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Patient Care Review > Patient Care > Flashcards

Patient Care Flashcards

1
Q

The best means of preventing the spread of microorganisms continues to be?

A

Hand washing

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2
Q

Entry of pathogenic microorganisms into a new host can be by?

A

Ingestion / Inhalation / injection

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3
Q

What type of medication promotes the excretion of urine?

A

Diuretic (Lasix)

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4
Q

Directions given by a person while in a healthy state concerning wishes at time of death are called?

A

Advance Directive

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5
Q

What is the term used for cases of medical negligence and switches the burden of proof from the patient to the imaging professional?
It translates to the thing speaks for itself.

A

Res ipsa loquitor

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6
Q

The destruction of microbes by steam under pressure or other means, includes both chemical or physical means?

A

Sterilization

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7
Q

What type of medication causes constriction of the blood vessels?

A

Vasoconstrictor

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8
Q

What type of medication causes dilatation of the blood vessels?

A

Vasodilator

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9
Q

What is urticaria?

A

Hives

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10
Q

This method of transmission occurs when droplets contaminated with pathogenic microorganisms are placed in the air from a person infected with a droplet-borne infection.

A

Droplet transmission

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11
Q

What are the elements needed to transmit an infection?

A
  • Infectious agent
  • Reservoir or environment in which the microbe can live & multiply
  • Portal to exit the reservoir
  • Means of transmission
  • Portal of entry into a new host
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12
Q

When a susceptible person actually touches an infected person’s body surface in an area where infectious microbes are present.

A

Direct contact

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13
Q

The transfer of pathogenic microbes by touching objects that have been contaminated by an infected person.

A

Indirect contact

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14
Q

What is a PE?

A

Pulmonary embolism: Occlusion of a pulmonary artery by a thrombus.

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15
Q

What is the term for a patient’s claim that he/she has been wronged or has suffered some injury, other than a breach of contract, for which he/she believes cause exist for an action for damages?

A

Tort

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16
Q

Where is a chest tube inserted?

A

Dependent upon air or fluid to be removed, but placed in the pleural cavity.

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17
Q

What is the chest tube attached to?

A

Water-sealed drainage unit

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18
Q

Contact with infectious secretions that come from the eyes, nose or mouth of a host or disease carrier as the person coughs, sneezes, or talks?

A

Droplet transmission

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19
Q

What is orthostatic hypotension?

A

A decrease in diastolic pressure caused by sudden movement from a recumbent to an upright position.

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20
Q

Droplets can travel for how many feet?

A

3 feet

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21
Q

The CDC established a two-tier system for patients with particular diagnoses. The first tier is to be used at all times when any healthcare professional is caring for a patient. What is that called?

A

Standard precautions

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22
Q

What is the length of time for a surgical scrub?

A

3-5 minutes

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23
Q

Which side of the patient is usually the best side to move a patient onto (strong/weak side)?

A

Strong side

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24
Q

How far should one stand from a sterile table?

A

3 feet

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25
Q

What is the term for spoken defamation?

A

Slander

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26
Q

What is diabetic ketoacidosis?

A

Insufficient insulin causes liver to produce more glucose, kidneys then excrete glucose with water & electrolytes leading to dehydration and electrolyte imbalance.

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27
Q

Insect or animal carriers of disease are called?

A

Vectors

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28
Q

What is a pulse oximeter?

A

It measures the amount of oxygen saturation.

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29
Q

Which stage of an infection does the microorganism reproduce and the infection begins?

A

Prodromal stage

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30
Q

Infection is transmitted by what type of routes?

A
  • Direct or indirect contact
  • Droplet
  • Vehicle
  • Vector
  • Airborne
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31
Q

The ___ route of transmission indicates that residue from evaporated droplets of diseased microorganism are suspended in air for long periods of time.

A

Airborne

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32
Q
  • Microorganisms have been eliminated through the use of soap, water, friction and various chemical disinfectants.
  • Any practice that helps reduce the number and spread of microorganisms.
  • Decreases the probability of acquiring an infection.
A

Medical asepsis

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33
Q

What are some of the clinical manifestations for a patient experiencing a diabetic complication?

A
  • Tachycardia
  • Headache
  • Blurred or double vision
  • Extreme thirst
  • Sweet odor to breath
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34
Q

What word means walking or the ability to walk?

