Pathology Test Flashcards
(187 cards)
1
Q
List the five client variables that may impact our decisions about massage therapy
A
Client goals, Stage of the condition, Communicability, Medications and side effects, Client resilience
2
Q
Sometimes necessary to make adjustments to the way massage therapy is practiced in order to meet the needs of clients with particular challenges
A
Accommodation
3
Q
Name a type of technique accommodation
A
Pressure and speed
4
Q
Name a type of environmental accommodation
A
Temperature
5
Q
Name a type of equipment accommodation
A
Positioning, bolsters, and other supports
6
Q
Name a type of service accommodation
A
Help getting on or off the table, or into and out of your building
7
Q
A harmful or undesired outcome from some intervention
A
Adverse effect
8
Q
Packets of DNA or RNA wrapped in a protein coat called a capsid. Cannot replicate outside a host.
A
Virus
9
Q
Single-celled microorganisms that can survive outside of a host
A
Bacteria
10
Q
Rapid onset, brief, can be severe
ex broken bones
A
Acute
11
Q
Prolonged, long-term, can be low intensity
A
Chronic
12
Q
Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is caused by
A
Prions
13
Q
Damage or the threat of invasion by antigens will cause an _______________ in the body
A
Inflammatory Response
14
Q
A client comes in with a fever, asthma, or a post acute strain. Can you treat them?
A
Yes
15
Q
What arises from the stratum basale?
A
New skin cells
16
Q
What causes scabies and how soon after exposure are they communicable?
A
Mite’s cause scabies, anytime after exposure
17
Q
How long can scabies mites live off a human host?
A
Up to three days
18
Q
What are the symptoms of a mite infestation?
A
Itching and red lines
19
Q
In regards to lice, the inflammatory response in the skin is created by
A
Their saliva
20
Q
“Crabs” is another term for which parasites
A
Pubic lice
21
Q
At what water temperature will head lice/nits die
A
131°F or 55°C for five minutes or more
22
Q
What is another name for Tinea Pedis?
A
Athletes foot
23
Q
Onychomycosis is what type of infection and where does it usually present?
A
Fungal infection, invades the skin under finger or toenails
24
Q
All herpes viruses have this in common
A
Never fully leave the body
25
In regards to massage therapy profession hygiene practices – what should you know about the herpes virus?
Stable outside of host
26
When several plantar warts grow in the same area, the resulting lesion is called
Mosaic warts
27
Is rosacea contagious?
No
28
Would you make any special accommodations for a client with acne scars?
No
29
Seborrheic keratosis involves the hyperproliferation of
Epithelial cells
30
Most common type of skin cancer
Basal cell carcinoma
31
Doesn’t make mark on surface but tends to invade deeper tissues
Morpheaform BCC
32
List the traditional mnemonic to remember key features of melanoma
ABCDE
A–asymmetrical, B–border, C-color, D–diameter, E–evolving
33
What accommodations would you make for a client that just had surgery to remove a lesion to treat melanoma?
Varies, avoid incision area(s)
34
Change in local skin temperature and discoloration are early signs of
Pressure injury (AKA Bed Sores)
35
Define Osteoblast
Bone builders
36
Define osteoclast
Bone clearers/cleaners
37
An involuntary contraction of a voluntary muscle is called
Spasm/cramp
38
What three minerals does a muscle need to operate correctly?
Calcium, potassium, and magnesium
39
Your client has had an acute/painful spasm of the paraspinals. What is your best strategy?
Reduce pain in the affected area
40
Randomly arranged collagen fibers may bind up different layers of tissue that are designed to be separate
Adhesion
41
-Get dietary calcium from absorbable sources
-exercise
-vitamin D
-avoiding substances and behaviors that pull calcium off bones
These are the four key steps to
Avoid osteoporosis
42
Loss of range of motion at the shoulder without severe pain is known as
Adhesive capsulitis (frozen shoulder)
43
Situations where the articulating bones of a joint are not in correct relationship
Dislocation
44
The bones are out of optimal alignment, but the joint capsule is intact
Functional but lacks full range of motion
Subluxation
45
A congenital anomaly that involves the formation of an abnormal acetabulum or femoral head
Hip dysplasia
46
Name three symptoms of joint dislocation
Pain, swelling, *loss of function*
47
What is PFPS and what are the most common contributing factors?
