
What is Paraxysmal Noctural Haemoglobinuria?
Loss of GPI markers
105
What is Paroxymal Nocturnal Haemoglobinuria treatment?
Eculizumab
106
What causes MAHA?
Mechanical RBC destruction
107
What cells are seen in MAHA?
Schistocytes
108
What is TTP pentad?
MAHA, fever, renal, neuro, thrombocytopenia
109
What enzyme is deficient in TTP?
ADAMTS13
110
What is TTP treatment?
Plasma exchange
111
What causes HUS?
E.coli O157:H7
112
What is HUS triad?
MAHA, renal failure, thrombocytopenia
113
What monitors intrinsic pathway?
APTT
114
What monitors extrinsic pathway?
PT/INR
115
What monitors common pathway?
Thrombin time
116
Which pathway starts with factor XII?
Intrinsic
117
Which pathway starts with factor VII?
Extrinsic
118
What are vitamin K dependent factors?
2, 7, 9, 10
119
What is haemophilia A?
Factor VIII deficiency
120
What is haemophilia A inheritance?
X-linked recessive
121
What is haemophilia B?
Factor IX deficiency
122
What is most common inherited bleeding disorder?
von Willebrand disease
123
What does vWF carry?
Factor VIII
124
What is desmopressin used for?
von Willebrand disease
125
What causes DIC?
Sepsis, malignancy, trauma
126
What is consumed in DIC?
Clotting factors, fibrinogen, platelets
127
What is high in DIC?
FDP, D-dimer
128
What is low in liver disease coagulation?
All factors except VIII
129
What do you give for warfarin reversal?
Vitamin K, PCC
130
What is Virchow's triad?
Endothelial injury, stasis, hypercoagulability
131
What is factor V Leiden prevalence?
5% Caucasians
132
What is DVT prophylaxis?
LMWH, TED stockings
133
What is minimum VTE treatment duration?
3 months
134
What does heparin potentiate?
Antithrombin III
135
What is heparin antidote?
Protamine sulphate
136
What is warfarin target INR for DVT?
2.5
137
What is warfarin target INR for mechanical valve?
3.5
138
What reverses dabigatran?
Idarucizumab
139
What is HELLP syndrome?
Haemolysis, Elevated LFTs, Low Platelets
140
What causes HDN?
Maternal anti-D antibodies
141
When is anti-D given?
28, 34 weeks, delivery
142
What defines acute leukaemia?
>20% blasts
143
What are ALL age groups?
Children
144
What are AML age groups?
Adults
145
What are Auer rods?
Cytoplasmic inclusions in AML
146
What is CD34?
Precursor stem cells
147
What are B-cell markers?
CD19, 20, 22
148
What are T-cell markers?
CD3, 4, 8
149
What are myeloid markers?
CD33, 13, 117, MPO
150
What is M3 AML?
Acute promyelocytic leukaemia
151
What translocation is in M3 AML?
t(15;17)
152
What is M3 AML treatment?
ATRA
153
What is Philadelphia chromosome?
t(9;22)
154
What fusion gene in CML?
BCR-ABL
155
What is CML treatment?
Imatinib
156
What causes elevated basophils?
CML
157
What is major molecular response?
4 log reduction BCR-ABL
158
What are CML phases?
Chronic, accelerated, blast
159
What is CLL?
B-cell lymphoproliferative disease
160
What is CLL median age?
65-70 years
161
What are CLL markers?
CD5+, CD23+
162
What are smear cells?
CLL blood film finding
163
What is Richter's transformation?
CLL to large cell lymphoma
164
What is Binet staging?
CLL staging system
165
What is Hodgkin's lymphoma cell?
Reed-Sternberg cell
166
What age groups get Hodgkin's?
20-29, >60
167
What virus causes Hodgkin's?
EBV
168
What are B symptoms?
Fever, sweats, weight loss
169
What is Hodgkin's treatment?
ABVD chemotherapy
170
What is most common NHL?
Diffuse large B-cell
171
What translocation in Burkitt's?
t(8;14)
172
What oncogene in Burkitt's?
c-myc
173
What is Burkitt's appearance?
