Pediatric GU Flashcards
(141 cards)
- A female newborn is found to have a sacral mass. On MR this is lobulated with well-defined margins and heterogeneous SI on T1 with high, intermediate and low SI areas. It is a predominantly eternal lesion, covered by skin with only minimal presacral component. Which is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Myelomeningocele
B. Sacrococcygeal teratoma
C. Rectal duplication cysts
D. Haemangioma
E. Lymphoma
B. Sacrococcygeal teratoma
Fat, soft tissue and calcification cause the heterogeneous SI on T1. This is the most common solid tumour in the
newborn, more common in females.
@# (CNS) 11. Which is the most prevalent intraventricular tumour?
A. Meningioma
B. Choroid plexus paplilloma
C. Astrocytoma
D. Dermoid
E. Subependymoma
C. Astrocytoma
Ependymomas followed by astrocytoma are the most common.
- Regarding neuroblastomas:
A. Produces catecholamines in all cases
B. Are most common in 5-10 years
C. Have a better prognosis in a younger child
D. The most common site following the adrenals is the neck
E. Esthesioneuroblastoma is a very malignant tumour arising from olfactory mucosa
E. Esthesioneuroblastoma is a very malignant tumour arising from olfactory mucosa
Neuroblastomas produce catecholamines in 95% of cases.
The peak age of diagnosis is < 3 and there is a better prognosis in older children.
The most common site is adrenals, followed by chest, followed by neck.
- An 8-month-old has a neuroblastoma in the right adrenal with metastatic spread to the liver, bone marrow and skin. What stage of disease does he have?
A. Stage 2B
B. 3
C. 2A
D. 4
E. 4S
E. 4S
Stage 4S applies to infants who demonstrate a tumor on one side of the body, as seen in Stages 1 and 2, but also have affected liver, skin, and/or bone marrow.
Stage 4 involves distant lymph nodes and bone with or without bone marrow/ liver/other organs.
- Currarinos triad is a rare association of anomalies including anorectal malformations, lumbrosacral anomalies and which of the following?
A. Meconium ileus
B. Presacral mass
C. Ileal atresia
D. Hirshsprungs
E. Cloacal extrophy
B. Presacral mass
This may be teratoma, anterior meningocele or enteric cyst.
- Regarding imaging of duplicated kidneys:
A. Micturating Cystourethroram (MCUG) shows reflux into the upper pole
B. Duplicated kidneys tend to be smaller
C. Duplex kidneys may have more than 1 renal artery and vein
D. US shows dilatation of the lower pole calyx with a normal upper pole
E. A band of medulla crosses the cortex of the kidney onUS
C. Duplex kidneys may have more than 1 renal artery and vein
In cases of duplicated kidneys, MCUG shows reflux into the lower pole.
Duplicated kidneys tend to be larger and US shows dilatation of the upper pole calyx and a normal lower pole.
A band of cortex can be seen to cross the medulla.
- Regarding posterior urethral valves:
A. Are seen equally on males and females
B. Associated with antenatal polyhydramnios
C. Gradual change in calibre occurs in the posterior urethra
D. Are associated with a smooth walled urinary bladder
E. Are associated with vesicoureteric reflux
E. Are associated with vesicoureteric reflux
Occurs in boys. Associated with oligohydramnios, an abrupt change in calibre of the posterior urethra and a
trabeculated urinary bladder wall.
- Neonatal ultrasound shows kidneys whch are enlarged bilaterally hyperechoic with loss of normal corticomedullary differentiation. Cysts are noted which are less than 1cm. There are focal rosettes of radially oriented
dilated collecting tubules. What is the diagnosis?
A. Autosomal Recessive Polycistic Kidney Disease (ARPKD)
B. Autosomal Dominant Polycistic Kidney Disease (ADPKD)
C. Asymmetrical large renal cysts
D. Tuberous sclerosis
E. Multicystic Dysplastic Kidney (MCDK)
A. Autosomal Recessive Polycistic Kidney Disease (ARPKD)
ADPKD have normal renal echogenicity. Small cyst may not be immediately identified on ultrasound.
@# 46. Which of the following are common features in mesoblastic nephroma?
A. Cystic areas of necrosis
B. Areas of haemorrhage
C. Calcification
D. Invasion of vessels
E. Polyhydramnios in pregnancy
E. Polyhydramnios in pregnancy
Cystic areas of necrosis, areas of haemorrhage and calcification are uncommon.