A

Ambulatory

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35
Q
  • The medically aseptic hand washing procedure should last for ___ ___.
  • This is considered the minimum amount of time.
A

15 seconds

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36
Q

A condition in which the blood does not supply enough oxygen to the body, causing a bluish tone to the lips and fingertips is called?

A

Cyanosis

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37
Q

The ___ membrane thermometer is a small, hand-held device that measures the temperature of the blood vessels in the __ membrane of the ear.

A

Tympanic

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38
Q

What are some types of intentional torts?

A
  • False imprisonment
  • Assault/battery
  • Defamation
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39
Q
  • Generalized brain function disturbance and are accompanied by changes in LOC.
  • A symptom of an underlying condition.
A

Seizure

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40
Q

This method of transmission occurs when microbes are spread on evaporated droplets that remain suspended in air or are carried on dust particles in the air and may be inhaled by persons in that room or air space?

A

Airborne transmission

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41
Q

Respirations of fewer than 10 breaths/min for an adult may result in ____, apprehension, restlessness and a change in LOC?

A

Cyanosis

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42
Q

When diseases require droplet isolation, what are the precautions that must be taken?

A
  • Private room or a room with another person infected with same disease.
  • Door may be left open.
  • Mask for any procedure that requires less than 3 feet in proximity to patient.
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43
Q

What are the different types of oxygen devices used for patients?

A

Nasal cannula

-Face masks (nonrebreathing, partial rebreathing, Venturi mask or an aerosol mask)

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44
Q

When diseases require contact isolation, what are the precautions that must be taken?

A
  • Private room or room with another person infected with same disease.
  • Gloves to be worn by healthcare professional before entering patient’s room and removed before leaving.
  • Gown if possibility of touching patient or items in room.
  • Visitors must wash hands before and after entering room.
  • Equipment used in patient’s room must stay in patient’s room.
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45
Q

What is objective information?

A
  • Concrete evidence
  • Based on facts that exist
  • Patient’s chart
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46
Q

When cleaning an area such as an x-ray table, where should the cleaning first begin?

A

In the least soiled area and then finish in the most soiled area.

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47
Q

What is the term for written defamation?

A

Libel

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48
Q

What is subjective information?

A
  • Based on judgment by an individual

- Personal opinion

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49
Q

What are the rules for the following areas?

Zone 1 or unrestricted zone
Zone 2 or semi-restricted zone
Zone 3 or restricted zone

A

Unrestricted – persons may enter in street clothing.

Semi-restricted – dressed in scrub attire with hair and shoes covered.

Restricted – appropriate scrub attire and mask.

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50
Q

Who makes up the surgical team?

A
  • Surgeon
  • Surgical assistant
  • Anesthesiologist or nurse anesthetist
  • Circulating nurse
  • Scrub nurse or surgical technician
  • Radiologic technologist
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51
Q
  • Microorganisms and their spores have been completely destroyed by means of heat or by a chemical process.
  • Complete removal of microorganisms and their spores.
  • Reduces the probability of acquiring an infection to zero.
A

Surgical asepsis

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52
Q

A slow heart rate of less than 60 beats per minute is called?

A

Bradycardia

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53
Q

Contaminated objects are referred to as ____?

A

Fomites

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54
Q

The blood pressure reading that occurs during the relaxation of the ventricles is called?

A

Diastolic

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55
Q

Difficult breathing resulting from insufficient airflow to the lungs?

A

Dyspnea

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56
Q

What is the term for an intended threat or harm without physical contact?

A

Assault

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57
Q

If a patient is highly susceptible to becoming infected because of a particular treatment or condition, isolation precautions are also used to protect the patient. Those are?

A
  • Expanded precautions
  • Strict isolation
  • Reverse isolation
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58
Q

A fast heart rate of more than 100 beats per minute is called?

A

Tachycardia

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59
Q

The human brain cannot function for longer than __ to __ ______ without an adequate oxygen supply.

A

4-5 minutes

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60
Q

What are the four areas of the body in which temperature is usually measured?

A
  • Oral
  • Tympanic
  • Rectal
  • Axillary
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61
Q

The pulse can be detected most easily in which areas of the body?

A
  • Apical
  • Radial
  • Carotid
  • Femoral
  • Popliteal
  • Temporal
  • Dorsalis pedis
  • Posterior tibial
  • Brachial
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62
Q

How should a wheelchair be placed when the patient needs to be transferred from the wheelchair to the imaging table?

A

At a 45 degree angle.