Starry sky
174
What translocation in mantle cell?
t(11;14)
175
What translocation in follicular?
t(14;18)
176
What is R-CHOP?
Rituximab-CHOP
177
What is multiple myeloma?
Plasma cell neoplasia
178
What is CRAB?
Calcium, Renal, Anaemia, Bones
179
What is most common myeloma type?
IgG
180
What is Bence-Jones protein?
Light chains in urine
181
What cells are seen in myeloma?
Rouleaux formation
182
What is myeloma treatment?
Bortezomib, dexamethasone
183
What is MGUS?
Monoclonal gammopathy undetermined significance
184
What is Waldenstrom's?
Lymphoplasmacytoid lymphoma
185
What immunoglobulin in Waldenstrom's?
IgM
186
What is AL amyloidosis?
Light chain amyloidosis
187
What stain diagnoses amyloidosis?
Congo red
188
What is MDS?
Myelodysplastic syndromes
189
What defines MDS?
<20% blasts
190
What is ring sideroblast percentage in RARS?
>15%
191
What is RAEB-I blast percentage?
5-9%
192
What is RAEB-II blast percentage?
10-19%
193
What is MDS mortality rule?
⅓ infection, ⅓ bleeding, ⅓ leukaemia
194
What is aplastic anaemia?
Bone marrow failure
195
What is Fanconi anaemia inheritance?
Autosomal recessive
196
What is dyskeratosis congenita inheritance?
X-linked
197
What syndrome has pancreatic dysfunction?
Shwachman-Diamond syndrome
198
What is Diamond-Blackfan syndrome?
Pure red-cell aplasia
199
What mutation in polycythaemia vera?
JAK2 V617F
200
What are 4 Ps of PV?
Pruritis, Peptic ulcers, Plethoric, Splenomegaly
201
What is aquagenic pruritis?
Pruritis with water contact
202
What is PV treatment?
Venesection, hydroxycarbamide
203
What cells in myelofibrosis?
Tear-drop poikilocytes
204
What is myelofibrosis BM finding?
Dry tap
205
What is essential thrombocythaemia threshold?
>600 × 10⁹/L
206
What reduces platelets from megakaryocytes?
Anagrelide
207
What is RBC transfusion threshold?
70g/L
208
What is platelet transfusion threshold?
<10 × 10⁹/L
209
How long are RBCs stored?
35 days
210
What temperature for RBC storage?
4°C
211
How long are platelets stored?
7 days
212
What temperature for platelet storage?
22°C
213
What is ABO incompatibility?
Type II hypersensitivity
214
What causes FNHTR?
Leukocyte cytokines
215
What prevents FNHTR?
Leukodepletion
216
What is TRALI?
Transfusion-related acute lung injury
217
What causes TRALI?
Anti-WBC antibodies
218
What is TACO?
Transfusion-associated cardiac overload
219
What prevents CMV transmission?
Leukodepletion
220
What is iron overload treatment?
Desferrioxamine
221
What reverses warfarin immediately?
Prothrombin complex concentrate
222
What is normal platelet count?
150-400 × 10⁹/L
223
What is acute ITP peak age?
Children 2-6 years
224
What is chronic ITP gender ratio?
F:M 3:1
225
What is thrombasthenia?
Glycoprotein deficiency
226
What is storage pool disease?
storage of platelet
227
What is haemophilia A factor level severity?
Severe <1%, moderate 1-5%, mild 5-25%
228
What should haemophiliacs avoid?
NSAIDs, IM injections
229
What is type 1 vWD?
Low levels vWF
230
What is type 2 vWD?
Poor vWF function
231
What is type 3 vWD?
Absent vWF
232
How to treat vWF disease?
Desmopressin
233
What is protein C/S needed for?
Anticoagulation
234
Why continue heparin with warfarin initially?
Warfarin initially procoagulant
235
What is HIT?
Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia
236
What is more common with UFH?
HIT, osteoporosis
237
What potentiates warfarin?
Liver disease, amiodarone, cranberry
238
What is target INR for AF?
2.5
239
What is antiphospholipid syndrome?
Thrombophilia
240
What increases in pregnancy?
Factors VII, VIII, IX, X, XII
241
What decreases in pregnancy?
