Pathology - Histology 1 Flashcards
(400 cards)
1
Q
What cellular infiltrate indicates acute inflammation?
A
Neutrophils
2
Q
What cellular infiltrate indicates chronic inflammation?
A
Lymphocytes and macrophages
3
Q
What cellular infiltrate indicates allergic reactions?
A
Eosinophils and mast cells
4
Q
What is the histological feature of squamous cell carcinoma?
A
Keratin production, intracellular bridges
(little prickles on cell edges)
5
Q
What is the histological feature of adenocarcinomas?
A
Glands that secrete substances
6
Q
What stain is positive for melanin?
A
Fontana stain
7
Q
What stain shows apple green birefringence for amyloid?
A
Congo Red
8
Q
What stain is positive for iron?
A
Prussian Blue
9
Q
What is the go-to stain for most histological samples?
A
Haematoxylin and Eosin (H&E)
10
Q
What is CD45 a marker for?
A
Lymphoid cells
11
Q
What is cytokeratin a marker for?
A
Epithelial cells
12
Q
What is chromogranin a marker for?
A
Neuroendocrine cells
13
Q
What is a granuloma?
A
Organised collection of epithelioid macrophages
14
Q
What stain is positive for acid-fast bacilli?
A
Ziehl-Neelsen
15
Q
What causes pericarditis friction rub relief?
A
Leaning forwards
16
Q
What is Beck’s triad in cardiac tamponade?
A
Muffled sounds, raised JVP, hypotension
17
Q
What characterizes atherosclerotic plaques?
A
Cells, matrix proteins, lipid
18
Q
What artery is more affected by atherosclerosis?
A
Abdominal aorta
19
Q
What percentage vessel occlusion causes stable angina?
A
70%
20
Q
What percentage vessel occlusion causes unstable angina?
A
> 90%
21
Q
What is the DREAD mnemonic for MI complications?
A
Death, Rupture, Edema, Arrhythmia, Dressler’s
22
Q
What histological finding occurs under 6 hours in MI?
A
Normal histology
23
Q
What histological finding occurs 6-24 hours in MI?
A
Loss of nuclei, necrotic death
24
Q
What histological finding occurs 1-4 days in MI?
A
Neutrophil then macrophage infiltration
25
What are heart failure cells?
Haemosiderin-laden macrophages
26
What liver appearance occurs in heart failure?
Nutmeg liver
27
What causes hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?
βMHC gene mutations, MYBP-C, Trop-T
28
What histological feature is seen in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?
Myocyte disarray
29
What is Jones' major criteria mnemonic?
JONES (Joint, O-heart, Nodules, Erythema, Sydenham's)
30
What organism causes acute rheumatic fever?
Group A streptococcus
31
What are Aschoff bodies?
Small giant cell granulomas in rh fever
32
What valve is most commonly affected in rheumatic fever?
Mitral valve
33
What are the vegetations called in rheumatic heart disease?
Verrucae
34
What organism commonly causes acute infective endocarditis?
Staphylococcus aureus
35
What organism commonly causes subacute infective endocarditis?
Streptococcus viridans
36
What are Osler's nodes?
Tender pink finger/toe bumps
37
What are Janeway lesions?
Painless red palm/sole macules
38
What murmur characterizes aortic stenosis?
Crescendo-decrescendo systolic murmur
39
What murmur characterizes aortic regurgitation?
Early diastolic murmur
40
What murmur characterizes mitral stenosis?
Mid diastolic murmur
41
What murmur characterizes mitral regurgitation?
Pansystolic murmur
42
What is the FEV1/FVC ratio in obstructive disease?
<70%
43
What causes chronic bronchitis?
Tobacco smoke, air pollution
44
What organisms commonly cause bronchiectasis?
Pseudomonas aeruginosa (CF)
45
What gene is mutated in cystic fibrosis?
CFTR gene
46
What is the signet ring sign?
Bronchiectasis CT finding
47
What is the tram-track sign?
Bronchiectasis X-ray finding
48
What characterizes restrictive lung disease spirometry?
