Pathophysiology 1 Flashcards
Human physiology (246 cards)
1
Q
2 antibiotics put together
A
Augmentin
2
Q
RAAS Blocker no cough
A
Candesartin
3
Q
Severe Hypotension when combined with ED drugs
A
Nitroglycerin
4
Q
What is Angina
A
Chest Pain
5
Q
What causes MI
A
Blocked coronary artery
6
Q
3 effects of the surrounding tissue around an infraction
A
Stunning, hibernation and remodeling
7
Q
what is anemia
A
Decreasedoxygen carrying capacity
8
Q
Inflammatory condition of the GI, May lead to anemia
A
Decreased Absorption
9
Q
name 4 symptoms of anemia
A
Fatigue, coodness, pallor, increased RR, dizzieness, inability to exert self
10
Q
Nitroglycerine is given in an emergency through
A
Sublingual
11
Q
what shouldnt you drink while taking simvastatin
A
Grapefruit juice
12
Q
Blood pressure medication for preganant women
A
Amlodapine
13
Q
pulmanary oedema is associated with
A
Left sided heart failure
14
Q
swelling and weight gain are associatied with
A
right sided heartfailure
15
Q
NSTEMI and STEMI differences
A
ST elevation of ECT, STEMI full muscle effects (Transmural) NSTEMI is part affects
16
Q
Warfirin prevents blood clots through
A
Vitamin K
17
Q
What stimulates DIC
A
Severe endothelial damage
18
Q
What happens to clotting factors during DIC
A
All used up
19
Q
enviromental risk factor for Asthma
A
Smoking air pollutioncold weather
20
Q
CF results from imbalance of which ion
A
chlorine
21
Q
3 pathological changes with asthma attack
A
brochiole constriction, inflamation increased mucus production
22
Q
Hyper means
A
too much
23
Q
Hypo Means
A
Too little
24
Q
Cells will create acid if they run out of which 2 substances
A
Oxygen glucose
25
describe how ischemia causes necrosis
Lack of blood supply cells cant get oxygen or glucose and they do anerobic respiration which produces acid killing surrounding cells
26
Bacteria cause disease through
Toxins
27
Chemical released by WBC to cause blood vessels to lead
Histamine
28
name 2 dysfunctions that result in chronic inflamation
Sclerosis and remodeling
29
what is a deadly allergic reaction called
Anyphalaxis
30
in autoimune hypersenstivies antibodies are made to do what?
attack self proteins
31
glomerulonephritis is caused by what blocking the capillaries
antigen/antibodies complexes
32
An anti platelet drug
warfirin
33
Check heartrate before giving
digoxin
34
Hold if potassium level is greater than 5.0
spironolactone
35
atherosclerosis means
hardened arteries
36
how does foam cells form
Multiple LDL filled macrophages are joined
37
how does inflamation worsen atherosclerosis
chronic inflamation leads to remodeling leads to less flexible hardened arteries
38
PAD is due to which disease
Ischemia
39
2 symotms of PAD
Pale skin, shiny skin, hairless, poor pulses,pain when raising leg
40
Intermtent caudication is caused from PAD that happens when
you move or perform exercise
41
name to waste products that can buld up and cause disease
CO2 and urea
42
X-linked genes passed on by
Maternal care
43
pass on genetic disease but dont present it
Carriers
44
What medications stop a cough
ACE inhibitors
45
Beta 1 blockers do what
stop sympathetic activation of heart
46
name a drug that asssociated with low potassium
Frusomide
47
highest and lowest labs are called
Peak and trough
48
how does penicililin show selective toxicity
attacks bacterial cell wall so only certian bacteria that have this die
49
How does adding clavulanic acid to amoxicillin contribute to resistance
binds to chemicals that block the ring so amoxicillin can bind and break it down
50
define prodrome
non-specific symptoms
51
whcih stage are you infectious with no symtoms
incubation
52
describe changes in vital signs durig sepsis
Temp HR RR BP increase
SpO2 drop
53
cellulitis is an infection of which layer of the skin
Subcutaneous layer and lower dermis
54
Arterial ulcers are associated with what pedal pulses
Decreased/abscent
55
how are venous ulcers formed
fluid leaks out of veins, oedema, fluid wears away tissue
56
6 epsisodes of diaharea in 24 hours
contact
57
positive flu test
droplet
58
chicken pox
complex
59
Full thickness tear but no bone or fat
Stage 3
60
intact skin but red
Stage 1
61
slough and necrosis are covering the bottom of the PI
Unstagable
62
biggest compication risk of DVT is
Pulmnary embolism
62
abnrmally formed blood clot
thrombus
63
why does eating increase risk of Orthostatic hypotension
cause eating activates parasympatheitc nervous system lowering BP
64
why do we need a flu vaccine every year
mutation
65
How is acute strep different from the chronic complications?