Patellofemoral pain syndrome
Overuse/overloading of knee and poor alignment
48
Consequence of having osteophytes grow where they can put pressure on nerves
Radiculopathy
49
What does the acronym POLICE stand for?
protection, optimal, loading, ice compression, elevation
50
An idiopathic thickening and shrinking of the Palmar fascia that limits the movement of the fingers
Dupuytren’s Contracture
51
An imbalance between the active and passive arch stabilizers is also called
Pes Planus
52
Specific work to hand, wrist, forearm, shoulder, and neck may be able to manage symptoms and improve function for what condition?
Carpal tunnel
53
Feelings of pins and needles
Paresthesia
54
Local and radicular pain and paresthesia are symptoms of what condition?
Disc disease
55
An entrapment of nerves and/or blood vessels between the neck and axilla best describes what condition?
Thoracic outlet syndrome
56
When is massage contraindicated for shin splints
When there is redness, heat, swelling, and/or acute compartment syndrome
57
Inappropriate to change quality of those tissues.
Is appropriate to include as part of the incorporation aspect of the massage, but take extra care to not damage tissue
Numbness
58
What is important for therapist to notice when someone cannot verbally communicate?
Nonverbal cues about comfort and pain from these clients
59
Should a massage therapist advise someone to get off their medication’s without guidance of the prescribing physician
No
60
Progressive and fatal condition that destroys motor neurons in the central and peripheral nervous system
leading to the atrophy of voluntary muscles
amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)
61
Why is ALS often a painful condition?
Sensory neurons are left intact
62
Common condition that involves repetitive, involuntary, sometimes sustained contractions of skeletal muscles
Dystonia
63
What is the most common form of focal dystonia?
Cervical dystonia
64
What type of dystonia causes repetitive forceful blinking and squinting?
Blepharospasm
65
Infection of the brain usually caused by any of a variety of viruses
Encephalitis
66
What pathogens are most often associated with encephalitis?
Herpes simplex
67
What usually causes meningitis
Bacterial or viral infection
68
What are the signs and symptoms most common to post–polio syndrome?
Sudden, and sometimes extreme onset of fatigue, pain, and weakness
69
Neurodevelopmental disorder, resulting in difficulties with attention, movement and impulse control
ADHD
70
What phase of bipolar disorder resembles depression?
Depressive phase
71
Group of disorders that involve negative changes in emotional state
Depression
72
There are several factors that may contribute to Bell’s palsy, but what is the most common?
Most linked to herpes simplex virus
73
Define laceration (as it applies to the spinal cord injury)
The cord is partially cut
74
When interconnecting neurons in the brain are stimulated in a certain way, a tremendous burst of excess electricity may stimulate the neighboring neurons.
This is what happens during a
Seizure
75
Exchange nutrients and waste at a cellular level
Diffusion
76
The average adult contains about _________ of intercellular and extracellular fluid
40 Liters
77
Which half of the heart collects blood from the body and pumps to the lungs?
Right half
78
What is the systemic circuit responsible for?
Collects oxygen rich blood from the lungs and distributes to the body
79
Where are erythrocytes manufactured?
Red bone marrow
80
What is the function of the leukocytes?
Fight off invaders
81
What happens to thrombocytes when they become activated?
Become spiky and sticky
82
What is the first noticeable symptom of anemia?
Fatigue
83
A traveling clot or collection of debris
Embolism
84
A lodged clot
Thrombosis
85
Where does nutrient waste exchange happen?
Capillaries
86
Which type of hemophilia affects women and men equally?
Von Willebrand disease
87
All types of leukemia point to
Bone marrow dysfunction
88
What condition causes the RBC to *collapse* and lose their ability to pass easily through tiny capillaries
Sickle cell disease
89
What is a DVT?
Deep vein thrombosis
90
A permanent bulge in the wall of a blood vessel or the heart
Aneurysm
91
Hardening of the arteries from any cause
Atherosclerosis
92
Technical term for high blood pressure
Hypertension
93
What is considered a “normal” blood pressure?
120/80
94
This disease is a freestanding vasoconstriction disorder
Reynaud’s syndrome
95
Wear and tear, gravity, mechanical obstruction are the most reliable factors in developing
Varicose Veins
96
This type of varicose vein is usually harmless
Talangiectasias (Spider veins)
97
Where does interstitial fluid originate?