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63
Q

What is the average pulse rate in an adult in a resting state?

A

60-90 beats/minute

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64
Q

The average oral temperature reading is __F?

A

98.6 degrees F

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65
Q

Why are standard precautions considered effective?

A

Because they are based on the assumption that every patient has the potential for having an infectious disease.

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66
Q

What is the term for the master speaks for the servant?

A

Respondent superior

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67
Q

What does “deep pocket approach” refer to?

A

The physician or healthcare facility is responsible for the negligent acts of its employees.

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68
Q

What is the average respiration rate for an adult?

A

15 to 20 breaths/minute

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69
Q

What are some of the uses for central venous catheters?

A
  • Long term medication
  • Frequent blood transfusion
  • Total parenteral nutrition (TPN)
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70
Q

What are some of the rules for surgical asepsis?

A
  • Gowns
  • Gloves
  • Sterile field
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71
Q

What is the term for physically touching another person without permission even if no injury arises?

A

Battery

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72
Q

The instrument used to measure blood pressure is called a ___?

A

Sphygmomanometer

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73
Q

When diseases require airborne isolation, what are the precautions that must be taken?

A
  • Private room with negative air-pressure ventilation.
  • N95 respirator mask for healthcare professionals
  • Surgical mask for visitors
  • Door closed
  • Surgical mask for patient when transferred within hospital.
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74
Q

Another term for fainting is called?

A

Syncope

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75
Q
  • A chemical capable of destroying microorganisms or inhibiting their growth.
  • Same as antiseptic
A

Disinfectant

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76
Q

What is an NG tube?

A

NG tubes – stomach, duodenum or jejunum

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77
Q

What is an NE tube?

A

NE tubes – pass into duodenum and small intestines by means of peristalsis.

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78
Q

A patient is considered to be hypertensive if the systolic BP is consistently greater than ___ and if the diastolic BP is consistently greater than __.

A

140 mm Hg

90 mm Hg

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79
Q

What are the five (5) rights to drug administration?

A
  • Name of Drug
  • Amount/Dosage
  • Patient
  • Time
  • Route
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80
Q

What is the difference between the nonrebreathing and partial rebreathing oxygen mask?

A
  • A nonrebreathing mask offers a high percent of oxygen (100%) while a partial rebreathing offers between 60 to 90%.
  • Partial rebreathing has no valve (breathing a mixture of oxygen and carbon dioxide).
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81
Q

Who can be sued?

A

Anyone

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82
Q

What are the stages of grief?

A
  • Denial
  • Anger
  • Bargaining
  • Depression
  • Acceptance
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83
Q

What term is used for failing to follow the policies involving the use of restraints or unnecessarily confining or restraining a patient without their permission?

A

False imprisonment

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84
Q

When an infection is acquired within the healthcare environment, it is referred to as this type of infection?

A

Nosocomial

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85
Q

When a patient enters the healthcare facility with an infection, this is referred to as what type of infection?

A

Community acquired infection

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86
Q

What considerations should be given before moving a patient?

A
  • Patient’s general condition
  • Range of motion and weight-bearing ability
  • Patient’s strength and endurance
  • Patient’s ability to maintain balance
  • Patient’s ability to understand what is expected during transfer
  • Patient’s acceptance of the move
  • Patient’s medication history
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87
Q

As the body’s temperature increases, the body’s demand for ___ increases.

A

Oxygen

88
Q

An infection that is a result of a particular treatment or therapeutic procedure is termed?

A

Iatrogenic

89
Q

What are the stages of infection?

A
  • Incubation
  • Prodromal
  • Full disease
  • Convalescent
90
Q

What are the symptoms associated with a mild anaphylactic reaction?

A
  • Nasal congestion, periorbital swelling, itching, sneezing and tearing of eyes.
  • Tingling or itching @ injection site.
  • Fullness or tightness of chest, mouth or throat.
  • Feeling of anxiety or nervousness.
91
Q

What does PPE stand for and what does it include?

A
  • Personal protective equipment

- Gloves, gown, mask and safety glasses

92
Q

What type of needle is used to access an implanted port?

A

Huber needle

93
Q

The blood pressure reading taken during the contraction of the ventricles is called?

A

Systolic

94
Q

What type of catheter is the Hickman?

A

A tunnel type (inserted into the subclavian or internal jugular vein and advanced into the SVC or right atrium).

95
Q

Where is the entry and exit locations for the PICC?

