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Patient Care Flashcards

(73 cards)

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1
Q

Temperatures:
-oral
-axillary
-rectal

A

normal 97-99.5
oral- 98.6
axillary -1
rectal +1

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2
Q

pulse:
-rate
-rhythm
-amplitude

A

rate- number of beats per minute (60-100)
rhythm- steady
amplitude- strong and solid

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3
Q

What does blood pressure mean

A

lateral force exerted on arterial walls

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4
Q

What is normal for systolic pressure and what does it mean

A

100-120
ventricles are contracting

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5
Q

what is normal for diastolic pressure and what does it mean

A

60-80
ventricle are relaxing

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6
Q

What does respiratory rate mean and what is the normal rate

A

number of breath cycles per minute
12-20 for adults

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7
Q

what does a pulse oximeter measure and what is normal

A

measure oxygen saturation in the blood
90-100%

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8
Q

what is end-tidal CO2 used for?
how is it used?
what is normal?
what does a high value indicate?
what does a low value indicate?

A

moderate sedation because it is more sensitive than a pulse ox.
uses a nasal canula to deliver oxygen
35-34mmHg
greater than 45 indicates respiratory failure
lower than 35 indicates anxiety

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9
Q

Contraction of the heart right and left _______ pushes blood into the right and left _______.

A

atrium
ventriclces

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10
Q

contraction of the right and left ventricles pushes blood into the _________ and to the ______.

A

pulmonary arteries
aorta

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11
Q

P wave represents activity through the

A

atria

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12
Q

QRS complex represents movement through the _______ and is also known as ________.

A

ventricles
ventricular systole

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13
Q

ST segments represents

A

ventricles contracting but no electrical flow

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14
Q

What does the T wave represent? What is it also known as?

A

ventricles resetting and preparing for next contraction
ventricle diastole

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15
Q

What are some lab values that represent kidney function?

A

BUN
Creatinine
GFR

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16
Q

Normal range for Blood urea nitrogen?

A

7-21

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17
Q

what does a BUN value of 50 and above represent?

A

renal failure

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18
Q

what is creatinine

A

chemical byproduct of metabolism of muscle

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19
Q

normal range for creatinine

A

0.7-1.5

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20
Q

Creatinine can be affected by

A

age, gender, amount of muscle mass, and hydration status

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21
Q

What is GFR

A

estimates that rate at which the kidneys (glomerulus) are filtering waste from blood

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22
Q

what is the normal range for glomerular filtration rate?

A

90-120

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23
Q

name 6 blood clotting factors

A

Prothrombin time (PT)
Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
International normalized ratio (INR)
platelets
Hematocrit
hemoglobin

