PEDs Exam 2 Flashcards

(86 cards)

1
Q

what makes up hemoglobin A

A

two polypeptide alpha chains
two polypeptide beta chains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what makes up hemoglobin F

A

two alpha chains
two gamma chains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

where is the binding site for 2,3-DPG

A

on the beta chain which is absent in fetal hemoglobin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is the hgb of term neonate

A

17g/dL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

HgbF replaced with Hgb A

A

8-12 weks
10g/dL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what ps P50 at term

A

19mmhg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is P50 at 6 months

A

27mmhg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

infants with RDS ____with adult blood transfusion

A

improve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

hgb begins to increase at

A

around 4 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

neonate has physiological anemia due to what

A

decrease in erythropoietin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

signs of anemia of prematurity

A

tachycardia
bradycardia
apnea
delayed growth
poor weight gain
prolonged anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

where is ABO locus encoded

A

chromosome 9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is the most important Rh antigen

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

individuals with Rh D antigen are considered

A

Rh positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what happens when you give Rh- Rh+ blood

A

produce IgG antibodies against D antigen

hemolysis of transfused RBC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Rh is autosomal

A

dominant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

when do Rh - mothers get the RhoGAM shot

A

26-28 weeks
also within 72 hrs after delivery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

maternal IgG is present in infants less than

A

4 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what type of blood do you transfused for all newborns

A

type O-
or
utilize ABO and RH D compatible blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what should you test infant serum for

A

maternal anti A and Ant B alloantibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what clotting factors are in FFP

A

2
7
8
9
10
11

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what clotting factors are in PCC

A

2 7 9 10 12
protein C
protein S

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what factors are in cryo

A

fibrinogen
vWF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Whole blood is best, BUT:

A

Stored blood: Factors 5 and 8 depleted and PLT lose shape
Fresh whole blood is best