A

The peripherally inserted central catheter is inserted into patient’s arm and advanced until the tip lies in central vein.

96
Q

What is the term used for information concerning a patient that has been leaked to individuals who do not need to know and the information was presented in such a way that the patient was subjected to ridicule, scorn or contempt or was injured in some way as through loss of a job or home?

A

Defamation

97
Q

Which type of oxygen device is considered the most common to deliver low concentrations of oxygen?

A

Nasal cannula

98
Q

What is the LPM range for nasal cannulas?

A

1 to 4 LPM (greater than 6 tends to dry out nasal passages).

99
Q

When taking a BP on a patient, one may hear extraneous sounds such as tapping, knocking or swishing. These sounds are known as?

A

Korotkoff sounds

100
Q

The result of an exaggerated hypersensitivity reaction is termed?

A

Anaphylaxis (allergic reaction)

101
Q

Where is the correct placement for an endotracheal tube?

A

5 to 7 cm above the tracheal bifurcation (carina)

102
Q

The body’s pathological reaction to illness, trauma or severe physiologic or emotional stress is known as?

-It may be caused by body fluid loss, cardiac failure, decreased blood vessel tone, or obstruction of blood flow to vital body organs.

A

Shock

103
Q

What type of medical situation is encountered when the patient has an excess amount of insulin in the blood stream?

A

Hypoglycemia

104
Q

What symptoms are displayed with hypoglycemia?

A
  • intense hunger
  • weakness
  • shaky
  • excessive sweating
  • confusion or irritability
105
Q

What type of medication prevents and treats nausea and vomiting?

A

Antiemetic (Compazine/Zofran)

106
Q

What are two other terms used for CVA (cerebral vascular accident)?

A

Stroke or brain attack

107
Q

What are the symptoms associated with a cerebral vascular accident?

A
  • Paralysis on one or both sides
  • Slurred or no speech
  • Extreme dizziness
  • Loss of vision
  • Severe headache
  • Temporary LOC
108
Q

What are the two most common NG tubes used and what is the difference between these two types?

A

Levin – single-lumen with holes near the tip

Sump – double-lumen tube with second opening that consists of a blue extension off the proximal end of the tube (remains outside and is called a “pigtail”)

109
Q

What are the three most commonly used NE tubes and which ones are single or double lumen?

A

Cantor – single lumen
Harris – single lumen
Miller-Abbott – double lumen

110
Q

What type of medication inhibits clotting of blood (thrombus formation)? Name one IV and oral type.

A

Anticoagulant

IV – Heparin/Lovenox
Oral – Coumadin

111
Q

What are NG tubes used for?

A
  • diagnostic exams
  • administration of feedings or medications
  • treat intestinal obstruction
  • control bleeding
112
Q

What are NE tubes used for?

A
  • decompression

- diagnosis and treatment purposes

113
Q

What type of medication acts on the CNS to produce a loss of sensation?
Name one general and local type.

A

Anesthetics

General – diprivan
Local – carbocaine

114
Q

What type of tube is placed from inside the stomach to the external abdominal wall for the purpose of feeding patients who cannot tolerate the oral intake of food?

A

Gastrostomy tube

115
Q

The term used for profuse sweating, heavy perspiration is known as?

A

Diaphoresis

116
Q

What four elements are needed to consider the radiographer was negligent?

A
  • Duty to the patient by the technologist
  • Breach of that duty
  • Compensable injury
  • Relationship between injury and duty
117
Q

What type of medication relieves pain without causing a loss of consciousness?

A

Analgesics – reduce pain, fever and inflammation in tissues

118
Q

What is a type of nonnarcotic analgesic?

A

Acetaminophen (Tylenol)

119
Q

What is a type of narcotic analgesic?

A

(Intense pain) – morphine, Demerol

(Less severe pain) – codeine, Percocet, oxycodone

120
Q

Another type of central venous catheter is called an __ ___.

This type of catheter is used for patients who have long-term illnesses that require frequent intravenous medications or transfusions.

A

Implanted port

121
Q

What type of medication is used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus?

A

Oral hypoglycemic drug (Glucophage – metformin)

122
Q

What is the term used for failure to use such care as a reasonable prudent person (healthcare worker) would use under like or similar circumstances?

A

Negligence

123
Q

What symptoms might be displayed by the patient if experiencing a possible fainting episode?

A
  • Dizziness
  • sweating
  • feeling warm or flushed
124
Q

What type of medication is used to dissolve clots?