@# 47. Nephroblastomatosis, Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome, chromosome 11 abnormalities and trisomy 18 are all associations of which of the following?
A. Autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease
B. Neuroblastoma
C. Nephroblastomatosis
D. Wilms’ tumour
E. Multilocular cystic nephroma
D. Wilms’ tumour
These are all known associations of Wilm’s tumor
- A female infant is found to have a pelvic mass. She is systemically well. US shows a well-defined fluid-filled
cavity between the bladder and rectum with some debris but no increased vascularity. There is uterine distension
and echogenic debris within the vagina. Hydronephrosis is noted. Which is the diagnosis?
A. Pelvic abscess
B. Hydrometocolpos
C. Ovarian tumour
D. Fallopian tube torsion
E. Sacrococcygeal teratoma
B. Hydrometocolpos
MR shows mixed SI on T1 & T2 due to blood products and may be associated with uterine and cervical anomalies.
- Which of the following is a feature of neuroblastoma?
A. Large hypoechoic mass arising the suprarenal region
B. Calcification in most cases on CT
C. No increased vascularity
D. Echogenic liver lesions
E. Vascular invasion
A. Large hypoechoic mass arising the suprarenal region
Low attenuation metastatic liver lesion are echogenic on US. May have lytic/sclerotic or mixed bone metastases,
increased vascularity and vascular encasement.
@# 50. A child with Wilms’ tumour has exomphalos, macroglossia, gigantism and hepatomegaly. Which is the diagnosis?
A. Hemihypertrophy
B. Drash syndrome
C. Beckwith-Wiedemann
D. Trisomy 18
E. Trisomy 21
C. Beckwith-Wiedemann
A, B and C are all associations of Wilm’s tumour. 10-20% of patients with Beckwith-Wiedemann develop
Wilm’s tumour.
4) A 3-year-old child with aniridia is found to have a palpable abdominal mass. The mass is shown to arise from
a kidney and to contain cystic elements on ultrasound scan. No calcification is seen in the tumour on CT. Which
of the following diagnoses is the most likely?
a. renal cell carcinoma
b. neuroblastoma
c. angiomyolipoma
d. Wilms’ tumour
e. ossifying renal tumour of infancy
d. Wilms’ tumour
Wilms’ tumour is the commonest renal tumour of childhood. Seventyfive per cent occur in children under 5 years,
5–10% are bilateral and 10% are multifocal. Calcification is seen in less than 15%. Nephroblastomatosis is a
precursor, and the disease is associated with the WT1 and WT2 genes of chromosome 11. The WT1 abnormal
gene is found in the WAGR syndrome of Wilms’ tumour, aniridia, genitourinary abnormalities and learning
disability. It is also found in the DRASH syndrome of male pseudohermaphroditism and progressive
glomerulonephritis. The abnormal WT2 gene is found with the Beckwith–Wiedemann syndrome and
hemihypertrophy.
9) A baby boy is investigated for renal failure. The imaging findings are of bladder distension and a posterior
urethral valve, ureters measuring 10 mm in diameter bilaterally, undescended testes and widely separated
abdominal rectus muscles. What is the most likely diagnosis?
a. prune-belly syndrome
b. primary vesicoureteric reflux
c. developmental aperistalsis of the distal ureter
d. neuropathic bladder
e. ureterocele
a. prune-belly syndrome
(a) to (e) are all causes of a megaureter – that is, a ureter over 7 mm in diameter. The hallmark of prune-belly
syndrome is a distended bladder, and it is associated with posterior urethral valves. Bladder distension causes the
triad of widely spaced abdominal rectus muscles, hydroureteronephrosis and cryptorchidism. The last occurs
because the large bladder interferes with testicular descent.
24) Abdominal ultrasound is performed on a neonate on the highdependency unit to investigate a palpable mass.
A heterogeneous avascular suprarenal mass is identified. Cystic change and a peripheral hyperechoic rim develop
over a series of scans. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the abdominal mass?
a. nephroblastoma
b. neuroblastoma
c. adrenal haematoma
d. phaeochromocytoma
e. myolipoma
c. adrenal haematoma
Adrenal haemorrhage is not only the commonest cause of neonatal adrenal mass, but is also more likely to be seen in neonates in a high-dependency unit because it is associated with perinatal stress, hypoxia, septicaemia and hypotension. It can be unilateral or bilateral, but, even when bilateral, it does not usually cause adrenal insufficiency. Initially, the haematoma appears as an avascular heterogeneous mass on ultrasound scan that becomes cystic and smaller over a period of weeks.