Protein S
242
What is HELLP treatment?
Delivery of foetus
243
When does HDN occur?
Second pregnancy
244
What antibody crosses placenta?
IgG
245
What is most common anti-D cause?
Anti-D
246
What prevents HDN?
Anti-D immunoglobulin
247
When is routine anti-D given?
28 and 34 weeks
248
What defines acute leukaemia presentation?
Rapidly progressing
249
What is bone marrow failure triad?
Anaemia, thrombocytopenia, leukopenia
250
What organs does leukaemia infiltrate?
Liver, spleen, lymph nodes
251
What increases leukaemia risk?
Down syndrome, radiation, chemotherapy
252
How is leukaemia diagnosed?
Morphology, immunophenotyping, cytogenetics
253
What is TAM?
Transient abnormal myelopoiesis
254
What makes CNS involvement more likely?
ALL
255
What makes gum infiltration more likely?
AML M4/M5
256
What is M3 AML prone to?
DIC and bleeding
257
What causes hypokalaemia in AML?
M4/M5 subtypes
258
What is ALL maintenance duration?
2-3 years
259
What is nelarabine for?
T-ALL
260
What is inotuzumab for?
B-ALL
261
What prevents tumour lysis?
Allopurinol
262
What is CML spleen finding?
Massive splenomegaly
263
What monitors CML treatment?
BCR-ABL levels
264
What is blast phase CML like?
Resembles AML
265
What is CLL and SLL relationship?
Same disease, different sites
266
What is Evan's syndrome?
AIHA + ITP
267
What is better CLL prognosis?
IGHV rearrangement
268
What is worse CLL prognosis?
TP53 mutation
269
What is watchful waiting?
CLL management approach
270
What is BTK inhibitor?
Ibrutinib
271
What is BCL2 inhibitor?
Venetoclax
272
What spreads contiguously?
Hodgkin's lymphoma
273
What is Pel-Ebstein fever?
Cyclical fever pattern
274
What alcohol pain suggests?
Hodgkin's lymphoma
275
What cells confirm Hodgkin's?
Reed-Sternberg cells
276
What is owl-eyed appearance?
Reed-Sternberg cells
277
What is most common Hodgkin's type?
Nodular sclerosing
278
What is Ann-Arbor staging?
Lymphoma staging system
279
What does 'A' mean in staging?
No constitutional symptoms
280
What does 'B' mean in staging?
Constitutional symptoms present
281
What is brentuximab target?
CD30
282
What are stem cell sources?
Peripheral blood, BM, cord
283
What stimulates stem cell harvest?
G-CSF
284
What is autologous SCT?
Patient's own stem cells
285
What is allogeneic SCT?
HLA-matched donor cells
286
What is GVHD?
Graft versus host disease
287
What is graft versus leukaemia?
Donor cells eliminate leukaemia
288
What grade lymphomas treat better?
Higher grade
289
What is endemic Burkitt's association?
EBV, jaw involvement
290
What is sporadic Burkitt's location?
Outside Africa
291
What is immunodeficiency Burkitt's association?
HIV, post-transplant
292
What is mantle cell prognosis?
3-5 years median survival
293
What is follicular lymphoma curability?
Mostly incurable
294
What removes H. pylori stimulus?
Triple therapy
295
What is anaplastic large cell translocation?
t(2;5)
296
What is ALK-1 positive?
Anaplastic large cell lymphoma
297
What virus causes ATLL?
HTLV-1
298
What is EATL associated with?
Coeliac disease
299
What is mycosis fungoides?
Cutaneous T-cell lymphoma
300
What releases osteoclastic cytokines?
Myeloma cells
301
What deposits in renal tubules?
Light chains
302
What is pepper pot skull?
Myeloma bone lesions
303
What is gamma region?
Electrophoresis band location
304
What is rain-drop skull?
Myeloma X-ray finding
305
What is very high in myeloma?
ESR
306
What percentage plasma cells in myeloma?
>10%
307
What prolongs myeloma remission?
Autologous SCT
308
What is bortezomib?
Protease inhibitor
309
What is daratumumab target?
CD38
310
What is smouldering MM blasts?