A

Thrombolytic

125
Q

Speechless communication consists of?

A
  • Support or encouragement
  • Emphasis
  • Palpate
126
Q

The catheter from the implanted port is inserted into what vein?

A

Subclavian or internal jugular vein

127
Q

What is the normal systolic/diastolic pressure for an adult?

A

Systolic - less than 120 mm Hg

Diastolic - less than 80 mm Hg

128
Q

What can happen if an endotracheal tube is positioned too high within the trachea?

A

May cause air to enter the stomach and cause regurgitation with the possibility of aspiration pneumonia developing.

129
Q

What length of time is a mask good for?

A

15 minutes

130
Q

What are some conditions that may indicate a patient may need a chest tube?

A
  • Pneumothorax
  • Hemothorax
  • Pleural effusion
131
Q

What is the base of support?

A

The foundation on which the body rests.

132
Q

What type of stance should be used?

A

Wide/Narrow/Boxer’s stance

133
Q

What is the Patient Self-Determination Act (1990)?

A

Establishes guidelines concerning patients’ wishes when confronted with serious illness.

Patient’s desire if an illness cannot be cured or if the illness renders life without quality.

134
Q

What are the three most common postoperative tissue drains?

A
  • Penrose
  • Jackson-Pratt
  • Hemovac
135
Q

What is the most frequently used method for sterilization?

A

Moist heat - autoclave

136
Q

What is an autoclave?

A

Steam under pressure

137
Q

What drugs may be found on an emergency drug cart?

What are their purpose?

A
  • Dopamine
  • Epinephrine

Constricts blood vessels and stimulates the heart.
Used in cardiovascular, respiratory and allergic reactions.

138
Q

What is the name of a urinary catheter?

What concerns are there concerning the drainage bag?

A

Foley – double lumen tube with a small inflatable balloon

Transporting patient with bag

139
Q

What type of medication treats allergic disorders (acute & chronic)?

A

Antihistamines

  • Benadryl (sedating)
  • Claritin (nonsedating)
140
Q

If an endotracheal tube is inserted too far, what can happen?

A

It can enter the right bronchus (due to anatomical position) and cause the left lung to collapse (atelectasis).

141
Q

What does nitroglycerin do for the patient?

A
  • Relaxes the smooth muscle of both arteries and veins, short or long acting.
  • Used to treat sudden onset of angina pain
  • Long-acting patch to prevent or minimize angina
142
Q

What is it called when body temperature is elevated above normal limits?

A

Fever or pyrexia

143
Q

If a microorganism is known to produce a disease, it is called ____ ____ or a _____.

A
  • Pathogenic microorganism

- Pathogen

144
Q

NE are ____ and more ___ than NG tubes.

Are NE tubes used with suction?

A
  • thinner
  • flexible

NE tubes are not used for suction

145
Q

What are the signs that a patient may need to be suctioned?

A
  • Profuse vomiting in a patient who cannot voluntarily change positions.
  • Audible rattling or gurgling sounds coming from throat.
  • Signs of respiratory distress
146
Q

What questions should be asked of your patient?

A
  • Localization
  • Onset
  • Chronology
  • Quality
  • Aggravating/alleviating factors
  • Associated manifestations
147
Q

What is paralanguage?

A

Tone of voice, gestures, and facial expressions that accompany speech.

-Has to do with the sound of speech rather than the content.

148
Q

What are Maslow’s hierarchy of needs (basic)?

A
  • Physiologic needs
  • Safety and security
  • Belongingness and affection
  • Esteem and self-respect
  • Self-actualization
149
Q

What are the modes of thinking?

A
  • Recall
  • Habit
  • Inquiry
  • Creativity
150
Q

Critical thinking requires what?

A

Ability to:

  • interpret
  • Evaluate
  • Infer
  • Explain
  • Reflect
151
Q

Problem solving requires?

A
  • Data collection
  • Data analysis
  • Planning
  • Implementation
  • Evaluation
152
Q

What is included in a complete history?

A
  • Localization of problem
  • Chronology
  • Quality
  • Onset
  • Aggravating or alleviating factors
  • Associated manifestations
153
Q

What are the different learning styles?

A
  • Global vs Linear (big picture vs each component)
  • Visual
  • Auditory
  • Kinesthetic
154
Q

What does “full code” mean?

A
  • Full resuscitation

- AKA “Code Blue”

155
Q

What does DNR mean?