acute is due to bacteria and chronic is autoimmune reactions
66
how do oppertunistic infections develop
either antibiotics kill of competing micro-organisms or immune suppression prevents body from fighting
67
Which medication blocks acetylcholine receptors in the bronchi
Anticholenergic
68
name a complication of using a fluticasone inhaler and how to prevent it
oral thrush due to the medication being a steroid, rinse and spit following use to avoid
69
name a biological risk factor of squamous cell carcinoma
blonde, blue/green eyes
70
name an enviromental risk factor of basal cel carcinoma
sun exposure
71
name a socioeconomic risk factor of melanoma
people of Maori decent and people with darker skin are more often diagnosed with melanoma due to darker skin
72
cancer that develops due to sun exposure
basal cell carcinoma
73
cancer from a mole, developing from burning from sun
melenoma
74
how to stage melenoma: asymetrical, colour and diameter meaning
moles are symetrical one colour and small, don't grow, cancer is opposite
75
Name the medication: swish and swallow or swish and spit
Nystatin
76
Name the medication: causes constipation
Iron
77
Name the medication: slow rate down if patient is developing redman syndrome
Vancomycin
78
reed-sternberg cells are in .... lymphoma
Hodgkins
79
why is meloma associated with bone pain
the cacnerous cells return tot he bone and re[produce so much they dake over the bone leading to disintergration
80
name three symtoms of b-type cancer
Night sweat, fever, weight loss
81
what acronym refers to the types of cancers
CAUTION UP
82
contrast proto-onco and tumor suppressor
proto-onco cause more to be made, tumor suppressors stop more being made
83
with regards to cancer what do T, N and M stand for
tumor size, number of lymph nodes and malignancy
84
aggressive cancer found in immature cells in children
AML, ALL, CML and Cll
85
premature B cells that dont die
CLL
86
slower but constant growth
CML
87
3 symtoms of MI
chest pain, dyspnea, pain radiating down arm, sweating
88
what does MONA stand for
Morphine, oxygen, nitroglycerine and Aspirin for MI
89
left sided heart failure does what to the lungs
fluid backfilling the lungs
90
Salbutamol acts as an .... to beta-2 receptors on brochi
agonist
91
93
Risk factors for cancer
Immune deficiency, diet, radiation, chemical exposure
94
What is pathophysiology?
The study of disease or abnormal body conditions.
95
What is Metoprolol used for?
Blood pressure medication.
96
How does Metoprolol work?
Blocks beta 1 androgenetic receptors of the heart, lowers heart rate, reduces the adrenaline effect.
97
What are the steps in the clinical reasoning cycle?
* What risk factors made this person get this disease
* What was the organ supposed to do
* What out of the 9 causes of disease start causing this organ to be sick
* What happens when the organ doesn't work correctly
* What symptoms will the person have if their organ acts like this
* What medications will be given to help correct this problem
* How will medications alleviate this problem
* What else does the medicine do and what effect will it cause
* What complications will occur if the diseases at the organ continue to fail
98
What is the first cause of disease mentioned?
Infection.
99
What role do proteins play in bacterial infection?
They cause disease through toxin production.
100
Define toxin.
A chemical that acts as a poison.
101
What is a localized infection?
An infection in a contained area.
102
What is a systemic infection?
Whole body infection.
103
How do viruses cause disease?
They use protein to enter the cell, take over to make copies, fill up the cell causing rupture, and mess with DNA causing mutations.
104
What is Type 1 hypersensitivity?
Over-reacting to normal processes, starting with antibodies that attract eosinophils, causing histamine release and allergic reactions.
105
What are the effects of histamine in Type 1 hypersensitivity?
* Closing of the breathing
* Vasodilation leading to leakage
106
What is Type 2 hypersensitivity?
Self-attack where antibodies attack self-cells due to proteins.
107
What is Type 3 hypersensitivity?
Impact from antibody-antigen complexes that become too large and block capillaries.