>30g/L M-spike
311
What causes hyperviscosity in WM?
Monoclonal IgM
312
What treats WM hyperviscosity?
Plasmapheresis
313
What is apple green birefringence?
Congo red stain
314
What is SAP scan?
Amyloid precursor scan
315
What causes macroglossia?
AL amyloidosis
316
What characterizes MDS?
Peripheral cytopenia, dysplasia
317
What is MDS blast threshold?
<20%
318
What is MDS hypercellular?
Bone marrow
319
What surrounds ring sideroblasts?
Iron granule ring
320
What is pseudo-Pelger-Huët?
Hyposegmented neutrophils
321
What is RAEB-T now called?
AML
322
What is MDS supportive treatment?
Transfusions, EPO, G-CSF
323
What is lenalidomide?
Biological modifier
324
What is azacytidine?
Hypomethylating agent
325
What determines MDS prognosis?
IPSS score
326
What causes primary aplastic anaemia?
Idiopathic (70%)
327
What is secondary aplastic anaemia?
Drugs, radiation, viruses
328
What promotes marrow recovery?
Growth factors, oxymethalone
329
What is Fanconi anaemia peak age?
5-10 years
330
What abnormalities in Fanconi?
Skeletal, renal, eye
331
What is dyskeratosis congenita triad?
Skin pigmentation, nail dystrophy, leukoplakia
332
What is Diamond-Blackfan timing?
Neonatal/1 year
333
What is Philadelphia negative MPD mutation?
JAK2
334
What percentage have JAK2 in PV?
>95%
335
What is secondary polycythaemia cause?
High EPO
336
What is relative polycythaemia?
Normal RBC mass, low plasma
337
What releases histamine in PV?
Myeloid cells
338
What is erythromelalgia?
Burning pain in extremities
339
What is low in PV?
Serum EPO
340
What is primary myelofibrosis?
Idiopathic
341
What is secondary myelofibrosis?
Following PRV, ET
342
What is extramedullary haematopoiesis?
Blood production outside BM
343
What is Budd-Chiari syndrome?
Hepatic vein thrombosis
344
What are dacrocytes?
Tear-drop cells
345
What is dry tap?
No BM aspirate obtained
346
What is MPL mutation?
Thrombopoietin receptor mutation
347
What is CALR mutation?
Calreticulin mutation
348
What is ruxolitinib?
JAK2 inhibitor
349
What is ET incidental finding rate?
50%
350
What causes gangrene in ET?
Arterial thrombosis
351
What is normal transfusion rate?
2-3 hours
352
What is STAT transfusion?
Immediate/rapid transfusion
353
What temperature for FFP storage?
Frozen
354
How long to thaw FFP?
30 minutes
355
What is IgA deficiency risk?
Anaphylaxis
356
What prevents febrile reactions?
Leukodepletion
357
What is TRALI timing?
6-12 hours
358
What is DHTR timing?
Within 1 week
359
What attacks in GVHD?
Donor lymphocytes
360
What organs in GVHD?
Gut, liver, skin, BM
361
How to prevent GVHD?
Irradiate blood components
362
What is more prone to bacterial contamination?
Platelet transfusion
363
What removes CMV?
Leukodepletion
364
Who gets CMV negative products?
Pregnant women
365
What increases JVP in TACO?
Fluid overload
366
What damages from iron overload?
Liver, heart, endocrine organs
367
What is given with desferrioxamine?
Ascorbic acid
368
What is first step in transfusion reaction?
Stop transfusion
369
What suggests ABO incompatibility?
Dark urine, collapse
370
What is mild transfusion reaction?
Fever, urticaria only
371
What is severe allergic reaction?
Wheeze, swelling
372
What differentiates TACO from TRALI?
Heart failure signs
373
What is normal CVP?
Normal range
374
What suggests bacterial contamination?
High fever, rigors
375
What is most common platelet disorder?
ITP
376
What is acute ITP duration?
2-6 weeks
377
What is chronic ITP association?
Autoimmune disease, CLL, HIV
378
What is ITP treatment?
IVIG, steroids, TPO agonists
379
What is TPO agonist?
Thrombopoietin receptor agonist
380
What is last resort ITP treatment?
