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CT > Patient Care > Flashcards

Patient Care Flashcards

1
Q

Temperatures:
-oral
-axillary
-rectal

A

normal 97-99.5
oral- 98.6
axillary -1
rectal +1

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2
Q

pulse:
-rate
-rhythm
-amplitude

A

rate- number of beats per minute (60-100)
rhythm- steady
amplitude- strong and solid

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3
Q

What does blood pressure mean

A

lateral force exerted on arterial walls

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4
Q

What is normal for systolic pressure and what does it mean

A

100-120
ventricles are contracting

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5
Q

what is normal for diastolic pressure and what does it mean

A

60-80
ventricle are relaxing

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6
Q

What does respiratory rate mean and what is the normal rate

A

number of breath cycles per minute
12-20 for adults

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7
Q

what does a pulse oximeter measure and what is normal

A

measure oxygen saturation in the blood
90-100%

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8
Q

what is end-tidal CO2 used for?
how is it used?
what is normal?
what does a high value indicate?
what does a low value indicate?

A

moderate sedation because it is more sensitive than a pulse ox.
uses a nasal canula to deliver oxygen
35-34mmHg
greater than 45 indicates respiratory failure
lower than 35 indicates anxiety

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9
Q

Contraction of the heart right and left _______ pushes blood into the right and left _______.

A

atrium
ventriclces

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10
Q

contraction of the right and left ventricles pushes blood into the _________ and to the ______.

A

pulmonary arteries
aorta

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11
Q

P wave represents activity through the

A

atria

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12
Q

QRS complex represents movement through the _______ and is also known as ________.

A

ventricles
ventricular systole

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13
Q

ST segments represents

A

ventricles contracting but no electrical flow

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14
Q

What does the T wave represent? What is it also known as?

A

ventricles resetting and preparing for next contraction
ventricle diastole

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15
Q

What are some lab values that represent kidney function?

A

BUN
Creatinine
GFR

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16
Q

Normal range for Blood urea nitrogen?

A

7-21

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17
Q

what does a BUN value of 50 and above represent?

A

renal failure

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18
Q

what is creatinine

A

chemical byproduct of metabolism of muscle

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19
Q

normal range for creatinine

A

0.7-1.5

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20
Q

Creatinine can be affected by

A

age, gender, amount of muscle mass, and hydration status

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21
Q

What is GFR

A

estimates that rate at which the kidneys (glomerulus) are filtering waste from blood

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22
Q

what is the normal range for glomerular filtration rate?

A

90-120

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23
Q

name 6 blood clotting factors

A

Prothrombin time (PT)
Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
International normalized ratio (INR)
platelets
Hematocrit
hemoglobin

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24
Q

What is the normal value for Prothrombin time and what does it show

A

11-13.5 seconds
liquid portion of blood to clot

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25
Q

What is the normal value for PTT and what does is show

A

25-35 seconds
blood coagulation time

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26
Q

What is the normal value for INR and what does it measure

A

0.8-1.2
measures coagulation tendency of blood

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27
Q

What is the normal value for platelets and what does it measure

A

150K-400K
number of platelets in the blood and the body’s clotting activity

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28
Q

high platelets indicate

A

clotting disorder

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29
Q

low platelets indicate

A

potential bleeding disorder

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30
Q

What is the normal range for Hematocrit and what does it measure? What does it indicate?

A

35-50%
measures the % of the volume of whole blood that is made up of red blood cells
can indicate bleeding or blood loss

31
Q

What is the normal range of hemoglobin for males? Females? What does it measure? What does it help identify?

A

14-17
12-15
iron rich protein carried by red blood cells to transport oxygen
helps identify anemia or bleeding

32
Q

What are the 4 different types of sedation?

A

minimal
moderate
deep
general anesthesia

33
Q

What type of sedation uses anxiolytics and what kind of sedation is it?

A

minimal sedation that relaxes the patient and reduces anxiety?

34
Q

What type of sedation is also know as conscious sedation?

A

moderate sedation

35
Q

What does moderate sedation allow?

A

allows the patient to follow specific directions

36
Q

What kind of sedation is deep sedation?

A

allows limited response to stimuli and may require support of vital functions

37
Q

What type of sedation is general anesthesia

A

pt is unresponsive and requires significant support of vital functions

38
Q

What type of iodine is safe for IV injection?

A

water-soluble

39
Q

What does ionic iodine do when placed into fluid/blood?