A hyperechoic rim can form, representing peripheral calcification. Haematomas can become infected, resulting
in an abscess.
Neuroblastoma is the main differential diagnosis; on ultrasound scan, it appears as a hyperechoic
mass that can have internal flecks of calcification. Repeat ultrasound scan at 1 week will not show the changes that haematoma undergoes.
28) A 5-year-old boy has recurrent urinary tract infection. A micturating cystourethrogram is performed, during
which contrast from the bladder enters both ureters and reaches the pelvis and calyces bilaterally without any
urinary tract dilatation. Of what grade is this vesicoureteric reflux?
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
e. V
b. II
The international grading system for vesicoureteric reflux divides reflux into five classes. Grade I describes reflux
into the ureter only, with grade II referring to reflux into the pelvicalyceal system without calyceal dilatation or
blunting. Grade III reflux is associated with mild pelvicalyceal and ureteric dilatation, though forniceal angles
remain distinct. Grade IV is associated with a tortuous ureter and moderate dilatation of the pelvicalyceal system,
with blunting of the forniceal angles. Grade V reflux describes grossly dilated tortuous ureters with marked
pelvicalyceal dilatation and obliteration of the forniceal angles.
36) A 1-month-old girl has liquid discharge from the umbilicus. Which of the following provides a suitable
explanation?
a. vesicourachal diverticulum
b. urachal cyst
c. patent urachus
d. bladder exstrophy–epispadias complex
e. cloacal exstrophy
c. patent urachus
Embryologically, the cloaca is divided by the urorectal septum into a dorsal part that develops into the rectum
and a ventral part that gives rise to the allantois, bladder and urogenital sinus. The wolffian and mu¨llerian ducts
drain into the ventral cloaca. The allantois becomes the urachus, which is the umbilical attachment of the bladder.
Ordinarily, this atrophies to become the umbilical ligament. If it remains patent throughout its entire length, urine
can drain via the umbilicus. A urachal sinus and a vesicourachal diverticulum describe patent portions of the
urachus at the umbilical and bladder ends respectively.
34) Ultrasound scan of the abdomen of a newborn girl reveals an abdominopelvic cyst. It is thin walled and
anechoic, and has a ‘daughter cyst’. Of the following which is the most likely diagnosis?
a. Wilms’ tumour
b. ovarian cyst
c. cystic lymphatic malformation
d. choledochal cyst
e. cystic teratoma
b. ovarian cyst
Ovarian cysts in the newborn are more common than enteric duplication cysts, giant meconium pseudocysts,cystic lymphatic malformations or choledochal cysts. Other rarer causes of intraabdominal cystic structures in the newborn include cystic teratomas, gastric teratomas, cystic granulosa cell tumour of the ovary, ovarian teratomas and cystadenomas. Ovarian cysts may become echogenic due to the haemorrhage that can occur if they tort (twist).
These cysts also have associated normal ovarian tissue, and the daughter cyst represents a follicle along the wall.
Wilms’ tumours are solid and occur later in life.
A giant meconium pseudocyst has a thick echogenic wall, and viscous echogenic contents. It is formed by meconium leak following fetal bowel perforation due to intestinal obstruction in meconium ileus, ileal atresia or volvulus. Twenty-five per cent show peritoneal or cyst calcification,which is pathognomonic for meconium pseudocyst. Bowel obstruction may be present also.
Cystic lymphatic malformations appear as large, well-circumscribed, cystic, thin-walled structures with multiple thin septa. Internally, the fluid can be echo free or echoic because of haemorrhage, debris, chyle or infection. Mesenteric,omental or retroperitoneal cysts are seen.
Choledochal cysts are subhepatic or in the porta hepatis. They are seen separate from the gallbladder and are round, tubular or teardrop shaped, and connected to the biliary tree.
41) At a 20-week, antenatal ultrasound scan, a fetus has a renal pelvis diameter measured at 7 mm unilaterally.