Capillary beds
98
A series of cleaning stations called _____ where the wastes are neutralized and small particles are filtered out
Nodes
99
Five mechanisms for moving lymph through the lymphatic system
Gravity, muscle contractions, alternating hot and cold hydrotherapy applications, deep breathing, and massage
100
Mechanisms that *don’t distinguish* between types of antigens
Non-specific immunity
101
Works to target particular antigens
Specific immunity
102
A collection of signs and symptoms that affect multiple systems in the body
Chronic fatigue syndrome
103
Used in Europe and Canada that is sometimes used as a synonym for chronic fatigue syndrome
Myalgic Encephalomyelitis
104
Pneumocystis Carinii, Cytomegalovirus, Kaposis Sarcoma and Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphomas are all common complications of
AIDS
105
Name some complications associated with Ankylosing Spondylitis
Osteoporosis, pneumonia, and heart failure
106
Can you work on a client with a colostomy bag?
Yes!
107
What system is lupus a disease of
Immune system
108
What accommodations would you use with a client with psoriasis?
Hypoallergenic lubricant, try working in a way to not worsen itching in affected areas
109
What system is rheumatoid arthritis a disease of?
Immune system
110
Autoimmune disease in which inflammation stimulates fibroblasts in small blood vessels to produce abnormal amounts of collagen
Scleroderma
111
Name some complications associated with scleroderma
Embolism, heart failure, and renal failure
112
The outer surfaces of the lungs are covered with a double-walled serous membrane called
Pleura
113
How many times per minute does air cycle through the lungs?
12 to 20 times
114
The common cold is caused by bacteria or virus?
Virus
115
What other species, besides humans can get a common cold?
Chimpanzees and other higher primates
116
When was the “Spanish flu” active and how many people did it kill?
1918 to 1921, more than 30 to 40 million worldwide
117
Scar tissue that can develop between layers of the *pleurae*, leading to pain and limited movement with each breath due to extreme infection
Pleurisy
118
Restricted to one *lobe* of the lungs
Type of *pneumonia* by area
Lobar pneumonia
119
What accommodation would you provide a client suffering from Sinusitis?
Semi reclined position to avoid congestion and discomfort
120
What does COPD stand for?
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
121
Can chronic bronchitis be reversed?
No
122
Chronic bronchitis-What structures are destroyed?
Elastic fibers
123
What accommodations would you provide a client suffering from emphysema?
Offer side lying, semi reclined or use a massage chair
124
Inadequate warming, filtering, moistening of the air taken in causes
Exercise-induced asthma
125
What type of cancer is called “oat cell carcinoma”
Small cell lung cancer
126
What is the name of the disease associated with gluten sensitivity?
Celiac disease
127
What accommodations would you make for a client who is *recovering* from esophageal cancer?
None, work normally
128
What is Cholera?
*Oregon Trail*
Deadly form of Gastroenteritis
129
What accommodations would you make for a client who has *recovered* from gastroenteritis
None, work normally
130
What does GERD stand for?
Gastroesophageal reflux disease
131
What accommodations would you make for a client who has *symptom-free* peptic ulcer?
None, it is resolved since symptom-free
132
What does SIBO stand for?
Small intestinal bacterial overgrowth
133
Accounts for 90 to 95% of all stomach cancer diagnosis
Adenocarcinoma
134
Explain what happens to create anemia in colorectal cancer
Tumors can bleed slowly, but continuously into the colon making less iron and therefore less oxygen available to body cells
135
Condition of the small intestine or colon in which the mucosal and submucosal layers of G.I. tract bulge through the outer muscular layer to form a sack or *diverticulum*
Diverticular disease
136
Name the types of irritable bowel syndrome
IBS– D, C, M, and U
137
What are the internationally recognized symptoms of IBS?
Recurrent abdominal pain at least three days every month, pain with defecation, changes in frequency and changes in stool appearance
138
Cirrhosis is when the crowding out and replacement of healthy _____ _____ with non-functioning _____
Liver Cells, Scar Tissue
139
Early signs/symptoms of cirrhosis
Nausea, vomiting, weight loss and the development of red or itchy patches on the skin
140
What is it called when the *spleen* can’t drain due to portal hypertension and becomes enlarged?