Normal FEV1/FVC ratio
49
What histological pattern is seen in Idiopathic Pulmonary Fibrosis?
Honeycomb change from periphery
same as usual intersitial pneumonia
50
What appearance do lungs have in advanced ILD?
Ground glass/honeycomb
51
What occupational disease affects upper lobes?
Pneumoconiosis
52
What occupational disease affects lower lobes?
Asbestosis
53
What is farmer's lung caused by?
Saccharopolyspora rectivirgula
54
What characterizes lobar pneumonia?
Fibrinosuppurative consolidation
55
What organism causes rust-colored sputum?
Streptococcus pneumoniae
56
What is the most common lung cancer type?
Squamous cell carcinoma
57
Which lung cancers are found centrally?
Squamous and small cell
58
What paraneoplastic syndrome occurs with squamous cell lung cancer?
Hypercalcemia (PTHrP)
59
What paraneoplastic syndrome occurs with small cell lung cancer?
SIADH
60
What mutation is common in adenocarcinoma of lung?
EGFR mutations
61
What is the latent period for mesothelioma?
25-45 years
62
What percentage of PE originate from DVT?
95%
63
What is a saddle embolus?
PE occluding pulmonary trunk
64
What is the threshold for pulmonary hypertension?
>25mmHg
65
What causes batwing appearance on CXR?
Pulmonary edema
66
What causes white-out on CXR?
ARDS/diffuse alveolar damage
67
What epithelium lines the esophagus?
Squamous stratified epithelium
68
What is Barrett's esophagus?
Metaplasia to columnar epithelium
69
What increases cancer risk in Barrett's?
Presence of goblet cells
70
Where do esophageal adenocarcinomas occur?
Distal third
71
Where do squamous cell esophageal cancers occur?
Upper two-thirds
72
What causes esophageal varices?
Portal hypertension
73
What epithelium lines the stomach?
Columnar epithelium
74
What do parietal cells secrete?
HCl and intrinsic factor
75
What do chief cells secrete?
Pepsinogen
76
What organism causes chronic gastritis?
Helicobacter pylori
77
What cancer type comprises >95% of stomach tumors?
Adenocarcinomas
78
What is Virchow's node?
Left supraclavicular lymph node
79
What is Sister Mary Joseph nodule?
Umbilical metastasis
80
What causes gastric MALT lymphoma?
Helicobacter pylori
81
What is the gold standard test for celiac disease?
Duodenal biopsy
82
What antibody has best sensitivity for celiac?
Anti-endomysial antibodies
83
What is the normal villous:crypt ratio?
2:1
84
What hormone do carcinoid tumors produce?
Serotonin (5-HT)
85
What is carcinoid syndrome characterized by?
Flushing, diarrhea, bronchoconstriction
86
What radiological sign indicates duodenal atresia?
Double bubble sign
87
What radiological sign indicates sigmoid volvulus?
Coffee bean sign
88
What characterizes Crohn's disease distribution?
Skip lesions
89
What characterizes ulcerative colitis distribution?
Continuous from rectum
90
What histological feature is seen in Crohn's?
Non-caseating granulomas
91
What histological feature is seen in UC?
Crypt abscesses
92
What is transmural inflammation characteristic of?
Crohn's disease
93
What is mucosal inflammation characteristic of?
Ulcerative colitis
94
What syndrome is associated with Hirschsprung's?
Down's syndrome
95
What gene is associated with Hirschsprung's?
RET proto-oncogene
96
What antibiotics commonly cause C. diff?
Cephalosporins, clindamycin
97
What is first-line treatment for C. diff?
Vancomycin PO
98
Where do 90% of diverticula occur?
Left colon
99
What is the colorectal adenomacarcinoma sequence?
APC→KRAS→p53 mutations
100
What syndrome has >100 adenomatous polyps?
Familial adenomatous polyposis
101
What gene is mutated in FAP?
APC gene
102
What is Gardner's syndrome?
FAP with skull osteomas
103
What is Lynch syndrome also called?
hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancer
104
What genes are mutated in Lynch syndrome?
DNA mismatch repair genes
105
What is Duke's staging A?