When the scan is repeated at 35 weeks, the renal pelvis measures 12 mm. Which of the following is the most
appropriate follow-up for the neonate?
a. discharge
b. ultrasound scan at 6 weeks
c. ultrasound scan within 24 hours of birth
d. micturating cystourethrogram soon after birth
e. 99mTc-labelled DMSA scan soon after birth
c. ultrasound scan within 24 hours of birth
Pyelectasis can be regarded as a renal pelvis diameter greater than 4– 5 mm at 20 weeks’ gestation or 7 mm at 33
weeks, or above 10 mm at birth. Local protocol varies as to which fetuses to follow up and how. Some centres
perform an ultrasound scan on all neonates who have had a renal pelvis diameter of above 5 mm at any point;
others may only investigate if there is a renal pelvis above 10 mm persisting to birth. Ultrasound scan soon after
birth, however, is the best way of detecting severe obstructive pathology, such as posterior urethral valves, that
may warrant rapid surgical intervention. On this scan, if there is persisting dilatation above 10 mm, antibiotic
prophylaxis and micturating cystourethrogram (MCUG) are appropriate. If reflux is seen on the MCUG, DMSA
and repeat ultrasound scan at 6 weeks are appropriate. DMSA is used to assess parenchyma for scarring. If no
reflux is seen, MAG3 scan within 6 weeks is suggested to look for obstruction. If the renal pelvis diameter is less
than 10 mm within 24 hours of birth, followup ultrasound scan 6 weeks later is suggested.
54) A 12-year-old boy is investigated for abdominal pain. On ultrasound scan, there are large, echo-free, septated,
cystic collections around both kidneys causing scalloping of the renal outline. On CT, these collections are close
to water density. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
a. renal lymphangiectasia
b. bilateral Wilms’ tumours
c. bilateral adrenal neuroblastoma
d. bilateral hydronephrosis
e. medullary sponge kidney
a. renal lymphangiectasia
Renal lymphangiectasia is a very rare developmental malformation probably caused by a failure of the developing
kidney lymphatics to establish communication with the extrarenal lymphatic system. Abnormal lymphatic
channels dilate, resulting in cystic lesions in the parapelvic, perinephric and, less commonly, retroperitoneal
regions. The lesions are of water attenuate
@# 55) A 15-year-old female, whose father had progressive renal failure, presents with anaemia, polyuria and
haematuria. On ultrasound scan, her kidneys are small and smooth. Which associated finding is most likely?
a. pancreatic cysts
b. posterior fossa haemangioblastoma
c. cystocele
d. nerve deafness
e. hypertension
d. nerve deafness
Alport’s syndrome or chronic hereditary nephritis is the unifying diagnosis. It is inherited, probably in an
autosomal dominant fashion. Ocular abnormalities can also occur, including congenital cataracts, nystagmus, myopia and spherophakia. Hypertension is not a feature. The renal impairment is progressive in affected males
but non-progressive in females.
Cerebellar and retinal haemangioblastomas occur in von Hippel–Lindau syndrome, along with renal, pancreatic and adrenal cysts.
75) Which of the following features on ultrasound scan is most suggestive of a horseshoe kidney?
a. unilateral upper pole calyx dilatation
b. unilateral lower pole calyx dilatation
c. bilateral upper pole calyx dilatation
d. laterally oriented renal long axis
e. medially oriented renal long axis
e. medially oriented renal long axis
Ninety per cent of horseshoe kidneys are joined at the lower poles by a parenchymal or fibrous isthmus. The
isthmus lies at the L4–5 level, where renal ascent is arrested by the inferior mesenteric artery. The pelves and
ureters are anterior, and pelviureteric junction obstruction is more common. Incidence is 1–4/1000 births, making
it the commonest renal fusion abnormality. Cardiovascular, skeletal, central nervous system, anorectal and
genitourinary malformations are associated. There are associations with trisomy 18 and Turner’s syndrome.
Associated genitourinary anomalies include hypospadias, undescended testes, bicornuate uterus and ureteral
duplication. The incidence of infection and stones increases in a horseshoe kidney.
(GU) 77) On an antenatal ultrasound scan, unilateral fetal ureteric dilatation is identified. Follow-up imaging
after birth reveals persistent dilatation of a non-tortuous ureter that is aperistaltic in its distal segment. There are
no other associated urogenital anomalies. Which of the following is the most appropriate diagnosis?
a. prune-belly syndrome
b. primary vesicoureteric reflux
c. primary megaureter
d. neuropathic bladder
e. ureterocele
c. primary megaureter
The primary megaureter occurs because of developmental aperistalsis of the distal ureter. The ureter tends to be
dilated but straight in a congenital primary megaureter. Primary vesicoureteric reflux and obstructive secondary
megaureter tend to cause tortuous ureteric dilatation