Splenomagaly
141
When enzymes that aid in protein metabolism are in short supply
A cirrhosis patient may experience progressive atrophy of the skeletal muscles
Muscle Wasting
142
A sign that the liver is not processing Bilirubin, accumulates in the bloodstream at the eyes and skin in a yellowish tint
Jaundice
143
Hepatitis is a _____ disease of the _____
Viral, Liver
144
What is the function of the hypothalamus?
Maintaining homeostasis or a stable internal environment and it does this through electrical and chemical means
145
The master gland is also known as
Pituitary gland
146
What are peptides?
Most common type of hormone
147
Name two types of amines
Adrenaline and thyroxine
148
What are the hormones triiodothyronine and thyroxine responsible for?
Stimulate the metabolism of fuel into energy
149
Parathyroid hormone is an antagonist to what thyroid secretion?
Calcitonin
150
Excessive sugar in the blood
Hyperglycemia
151
Frequent urination
Polyuria
152
Lack of capillary circulation, and excessive sugar in the blood both contribute to
Nerve damage
153
Tingling or pain and eventual numbness is called
Peripheral neuropathy
154
Critical shortage of insulin and lack of glucose in the cells of people with type one diabetes
Ketoacidosis
155
Condition in which the *thyroid* gland produces excessive amounts of hormones that stimulate metabolism of fuel into energy
Hyperthyroidism
156
Autoimmune hyperthyroidism, most common form of this condition
Graves’ disease
157
Development of a benign tumor or thyroid nodule, and it is related to chronic iodine deficiency
Toxic adenoma
158
Condition in which circulating levels of thyroid hormones are abnormally low
Hypothyroidism
159
What is the most common cause of hypothyroidism?
Iodine deficiency
160
People with metabolic syndrome are at a high risk of developing
Type 2 diabetes, cardiovascular disease, fatty liver disease, and some types of cancer
161
What is the most common and most successful weight loss treatment for obesity?
Weight loss surgery
162
Identify the structures involved in the first contact of fluid between the cardiovascular system and the urinary system
Glomerulus and Bowman’s Capsule
163
What hormone helps to manage blood pressure?
Renin
164
A hormone that stimulates red blood cell production
Erythropoietin
165
What is renal calculi or nephrolithiasis
Kidney stones
166
What is the most common type of kidney stones?
Calcium stones
167
An infection of the nephrons in the kidney, although the renal pelvis may also be involved
Pyelonephritis
168
What are the signs and symptoms of acute pyelonephritis?
Fever, burning and frequent urination, back pain, nausea
169
Is it appropriate to provide bodywork to a client that is currently battling Pyelonephritis?
No, only after treatment
170
What is the most common form of renal cancer?
Renal cell carcinoma
171
Age, the presence of diabetes or hypertension, cardiovascular disease, obesity, high cholesterol, lupus, and any family history of kidney disease are all major risk factors for
Renal failure
172
What are some signs/symptoms of a UTI?
Painful, burning urination, a frequent need to urinate, reduced bladder capacity, urinary urgency and blood tinged or cloudy urine
173
The pituitary and ovaries produce hormones that control the
Female reproductive cycle
174
Technical term for painful menstrual periods
Dysmenorrhea
175
When does primary dysmenorrhea usually start?
Within three months of menarche (the first menstrual cycle)
176
What are “chocolate” Cyst a characteristic of
A later state of endometriosis (10+ years of growth)
177
Are fibroids contraindicated for massage?
No
178
What is the percentage of uterine cancer diagnoses?
Endometrial cancer accounts for about 92% of all diagnoses
179
Radiation applied from surgically implanted pellets
Brachytherapy
180
Is prostate cancer contraindicated for massage?
No
181
When is massage therapy okay for a client that has chosen to use brachytherapy as a course of treatment?
Until after pellets have been removed
182
What type of Prostatitis is considered an idiopathic condition?
Type 3B, non-inflammatory chronic pelvis pain syndrome
183
Is massage therapy contraindicated for a client with chronic bacterial prostatitis while on antibiotics?
No, but client needs to finish their antibiotics
184
What is a frequent complication of an STI in both men and women?
Infertility
185
What would painless blood in urine/stool, a thickening in tissue or post menopausal spotting/bleeding indicate?
Possible early signs of cancer
186
How differentiated the cells are and the propensity for proliferation or aggressiveness
Tumor cell grading
187
Works to support the immune system in various ways to identify and fight cancer more aggressively
Biologic therapy