Splenectomy
381
What is cardiopulmonary bypass effect?
Platelet dysfunction
382
What causes uremic bleeding?
Platelet dysfunction
383
What is Christmas disease?
Haemophilia B
384
What is factor IX frequency?
1 in 50,000
385
What is vWD frequency?
1 in 10,000
386
What is ristocetin cofactor?
vWD diagnostic test
387
What stores vWF?
Weibel-Palade bodies
388
What is combined vWF concentrate?
vWF and factor VIII
389
What is DIC widespread activation?
Coagulation cascade
390
What is consumed in DIC?
Clotting factors, platelets
391
What is liver disease factor VIII?
High levels
392
Why is chronic liver disease prothrombotic?
Despite prolonged INR/APTT
393
What is warfarin initially?
Pro-coagulant
394
What is vitamin K route for bleeding?
IV
395
What is FFP alternative?
Prothrombin complex concentrate
396
What is Wells score for?
DVT/PE probability
397
What is D-dimer use?
Rule out VTE
398
What is CTPA?
CT pulmonary angiogram
399
What is VQ scan?
Ventilation-perfusion scan
400
What is factor V Leiden resistance?
Protein C resistance
401
What is prothrombin G20210A?
Genetic thrombophilia
402
What percentage idiopathic VTE from cancer?
10%
403
What is highest VTE risk surgery?
Orthopaedic
404
What is antithrombin III deficiency risk?
10-20 fold
405
What is prophylactic LMWH frequency?
Once daily
406
What is treatment LMWH monitoring?
Usually none required
407
What is LMWH monitoring indication?
Pregnancy, renal failure
408
What is UFH monitoring?
APTT
409
What is major bleeding protocol?
Stop drug, reverse if possible
410
What is minor bleeding management?
Withhold doses
411
What increases plasma volume in pregnancy?
Physiological change
412
What decreases in pregnancy?
Hb, Hct, platelets
413
What is HELLP pre-eclampsia complication?
Life-threatening
414
What is HELLP management?
Supportive, delivery
415
What differentiates HELLP from DIC?
Normal APTT/PT in HELLP
416
What is AFLP?
Acute fatty liver pregnancy
417
What crosses placenta in HDN?
IgG antibodies only
418
What is too large for placenta?
IgM antibodies
419
What is sensitising event?
Feto-maternal haemorrhage
420
What is ECV?
External cephalic version
421
What is Kleihauer test?
Measures feto-maternal haemorrhage
422
What suggests bone marrow infiltration?
Leucoerythroblastic picture
423
What is cytoreduction?
Reduce tumour burden
424
What is consolidation chemotherapy?
Post-remission treatment
425
What is maintenance chemotherapy?
Long-term low-dose treatment
426
What is targeted therapy?
Specific molecular targets
427
What is CAR-T cells?
Chimeric antigen receptor T-cells
428
What is biological therapy?
Uses biological substances
429
What is immunotherapy?
Harnesses immune system
430
What is monoclonal antibody?
Specific protein target
431
What is hyperviscosity syndrome?
High protein causing symptoms
432
What is tumour lysis syndrome?
Cell death causing metabolic problems
433
What prevents tumour lysis?
Hydration, allopurinol
434
What is neutropenic sepsis?
Infection with low neutrophils
435
What is febrile neutropenia threshold?
<1.0 × 10⁹/L neutrophils
436
What is G-CSF?
Granulocyte colony-stimulating factor
437
What stimulates neutrophil production?
G-CSF
438
What is erythropoietin used for?
Anaemia in CKD
439
What is blast crisis?
>20% blasts in CML
440
What makes CML accelerated phase?
10-20% blasts
441
What is molecular remission?
Undetectable disease by PCR
442
What is cytogenetic remission?
Normal chromosomes
443
What is complete remission?
<5% blasts, normal counts
444
What is partial remission?
50% reduction in disease
445
What is stable disease?
No significant change
446
What is progressive disease?
Increasing disease burden
447
What is performance status?
Functional ability measure
448
What is ECOG score?
Performance status scale
449
What is palliative care?
Symptom control, quality of life
450
What is supportive care?
Managing treatment side effects