Confined to mucosa
106
What is the 5-year survival for Duke's A?
>95%
107
What chemotherapy is used for colorectal cancer?
5-FU (fluorouracil)
108
What stimulates pancreatic HCO3- secretion?
Secretin
109
What stimulates pancreatic enzyme secretion?
CCK
110
What cells produce insulin?
Beta cells
111
What cells produce glucagon?
Alpha cells
112
What cells produce somatostatin?
Delta cells
113
What defines metabolic syndrome glucose?
>6 mmol/L fasting
114
What defines metabolic syndrome BP?
>140/90
115
What is the diagnostic threshold for diabetes?
>7 mmol/L fasting glucose
116
What can distinguish T1DM from T2DM?
C-peptide test
117
What is the Glasgow score for pancreatitis?
≥3 indicates severe
118
What causes acute pancreatitis mnemonic?
I GET SMASHED
119
What enzyme is more sensitive for pancreatitis?
Serum lipase
120
What pattern of damage indicates obstructive pancreatitis?
Periductal necrosis
121
What pattern indicates ischemic pancreatitis?
Perilobular necrosis
122
What is the most common cause of chronic pancreatitis?
Alcoholism
123
What percentage of pancreatic malignancies are ductal adenocarcinoma?
85%
124
What is Courvoisier's sign?
Painless gallbladder enlargement
125
What is Trousseau's syndrome?
Recurrent superficial thrombophlebitis in pancreatic cancer
126
What tumor marker is used for pancreatic cancer?
CA19-9
127
What is Whipple's procedure?
Pancreatic surgical resection
128
What is the 5-year survival for pancreatic cancer?
<5%
129
What is Whipple's triad?
Hypoglycemia, symptoms, glucose relief
130
What syndrome is caused by gastrinoma?
Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
131
What causes necrolytic migrating erythema?
Glucagonoma
132
What is MEN1 triad?
Parathyroid, pancreas, pituitary
133
What is MEN2A triad?
Medullary thyroid, pheo, parathyroid
134
What is MEN2B triad?
Medullary thyroid, pheo, neuromas
135
What are the 4 F's for gallstones?
Forty, fertile, fat, females
136
What percentage of gallstones are cholesterol?
Most (radiolucent)
137
What is Murphy's sign?
RUQ pain on inspiration
138
What is Charcot's triad?
Fever, RUQ pain, jaundice
139
What percentage of cholangiocarcinomas are adenocarcinomas?
90%
140
What condition increases cholangiocarcinoma risk?
Primary sclerosing cholangitis
141
What is the basic structural unit of liver?
Hepatic lobule
142
What forms the portal triad?
Bile ducts, hepatic artery, portal vein
143
Which zone is most sensitive to ischemia?
Zone 3
144
Which zone is affected first in viral hepatitis?
Zone 1
145
What cells produce collagen in liver injury?
Stellate cells
146
What is spotty necrosis in liver characteristic of?
Acute hepatitis
147
What is piecemeal necrosis characteristic of?
Chronic hepatitis
148
What causes intrahepatic shunting?
Chronic hepatitis > structure disruption > portal hypertension > shunt
149
What are the four features of cirrhotic liver histology?
Necrosis, fibrosis, nodules, vascular disturbance
150
What score indicates liver cirrhosis prognosis?
Child's Pugh score
151
What are Mallory Denk bodies?
Clumped cytoskeleton in Alcoholic hepatitis
152
What type of cirrhosis does alcohol cause?
Micronodular cirrhosis
153
What is the most common chronic liver disease in West?
NAFLD
154
What does NASH stand for?
Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis
155
What HLA type is associated with autoimmune hepatitis?
HLA-DR3
156
What cells are prominent in autoimmune hepatitis?
Plasma cells
157
What antibody is present in >90% of PBC?
Anti-mitochondrial antibodies
158
What histological feature is seen in PBC?
Bile duct loss with granulomas
159
What drug treats PBC?
Ursodeoxycholic acid
160
What condition is PSC associated with?
Ulcerative colitis
161
What antibody is associated with PSC?
p-ANCA
162
What ERCP finding characterizes PSC?