Use whole blood for exchange transfusion, after CPB, ECMO, massive transfusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
10 mL/kg of pRBCs in CPDA-1 increases the hemoglobin
by 3g/dl
26
PRBC characteristics
Stores with CPDA-1 or Adsol (AS) 250-300ml 60% Hct Storage 35-42 days Days 10 mL/kg of pRBCs in CPDA-1 increases the hemoglobin by 3 g/dL 15 mL/kg is required to attain the same increment in hemoglobin when using pRBCs stored in AS
27
3 Accepted Indications for PRBC
To increase oxygen-carrying capacity To avoid an impending inadequate oxygen-carrying state Suppress the production or dilute the amount of endogenous hemoglobin in selected patients with thalassemia or sickle cell disease
28
guidelines for transfusion less than 4 months
29
when are transfusions rarely and almost always indicated
rarely hgb>10g/Dl almost always Hgb <6
30
allowable blood loss calculation
Hi = Pt’s Initial Hematocrit Hp = Minimal accepted Hct (depends on condition) Average ~ 24% Hav = Average of Hi & Hp Allowable blood loss = EBV × (Hi – Hp)/Hav
31
estimated blood volume for premature infants
90-100 ml/kg
32
estimated blood volume for term newborns
80-90 ml/kg
33
estimated blood volume for infants <1 year old
75-80 ml/kg
34
estimated blood volume for older children
70-75ml/kg
35
whats the equation for volume of PRBC to administer
36
what are characteristics of cyanotic congenital heart disease
Require a higher oxygen-carrying capacity Polycythemia develops Historically – maintain Hgb of 13 to 18 g/dL
37
list transfusion complications
viral infections (HIV HCV, fatal hemolysis) bacterial infections hyperkalemia TRALI
38
what decreases risk of TRALI
male only FFP donors
39
S/S of TRALI
ARDS – dyspnea, hypoxia, pulmonary edema, onset 4-6 hours after transfusion
40
what is treatment for TRALI
supportive care
41
what qualifies as a massive transfusion
more than one blood volume in a 24 hr period 50% blood volume in 3 hrs 10% of blood volume every 10 min
42
massive transfusion complication chart
43
what are some techniques to reduce blood transfusions
Autologous blood transfusion Acute Normovolemic Hemodilution Deliberate Hypotension TXA
44
which hemostatic factors are decreased in neonates
2,7,9,10,11,12, plasminogen, TFPI AT PC PS
45
which hemostatic factors are increased in neonates
increased vWF, 8 alpha2m,
46
what does vWF do
platelet adhesion to injured blood vessels by bridging exposed collagen to activated platelets Aids platelet aggregation in conjunction with fibrinogen through interactions with platelet GPIIb/IIIa surface receptor Carrier protein for Factor 8 (protects it from activated protein C)
47
what are S/S of Von Willebrand disease
easy bruising petechia nose bleeds low factor 8
48
type 1 Von Willebrand disease
mild-mod Quantitative decrease TX: DDAVP – stimulates release of vWF from storage sites Repeated use  tachyphylaxis, hyponatremia, volume overload
49
type 2 von willebrand disease
qualitative abnormal vWF (20% of cases)
50
type 3 von willebrand disease
severe Quantitative decrease TX: increase levels of vWF & factor 8 Virally inactivated plasma-derived vWF concentrates (with or without FVIII) or recombinant vWF may be required.
51
what do labs look like for hemophilia
Isolated prolongation of the aPTT, normal PT, thrombin time, platelet count, and bleeding time
52
treatment for hemophilia
raise F8 or F9 with concentrated factors DDAVP for F8 short term
53
what is the most common reason for thrombocytopenia in childhood
idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura (ITP)
54
lifespan of ITP platelets
few hrs
55
how do you treat ITP
observation alone in children presenting with no bleeding or mild bleeding w/ vigilance for severe bleeding Severe bleeding: emergent transfusion, possible splenectomy
56
diagnosis of ITP
platelet count of less than 100 × 109/L without concurrent leukopenia or anemia.
57
what is Glucose-6-Phosphate Dehydrogenase Deficiency
Most common human enzyme deficiency Causes acute hemolysis in the presence of various oxidative stressors Fava beans, methylene blue, nitrofurantoin Forms Heinz bodies -> lysis of RBC -> jaundice and anemia
58
what is the gold standard test for Glucose-6-Phosphate Dehydrogenase Deficiency
quantitative spectrophotometric assay of G6PD activity Don’t test during acute hemolysis episode – test 2 months later
59
how do you treat patients with G6PD
Avoidance of the agents known to trigger hemolysis is of paramount importance like: Hydralazine, Procainamide, Methylene blue, ASA, Sulfa drugs Fortunately, narcotics, benzodiazepines, propofol, and ketamine are safe to use in these patients
60
s/s of G6PD
neonatal jaundice, acute hemolytic anemia, chronic nonspherocytic hemolytic anemia
61
alpha thalassemia
Alpha-trait (2 genes) – asymptomatic with mild microcytic, hypochromic anemia alpha thalassemia intermedia ( 3 genes affected) & Major (4 genes) Bart’s hemoglobin – 4 gamma chains (high affinity for O2) ->hydrops fetalis and intrauterine death
62
beta thalassemia
One Gene = silent carrier beta thalassemia intermedia = mild to moderate reduction in beta globin chain beta thalassemia major, or “Cooley’s anemia” – SEVERE reduction beta globin chain Presents between 6 and 24 months of life with pallor, jaundice, growth retardation, and hepatosplenomegaly and can be fatal if untreated Bony deformities in the face 2/2 ineffective erythropoiesis
63
what is the anesthesia management for thalassemia
Consider face deformities Osteoporosis Hyperdynamic circulation Cardiac dysfunction Hepatic disease Pulmonary hypertension Thrombosis risk (anticoagulants precribed?)
64
what is the most coomon inherited RBC disorder
sickle cell anemia
65
sickle cell anemia traits
HbS results from substitution of valine for glutamic acid at the 6th position Sickle Cell Anemia = Homozygous = produce only HbS
66
s/s of sickle cell anemia
Hemolysis and recurrent vasoocclusive episodes that cause severe pain (“crises”) and lead to progressive organ dysfunction Emotional stress, pain, infection, surgical stress ->increased vasocclusive disease, constriction, RBC trapping -> Ischemia/Infection
67
lifespan of Sickle cell anemia RBC
10-12 days which results in anemia
68
what procedure does sickle cell patients often need
lap chole
69
sickle cell acute splenic sequestration
Age 1 – 4 Traps RBC in splenic sinusoids ->severe anemia, hypovolemia, shock Tx: aggressive fluids, RBC, splenectomy Splenic involution is complete by 5 years of age
70
what is the leading complications in SCD
Pulmonary and neurologic complications are the leading causes of morbidity and mortality in individuals with SCD
71
acute chest syndrome
New pulmonary infiltrate involving at least one complete lung segment on chest x-ray and is the leading cause of death in patients with SCD
72
acute chest syndrome triggers
infection, fat embolism from bone marrow infarction, pulmonary infarction, and surgery-induced stress
73
s/s of acute chest syndrome
Chest pain, fever, tachypnea, wheezing, coughing, and hypoxemia Tx: broad-spectrum antibiotics, supplemental oxygen, adequate analgesia, bronchodilators, and incentive spirometry
74
treatment for acute chest syndrome
APAP NSAIDS steroids opioids psychotropics regional anesthesia
75
indications for SCD transfusion
correction of a preexisting anemia dilution of hemoglobin S concentration (to less than 30%)
76
Intraoperative Management of Coagulopathies
Whole blood PRBC FFP Cryoprecipitate Concentrated factors Others: TXA
77
FFP facts
Must be frozen within 8 hours of collection to preserve labile coagulation factors V and VIII Must be transfused within 24 hours after thawing 20 mL/kg of FFP will replace approximately 50% of most coagulation factors
78
what is in FFP
Contain all of the clotting factors, fibrinogen (400 to 900 mg/unit), plasma proteins (particularly albumin), electrolytes, physiological anticoagulants (protein C, protein S, antithrombin, tissue factor pathway inhibitor) and added anticoagulants
79
cryo facts
controlled thawing of FFP to 1° to 6° C to precipitate and extract the high molecular weight proteins Each unit of cryoprecipitate has a minimum of 80 IU of FVIII activity and 15 g/L of fibrinogen One unit of cryoprecipitate is transfused per 5 kilograms of weight and should increase a child’s fibrinogen by approximately 100 mg/dL
80
One platelet concentrate per 10 kg of body weight will increase the platelet count by
approximately 50 × 109/L.
81
random donor platelet replacement for neonates
5-10 ml/kg
82
random donor platelet replacement for older infants
0.1-0.2 units/kg
83
single donor platelet replacement for neonates
10ml/kg
84
single donor platelet replacement for children
less than 15kg= 1/4 unit 15-30kg =1/2 unit over 30kg = whole unit
85
DDAVP facts
Synthetic analogue of the posterior pituitary hormone – AVP Little effect on blood pressure (unlike vasopressin) Does NOT stimulate ACTH release like AVP Acts primarily at the renal collecting duct to limit the amount of water eliminated in the urine Preferred treatment for patients with type 1 von Willebrand disease. Increases circulating levels of procoagulant factor VIII : C and vWF
86