108
What characterizes chronic inflammation?
It leads to the breakdown of normal tissue and replacement with collagen, causing sclerosis.
109
What is ischemia?
Blockage of blood flow through an area, usually arteries.
110
What does hypoxia cause?
Lack of oxygen leading to anaerobic respiration and acid buildup.
111
Describe the physiological immune and inflammatory response to infection.
Macrophages engulf bacteria and release histamine causing vasodilation and white blood cell migration to the infection site.
112
Differentiate between acute and chronic inflammation.
* Acute: fast, transient, resolves with healing
* Chronic: slower, persistent, can lead to tissue damage and fibrosis
113
What are pathological changes associated with chronic inflammation?
Fibrosis.
114
How does a lack of homeostasis of electrolytes cause disease?
Hypernatremia can lead to muscle weakness.
115
What is uremia?
Increased urea in the blood due to renal issues.
116
How can mutations cause disease?
Alterations to DNA sequencing can lead to abnormal cell growth regulation.
117
What is the significance of X-linked traits in males?
Males are more likely to develop diseases from X-linked disorders due to having only one X chromosome.
118
What are the components of the blood pressure equation?
BP = CO x TPR.
119
What does CO stand for in the blood pressure equation?
Cardiac Output.
120
What does TPR stand for?
Total Peripheral Resistance.
121
What is atherosclerosis?
High blood pressure leads to damage to the arterial endothelial lining, causing LDL to accumulate.
122
What is the role of macrophages in atherosclerosis?
They eat LDL and form foam cells.
123
What are the complications of hypertension?
* Atherosclerosis
* Aneurysm
* Stroke
* Heart disease
124
What is the function of beta-blockers?
Block beta 1 receptors on the heart muscle to reduce heart rate.
125
What side effect is associated with ACE inhibitors?
Cough.
126
What do calcium channel blockers do?
Block cardiac and smooth muscle cells from contracting, leading to vasodilation.
127
How does the parasympathetic nervous system affect blood pressure?
It inhibits heart rate, dilates blood vessels, and reduces blood flow.
128
What is the role of aldosterone inhibitors like spironolactone?
Get rid of water and sodium, but hold onto potassium.
## Footnote
If potassium is <5, do not give.
129
What should be monitored when using loop diuretics like frusemide?
Kidney function through urea labs and potassium levels.
## Footnote
Excess water means increased urea.
130
Which calcium channel blocker is considered safest for pregnant women?
Amlodipine.
## Footnote
More likely to cause oedema; do not use if they have heart failure.
131
Describe the process of arteriosclerosis.
Damage to the endothelial lining leads to LDL blocking the injury, macrophages engulf and become foam cells, hardening to form a plaque reinforced with minerals.
132
What are the risk factors for atherosclerosis?
* Hypertension
* Smoking
* Diabetes
* High cholesterol
## Footnote
Atherosclerosis leads to narrowed arteries and increased risk of heart attacks, strokes, and peripheral artery disease.
133
Distinguish between LDL and HDL cholesterol.
LDL is 'bad' cholesterol that contributes to plaque buildup; HDL is 'good' cholesterol that helps remove excess cholesterol from the bloodstream.
134
What are the healthy cholesterol levels for LDL, HDL, and total cholesterol?
* LDL: below 100 mg/dL
* HDL: above 60 mg/dL
* Total cholesterol: under 200 mg/dL
135
What are the signs and symptoms of peripheral artery disease (PAD)?
* Intermittent claudication
* Leg pain
* Numbness
* Ulcers
136
How do statins control cholesterol?
They inhibit the HMG-CoA enzyme in the liver, reducing LDL production, thus lowering overall cholesterol levels in the body.
137
What is anemia?
Decreased oxygen carrying capacity due to decreased RBC and/or hemoglobin production or synthesis.
138
What are common signs and symptoms of anemia?
* Cold
* Fatigue
* Pale skin
* Dizziness
* Shortness of breath
* Jaundice
* Cardiac symptoms (palpitations)
* Gastrointestinal symptoms (nausea)
* Neurological symptoms (numbness)
139
What is the most common type of anemia?
Iron deficiency anemia.
140
What causes iron deficiency anemia?
* Decreased iron intake
* Low absorption
* Increased demand (e.g., pregnancy)
* Increased loss (e.g., bleeding)
141
What is the treatment for iron deficiency anemia?