Beading of bile ducts
163
What histological feature is seen in PSC?
Onion skinning fibrosis
164
What cancer risk increases with PSC?
Cholangiocarcinoma
165
What gene is mutated in hemochromatosis?
HFE gene
166
What stain shows iron deposits?
Prussian blue
167
What is the classic triad of hemochromatosis?
Diabetes, cirrhosis, skin bronzing
168
What treatment is used for hemochromatosis?
Venesection
169
What gene is mutated in Wilson's disease?
ATP7B
170
What stain shows copper deposits?
Rhodanine stain
171
What are Kayser-Fleischer rings?
Copper deposits in cornea
172
What drug treats Wilson's disease?
Penicillamine
173
What inheritance pattern is alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency?
Autosomal dominant
174
What stain shows A1AT globules?
Periodic acid Schiff
175
What is the most common benign liver lesion?
Hemangioma
176
What causes hepatic adenoma?
OCP
177
What is the most common malignant liver lesion?
Secondary tumors/metastases
178
What tumor marker is used for HCC?
Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)
179
What percentage of kidney stones are calcium oxalate?
75%
180
What percentage of kidney stones are magnesium ammonium phosphate?
15%
181
What organisms cause triple stones?
Urease-producing organisms
182
What percentage of kidney stones are uric acid?
5%
183
What is the most common renal cell carcinoma type?
Clear cell (70%)
184
What characterizes clear cell RCC macroscopically?
Golden yellow
185
What characterizes clear cell RCC microscopically?
Clear cytoplasm
186
What is the second most common childhood malignancy?
Nephroblastoma/Wilm's tumor
187
What are the components of Wilm's tumor?
Small blue cells, epithelial
188
What is the most common bladder tumor type?
Transitional cell carcinoma
189
What causes BPH?
Dihydrotestosterone
190
What drug class treats BPH?
5α-reductase inhibitors
191
What is the precursor lesion to prostate cancer?
PIN
192
What zone does prostate cancer arise in?
Peripheral zone
193
What is the Gleason scoring system?
X+Y=Z (most common + worst)
194
What percentage of testicular tumors are germ cell?
95%
195
What is the most common germ cell tumor?
Seminoma
196
What age group gets seminomas?
30s
197
What tumor markers are used for testicular cancer?
AFP, hCG, LDH
198
What predisposes to testicular cancer?
Cryptorchidism
199
What chemotherapy is used for testicular cancer?
BEP
200
What is the triad of nephrotic syndrome?
Proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, edema
201
What is the threshold for nephrotic proteinuria?
>3g/24h
202
What is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in children?
Minimal change disease
203
What EM finding characterizes minimal change disease?
Loss of podocyte foot processes
204
What response rate to steroids occurs in minimal change?
90%
205
What EM finding characterizes membranous GN?
Subepithelial deposits
206
What antibody is present in membranous GN?
Anti-phospholipase A2
207
What population commonly gets FSGS?
Afro-Caribbean
208
What nodules are seen in diabetic nephropathy?
Kimmelstiel-Wilson nodules
209
What stain shows amyloid?
Congo red (apple green)
210
What is the nephritic syndrome mnemonic?
PHAROH
211
What characterizes red cell casts?
Clumped red cells in tubules
212
When does post-streptococcal GN occur?
1-3 weeks post-infection
213
What complement level decreases in post-streptococcal GN?
C3
214
What is the most common GN worldwide?
IgA nephropathy
215
When does IgA nephropathy present after URTI?
1-2 days
216
What is Berger disease?
IgA nephropathy
217
What is the rule of thirds for IgA nephropathy?
Asymptomatic, CKD, progressive CKD
218
What characterizes crescentic GN?
Most aggressive GN
219
What are crescents?
Proliferating macrophages in Bowman's space
220
What causes Type 1 RPGN?
Anti-GBM antibodies
221
What is Goodpasture's syndrome?
Anti-GBM disease
222
What causes Type 3 RPGN?
ANCA-associated
223
What characterizes Alport's syndrome?