A

Do Not Resuscitate

156
Q

What does “no code” mean?

A

Same as DNR, patient is allowed to expire without emergency assistance.

157
Q

What are considered physiologic needs?

A

Needs that allow our bodies to function, i.e., food, water and air.

158
Q

What is rapport?

A

A sense of harmony or agreement

159
Q

Barriers to effective communication?

A
  • Rapid speech
  • Complex terms
  • Distracting environment
  • Language
  • Incomplete answers
  • Subjective interpretation
  • Disagreement
160
Q

What does DNI mean?

A

Do Not Intubate

161
Q

Who is the pediatric patient?

A

Infancy to 15 years

  • Neonates
  • Infants
  • Toddlers
  • Preschoolers
  • School age
162
Q

What do you need to know about infants (Birth to 1 year)?

A

-Use a steady, soothing voice
-Avoid loud stimuli
-Separation anxiety around 8 months
-Develop memories, ideas, and feelings
White coat syndrome

163
Q

What do you need to know about toddlers (1-3 years)?

A
  • Cannot understand more than 1 word for something
  • Concerned with what is happening at that moment
  • Separation from parents
  • Don’t like to be immobilized
  • White coat syndrome
164
Q

What do you need to know about preschoolers (3-5 years)?

A

-Not able to reason logically
-Do not understand cause and effect
-“Why?”
Must see, hear or touch to understand
-Must be actively involved with procedure
-Short attention span

165
Q

What do you need to know about school age children (5-10 years)?

A
  • Think logically and analyze situation (7 years)
  • Develop fears
  • Eager to please others
  • Want to perform task correctly
  • Modest and embarrass easily
166
Q

What do you need to know about adolescents?

A
  • Often expected to act like an adult
  • Image is everything
  • Need clear expectations
  • Distracting conversation
  • Respect privacy and right to make choices
  • Pregnancy question (at age 12)
167
Q

What is the approach for pediatric patients?

A
  • Greet with a smile and introduce yourself
  • Build rapport
  • Provide explanation
  • Face to face explanation
  • Use a soft tone of voice
  • One person to direct child
  • Offer praise to child
  • Make a suggestion rather than asking yes/no questions
  • Give options
  • Employ distraction techniques
  • Answer questions honestly
168
Q

What is the greatest danger to a premature infant?

A

Hypothermia

169
Q

What are the different types of immobilization for pediatric patients?

A
  • Sheet
  • Pigg-o-stat
  • Tam-em board, infantainer, baby board
  • Sandbags
  • Stockinette and ace bandages
  • Compression band, head clamp
170
Q

What is geriatrics?

A

Branch of medicine that deals with all aspects of aging, including pathological and social problems.

171
Q

Chronic conditions associated with people older than 65 years?

A
  • Arthritis
  • Hypertension
  • Hearing impairment
  • Heart disease
  • Cataracts
  • Deformity or orthopedic impairment
  • Chronic sinusitis
  • Diabetes
  • Visual impairment
  • Varicose veins
172
Q

Heart disease, cancer and strokes are the cause of ____ of deaths in persons over the age of 65.

A

80%

173
Q

What are the most common health complaints of the elderly?

A
  • Weight gain
  • Fatigue
  • Loss of bone mass
  • Joint stiffness
  • Loneliness
174
Q

__________ is the most frequent lung infection and a leading cause of death in the elderly.

A

Pneumonia

175
Q

Concerns with the integumentary system of the elderly?

A
  • Skin wrinkles
  • Skin becomes thin and fragile
  • Skin looks pale
  • Hair becomes thin and brittle
176
Q

Concerns with the head and neck areas of the elderly?

A
  • Loss of ability to focus on nearby objects
  • Hearing loss is common
  • Kyphosis
  • Sense of taste and smell decreases
  • adaptation from light to dark areas diminishes
177
Q

Concerns with the cardiovascular system of the elderly?

A
  • Most common cause of death worldwide
  • Heart rate during exercise decreases with age
  • Increase systolic BP
  • Decline in coronary blood flow
178
Q

Concerns with the pulmonary system of the elderly?

A
  • Lung capacity diminishes
  • Cough reflex is less effective
  • Normal respiratory defense mechanism is reduced
179
Q

Concerns with the GI system of the elderly?

A
  • Esophageal and gastric motility declines
  • Dentures need to be removed
  • Loss of sphincter control
180
Q

Concerns with the musculoskeletal system of the elderly?