Iron supplementation; calcium blocks iron absorption, while vitamin C increases absorption.
142
What are the causes of macrocytic anemias?
* Vitamin B12 deficiency
* Folate deficiency
* Liver disease
* Medications
143
What is thrombocytopenia?
Low platelet count due to decreased production, increased destruction, or sequestration leading to excessive bleeding and bruising.
144
What is hemophilia?
A genetic disorder causing deficient clotting factors, resulting in prolonged bleeding and joint damage.
145
What causes disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?
Severe endothelial damage, often due to sepsis, trauma, malignancy, or obstetric complications.
146
What is deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?
Abnormal clot formation in a deep vein, commonly in the lower limb.
147
What are the signs and symptoms of DVT?
* Localized swelling
* Redness (erythema)
* Pain
148
What is pulmonary embolism (PE)?
An embolus from a DVT dislodges and blocks pulmonary arteries, impairing gas exchange.
149
What are the signs and symptoms of a small pulmonary embolism?
* Cough
* Chest pain
* Shortness of breath
* Increased respiratory rate
* Increased heart rate
* Cyanosis of the lips
150
What are the complications of a myocardial infarction (MI)?
* Arrhythmias
* Heart failure
* Cardiogenic shock
* Ventricular rupture
151
What does MONA stand for in immediate treatment for MI?
* M - Morphine
* O - Oxygen
* N - Nitrates
* A - Aspirin
152
What is the pathophysiology of coronary artery disease?
Atherosclerosis causes narrowing of coronary arteries, reducing blood flow to the heart.
153
What is stable angina?
Predictable chest pain triggered by exertion and relieved by rest or nitroglycerin.
154
What is the pathophysiology of asthma?
Chronic inflammation of the airways leading to bronchoconstriction, mucosal edema, and increased mucus production.
155
What are the signs and symptoms of asthma?
* Wheezing
* Coughing
* Shortness of breath
* Increased heart rate
* Chest tightness
156
What is cystic fibrosis?
An autosomal recessive condition that leads to decreased chloride secretion, resulting in dry and sticky mucus secretions.
157
What are the two pathological conditions associated with chronic obstructive pulmonary disorder (COPD)?
* Emphysema
* Chronic bronchitis
158
What is chronic obstructive pulmonary disorder (COPD)?
Chronic and progressive decrease in airflow and gas exchange
## Footnote
Prolonged exposure to irritants in air, smoke inhalation may contribute
159
What are the two pathological conditions associated with COPD?
* Emphysema
* Chronic bronchitis
160
What happens in emphysema?
Destruction of capillaries and elastin, leading to decreased alveolar surface area and air trapping
161
What is a key feature of chronic bronchitis?
Increased mucus production and decreased cilia action
162
What effect can excess oxygen have on COPD patients?
It can remove the hypoxic drive, leading to increased carbon dioxide levels and hypercapnia
163
What are beta agonists used for in respiratory conditions?
To cause dilation of airways
## Footnote
Examples include theophylline and inhaled salbutamol
164
What are corticosteroids used for in respiratory conditions?
To switch on and off specific genes involved in the inflammation process
165
What is the role of CPAP in respiratory care?
Keeps airways open by maintaining positive pressure
166
What is intermittent claudication?
Extreme pain in the leg, especially during walking or exercise, associated with Peripheral Artery Disease (PAD)
167
What are the symptoms of arterial ulcers?
* Ulcer is pale
* Clearly demarcated
* Dry
* Necrotic
168
What differentiates venous ulcers from arterial ulcers?
Venous ulcers are irregular in shape, not clearly demarcated, and associated with skin breakdown due to vein malfunction
169
What are the stages of pressure ulcers?
* Stage 1: Unbroken red skin
* Stage 2: Partial thickness loss
* Stage 3: Full thickness loss
* Stage 4: Deep tissue loss
* Unstageable: Covered in slough or eschar
170
What is cellulitis?
Infection (bacterial) of the dermis or subcutaneous layer
171
What are risk factors for developing cellulitis?
* Obesity
* Venous ulcers
* Autoimmune conditions
* Diabetes
172
What is squamous cell carcinoma?
A type of skin cancer that often develops from keratinocytes in the epidermis
173
What are the risk factors for squamous cell carcinoma?
* Repeated sun exposure
* Fair skin
* Age 50+
* Burns or immunosuppression
174
What is the ABCDE method for detecting melanoma?