Nephritis, deafness, eye disorders
224
What gene is mutated in Alport's?
Type IV collagen alpha 5
225
What characterizes thin basement membrane disease?
Asymptomatic hematuria
226
What is the most common cause of acute renal failure?
Acute tubular necrosis
227
What causes brown muddy casts?
Acute tubular necrosis
228
What organism commonly causes pyelonephritis?
E. coli
229
What casts are seen in pyelonephritis?
Leukocytic casts
230
What characterizes HUS triad?
MAHA, thrombocytopenia, renal failure
231
What characterizes TTP pentad?
FATRN
232
What organism causes HUS?
E. coli O157:H7
233
What enzyme is deficient in TTP?
ADAMTS13
234
What age group gets HUS?
Children
235
What age group gets TTP?
Adults
236
What are schistocytes?
Fragmented red blood cells
237
What is the most common cause of CKD in UK?
Diabetes (20%)
238
What GFR defines Stage 5 CKD?
<15
239
What percentage of PKD cases are due to PKD1?
85%
240
What chromosome is PKD1 on?
Chromosome 16
241
What aneurysms are associated with ADPKD?
Berry aneurysms
242
What ultrasound criteria diagnose ADPKD in 15-39 years?
3 or more cysts
243
What ultrasound criteria diagnose ADPKD over 60 years?
4 cysts in each kidney
244
What inheritance pattern is ADPKD?
Autosomal dominant
245
What percentage of ADPKD patients need RRT?
Two-thirds
246
What is corticosteroid use associated with?
Raised neutrophils
247
What type of inflammation do macrophages indicate?
Late acute or chronic
248
What are plasma cells associated with?
Chronic inflammation or myeloma
249
What tumors are eosinophils associated with?
Hodgkin's disease
250
Where do squamous cell carcinomas occur?
Skin, head/neck, esophagus
251
What epithelium do adenocarcinomas arise from?
Glandular epithelium
252
Where do adenocarcinomas commonly occur?
Lung, breast, stomach, colon
253
Where do transitional cell carcinomas occur?
Urinary tract
254
What does positive Fontana stain indicate?
Melanoma
255
What disease does Prussian blue stain diagnose?
Hemochromatosis
256
What is the immunohistochemical marker for epithelial cells?
Cytokeratin
257
What tumors is chromogranin positive in?
Insulinomas, pheochromocytoma
258
What color do acid-fast bacilli stain with Ziehl-Neelsen?
Red
259
What does Rhodamine-Auramine stain detect?
TB (bright yellow)
260
What does Gomori's stain detect?
Pneumocystis jirovecii
261
What does India ink stain detect?
Cryptococcus neoformans
262
What does Giemsa stain detect?
Chlamydia psittaci
263
What causes concave ST elevation?
Pericarditis
264
What is Dressler's syndrome?
Post-MI pericarditis
265
What layer of arteries does atherosclerosis affect?
Tunica intima
266
What converts LDL in atherosclerosis?
Oxidized/modified LDL
267
What cells take up oxidized LDL?
Macrophages (become foam cells)
268
What forms the fibrous cap?
Vascular smooth muscle cells
269
What increases plaque stability?
Increased cap thickness
270
What flow pattern is protective against atherosclerosis?
High laminar flow
271
What flow pattern promotes atherosclerosis?
Low/oscillatory shear stress
272
How long does severe ischemia take to cause irreversible injury?
>20-40 minutes
273
What removes debris 5-10 days post-MI?
Macrophages
274
What appears 1-2 weeks post-MI?
Granulation tissue
275
What is preload?
Initial cardiomyocyte stretch
276
What is afterload?
Pressure against ventricular contraction
277
What does the CHAVI mnemonic represent?
Heart failure causes
278
What activates in response to decreased cardiac output?
Renin-angiotensin system
279
What causes increased afterload in heart failure?
Sympathetic nervous system activation
280
What causes orthopnea?
LV failure
281
What causes peripheral edema?
RV failure
282
What is elevated in heart failure?
BNP/NT-proBNP
283
What inheritance pattern is hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?