A
  • Bone mass is reduced resulting in weaker bones
  • Muscle strength is decreased
  • Difficulty maintaining positions for procedures
181
Q

Concerns with the urinary system of the elderly?

A
  • Changes in bladder capacity
  • Enlarged prostate
  • Prostate cancer is the 3rd most common cause of cancer death in men
182
Q

Concerns with the neurological system of the elderly?

A
  • Process info and directions more slowly

- Visual problems

183
Q

What is pathogenicity?

A

Ability to cause disease

184
Q

What is a parasite?

A

Organisms that live on or in other organisms at the expense of the host organ.

185
Q

What is a virus?

A

Smallest microorganism to produce disease, dependent on host cell.

186
Q

What is the definition of disinfection?

A

The removal of pathogenic microorganisms from objects or body surfaces.

187
Q

What are the two tiers of Standard Precautions?

A

Tier 1: Standard Precautions

Tier 2: Transmission Based Precautions

188
Q

When standing, the center of gravity is at the center of the _________.

A

Pelvis

189
Q

_____ rather than ______ a heavy object or person.

A

Pull, Push

190
Q

Types of immobilizers for adults

A
  • Limb holders or four-point restraints
  • Ankle or wrist immobilizers
  • Immobilizing vest
  • Waist immobilizers
191
Q

T/F, the edges of a draped sterile table are sterile.

A

False, the sterile field ends at the level of the tabletop or at the waist of the sterile person’s gown.

192
Q

T/F, the waist to the shoulders in front and the sleeves from 2” above the elbow are sterile on a gown.

A

True

193
Q

Most accurate body temperature is taken where?

A

Rectal

194
Q

Another name for vital signs is?

A

Cardinal signs

195
Q

What is Cheyne-Stokes respiration?

A

Difficulty breathing (dyspnea) followed by inability to breathe (apnea).

196
Q

The rate of respiration to heartbeat is ___:___.

A

1:4

197
Q

What is hypoxemia?

A

Decreased oxygen concentration in the blood

198
Q

What is hypoxia?

A

Reduction of oxygen supply to tissue

199
Q

What is hypercapnia?

A

Carbon dioxide is retained in the arterial blood

200
Q

What is an emergency?

A

Any situation in which the condition of a patient or a sudden change in medical status necessitates immediate attention or action.

201
Q

What does the Glasgow Coma scale assess?

A
  • Eyes open
  • Motor response
  • Verbal response
202
Q

What is the definition of shock?

A

A failure of the circulatory system to support vital body functions.

203
Q

What are the different classes of shock?

A
  • Neurogenic: caused by damage to spinal cord
  • Hypovolemic: caused by loss of blood or tissue fluid
  • Cardiogenic: caused by cardiac disorders
  • Vasogenic: caused by sepsis, anaphylaxis or deep anesthesia
204
Q

What is hypoglycemia?

A

Excessive insulin is present (low blood sugar)

205
Q

What is hyperglycemia?

A

Excessive sugar in blood

206
Q

What is the difference between a generalized seizure and a focal or partial seizure?

A

Generalized affects both sides of the brain, while a focal or partial affects only one side of the brain.

207
Q

What is vertigo?

A

Dizziness

208
Q

Other names for central venous lines?

A

Hickman or Groshong

209
Q

Pulmonary arterial (PA) catheters are also called?

A

Swan-Ganz catheters

210
Q

After a drug has been administered it is called a _____________.

A

Medication

211
Q

How are drug names classified?

A
  • Chemical name: identifies actual chemical structure of drug
  • Generic name: given to drug before its official approval for use
  • Brand name: given to drug manufactured by a specific company
212
Q

Different types of drug forms are?

A
  • Tablet
  • Capsule
  • Inhalant
  • Suppository
  • Solution
  • Suspension
  • Transdermal patches
213
Q

What are the different routes of drugs?

A
  • Oral
  • Sublingual
  • Topical
  • Parenteral
214
Q

What is osmolality?

A

Weight of the ion

215
Q

T/F, Nonionic contrast have a higher osmolality.

A

False, nonionic contrast has an osmolality closer to human plasma.

216
Q

Parts of a syringe include?

A
  • Needle
  • Barrel
  • Plunger
217
Q

Difference between an ampule and a vial?

A

Ampule is single dose while a vial is multiple doses within one.

Patient Care Review (1 decks)

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