* A - Asymmetrical
* B - Border irregularity
* C - Multiple colors
* D - Diameter larger than 1/4 inch
* E - Evolving changes
175
What are the five stages of infection?
* Incubation
* Prodrome
* Illness
* Decline
* Convalescence
176
What are the three types of healthcare precautions?
* Contact
* Droplet
* Airborne
177
What is the primary treatment for bacterial infections?
Antibiotics
178
What is sepsis?
Pathogen enters the bloodstream, causing an inflammatory response and potential organ damage
179
What is selective toxicity in antibiotics?
Antibiotics kill bacteria without affecting human cells
180
What is MRSA?
Methicillin Resistant Staphylococcus Aureus, a strain of bacteria resistant to many antibiotics
181
What is the purpose of the Braden Scale?
To assess the risk of pressure ulcers
182
What are common side effects of corticosteroids?
* Weight gain
* Moon face
* Increased appetite
* Insomnia
* Palpitations
183
What is the primary concern with the use of antibiotics?
Potential for allergic reactions and development of antibiotic resistance
184
What is a common group of bacteria that has become resistant to most antibiotics?
Staphylococcus aureus
## Footnote
This group includes strains that are resistant to many antibiotics, complicating treatment options.
185
What condition can scratching the skin lead to if antibiotic-resistant staph is present?
Cellulitis
## Footnote
A bacterial skin infection that can occur due to the presence of resistant strains.
186
What is the primary medication used to treat resistant bacterial infections?
Vancomycin
## Footnote
This antibiotic is often reserved for serious infections caused by resistant bacteria.
187
How is Vancomycin administered?
Intravenously (IV)
## Footnote
Due to poor absorption, it must be given IV, especially in cases of sepsis.
188
What is the significance of the therapeutic range of Vancomycin?
Very small area between effective and toxic
## Footnote
This narrow therapeutic range requires careful monitoring.
189
What is Red Man Syndrome?
Toxic reaction to Vancomycin characterized by histamine overload
## Footnote
Symptoms include rash, swelling, and fever.
190
What should be done if extravasation occurs with Vancomycin administration?
Elevate the arm, draw a circle around the spot, and stop Vancomycin
## Footnote
This helps manage potential tissue damage.
191
What is the typical suffix for antiviral medications?
-vir
## Footnote
This suffix is common in the naming of antiviral drugs.
192
For what type of infections are antivirals usually not prescribed?
Acute infections
## Footnote
Antivirals are more commonly used for chronic infections.
193
What is the purpose of prophylaxis in medication?
Prevention of disease
## Footnote
An example is washing out a needle stick with soap and water.
194
What characterizes Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus?
Insulin deficiency due to destruction of beta cells
## Footnote
This condition leads to no insulin production.
195
What occurs in Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus?
Decreased insulin production and insulin resistance
## Footnote
Cells do not allow glucose to enter effectively.
196
What is Gestational Diabetes Mellitus (GDM)?
Onset of diabetes during pregnancy
## Footnote
It increases the risk of developing Type 2 diabetes later.
197
What is hyperglycemia?
Too much glucose in the blood
## Footnote
This can lead to complications in various organs.
198
What does the HbA1C test measure?
Glycated hemoglobin levels over time
## Footnote
It reflects average blood glucose levels.
199
What are the management strategies for Type 1 Diabetes?
Insulin injections, glucose monitoring, exercise, diet
## Footnote
These strategies aim to maintain blood glucose levels.
200
What can cause hypoglycemia in diabetes management?
Excess insulin, too much exercise, inadequate food
## Footnote
This condition requires careful balance in treatment.
201
What is the mechanism of action for metformin?
Inhibits gluconeogenesis and increases insulin sensitivity
## Footnote
It helps lower blood sugar without causing hypoglycemia.
202
What is the primary risk factor for developing cancer?
Genetic mutations
## Footnote
These mutations lead to unregulated cell growth.
203
What is a benign tumor?
Non-harmful, encapsulated growth that does not spread
## Footnote
It consists of mature cells.
204
What is the difference between malignant and benign tumors?
Malignant tumors are cancerous, undifferentiated, and can spread
## Footnote
Benign tumors do not spread and are composed of mature cells.
205
What are proto-oncogenes?
Normal growth genes that can become cancerous
## Footnote
They can lead to uncontrolled cell proliferation when mutated.