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24
Q

What is the normal value for Prothrombin time and what does it show

A

11-13.5 seconds
liquid portion of blood to clot

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25
What is the normal value for PTT and what does is show
25-35 seconds blood coagulation time
26
What is the normal value for INR and what does it measure
0.8-1.2 measures coagulation tendency of blood
27
What is the normal value for platelets and what does it measure
150K-400K number of platelets in the blood and the body's clotting activity
28
high platelets indicate
clotting disorder
29
low platelets indicate
potential bleeding disorder
30
What is the normal range for Hematocrit and what does it measure? What does it indicate?
35-50% measures the % of the volume of whole blood that is made up of red blood cells can indicate bleeding or blood loss
31
What is the normal range of hemoglobin for males? Females? What does it measure? What does it help identify?
14-17 12-15 iron rich protein carried by red blood cells to transport oxygen helps identify anemia or bleeding
32
What are the 4 different types of sedation?
minimal moderate deep general anesthesia
33
What type of sedation uses anxiolytics and what kind of sedation is it?
minimal sedation that relaxes the patient and reduces anxiety?
34
What type of sedation is also know as conscious sedation?
moderate sedation
35
What does moderate sedation allow?
allows the patient to follow specific directions
36
What kind of sedation is deep sedation?
allows limited response to stimuli and may require support of vital functions
37
What type of sedation is general anesthesia
pt is unresponsive and requires significant support of vital functions
38
What type of iodine is safe for IV injection?
water-soluble
39
What does ionic iodine do when placed into fluid/blood?
breaks apart into multiple molecules and particles become + charged
40
What does nonionic iodine do when placed into fluid/blood?
molecule remains intact
41
Water soluble iodine molecules are connected to a _______, which makes it not as toxic to the body.
benzene ring
42
molarity of contrast refers to
the concentration of particles
43
What is the osmolarity of blood
300 mOms/L
44
What is the osmolarity of contrast?
>300 mOms/L
45
the goal is the have contrast osmolarity <,>, or = blood?
=
46
What is the ideal IV contrast conditions?
nonionic low osmolar water soluble
47
What does 350 stand for in Isovue 350
concentration of iodine in the solution
48
The amount of attenuation caused by a contrast agent is controlled by the
atomic number and concentration
49
Barium sulfate 1-2% is used for
ct
50
Barium sulfate 40% is used for
fluro procedures
51
Why is barium sulfate 40% not ideal for CT procedures?
greater concentration will cause beam hardening artifact due to how dense it is
52
What type of contrast is used for gastrointestinal use only
barium sulfate
53
barium sulfate is or is not water soluble?
not
54
allergy pre medication using which 2 medications
corticosteroids and antihistamines
55
what are 2 examples of corticosteroids, dosages, and what time are they given?
prednisone and solumedrol 50mg 12 hours and 1 hour pre scan
56
What is an example of an antihistamine, dosage, and what time is it given?
Benadryl 50mg 1 hour pre scan
57
What are the 3 most common IV site selections in the AC
cephalic vein, basilic vein, and median cubital vein
58
why is aseptic technique important before IV insertion?
minimizes risks of contamination from microorganisms
59
3 important steps to aseptic technique
wash your hands before and after with soap or alcohol wear gloves to protect yourself clean skin with antiseptic
60
what are 4 things that need to be documented after IV insertion
ate, site, gauge, and number of attempts
61
What are 4 things that should be documented about contrast used
contrast label, concentration, volume, and injection rate used
62
What are 5 types of venous access devices and which 2 should not be used with power injection
peripheral IV's PICC lines Central Lines Jugular lines - not safe Dialysis lines - not safe
63
What are 3 points to communication in regards to injection safety
explain the procedure explain the effects of contrast (metallic taste and warm feeling) risks of procedure
64
Extravasation what is it what does it cause what to do if it happens
leakage of contrast outside the vessel causes swelling, tightness, or burning sensation at site inform the radiologist, elevate extremity, and hot and cold compress
65
Air embolism what is it signs of it what to do
injection of air into the vascular system signs are SOB, chest pain, or coughing inform the Radiologist, 100% oxygen on patient, and lay on left side to prevent circulation
66
What are some mild reactions to IV contrast and what to do?
scattered hives, itching (pruritus), runny nose (rhinorrhea), and coughing monitor for 30mins, vital signs, and antihistamine if reaction occurs
67
What are some moderate reactions to IV contrast and what to do?
diffuse hives, persistent vomiting, laryngeal edema, tachycardia monitor patient until stable, vital signs, secure IV access, and antihistamine if reaction occurs
68
What are some sever reactions to IV contrast
AMS, pulmonary edema, laryngeal edema, tachycardia, or death call code blue and epinephrine
69
What are the 6 steps to follow if and IV contrast reaction occurs
discontinue contrast call for nurse or physician assess patients airway, breathing, and circulation acquire vital signs prepare reaction kit and O2 be prepared to call code blue
70
What is nephrotoxicity? what increases the risk?
decrease in renal function following IV contrast administration risk is increased by pre-existing renal insufficiency
71
special considerations for pregnant patients receiving IV contrast
iodinated contrast does cross the placenta but there is no risk to the fetus
72
special considerations for lactating mothers receiving IV contrast
less than 1 % of contrast injected into the mother is excreted in breast milk mother may choose to pump and dump for 24 hours
73

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