Autosomal dominant
284
What percentage of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy cases develop dilated phenotype?
15-20%
285
What age group gets acute rheumatic fever?
5-15 years
286
How many weeks after strep infection does rheumatic fever develop?
2-4 weeks
287
What percentage of rheumatic fever affects mitral valve only?
70%
288
What are Anitschkov myocytes?
Regenerating myocytes
289
What antibiotic treats rheumatic fever?
Benzylpenicillin
290
What characterizes infective endocarditis vegetations?
Large, irregular masses
291
What organism causes 35-40% of acute endocarditis?
Staphylococcus aureus
292
What are Roth spots?
Retinal bleeding areas
293
What are splinter hemorrhages?
Bleeding under nails
294
How many major Duke criteria are needed for diagnosis?
2 major
295
What antibiotic treats MSSA endocarditis?
Flucloxacillin
296
What causes crescendo-decrescendo murmur?
Aortic stenosis
297
What causes early diastolic murmur?
Aortic regurgitation
298
What causes mid-diastolic murmur?
Mitral stenosis
299
What causes pansystolic murmur?
Mitral regurgitation
300
What is the most common cause of aortic stenosis?
Calcification
301
What spirometry pattern shows obstructive disease?
Reduced FEV1/FVC <70%
302
What defines chronic bronchitis?
Cough/sputum 3 months over 2 years
303
What cells show hyperplasia in chronic bronchitis?
Goblet cells
304
What is the most common cause of bronchiectasis?
Post-infectious
305
What deletion is most common in cystic fibrosis?
F508del
306
What bacterial infection is common in CF?
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
307
What spirometry pattern shows restrictive disease?
Normal FEV1/FVC >70%
308
What test has decreased capacity in restrictive disease?
CO diffusion capacity
309
What CT appearance occurs in advanced ILD?
Ground glass/honeycomb
310
Who commonly gets idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis?
Males, 40-70 years
311
What is the prognosis for IPF?
2-5 years
312
What drug can treat IPF?
Pirfenidone
313
What disease has upper lobe predilection?
Pneumoconiosis
314
What can asbestosis cause malignantly?
Adenocarcinoma, mesothelioma
315
What type of antigens cause EAA?
Organic antigens
316
What histological feature characterizes EAA?
Polypoid plugs
317
What organism causes malt worker's lung?
Aspergillus clavatus
318
What type of pneumonia has patchy distribution?
Bronchopneumonia
319
What are the stages of lobar pneumonia?
Consolidation, red/grey hepatization, resolution
320
What lung cancer type has strongest smoking correlation?
Squamous cell carcinoma
321
What gene mutations are highest in squamous cell lung cancer?
p53/c-myc mutations
322
What lung cancer is most common in women/non-smokers?
Adenocarcinoma
323
What lung cancer metastasizes early?
Small cell
324
What cells characterize small cell lung cancer?
Small, poorly differentiated 'oat cells'
325
What paraneoplastic syndromes occur with small cell?
SIADH, Cushing's, Lambert-Eaton
326
What is the most important prognostic factor for lung cancer?
Staging
327
What is the latent period for asbestos-related mesothelioma?
25-45 years
328
What percentage of pulmonary emboli originate from DVT?
95%
329
What percentage pulmonary bed occlusion causes death?
>60%
330
What is Class 1 pulmonary hypertension?
Pulmonary arterial hypertension
331
What is Class 2 pulmonary hypertension?
Left heart disease
332
What is Class 3 pulmonary hypertension?
Lung disease
333
What is Class 4 pulmonary hypertension?
Chronic thromboembolic
334
What demographic gets primary Pulmonary Arterial HTN?
Women aged 20-40
335
What complication occurs with pulmonary hypertension?
Right heart failure
336
What cells are seen chronically in pulmonary edema?
Iron-laden macrophages
337
What CXR finding suggests cardiac pulmonary edema?
Cardiomegaly
338
What are Kerley B-lines?
Pulmonary edema findings
339
What causes ARDS in adults?
Infection, drowning, burns, aspiration
340
What causes HMD in neonates?
Insufficient surfactant production
341
What junction separates esophagus from stomach?