206
What is angiogenesis in cancer?
Formation of new blood vessels by cancer cells
## Footnote
This process allows tumors to grow and metastasize.
207
What does the TNM staging system assess?
Tumor size, lymph node involvement, and metastasis
## Footnote
It is crucial for determining cancer progression.
208
What is the role of leukocytes (WBC)?
Fight infection and inflammation
## Footnote
An increase in WBC is known as leukocytosis.
209
What is the most common type of leukemia in children?
Acute lymphoid leukemia (ALL)
## Footnote
It affects immature lymphoid stem cells.
210
What treatment is commonly used for leukemia?
Chemotherapy
## Footnote
It targets rapidly dividing cells, including cancerous WBCs.
211
What is the primary cause of ischemic stroke?
Lack of blood flow to the brain
## Footnote
This can result from a thrombus or embolism.
212
What does the FAST acronym stand for in stroke recognition?
Face, Arms, Speech, Time
## Footnote
These are key indicators to identify a stroke.
213
What is a transient ischemic attack (TIA)?
Stroke symptoms that resolve within 24 hours
## Footnote
It is often a warning sign for a future stroke.
214
What is hemiparesis?
One-sided muscle weakness
## Footnote
It is a common symptom of stroke.
215
What is dysphagia?
Difficulty swallowing
## Footnote
This can occur after a stroke due to muscle control loss.
216
What causes cachexia?
Sudden weight loss due to disease
## Footnote
It is often associated with cancer and other chronic illnesses.
217
What is Dysphasia?
Difficulty producing words
218
What is Dysphagia?
Difficulty swallowing
219
What is Agnosia?
Inability to recognise objects, persons or sounds
220
What condition causes a stroke?
Thrombus or embolism
221
Which artery is considered the worst for causing a stroke?
Internal corroded artery
222
What happens when a thrombus breaks off?
It causes a shower of emboli into smaller arteries and blood vessels in the brain, leading to ischemia
223
How long can brain cells survive without blood supply?
5 minutes
224
What is hypoxia?
Condition where cells resort to anaerobic respiration due to lack of oxygen
225
What does hypoglycemia in the brain lead to?
Acidosis of the brain
226
What follows necrosis in brain tissue?
Inflammation
227
What is a major problem that arises after necrosis in brain tissue?
Remodeling with the wrong tissue
228
What does the acronym FAST stand for in relation to stroke symptoms?
Focal, Asymmetry, Speech, Time
229
What are focal symptoms indicative of?
Specific focal brain regions affected by ischemic stroke
230
What can a temporal lobe stroke affect?
Speech due to involvement of Broca's area
231
What does an occipital lobe stroke affect?
Vision
232
What is the role of the cerebellum?
Management of movement control
233
What are contralateral symptoms?
Symptoms on the opposite side of the body from the stroke origin
234
What are ipsilateral symptoms?
Same side symptoms from a stroke below the pyramids
235
What imaging technique is used to diagnose a stroke?
CT scan
236
What is the purpose of a CT scan in stroke diagnosis?
To differentiate between hemorrhagic and ischemic stroke
237
What does an MRI do in the context of stroke?
Can tell if a stroke is happening currently
238
What is rtPA?
Recombinant tissue plasminogen activator
239
What does rtPA do?
Activates plasmin to break down clots
240
What is the risk associated with administering rtPA?
High risk of bleeding
241
What conditions prevent the use of tPA?
Recent surgery, high systolic BP over 180, previous hemorrhagic stroke, anticoagulants in last 5 days
242
How long can one wait to administer tPA after a stroke?
Cannot be given if more than 3 hours have passed
243
5 steps of infection
I POOP I DONT CARE: Icubation: infected no signs symptoms, Prodrome: no specific symptoms, Illness: symptoms come out, Decline: illness is declining, Convalescne: recovering from illness, dormaint or gone
244
5 steps of inflamation
Mast cells release histamine, causing vasodilation, capillary permeability increases, blood plasma and fluid leak to injury site, white blood cells and macrophages phagocytise
245
5 steps of sepsis
mast cells release, vasodilation, capillary perimability, white blood cell migration, activation of platelets, clotting cascade,
246
4 types of allergic reactions
Over react--> histamine too much, Self attack --> antibodies attack self cells, --> impact --> antigen antibodies complexes block the arteries and cant be killed, self attack again --> cytotoxic t cells attack non-infected cells