A

breaks apart into multiple molecules and particles become + charged

40
Q

What does nonionic iodine do when placed into fluid/blood?

A

molecule remains intact

41
Q

Water soluble iodine molecules are connected to a _______, which makes it not as toxic to the body.

A

benzene ring

42
Q

molarity of contrast refers to

A

the concentration of particles

43
Q

What is the osmolarity of blood

A

300 mOms/L

44
Q

What is the osmolarity of contrast?

A

> 300 mOms/L

45
Q

the goal is the have contrast osmolarity <,>, or = blood?

A

=

46
Q

What is the ideal IV contrast conditions?

A

nonionic
low osmolar
water soluble

47
Q

What does 350 stand for in Isovue 350

A

concentration of iodine in the solution

48
Q

The amount of attenuation caused by a contrast agent is controlled by the

A

atomic number and concentration

49
Q

Barium sulfate 1-2% is used for

A

ct

50
Q

Barium sulfate 40% is used for

A

fluro procedures

51
Q

Why is barium sulfate 40% not ideal for CT procedures?

A

greater concentration will cause beam hardening artifact due to how dense it is

52
Q

What type of contrast is used for gastrointestinal use only

A

barium sulfate

53
Q

barium sulfate is or is not water soluble?

A

not

54
Q

allergy pre medication using which 2 medications

A

corticosteroids and antihistamines

55
Q

what are 2 examples of corticosteroids, dosages, and what time are they given?

A

prednisone and solumedrol
50mg
12 hours and 1 hour pre scan

56
Q

What is an example of an antihistamine, dosage, and what time is it given?

A

Benadryl
50mg
1 hour pre scan

57
Q

What are the 3 most common IV site selections in the AC

A

cephalic vein, basilic vein, and median cubital vein

58
Q

why is aseptic technique important before IV insertion?

A

minimizes risks of contamination from microorganisms

59
Q

3 important steps to aseptic technique

A

wash your hands before and after with soap or alcohol
wear gloves to protect yourself
clean skin with antiseptic

60
Q

what are 4 things that need to be documented after IV insertion

A

ate, site, gauge, and number of attempts

61
Q

What are 4 things that should be documented about contrast used

A

contrast label, concentration, volume, and injection rate used

62
Q

What are 5 types of venous access devices and which 2 should not be used with power injection

A

peripheral IV’s
PICC lines
Central Lines
Jugular lines - not safe
Dialysis lines - not safe

63
Q

What are 3 points to communication in regards to injection safety

A

explain the procedure
explain the effects of contrast (metallic taste and warm feeling)
risks of procedure

64
Q

Extravasation
what is it
what does it cause
what to do if it happens

A

leakage of contrast outside the vessel
causes swelling, tightness, or burning sensation at site
inform the radiologist, elevate extremity, and hot and cold compress

65
Q

Air embolism
what is it
signs of it
what to do

A

injection of air into the vascular system
signs are SOB, chest pain, or coughing
inform the Radiologist, 100% oxygen on patient, and lay on left side to prevent circulation

66
Q

What are some mild reactions to IV contrast and what to do?

A

scattered hives, itching (pruritus), runny nose (rhinorrhea), and coughing
monitor for 30mins, vital signs, and antihistamine if reaction occurs

67
Q

What are some moderate reactions to IV contrast and what to do?

A

diffuse hives, persistent vomiting, laryngeal edema, tachycardia
monitor patient until stable, vital signs, secure IV access, and antihistamine if reaction occurs

68
Q

What are some sever reactions to IV contrast

A

AMS, pulmonary edema, laryngeal edema, tachycardia, or death
call code blue and epinephrine

69
Q

What are the 6 steps to follow if and IV contrast reaction occurs

A

discontinue contrast
call for nurse or physician
assess patients airway, breathing, and circulation
acquire vital signs
prepare reaction kit and O2
be prepared to call code blue

70
Q

What is nephrotoxicity?
what increases the risk?

A

decrease in renal function following IV contrast administration
risk is increased by pre-existing renal insufficiency

71
Q

special considerations for pregnant patients receiving IV contrast

A

iodinated contrast does cross the placenta but there is no risk to the fetus

72
Q

special considerations for lactating mothers receiving IV contrast

A

less than 1 % of contrast injected into the mother is excreted in breast milk
mother may choose to pump and dump for 24 hours

73
Q
A

CT (5 decks)

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