Squamo-columnar junction
342
What is the most common cause of esophagitis?
GORD
343
What percentage of GORD patients get Barrett's?
10%
344
What sequence leads to esophageal adenocarcinoma?
Metaplasia → dysplasia → cancer
345
What race has higher esophageal SCC rates?
Afro-Caribbeans
346
What syndrome is associated with esophageal SCC?
Plummer-Vinson syndrome
347
What medication treats varices immediately?
Terlipressin
348
What procedure treats varices?
Sclerotherapy/banding
349
What cells are NOT present in gastric mucosa?
Goblet cells
350
What organism is associated with MALT lymphoma?
Helicobacter pylori
351
What is linitis plastica?
Diffuse gastric carcinoma
352
What nodule indicates gastric cancer metastasis to umbilicus?
Sister Mary Joseph nodule
353
How much more common are duodenal vs gastric ulcers?
4 times
354
What relieves duodenal ulcer pain?
Food and milk
355
What HLA types are associated with celiac disease?
DQ2, DQ8
356
What rash is associated with celiac disease?
Dermatitis herpetiformis
357
What vaccine is recommended in celiac disease?
Pneumococcal vaccine
358
What lymphoma can develop from untreated celiac?
Enteropathy-Associated T-cell lymphoma
359
What metabolite is measured for carcinoid syndrome?
5-HIAA
360
What drug treats carcinoid syndrome?
Octreotide
361
What sign indicates duodenal atresia?
Double bubble sign
362
What occurs within 30 days in malrotation?
Bilious vomiting
363
What percentage of males have Hirschsprung's?
80%
364
What is the first-line treatment for mild Crohn's?
Prednisolone
365
What is first-line for UC remission?
5-ASA
366
What causes pseudomembranous colitis?
C. difficile exotoxins
367
What percentage of those over 50 have adenomas?
50%
368
What size adenoma has 45% malignant risk?
>3.4cm
369
What type of adenoma has worst prognosis?
Villous adenoma
370
What age requires prophylactic colectomy in FAP?
By 30 years
371
What is the second commonest cause of cancer deaths in UK?
Colorectal cancer
372
What age group typically gets colorectal cancer?
60-79 years
373
What percentage of colorectal cancers are adenocarcinoma?
98%
374
What percentage of colorectal cancers occur in rectum?
45%
375
What daily volume does pancreas produce?
2L
376
What cells produce secretin?
S cells
377
What cells produce CCK?
I cells
378
What cells are in pancreatic islets?
Alpha, beta, delta, D1, PP
379
What is central obesity defined as in males?
>94cm
380
What HbA1c level diagnoses diabetes?
>48 mmol/L
381
What presents with DKA?
T1DM
382
What is strongly linked to obesity?
T2DM
383
What scale scores severe pancreatitis?
Glasgow scale
384
What enzyme reacts with fat in pancreatitis?
Digestive enzymes
385
What is the most common pancreatic malignancy?
Ductal adenocarcinoma
386
What age typically gets pancreatic cancer?
60 years
387
What sign indicates painless gallbladder enlargement?
Courvoisier's sign
388
What is the 5-year survival for pancreatic cancer?
<5%
389
What comprises Whipple's triad?
Hypoglycemia, symptoms, glucose relief
390
What percentage of islet cell tumors are in MEN1?
~15%
391
What are the 4 F's for gallstone risk factors?
Forty, fertile, fat, females
392
What percentage of acute cholecystitis is associated with gallstones?
90%
393
What becomes a porcelain gallbladder?
Calcified chronic cholecystitis
394
What percentage of cholangiocarcinomas are associated with gallstones?
90%
395
What is the liver's daily bile production?
600-1000ml
396
What is the space between hepatocytes and sinusoid?
Space of Disse
397
What cells become myofibroblasts in liver injury?
Stellate cells
398
What characterizes Child's Pugh A?
<7 score, 45% 5-year survival
399
What characterizes Child's Pugh C?
10+ score, <20% 5-year survival
400
What percentage of liver tumors are cholangiocarcinoma?
10%
